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PAPER-III

SOCIAL MEDICINE & COMMUNITY HEALTH


Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________

OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................


(To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________

81

1 2

Time : 2 /2 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an
open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the
Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra
time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below
on the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to
disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

J-81-12

Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)

Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75

1.
2. -
3. , -
-
, :
(i) -
-

(ii) -

/


-

-

(iii) OMR -

4. (A), (B), (C) (D)


:
(C)
5. OMR
OMR
,

6.
7. (Rough Work)
8. OMR ,
,
, ,
,

9. - OMR


OMR

10. /
11. ()

12.
1
P.T.O.

SOCIAL MEDICINE & COMMUNITY HEALTH


Paper III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks
each. All questions are compulsory.
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

All diseases are included in


internationally notifiable diseases
except
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Cholera
(C) Plague
(D) Yellow fever
First country to socialize medicine
completely rows
(A) Hungary
(B) Britain
(C) Russia
(D) Germany
Efficiency of measles vaccine is
(A) 55%
(B) 75%
(C) 85%
(D) 95%
Restoration function is
(A) Medical rehabilitation
(B) Vocational Rehabilitation
(C) Social rehabilitation
(D) Psychological rehabilitation
Sex ratio is defined as
(A) Number of males per 1000
females
(B) Number of females per 1000
males
(C) Number of females per 100
males
(D) Number of males per 100
females

Paper-III

6.

Antiserum are prepared from


(A) Guinea pig
(B) Rabbit
(C) Rat
(D) Horse

7.

Incidence in exposed is = 10,


Incidence in non-exposed is = 5.
Relative risk is
(A) 50
(B) 0.5
(C) 5
(D) 2

8.

Epidemiological triad contains all


except
(A) Agent
(B) Environment
(C) Host
(D) Man power

9.

Sentinel Surveillance, is done for


identifying.
(A) Missed cases
(B) Subclinical cases
(C) Index cases
(D) Prodromal infection cases

10.

Disease rate is
(A) Risk of susceptibility
(B) Usually expressed as percentage
(C) Time period in calendar year
(D) Disease occurrence in a
specified time period

11.

Herd immunity is important in all


except
(A) Polio
(B) Measles
(C) Tetanus
(D) Diphtheria
J-81-12


:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

(75)

III
-


,
?
(A)
(B)
(C) ()
(D)

6.

7.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

8.


(A) 55%
(B) 75%
(C) 85%
(D) 95%

9.

:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

10.


:
(A) 1000

(B) 1000

(C) 100

(D) 100

J-81-12

11.

(2)

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
= 10,
= 5
:
(A) 50
(B) 0.5
(C) 5
(D) 2

:
(A) ()
(B) ()
(C) ()
(D) ( )

?
(A)
(B)
(C) ( )
(D)
:
(A)
(B) :

(C)
(D)
( )
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Paper-III

12.

All
prevents
maternal
transmission of HIV except
(A) Lamuvidine
(B) Amantadine
(C) Zidovidine
(D) Zalicitabane

fetal

18.

Strawberry tongue followed by


raspberry tongue is characteristic
of
(A) Mumps
(B) Measles
(C) Chickenpox
(D) Scarlet fever

13.

Which of the following is not a


killed vaccine ?
(A) DPT
(B) OPV
(C) Hepatitis B
(D) Rabies

19.

The last case of smallpox is reported


in the world
(A) 1977
(B) 1978
(C) 1879
(D) 1982

20.

Which of the following statements is


true about a confounding factor :
(A) It, is associated with both
exposure and disease.
(B) It is distributed equally in both
study and control groups.
(C) It is not a risk factor for the
disease.
(D) It is present only in the control
group and not study group.

21.

Which of the following is the most


powerful disinfectants ?
(A) Phenol
(B) Lysol
(C) Dettol
(D) Potassium permanganate

22.

Quarantine is
(A) Infected period
(B) Generation time
(C) Shortest incubation period
(D) Longest incubation period

23.

Sensitivity is the ability of a test to


correctly identify all
(A) True negatives
(B) True positives
(C) False negatives
(D) False positives

14.

A freshly prepared oral dehydration


solution should not be used after
(A) 8 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 24 hours
(D) 36 hours

15.

Milk transmits all except


(A) Endemic typhus
(B) Q fever
(C) Typhoid fever
(D) Brucellosis

16.

17.

In India Rabies free zone is


(A) Goa
(B) Sikkim
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Nagaland
Which is most dangerous
transmitting plague ?
(A) Blocked flea
(B) Partial block flea
(C) Unblocked flea
(D) Dead flea

Paper-III

for

J-81-12

12.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

13.

-
?
(A)
(B)
(C) B
(D)

14.



?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 36

15.


?
(A)
(B) Q
(C)
(D)

16.

- ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

17.


?
(A)
(B)
(C) -
(D)

J-81-12

18.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

19.


?
(A) 1977
(B) 1978
(C) 1879
(D) 1982

20.


?
(A) ()

(B)

(C)

(D)
,

21.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

22.


(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

23.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Paper-III

24.

25.

26.

30.

Carrier state is seen in all except ?


(A) Diphtheria
(B) Measles
(C) Typhoid
(D) Polio

The most important essential fatty


acid is
(A) Linoleic acid

Rabies does not occur with bite of


(A) Dog
(B) Mouse
(C) Horse
(D) Cat

(B)

Linolenic acid

(C)

Arachidonic acid

(D) Oleic acid

31.

Polio is due to
(A) Virus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) Fungus

ICMRs recommendation of 1.0 gm


protein / kg. body weight assumes a
Net Protein Utilization (NPU) of
(A) 60
(B)

65

(C)

100

(D) 50
27.

28.

29.

Minimum gap that should be


allowed in between two administered
live vaccines
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 2 months
(D) 4 months

32.

(A) 1-2% of body protein each day

Medical method of abortion in India


is recommended in a facility with
provision for safe abortion services
and blood transfusion up to :
(A) 6 weeks of Amenorrhoea
(B) 7 weeks of Amenorrhoea
(C) 8 weeks of Amenorrhoea
(D) 12 weeks of Amenorrhoea

(B)

2-3% of body protein each day

(C)

3-4% of body protein each day

(D) 5% of body protein each day

33.

Gadchiroli model is approved as the


bases for provision of
(A) Home based care for diarrhoea
(B) Home based safe delivery
(C) Health education of mothers
(D) Home based neonatal care

Paper-III

The overall rate of turnover of


proteins in adult man is equivalent to
replacement between

To Promote institutional deliveries


RCH
II
program
envisages
operationalization for 24 hrs. by
2010 of which one of the following :
(A) All PHCs and CHCs
(B)

50% PHCs and all CHCs

(C)

50% PHCs and 50% CHCs

(D) All PHCs and 50% CHCs


6

J-81-12

24.

25.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

26.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

30.

- ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

31.

1.0 . /

(NPU)
?
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 100
(D) 50

32.


?
(A) - 1-2%
(B) - 2-3%
(C) - 3-4%
(D) - 5%

33.


II 2010

?
(A)

(B) 50%

(C) 30% 50%

(D) 50%

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
27.


?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 4

28.



_______
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 12

29.


?
(A) ()

(B)
(C)

(D)

J-81-12

Paper-III

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

Which one of the following


statements in not true about
child- woman ratio ?
(A) It is the number of children 0-5
yrs. per 1000 women of child
bearing age.
(B) It is derived from census data.
(C) It is used where birth
registration statistics do not
exist or are in adequate.
(D) It is the number of children 0-4
yrs. per 1000 women of child
bearing age
Small for
than
(A) 10th
age
(B) 20th
age
(C) 30th
age
(D) 25th
age

Disease imported to a country not


otherwise present
(A) Exotic
(B) Enzootic
(C) Epizootic
(D) Eudemic

40.

Type of the biological transmission


malarial parasite is :
(A) Cyclodevelopmental
(B) Developmental
(C) Propagative
(D) Cyclopropagative

41.

Pneumoconiosis is causes by dust


within the size range of
(A) 0.1 to 0.5 microns
(B) 0.1 to 1 microns
(C) 0.5 to 0.8 microns
(D) 0.5 to 3 microns

42.

BCG
in
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Date Babies weight less


percentile for gestational
percentile for gestational
percentile for gestational
percentile for gestational

As compared to routine case control


studies nested case control study
avoids problems in study design
related to :
(A) Temporal association
(B) Confounding bias
(C) Need for long follow up
(D) Randomization
The colour of the container for
disposal of human anatomical wastes
according to biomedical waste
management recommendation is
(A) Red
(B) Black
(C) Yellow
(D) Green
First case of an epidemic is referred as
(A) Index case
(B) Primary case
(C) Suspicious case
(D) Prime case

Paper-III

39.

vaccine is kept in refrigeration


Chilled Tray
Freezer
Tray below the freezer
Shelves in the door

43.

Inhalation of cotton fibre dust over


long periods of time causes
(A) Bagassosis
(B) Byssinosis
(C) Farmers lung
(D) Anthracosis

44.

Chadlers index is used


measuring worm load of
(A) Ancylostoma duodenale
(B) Ascaris lumbricoides
(C) Strongyloides
(D) Trichuris trichura

for

J-81-12

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

-
?
(A)
1000 0-5

(B)

(C)


(D)
1000 0-4


:
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 25

39.



?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

40.


:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

41.


?
(A) 0.1 0.5
(B) 0.1 1
(C) 0.5 0.8
(D) 0.5 3

42.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

43.

:
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

44.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)


,

:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

J-81-12

Paper-III

45.

Which of the following diseases has


not bean eradicated ?
(A) Smallpox
(B) Guinea worm
(C) Polio
(D) Yaws

51.

The value of residual chlorine should


be
(A) 0.1 mg/litre
(B) 0.01 mg/litre
(C) 0.5 mg/litre
(D) 1.0 mg/litre

46.

Population count is taken on


(A) 1st January
(B) 1st March
(C) 1st July
(D) 1st August

52.

Water fluoride is removed by


(A) Boiling
(B) Nalgonda Technique
(C) Patna Technique
(D) Filtration

47.

Crude Birth Rate denominator is


(A) Total no. of live births in that
year
(B) 1000 live births
(C) Total no. of births
(D) Mid year population

53.

The size of sand in Rapid sand Filter


is
(A) 0.62 2.0 mm
(B) 2.5 3.0 mm
(C) 0.4 0.7 mm
(D) 0.5 0.8 mm

48.

WHO South-East Region covers all


except
(A) Indonesia
(B) Myanmar
(C) Thailand
(D) Afghanistan

54.

Nuisance mosquito refers to


(A) Anopheles
(B) Culex
(C) Aedes
(D) Mansonia

49.

The test to detect contamination of


mustard oil with Argemone oil is
(A) Nitric Acid test
(B) Sulphuric Acid test
(C) Chromic Acid test
(D) Hydrochloric Acid test

55.

DDT acts by
(A) Contact poison
(B) Repellent
(C) Stomach poison
(D) Respiratory poison

50.

Pulses are deficient in


(A) Methionine
(B) Lysine
(C) Leucine
(D) Tryptophan

56.

Ergonomics is
(A) Human engineering
(B) Genetic manipulation
(C) Occupational alteration
(D) Social engineering

Paper-III

10

J-81-12

45.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

46.

?
(A) 1
(B) 1
(C) 1
(D) 1

47.


(A)

(B) 1000
(C)
(D)

48.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

49.


() ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

50.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

J-81-12

51.


(A) 0.1 ../
(B) 0.01 ../
(C) 0.5 ../
(D) 1.0 ../

52.


:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

53.


?
(A) 0.62 2.00 ..
(B) 2.5 3.0 ..
(C) 0.4 0.7 ..
(D) 0.5 0.8 ..

54.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

11

55.

:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

56.


(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Paper-III

57.

61.

The national cancer Registry


program of the ICMR provides data
on incidence of cancer in India from

(A) 1% increase in AIR is


equivalent to 50 new cases of
Sputum positive TB.

(A) Six population based registries.


(B)

Five
population
registries.

based

(C)

Seven
population
registries.

based

(D) One population based registry.

58.

Which of the following is not true


about Annual Infection Rate of
tuberculosis ?

(B)

It is one of the best indicator


for evaluating tuberculosis and
its trend.

(C)

It expresses attacking force of


tuberculosis in community.

(D) It is 2% in India.

The most sensitive index of recent


transmission of malaria in a
community is

62.

(A) Spleen rate

The first evidence of infection in


Hepetitis B is

(B)

Infant parasite rate

(A) Anti HBs

(C)

Annual Parasite incidences

(B)

HBe Ag

(C)

HBs Ag

(D) Slide positivity rate

(D) Anti HBc


59.

60.

Any loss or abnormality of


psychological, physiological or
anatomical structures or function is
termed

63.

Screening test is not useful when

(A) Impairment

(A) Condition support is an


important health problem i.e.
prevalence is high

(B)

Disability

(B)

(C)

Handicap

There is a test that can defect


the disease prior to onset of
signs and symptoms.

(D) Disease

(C)

Condition sought is not an


important health problem i.e.
prevalence is low.

Which of the following study


designs can be used to calculate the
incidence directly ?

(D) There is an effective treatment


64.

Transovarian transmission occurs in

(A) Cross sectional

(A) Malaria

(B)

Case control

(B)

Plague

(C)

Retrospective

(C)

Filariasis

(D) Prospective
Paper-III

(D) Dengue fever


12

J-81-12

57.



?
(A) :
(B)
(C)
(D)

58.


( )
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

59.

,


(A) ()
(B) ()
(C) ()
(D) ()

60.



?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

J-81-12

13

61.

(AIR)
?
(A) 1% ,
50

(B)


(C)

(D) 2%

62.

B
(A) Anti HBs
(B) HBe Ag
(C) HBs Ag
(D) Anti HBc

63.


(A)
,
-
(B)


(C)

-
(D)

64.

- ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Paper-III

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

Standard deviation is a measure of


(A) Chance
(B) Deviation from mean valve
(C) Central tendency
(D) Deviation from median value

71.

(A) Curve rises and falls rapidly

Direct standardization is used to


compare the mortality rates of two
countries. This is done because of
the difference in
(A) Cause of Death
(B) Age Distributions
(C) Socio Economic Conditions
(D) Health Service Differentials

(B)

Clustering of cases in narrow


interval

(C)

Secondary waves

(D) Single peak


72.

Case control study measures all


except
(A) Odds Ratio

Human Development index includes


all except
(A) Adult Literacy Rate
(B) Infant Mortality Rate
(C) Life Expectancy at Birth
(D) Combined Gross Enrolment
Ratio

(B)

Relative Risk

(C)

Exposure Rate

(D) Incident Rates


73.

Which is an antiseptic
sporocidal action ?

having

(A) Cataclon

First Referral Level in health system


denotes.
(A) Primary health care
(B) Secondary health care
(C) Tertiary health care
(D) Superspecialist health care

(B)

Halogens

(C)

Chlorohexidine

(D) 70% alcohol


74.

Identification of missed cases and


supplementing the notified cases is
done by
(A) Sentinel surveillance
(B) Screening
(C) Monitoring
(D) Epidemiological surveillance

The time between first possible point


of diagnosis and the final critical
diagnosis is called
(A) Screening time
(B)

Generation time

(C)

Lead time

(D) Serial interval

75.

All the following dimensions are


rates except one. Mark the one
which is not a rate.
(A) Crude Death Rate
(B) Proportional Mortality Rate
(C) Infant Mortality Rate
(D) Survival Rate

Paper-III

All are characteristics of common


source single exposure epidemic
curve except

In a highly prevalent disease, if the


cut off point is lowered
(A) Sensitivity will increase
(B)

Sensitivity will decrease

(C)

Specificity will increase

(D) Specificity will decrease


14

J-81-12

65.

?
(A)
(B) ()
(C)
(D) ()

66.




?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

67.

68.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

69.


?
(A) ()
(B)
(C)
(D)

70.


:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

J-81-12

15

71.



?
(A)
(B)
()
(C)
(D)

72.


?
(A)
(B)
(C) ( )
(D) ( )

73.


?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 70%

74.



?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

75.

-

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Paper-III

Space For Rough Work

Paper-III

16

J-81-12

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