Catq 3

MANYACAT SAMPLE PAPER
PreparIng You For Tomorrow
INSTRUCTIONS – Please read these carefully before attempting the test
1. This test is based on pattern of previous years’ CAT papers.
2. There are Three sections
Section I – Quantitative Ability (50 Questions)

Section II – Verbal Ability (50 Questions)
Section III – Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency (50 Questions)
3. The total time allotted is 2 hours exactly. Please note your start time and end
time on the answer sheet. Do not take more than 2 hours, or you will get a wrong
assessment.
4. Please fill all the details, as asked on top of the answer sheet.
5. Please try to maximize your attempt overall, but you need to do well in all
sections.
6. There is 1 mark for every right answer and 0.25 negative mark for every
wrong one.
7. There are three sections in this test.
8. Since it is a time constrained test and you have 2 hours, and all questions carry
equal marks, please do not get stuck on any question, move fast to try and do
easier ones.
9. Please do all scratch work on paper only, no extra sheets to be used. Put all
your answers on the answer sheet.
10. Relax. You are competing against yourself.
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MANYACAT
SECTION I
DIRECTIONS For Questions 1 to11: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
1. Consider a chessboard of size 16 x 16 (instead of the standard 8 x 8), what is the total number of
squares on such a chessboard?
1. 256 2. 408 3. 1396 4. 1496
2. Ajit and Rakesh together can do a piece of work in a certain number of days. Ajit working alone can
finish a work that is three times the original work in 30 days. Rakesh working alone can finish a work
that is one- third the original work in 5 days. In how many days they together can finish a work that is
twice the original work?
1. 6 days 2. 12days 3. 15days 4. 18days
3. Air is blown at the rate of 49 cc/sec. into a spherical balloon. If at this moment, the radius is 7cm and
the balloon will explore when it reaches a radius of 28cm, find how much longer it would take for the
balloon to explore.
1. 30.8minutes 2. 184.8 minutes 3. 1848 minutes 4. None of these
4. The train fare consists of a fixed amount plus an amount proportional to the distance and an amount
proportional to the square root of the distance in kms. When I travel 25km, 49km and 121km
respectively, I incur a charge of Rs.400, Rs.680 and Rs.1480 respectively. If I incur Rs.6,800, what is
the distance traveled by me?
1. 784km 2. 576km 3. 625km 4. 676km
5. Ram and Shyam are competing in a kilometer race. Ram gives Shyam a lead of 100 m. Initially Ram
runs at thrice Shyam’s speed, but after crossing the 600 m mark, he slows downto1/6th his initial speed,
while Shyam continues to run at his original speed. If Ram and Shyam meet for the second time at a
distance ‘x’ from the finish line, what is x equal to?
1. 250m 2. 900m 3. 150m 4. 100m
6. Which of the following statements is/are always true about the sum of the square of three consecutive
even numbers?
1. When divided by 12, it leaves a remainder of 4. 2. When divided by 12, it leaves a remainder of 8.
3. When divided by 8, it leaves a remainder of 4. 4. More than one of the above statements.
7. If a1 = 1 and a1 + a2 +.... + an = n2 an for all natural numbers n > 1, find a10

1 1
1. 2. 55 3. 4. 110
55 110
8. 1. 1! + 2. 2! + 3. 3! + ………… n. n! =
1. (n + 1)! 2. (n + 1)! – 1 3. (n!)2 – 1 4. None of these
9. From a solid cone of height 6cm and radius 6 2 cm, the maximum possible cube is cut. What is the
volume of the remaining portion of the cone?
1. 128π - 16 2. 133. 33π - 64 3. 144π - 64 4. 400π - 64
10. A number when divided successively by 11, 7 and 4 leaves respectively remainder of 7, 4 and 1.
Instead, if the number is successively divided by 4, 7 and11, what is the remainder in the division by 7?
1. 4 2. 3 3. 7 4. None of these
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MANYACAT
11. A slow local train leaves kalyan for VT at 7:00 a.m. A fast train leaves for VT from Kalyan 10 minutes
later. The speed while in motion is a constant 60 kmph for both trains. However, while the slow train
has 19uniformly placed halts, the fast train has just 4 uniformly placed halts. The total distance form
Kalyan to VT is 60km. At what distance from Kalyan would the fast train catch up with the slow train?
Each halts is of one minute duration and the term “ halt” does not include the last stop or destination.
1. 42 km 2. 39 km 3. 40 km 4. None of these
DIRECTIONS For Question 12 and 13: these questions are based on the following data.
R
•
Q
•
P • • • • • • F
C A D E B
In the above diagram, A and B are centers of the two circles. PQR is common tangent drawn to the circles from
the point P which lies on the straight line passing through A and B.
Distance between A and B is 13 cm and the distance between the points of contact of the circle (i.e., QR) is 12
cm. The diameter of the smaller circle is 6cm.
12. What is the measurement of PE?

1. 8.8 cm 2. 12.8 cm 3. 15.8 cm 4. 20.8 cm
13. What is the ratio of the areas of the triangle PAR and PBQ?
1. 2 : 3 2. 1 : 1 3. 1 : 2 4. 2 : 1
DIRECTIONS For Question 14 to 17: These questions are based on the following data.
Digits from 1 – 6 are arranged, without repetition to form a six – digit number such that the number formed
from the first two digits from the left is divisible by 2, that the first 3 is divisible by 3, that the first four digits is
divisible by 4 and that the first five digits is divisible by 5.
14. How many six – digit numbers can be formed satisfying the given conditions?
1. 2 2. 4 3. 6 4. 5
15. If the digits in the units place is 3, then what is the digits in the hundreds place?
1. 2 2. 6
3. 4 4. Cannot be determined unique
16. How many different digits are possible in the 1st position from the left?
1. 3 2. 1 3. 4 4. 2
17. If 4 is the digit in the second place from the left, what is the digit in the third place from the left?
1. 1 2. 6 3. 2 4. 3
Directions For Questions 18 To 23: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
18. A telephone company charges a rental of Rs.500 per month and allows 250 free calls per month. Calls
are charged at Rs.1.00 per call when number of calls exceeds 250 and the per call charge increase by
Rs.0.25 every time number of calls is greater than the next multiple of 250. Find the ratio of cost per
call to the customer when the number of calls made is 175 and 350per month.
1. 5 : 3 2. 6 : 3 3. 4 : 3 4. 3 : 2
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1 1 1 1
19. What is the sum of the series: + + + ......... +
5x8 8x11 11x14 242x245
48 16 48 3
1. 2. 3. 4.
240 245 245 49
20. Two varieties of oil are mixed in the ratio 4: 5 to produce first quality oil and in the ratio 1: 2 to
produce second quality oil. How many litres of first quality oil should be mixed with 15 litres of second
quality oil so that the third quality oil having the two varieties in the ratio of 7: 11 may be produced?
1. 15 litres 2. 12 litres 3. 18 litres 4. 24 litres
21. Twenty seven small cubes, each of side 1 cm, are arranged to form a larger cuboid with the minimum
possible surface area. What is the surface area of this cuboid?
1. 25 cm2 2. 54 cm2 3. 78 cm2 4. None of these
22. The quadratic equation whose roots are reciprocals of the squares of the roots of the equation: x2 – 10x
+ 16 = 0 is
1. x2 – 68x + 256 = 0 2. 256x2 + 68 + 1 = 0 3. 256x2 – 68x + 1 = 0 4. 256x2 – 64x + 1= 0
23. What are the last four digits (from the right end) of the binary equivalent of the decimal number
4739685?
1. 1010 2. 1001 3. 0011 4. 1101
Directions For Questions 24 to 26: These questions are based on the following data.
A, B, C. D, E and F are six points on a plane. Some of the distances between them are given below. AE = 19.5,
BC = 14.5, CE = 5, AB = 15, BD = 6.5, DC = 8, DF = 5, BE = 19.5. Each question in this set is independent of
the other questions in the set.
24. What is the maximum number of triangles that can be formed by joining any three of the six points
mentioned?
1. 10 2. 14 3. 16 4. 20
25. What is the maximum possible area of the triangle whose vertices are D, E and F?
1. 30 sq. units 2. 32.5 sq.units 3. 60 sq.units 4. None of these
26. If F is equidistant from A and B then in how many distinct possible ways can the six points be located
relative to each other?
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. None of these
Directions For Questions 27 to 37: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
27. Anil had borrowed a certain amount at a certain rate of simple interest. At present, the total amount he
owes is 150% of the principal he had borrowed. After one year the total amount will increase by
131/3% compared to the present value. If he doesn't repay the amount, after how many years will it be
double the principal?
1. 3.75 2. 5 3. 3 4. 2.5
28. The ratio of interest accrued on an amount invested at simple interest for 1 year and the interest accrued
on the same amount invested at the same rate of interest, compounded annually, for 3 years is 1 : 3.31.
Find the rate of interest.
1. 20% 2. 15% 3. 12.5% 4. 10%
29. PQRS is a square, while diagonals PR and QS coincide with the x and y-axis respectively. Side PQ lies
on the line x + y + 3 = 0. Side RS lies on which of the following lines?
1. x + y + 3 = 0 2. x-y + 3 = 0 3. x-y-3 = 0 4. None of these
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30. Let N = (1333) x (1335) x (1337). What is the remainder when N is divided by 12?
1. 1 2. 3 3. 5 4. 7
31. If a, b and c are the sides of a triangle and a2 + b2 - 2ac - 2ab = 2bc - c2, then the triangle is
1. Scalene 2. Right angled
3. Isosceles but not equilateral 4. Equilateral
32. Let a, b and c be distinct integers that are odd and positive. Which one of the following statements can
be true?
1. abc is even 2. ab + bc + ca is even 3. ab + bc + a + b is odd 4. None of these
33. Ramesh had forgotten his friend's seven-digit telephone number. He remembers the following: the first
three digits are either 535 or 553, the number is even and the digit eight appears once. If Ramesh were
to use trial and error method to reach his friend, what is the minimum number of trials he has to make
before he can be certain to succeed?
1. 3402 2. 2401 3. 3944 4. 4400
34. For all non-negative integers a and b, g (a, b) is defined as below:

g (a, 0) = a + l
g(0, b) = b + 1
g (a + 1, b + 1) = g(g(a, b + 1), b)
What is the value of g (2, 1) ?
1. 4 2. 3 3. 2 4. 0
35. Given that x is real and |x|< 4, which of the following is a permissible range for the value that x can
2
x + 3x − 10
assume such that is always positive?
2
x − 5x − 14
1. x< - 2 or x > 2 2. – 3 < x < 3 3. x < - 3 or x > 3 4. – 2 < x < 2
36. An environment conscious man decided to plant trees along one straight side of his rectangular house.
For this, he planned to plant trees at 8 m intervals, with trees planted at both the extremes. After he
bought the trees he found that the number of trees he had bought was six less than required. However,
he discovered that the number of trees he had bought would be just sufficient if he spaced them 10 m
apart. What is the length of the side of his house and how many trees did he buy?
1. 240,20 2. 200,10 3. 240,25 4. 100,5
37. There is a vertical stack of books marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 on table A placed in the same order with 4 at the
bottom. These are to be placed vertically on table B in the order 3, 2, 1,4 with 4 at the bottom. During a
move, the topmost book, or the topmost two books, or the topmost three books or all the four books can
be moved from one of the tables to the other. If there are any books on the other table, the stock being
transferred should be placed on top of the existing books, without changing the order of books in the
stock that is being moved in that move. If there are no books on the other table, the stock is simply
placed on the other table without disturbing the order of books in it. What is the minimum number of
moves in which the above task can be accomplished?
1. 4 2. 5 3. 8 4. 11
Directions For Questions 38 and 39: These questions are based on the following operations. (x, y and z are
three numbers)
Let # (x, y) = product of x and y

$ (x, y) = average of x and y
& (x, y) = the result of dividing x by y
38. The sum of x and y is given by:

1. & (x, y) + $ (x, y) 2. $(x, y) - #(x, y) 3. # (2, $(x, y)) 4. # (2, & (x, y))
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MANYACAT
39. Average of x, y and z is given by
1. # (2, #($(x, y), z)) 2. &(#(2, $(#(2, $(x, y)), z)), 3)
3. #(3, &($(x, y), z)) 4. None of these
Directions For Questions 40 to 43: These questions are based on the following data.
Sixteen teams have been invited to play in the CAB Gold Cup cricket tournament. The tournament is conducted in
two stages. In the first stage, the teams are divided into two groups. Each group consists of eight teams, with each
team playing every other team in its group exactly once. At the end of the first stage, the top four teams from each
group advance to the next stage while the rest are eliminated. The second stage is an elimination stage, where the
loser of each match is eliminated. The team that remains undefeated in the second stage is declared the winner and
claims the Cup.
The tournament rules are such that each match results in a winner and a loser with no possibility of a tie. In the
first stage a team earns one point for each win and no points for a loss. At the end of the first stage, the teams in
each group are ranked on the basis of their points earned to determine the qualifiers advancing to the next stage.
Ties are resolved by a series of complex tie-breaking rules so that exactly four teams from each group advance
to the second stage.
40. What is the total number of matches played in the tournament?

1. 31 2. 35 3. 63 4. 127
41. The minimum number of wins needed for a team in the first stage to guarantee its advancement to the
next stage is
1. 4 2. 5 3. 6 4. 7
42. What is the highest number of wins for a team in the first stage inspite of which it could possibly be
eliminated at the end of first stage?
1. 4 2. 5 3. 6 4. 7
43. If the second stage consisted of quarterfinals, semifinals and the finals, then the team which won the
gold cup won a total of how many games?
1. 7 2. 9 3. 10 4. Cannot be determined
44. There are ten taps which when working together can fill a certain empty tank in five hours. The
capacities of the ten taps are in the ratio of 10: 9 : 8 : 7 : 6 : 5 : 4 : 3 : 2 : 1. Initially all ten taps are
opened (into the empty tank) and after every one hour the tap of the maximum capacity is closed. What
is the time in which the tank will be filled if the taps are operated in this manner?
(I) 5½ 2. 8½ 3. 9½ 4. Tank is never filled
45. The age-wise distribution of the population of a town is given below?

Age group Percentage of population belonging to the age group
< 10yrs 22%
< 25yrs 37%
< 40yrs 61%
< 60 yrs 86%
The ratio of the illiterate and literate in the age group of 25 and above to less than 60 years is 7: 3. Find
the total population of the town if the number of illiterate people in the referred age group is 24,010?
1. 14,000 2. 34,000 3. 70,000 4. 1,63,000
(x − 1)(x + 4)(x + 2)
46. How many integers satisfy the inequality < 0?
(x − 3)(x + 8)(x + 3)
1. 4 2. 10 3. 7 4. Infinitely many
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MANYACAT
Y
47.
C
D
X
O A B
In the above diagram, the points A, B, C and D have coordinates as A(5,0), B(7,0), C(7,9) and D(5,4)
.which of the following is closest to the area of the shaded region?
1. 13 2. 18 3. 17 4. 14
a× b× c
48. If a = 673, b = 469, c = 894 and d = 17, what is the remainder of the division ?
d
1. 7 2. 11 3. 12 4. 14
49.
L
P
Q
M
In the above diagram ∠L= ∠Q = 900. If MN = 36, LM = 18 cm, PQ = 4 cm, then how much does PN
measure?
1. 8 cm 2. 2 cm 3. 16/7 cm 4. 27/2 cm
50. How many such numbers are there between 1 and 21600, where the only common factor of that
number and 21600 is 1?
1. 2160 2. 8646 3. 5759 4. 17,280
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MANYACAT
Section II
Directions For Questions 51 to 76: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
PASSAGE - 1
The concept of Industrial Relations (IR) in a democratic society becomes a complex phenomenon in which
employers and their organizations, employees and their collective associations, as well as the State and its
agencies, interact in order to evolve procedural as well as substantive policies and instruments in order to
regulate the employer-employee relationship, to manage contradictions which arise in their transactions and to
work towards consensus among contending stakeholders. Conflict and congruence, co-operation and
confrontation characterize the dynamics of the interactions of various stakeholders.
Industrial relations, therefore, can be crafted only through the dynamic interaction of several stakeholders who
need each other and yet have fundamental differences as a result of differing perspectives, interests, values as
well as perceptions. The main stakeholders in this sphere of human interaction are employers and their
organizations, employees and their associations as well as the State and its agencies. The general belief is that
employers manage corporations on behalf of shareholders, employees join trade unions and associations in order
to protect their interests and the State and its agencies are interested in promoting social good. An interaction of
this kind by its very nature will have areas of shared concern and areas of divergence. Learning to manage
differences, which arise as a consequence, is perhaps the most critical aspect of the management of industrial
relations. More often than not, there is a vested interest in divisiveness as a result of the dictionary incentives
that get created in dynamic interactions characterized by convergence as well as divergence, dominance as well
as compliance.
Ideally, the interactions among the stakeholders in industrial relations should be characterized by a certain
"balance–of-power". In reality, though, the dynamics of the situation are such that a particular stakeholder may
have more leverage at its disposal, which leads to the dominance of that stakeholder. For instance, in a highly
regulated industrial relations environment, the State is likely to be a dominant player. In the Indian context, for
instance, the disputes resolution process is controlled by the appropriate Government, as a result of which the
development of employer-employee bilateralism has been severely retarded. In a market-driven economy,
employers tend to dominate as a result of the right to "hire and fire" in response to market exigencies. In
socialist economies, trade unions tend to have a significant role.
In the process, industrial relations can degenerate into a dominance-submission syndrome in which the dominant
stakeholder tends to control the structure, process, relations and choices at the cost of other stakeholders, leading
to a distributive bargaining environment. Invariably, in an environment in which the dominated are denied voice
in choice-making processes, they wait for an opportune moment to dislodge the dominant stakeholder, to
dominate the interactions, and direct efforts to continue in dominance. What the dominated internalize is a
"culture of dominance" which becomes the all-pervasive perspective, informing interactions among the
industrial relations stakeholders. The management of industrial relations within the framework of the culture of
dominance can take three forms:
Managing by Contending, in which the stakeholders engage in a contest of will with the dominant stakeholder
holding the reins and steering the choice-making processes as well as choices. Pressure tactics coupled with
employment of leverages like litigation and direct action go hand in hand with the reaction of the dominated to
protect threatened interests.
Managing by Conceding, in which the dominant stakeholder manages interactions with other less dominant and
dominated stakeholders by making concessions to buy peace on an ad hoc, situational basis. A major ploy here is to
adopt a divide-and-rule policy.
Managing by Colluding, in which mode the dominant stakeholder strikes up equations with individual stakeholder
representatives or with coalitions of stakeholders, through which mechanism choice-making as well as choices are
influenced to favor the dominant stakeholder. The collusive character of the interaction leads to the compromise of the
interests of the less dominant stakeholder groups.
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MANYACAT
Within the framework of the culture of dominance, when change is sought, generally the change is only of the
dominant stakeholder. The culture of managing by contending or conceding or colluding or a combination of
any of those patterns remains unchanged. Liberation for the dominated stakeholder is to become the dominant
stakeholder and so the cycle of contending, conceding, colluding goes on. Yet, it is possible to think of breaking
this vicious cycle only if the interacting stakeholders decide to change the culture of dominance and compliance
to a culture of dialogue and mutuality. This is feasible only if an individual, or a coalition of stakeholders,
change the mode of choice-making from a contending–conceding-colluding orientation to a mutuality-based
cooperative orientation. This is possible through a collaborative problem solving approach, evidence of which is
already available in various organizations across the globe.
Managing by Collaborative Problem Solving in the sphere of industrial relations choice-making is, perhaps, the
key to the development of new ethos. The "dominant" stakeholder in today's deregulated environment is likely to
be the Corporation and the onus is on Corporations to create a new ethos revolving around collaboration and
mutuality through what can be termed as the Transformational Process Model (TPM). The key to the
Transformational Process Model of industrial relations management is the belief that the main stakeholder in the
emerging global scenario is management and the initiatives taken by management are going to set the standards for
corporations and corporate stakeholders. And the key to the transformational process model of industrial relations
ought to revolve around, as Gandhi said in another era, in another context, "self-rule and self restraint, and not
freedom from all restraints...” Mutuality-based self governance, sensitive to multiple stakeholders, in order to
create a corporate community capable of competitive resilience, is the solid rock on which the transformational
process model will have to be built. Mere alteration of externalities like amendments to existing procedural as well
as substantive legislation (to be read as the right to hire and fire and the right to close and relocate) can only scratch
the surface and serve to reinforce further the culture of dominance. What is needed today is a greater focus on
processes rather than procedures — a greater thrust towards improving the quality of the processes of choice-
making among interacting stakeholders in the sphere of industrial relations.
51. What is the central idea of the passage?

1. The culture of dominance in industrial relations has to be broken and must be replaced by a
culture of mutuality-based co-operation.
2. A greater thrust is necessary on processes than procedures to resolve industrial disputes.
3. Managing by collaborative problem solving is the key to development of a new ethos in
industrial relations.
4. Mere alterations of externalities can only serve to perpetuate the culture of dominance.
52. What is/are the belief(s) underlying the transformational process model (TPM)?
1. Mutuality-based self-governance.
2. Sensitivity to multiple stake holders.
3. Managing by collaborative problem-solving.
4. All of the above.
53. Identify the true statements as understood from the passage and choose the correct alternative:
(A) There is a tendency on the part of the dominated to use pressure tactics to let its voice be heard
and interests be protected if IR is being managed by contending.
(B) The dominant stakeholder adopts a divide and rule policy while IR is being managed by
conceding.
(C) While managing IR by colluding, the dominant stakeholder may employ Machiavellian tactics
to appease the dominated.
(D) Under the present Indian scenario, managing IR by colluding seems to be the best alternative.
1. A, B and C 2. B, C and D
3. A and D only 4. A and B only
54. The ‘vicious cycle' in the context of the culture of dominance can be broken when
1. the mode of making choices incorporates mutuality-based cooperative orientation.
2. the dominated stake holder feels free to exercise his choice.
3. change is sought within the frame work of culture of dominance.
4. the dominant shareholder and the style of operation are amenable to change.
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55. Why is "balance of power" between stakeholders not observed in reality?
1. A particular stakeholder may have more leverage at his disposal than others due to the
dynamics of the situation.
2. Perfect balance of power is an ideal situation and cannot happen in reality.
3. A government usually adopts a laissez faire attitude to avoid confrontation with organizations.
4. There is a tendency for distributive bargaining environment to prevail in the field of IR in
democratic rule.
56. The important aspect of management of IR under democracy is

1. learning to manage differences that may arise in various aspects due to the interaction among
various stakeholders.
2. working to resolve issues that effect the dominated.
3. recognizing the fact that fundamental differences are bound to arise when many stakeholders
are present in the decision making processes.
4. the elimination of uneven incentives that get created in the dynamic situation of multiparty
interactions.
PASSAGE - 2
A high mass of great stone (426 meters) on a small peninsula connected to southern Spain, "The Rock", as it is
locally known, is more than a mere photogenic model. It is also a superb vantage point for an unparalleled scene
of sky and sea and soil on two continents. From the top of the Rock, the soaring northern tip of this geologic
giant, the sweeping panorama encompasses European Spain to the north, African Morocco to the south and the
narrow Straits of Gibraltar which separate the great land masses. On a clear day, the view alone is worth a roll of
film or a lengthy video session. But even when clouds obscure the distant vista, there is still something of
"furry" interest: Europe's last wild monkey.
Commonly known as Barbary Apes (in reality, a tailless breed of monkeys) they are the same species of primate
as found in Morocco's Atlas Mountains. Around 60 Barbary Apes of intertwined breeding and 30,000
Gibraltarians of mixed British, Spanish, Portuguese, Maltese, Italian and (sometimes) Moroccan heritage live in
the 5.8 sq. km. British Crown colony of Gibraltar.
Over centuries, waves of armies and immigrants have molded Gibraltar's distinct charm and character. This is
easily discovered in an intense day trip from several southern Spanish towns or during a week-long leisure-
oriented holiday. Authentically Mediterranean in atmosphere, yet British in language, currency and legal
system, the self-governing colony has also been heavily influenced by Moorish and Spanish occupations.
Reminders of the Romans and Moors (Muslims from northwest Africa who conquered Spain and Gibraltar) are
neatly presented in the Gibraltar Museum, a trove of local treasures, which includes a remarkably intact bath
house from the 14!h century.
The artifact-packed museum is the starting point for an appreciation of how Gibraltar, although small in size,
has played such an important role in European history, a role largely made possible due to its strategic location.
The Moors recognized this and soon after crossing the Straits to invade Spain in 711 A.D, they erected
fortifications on the western side of the massive rock. Around 1333, they added to their Moorish Castle and
constructed the Tower of Homage. This ruminant piece of square masonry has a commanding panorama over
the narrow waterway which connects the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea.
Gibraltar was first controlled by the Moors. Then came the Spanish, but they were ousted by the Moors who, in
turn, were again defeated by the Spanish. The British captured the Rock in 1704 and the Union Jack has flown
from a solitary flag pole atop the Tower of Homage ever since. In order to defend the Rock, the British blasted
tunnels (known as the Upper Galleries) out of the solid hill in the 18th century to make gun emplacements. They
are part of 55 km. of manmade tunnels inside the Rock, some of which are wide enough to accommodate cars
and mini coaches filled with enquiring tourists. While the Upper Galleries are historically important, you will
probably enjoy St. Michael's Cave far more, especially if your visit can be timed for a cultural performance.
The Rock of Gibraltar is honeycombed with dozens of natural caves. The most famous of these, St. Michael's
Cave, a tourist attraction as far back as the days of the Romans, is one of the most awesome grottoes in Europe.
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It was first inhabited some 40,000 years ago. Today instead of grunts from stoop shouldered Neanderthals, the
stalactite studded cave is frequently filled with the sound of music when it becomes one of the world's most
unusual entertainment venues, a natural theatre for concerts. After a performance in the acoustically superb main
chamber, locals head for home, day trippers cross the Spanish check point and overnight tourists depart for their
conventional hotels in town or take a taxi to a Rock resort.
Despite its size, Gibraltar can even cater to beach-minded visitors. Resort hotels have been built at Catalan Bay,
near a picturesque village inhabited by fishermen known as Caletenow, and at Sandy Bay. The Gibraltar Beach
Hotel on the bay is the only hotel on the Rock built so that every room faces the Mediterranean. While its
adjoining sandy shores may not get a "superior" rating from the true beach freaks, the comfortable resort on the
east slope of the Rock is nonetheless a most romantic retreat.
Gibraltar's compact town centre is also a pleasing surprise. It is neither high-rise, nor filled with boring look-
alikes. But then that is to be expected in a British regency town built on a 15th century town, which, in turn, was
laid over a 12lh century Moorish town. The contrasting architectural styles of the centuries can be seen during a
stroll down Main Street. Take care while looking up at arches and cupolas because Gibraltar's major pedestrian
thoroughfare is cheek by jowl with bargain hunting tourists, many from neighboring Spain. While prices are not
duty free, much-taxed Europeans swarm in for an array of goods that are not subject to the dreaded Value
Added Tax. Good buys include watches, jewelry, perfume, tobacco, spirits and cashmere. Prices are fixed and
signposted in British Sterling and Spanish Pesetas. Listen closely and you'll hear shopkeepers conversing with
the locals in Latino, a bilingual mix of the two predominant languages. Of course, they can swing into 100 per
cent English or Spanish without the slightest hesitation.
The unusual language is a surprise; so is the food. As British as Gibraltarians may be, their food favorites are
Mediterranean-inspired creations. While some families who have lived in the colony for generations have
developed their own unique blended specialties that can only be sampled by invitation, you can dine in a
different style every day: Italian, Spanish, French, Chinese, Indian and, of course, British. Perhaps the ultimate
evening is a night out on top of the Rock itself. As the cable car cruises to the top of the rocky skyscraper, plan
on yet another one-off experience in this mini destination of maxi diversity.
57. What is common between the food and the language found at the Rock of Gibraltar?
1. Both are the results of an unusual mix of the British and the Spanish heritages.
2. Both have had similar origins.
3. The variety and the range that can be observed in both the entities.
4. The absence of any one dominating entity in spite of the presence of the English and the
Spanish cultures since ages.
58. All the following are true except.

1. St. Michael's Cave is the most famous of all the caves.
2. The Gibraltar Beach Hotel is the only hotel with every room facing the Mediterranean Sea.
3. The Tower of Homage was constructed around 1333.
4. It is the British language that dominates and the Spanish currency that circulates mostly.
59. Which are the 'two continents' that can be seen clearly from the Rock of Gibraltar?
1. Asia and Europe 2. Europe and Africa 3. Asia and Africa 4. None of these
60. Which of the following can be said to be responsible for reshaping the soul and the spirit of the
Gibraltar to what it presently is?
1. The heavy influence of the distinctly different cultures of the Moors and the Spaniards.
2. The colonization of the Rock by the British that reshaped the culture of the Rock.
3. The vast and diverse cultures of various armies and many immigrants who landed on the Rock
of Gibraltar.
4. The proximity of European and African countries, thereby their cultures, that dominated the
Rock's original culture.
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61. According to the passage,
(A) The Barbary Apes are also found in the Atlas mountains of Morocco.
(B) Now the Rock of Gibraltar is not a British colony.
(C) The rock played an important role in shaping European history due to its strategic location.
(D) There is Spain to the north of the Rock.
1. A, C and D are true. 2. B, C and D are true.
3. A, B and D are true. 4. All the four statements are true.
62. What does the sentence, “Take care while looking up at...........from neighbouring Spain” mean?
1. The thoroughfare is so crowded with people that if one does not look ahead, one might crash
into somebody.
2. Some of the bargain hunting tourists may be pick pockets.
3. The architecture is of low height and tourists may hit against it.
4. Nobody wants to miss good bargains hence the resultant rush can befuddle first-time tourists.
63. Identify statements that are true as per the passage.

(A) The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea.
(B) Upper Galleries are man-made tunnels.
(C) St. Michael's cave has stalactites.
(D) The Gibraltar Beach Hotel is on the east slope of the Rock
1. A and D are true. 2. B and C are true.
3. A, B and C are true. 4. All the four statements are true.
PASSAGE - 3
The Hindu theory is that religions do not come from without, but from within. It is my belief that religious thought
is in man's very constitution, so much so that it is impossible for him to give up religion until he can give up his
mind and body, until he can give up thought and life. As long as man thinks, the struggle must go on, and so long
man must have some form of religion. Thus, we see various forms of religion in the world. It is a bewildering
study; but it is not, as many of us think, a vain speculation. Amidst this chaos there is harmony, throughout these
discordant sounds there is a note of concord; and he who is prepared to listen to it will catch the tone.
The great question of all questions at the present time is this: Taking for granted that the known and the
knowable are bounded on both sides by the unknowable and the infinitely unknown, why struggle for that
infinite unknown? Why shall we not be content with the known? Why shall we not rest satisfied with eating,
drinking, and doing a little good to society? This idea is in the air. From the most learned professor to the
prattling baby, we are told that to do good to the world is all of religion, and that it is useless to trouble ourselves
about questions of the beyond. So much is this the case that it has become a truism.
Fortunately, however, we must inquire into the beyond. This present, this expressed, is only one part of that
unexpressed. The sense universe is, as it were, only one portion, one bit of that infinite spiritual universe
projected into the plane of sense consciousness. How can this little bit of projection be explained, be understood,
without, knowing that which is beyond? It is said of Socrates that one day while lecturing at Athens, he met a
Brahmin who had traveled into Greece, and Socrates told the Brahmin that the greatest study for mankind is
man. The Brahmin sharply retorted, "How can you know man until you know God?" This God, this eternally
Unknowable, or Absolute, or Infinite, or without name - you may call Him by whatever name you like - is the
rationale, the only explanation, the raison d'etre of that which is known and knowable, this present life. Take
anything before you, the most material thing - take one of the most material sciences - chemistry or physics,
astronomy or biology - study it, push the study forward and forward, and the gross forms will begin to melt and
become finer and finer, until they come to a point where you are bound to make a tremendous leap from these
material things into the immaterial. The gross melts into the fine, physics into metaphysics, in every department
of knowledge.
Thus man finds himself driven to a study of the beyond. Life will be a desert, human life will be vain, if we
cannot know the beyond. It is very well to say, “Be content with the things of the present.” The cows and the
dogs are, and so are all animals; and that is what makes them animals. So if man rests content with the present
and gives up all search into the beyond, mankind will have to go back to the animal plane again. It is religion,
the inquiry into the beyond, which makes the difference between man and an animal. Well has it been said that
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man is the only animal that naturally looks upwards; every other animal naturally looks down. That looking
upward and going upward and seeking perfection are what is called salvation; and the sooner a man begins to go
higher, the sooner he raises himself towards this idea of truth as salvation. It does not consist of the amount of
money in your pocket, or the dress you wear, or the house you live in, but in the wealth of spiritual thought in
your brain. That is what makes for human progress, that is the source of all material and intellectual progress,
the motive power behind, the enthusiasm that pushes mankind forward.
Religion does not live on bread, does not dwell in a house. Again and again you hear this objection advanced,
"What good can religion do? Can it take away the poverty of the poor?'' Supposing it cannot, would that prove
the untruth of religion? Suppose a baby stands up among you when you are trying to demonstrate an
astronomical theorem, and says, "Does it bring gingerbread?" "No, it does not", you answer. "Then," says the
baby, "it is useless." Babies judge the whole universe from their own standpoint, that of producing gingerbread,
and so do the babies of the world. We must not judge by the standard of infinity. Religion permeates the whole
of man's life, not only the present, but the past, present and future. It is, therefore, the eternal relation between
the eternal soul and the eternal God. Is it logical to measure its value by its action upon five minutes of human
life? Certainly not. These are all negative arguments.
Now comes the question: Can religion really accomplish anything? It can. It brings to man eternal life. It has
made man what he is, and will make of this human animal a god. That is what religion can do. Take religion
from human society and what will remain? Nothing but a forest of brutes. Sense happiness is not the goal of
humanity. Wisdom (Jnana) is the goal of all life. We find that man enjoys his intellect more than an animal
enjoys its senses, and we see that man enjoys his spiritual nature even more than his rational nature. So the
highest wisdom must be this spiritual knowledge. With this knowledge will come bliss. All these things of this
world are but the shadows, the manifestations in the third or fourth degree of the real Knowledge and Bliss.
64. The 'babies of the world' are those who

1. have a constricted or myopic view of things.
2. tend to view things from their own perspective.
3. have a unique perspective for each situation.
4. are novices looking at things beyond their comprehension.
65. The Brahmin opposed Socrates because he believed that

1. man can understand the part of a whole only when he understands the whole.
2. man is the manifestation of God's creativity.
3. the tangible is nothing but the expression of the intangible.
4. the material merges into the abstract in all sciences.
66. Which of the following statements apply to the concept of religion as per the passage?
(A) Religion is the means of enquiring into the beyond.
(B) We can use religion as a means to salvation. .
(C) Religion says that one should do good to others.
(D) It is the relation between the eternal soul and eternal God.
1. A, B, C 2. B, C, D 3. A, B, D 4. A, C, D
67. "The sense universe is, as it were, only one portion, one bit, of that infinite spiritual universe projected
into the plane of sense consciousness." Through the above statement the author says that
1. the sense universe and the spiritual universe are one and the same.
2. the sense universe can never reveal the secrets of the spiritual universe.
3. the sense universe and the spiritual universe are mutually exclusive.
4. we need to apply the spiritual universe to the sense universe in order to understand the
spiritual universe better
68. What can 'the struggle' mean?

1. To know the infinite unknown.
2. To achieve salvation.
3. To reconcile the abstract with the absolute.
4. To give up religion. .
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PASSAGE – 4
Half a century after the Cold War, Sir Martin Rees, a 61–year-old veteran of the anti-nuclear movement,
believes that the world came closer - and more often - to the brink of thermonuclear destruction than most
people realize. Could it happen again? More broadly, could man, even unwittingly, unleash a chain of events
that destroys the natural environment, and ultimately humanity itself?
The debate over how to safeguard our world is not limited, of course, to disaster scenarios. Conservationists,
politicians and scientists of every hue continue to hold forth on mankind's environmental depredations. For Sir
Martin, a respected Cambridge University astrophysicist and Britain's Astronomer Royal, the emphasis is on
warning; for others it is the more difficult task of trying to devise prescriptions.
The specter of a terrorist attack or an accident involving bio-organisms or nanotechnology so concerns Sir
Martin that he is ready to wager $1, 000 that 1 m people die as a result of a single horrendous act by 2020. In
addition to threats from disgruntled misfits or religious radicals, he worries about the destruction of the natural
environment that may result from broader policy choices made by society. And he is particularly concerned that
the current pattern of industrialization, urbanization and motorization might fuel climate change and biodiversity
loss on such a scale as to lead to environmental disaster.
However, unlike most dystopian works, which are often melodramatic and misleading, "Our Final Century" is
lively, informative and often witty. Sadly, the same cannot be said about "The Wealth of Nature", a provocative
but unsatisfying work by Robert Nadeau, who teaches at America's George Mason University.
Mr. Nadeau believes that the world is already in the throes of an environmental disaster of man's making.
Conventional economics, he says, making a play on Adam Smith's "The Wealth of Nations", is not very good at
valuing nature and "cannot introduce the incentives necessary to a sustainable global environment." He
dismisses recent efforts by environmental economists to put "a green thumb on the invisible hand"; first in
Scandinavia, and now in many countries, governments are imposing effluent taxes and other market-friendly
reforms to help reduce pollution. He also dismisses similar efforts by ecological economists - cuddlier,
philosophically greener versions of environmental economists - as ultimately destined to fail.
It is easy for Mr. Nadeau to scoff at the prospects for greening Adam Smith's hand, but, in fact, market-based
environmentalism may well be the best hope for reconciling future economic growth with the need to preserve
nature. That is certainly the view of a distinguished group of scientists, economists and other conservation
experts assembled by the Royal Society, Britain's premier scientific body. In "Capturing Carbon and Conserving
Biodiversity; The Market Approach", the boffins examine various challenges involved in dealing with two of
the biggest environmental problems: global warming and biodiversity loss.
Crucially, they argue that turning to market forces can help solve both problems at once. By putting an
economic value on the neglected "ecosystem services" provided by forests, such as their ability to absorb carbon
from the atmosphere, they argue that both deforestation and climate change can be dealt with. That is not to say
that the market-friendly approaches advocated in this book are cure-alls. There are still plenty of problems to
overcome. One example is that scientists still do not fully understand how and how fast different trees absorb
carbon as they grow, making accurate measurements particularly difficult to calculate.
Even so, explains Ian Swingland, who edited this collection of articles, this approach is far more promising than
the failed conservation approaches of the past that relied on "a donation-driven western culture permeated by the
idea that so-called expert and political committees could and should plan what should happen, and draw lines on
maps as boundaries between people and the rest of the animal and plant world. Well-meaning it may have been,
but disastrous it has proved." In arguing that "biodiversity can pay for itself through benign systems of
sustainable extraction, where people can receive some equitable share by right, not patronage," Mr. Swingland
and his co-authors make a compelling case that the best way to reduce the risk of any potential eco-disaster is to
embrace market greenery.
The future may be brighter than the eco-doomsayers suggest. One reason is that man has more power to
influence that future benignly - through innovations in technology and economic policy - than some suggest.
Another is that it is simply wrong to imply that most environmental indicators suggest an environmental disaster
is imminent. Inspect Sir Martin's work closely, for example, and you find that he is careful about his language
and predictions; unlike many greens (and, it must be said, Mr. Nadeau at times), who adopt the alarmist tactic of
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giving only the shocking high end of forecasts of potential global warming, without mentioning the low end of
the forecast, Sir Martin tends to give ranges and add appropriate qualifiers and caveats. The Cambridge
academic is also very wary of the so-called precautionary principle, a misguided pseudo-philosophy invoked by
greens to stifle innovation in areas like genetically modified foods.
So how does he justify his suggestion that mankind might have only a 50-50 chance of surviving the 21st century
- our final century, to use the alarmist title of the book? Even before one could ask him that question at a recent
literary event, Sir Martin confessed to being a fan of Bjorn Lomborg - a Danish academic who recently caused
some controversy when he suggested that greens have been systematically distorting the fact that the
environment has been getting healthier in many countries.
Sir Martin then took the reviewer's copy of "Our Final Century" and penciled in a question mark after the title.
His publishers had ruled it out. The American publishers even changed the title from "Our Final Century" to
"Our Final Hour". Sir Martin is clever enough to know that the end is not nigh, but he put up with the chicanery
in order to gain a wider audience. A small sin, perhaps, in such an important book.
69. Why does the author consider Sir Martin's agreeing to have the title changed a small sin?
1. The title is changed with the intention that it would pique the readers’ interest and there by
probably push the sales up.
2. The new title goes against what is said in the book.
3. It uses deception to gain readership.
4. Sir Martin has colluded with the publishers for personal gain.
70. The term ‘the invisible hand', as used in the passage, may mean
1. policies made by man not taking environment into consideration.
2. pollution caused by industries.
3. the economics that operate in markets that are not conducive to environment.
4. present state of environment.
71. Which of the following statements reflect Mr. Ian Swing land’s opinion?
(A) The interaction among all entities of nature should be considered.
(B) If the systems are harmless, biodiversity may be automatically taken care of.
(C) Environment friendly policies can avert potential disaster to ecology.
(D) Politicians, together with scientists, should plan the course of action to preserve the
environment.
1. only A 2. A and B 3. A, B and C 4. All the above
72. According to the author, the future may still be green because
(A) innovation in technology may save the day.
(B) environmental indicators do not necessarily suggest a disaster.
(C) scaremongers have put forth only the extreme possibility.
(D) man has the power to positively influence the present scenario.
1. only A 2. A and B 3. A, B and C 4. All the above
73. Pick out the statements that are true according to the passage:
(A) Sir Martin is an astrophysicist from Cambridge University.
(B) Mr. Nadeau teaches at America's George Mason University.
(C) Mr. Ian Swing land is a scientist at the Royal Society in Britain.
(D) The greens are against everything that is not natural.
1. A and B 2. B and C 3. C and D 4. A and D
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PASSAGE - 5
Everyone is not equal, so also the mind. In some of us, it is well developed and in others, not so well developed.
However, everyone has the capacity to train the mind and uplift it from whatever level it finds itself at. Three
aspects can be considered: 1) vocational and secular education, 2) moral and aesthetic education, and 3) making
it fit for spiritual realizations and experiences.
Education, as we commonly understand it, consists of school and university education related to arts and
science, commerce and vocation, etc. For such education, every country and society builds schools and colleges,
and indeed we see very impressive progress and growth in this field. Secondly, based on morality, at times
forced by the law, some ethical progress is also visible. Punishment for stealing, crime, etc., acts as a deterrent
and it, in turn, enforces morality in a community.
However, the mind can also be trained to radiate strength, peace, and honesty by way of cultivating such virtues
as truthfulness, self-control, humility, and compassion. It can be said that the best direction or field to train the
mind is the field of spirituality. To know one's true nature and the purpose for human birth itself leads to the
birth of the best qualities in our personality.
Mind is subtle matter, an energy – a force that can take any form instantly. It has tremendous capacity to
empower itself. However, it is insentient and has to take or borrow the Light of Consciousness for its functions.
As a thought or a feeling or an emotion, it can express itself only as a mixture of matter and consciousness.
Consciousness is the only spiritual basis of Existence; it is our true nature, the Self. Thus the mind can be
separated from Consciousness, and, in fact, this separation of the spirit from a false identification with matter is
the goal of human life. It is what religion is all about.
The trouble is that in this difficult process of seeing Spirit differently from the functions of 'brain and mind', one
has to take the help of the mind itself. The road to understanding our Self is through the purification of the mind,
the process that requires help from the mind, howsoever defiant and unfriendly it might be in the beginning.
As with every form of matter, the mind also consists of three gunas - tamas, rajas, and sattva - the basic
constituents of Primordial Nature (Prakriti). The relative predominance of one or the other gunas gives a
peculiar character to the mind. When tamas prevails, the mind is dull, stupid, and lazy. It is easily caught in the
mesh of infatuation of inertia. Rajas makes the mind active, ambitious, and passionate. However, such a mind is
easily misled into errors. It is caught in the web of the degrading qualities of lust, anger, greed, jealousy and
hatred. Only sattva illumines and leads mind to freedom. Sattva is associated with joy, happiness, kindness and
similar noble virtues. Thus, the training of the mind consists of cultivating pure sattva in our character and
personality.
74. Identify the statements which are true according to the passage:
(A) One has the capacity to train one's mind and raise it to a higher level.
(B) Morality can be enforced upon people by way of rules, laws, regulations, etc., to a certain
extent.
(C) The field of spirituality can, at best, be used for training the human mind.
(D) Though the mind is well developed in all humans, how they train and use it will decide its
prominence in one's spiritual quest.
1. Only A and B 2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D 4. All the four statements are true.
75. Regarding the three gunas of the human mind,

(A) If one's mind is perceived to be dull, stupid and lazy, it is tamas that is dominant.
(B) Inspite of the dominance of rajas, one's mind can still be led on a downward spiral.
(C) Sattva is associated with noble virtues.
(D) When one of the three gunas dominates, the other two cease to exist.
1. A, C and D are true. 2. A, B and C are true.
3. B, C and D are true. 4. A, B, C and D are true.
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76. Identify the correct statement(s) and mark your choice:
1. Religion helps us to distinguish the spirit as a separate entity from matter.
2. Cultivating pure sattva in our character and personality constitutes the training of the mind.
3. While trying to discover our true nature and the purpose of our birth, the best qualities in our
personality may take birth.
4. All the above statements are true.
DIRECTIONS for questions 77 to 81: Fill the gaps in the passages below with the most appropriate word from
the options given for each gap. The right words are the ones used by the author. Be guided by the author's
overall style and meaning when you choose the answers.
The mastodon was munching away at the edge of a lake near Ohio before he died. Humans apparently butchered
him and stored the meat and bones in the lake, now a chilly bog. There they lay until 1989 when a golf course
construction crew found the collection of bones. Further investigation produced an (77) of unexpected results.
Most amazing was the discovery of bacteria in the mastodon's gut. When microbiologists (78) the bacteria they
began to grow. They had (79) in the oxygen-free bog for 11,600 years, according to carbon dating of the bones.
77. 1. irony 2. array 3. iota 4. eon
78. 1. cultured 2. nurtured 3. injected 4. investigated
79. 1. subsisted 2. multiplied 3. survived 4. thrived
According to Kautilya, the ruler should use any means to attain his goal and his action requires no moral sanction.
Though the kings were allowed a free (80), the citizens were subject to a rigid set of rules. This double standard has
been cited as an excuse for the (81) of Arthashastra, though the cause of its ultimate neglect was the formation of a
totally different society to which these methods no longer applied.
80. 1. reign 2. rein 3. relativism 4. reinforcement
81. 1. obscurantism 2. observation 3. oblivion 4. obsolescence
DIRECTIONS for questions 82 to 86: A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences, from among the choices given, to construct a
coherent paragraph.
82. A. He seemed the favorite to become the UN's Secretary General in 1981, but the Soviet
Union vetoed his candidature, claiming he was too pro-western, and vetoed him again in 1991.
B. It was almost certainly nonsense, but the Russians may have believed it.
C. Around that time, stories circulated that the Prince was a secret agent for the British, using his
job as a cover for intelligence gathering.
D. Sadruddin stepped down after 12 years, the longest any refugee chief has held the job, but
returned to the UN at times of crisis to help, notably in Afghanistan during the Soviet
occupation and Iraq after the first Gulf War.
E. Sadruddin insisted that he had equal sympathy with eastern and western people.
1. DACBE 2. DCAEB 3. EACDB 4. BCADE
83. A. For as long as business has existed, people involved in it have been subjected to the whims of
the economy.
B. An interesting research in the recent past threw up mind-boggling statistics.
C. The only constant in business has been 'change', and economic uncertainty has been just
another day at the office for all those who ever thought of financial success.
Ergo, pervasive market fluctuation and economic volatility are here, here to stay.
E. Of the total Companies in the 1955 Fortune 500 list, 70 per cent are now out of business, and
of those listed in 1979, 40 per cent no longer exist as corporate entities.
1. BCADE 2. ACDBE 3. BEACD 4. ABEDC
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84. A. Recently, Indian artist Tyeb Mehta's triptych 'Celebration’, commissioned by the Times of
India group in 1995, sold at a Christie's auction in New York for 317,500 U.S. dollars, the
highest recorded price for a contemporary Indian painting.
B. They are more like partners in the grandest scam in modern history.
C. In another auction, an unknown Japanese collector paid 5.400,000 US dollars for Van Gogh's
'Peach Trees in Blossom', enough money to start a new industry.
D. Art and money make strange bedfellows, but not as Shakespeare would have them, in misery.
E. These days, it seems that the principle function of art is the absorption of excess cash.
l. DEBAC 2. ACBED 3. ECABD 4. DACEB
85. A. Besides, organized sector jobs are some of India's best-paid and most productive jobs.
B. Combined with employment insecurity - the fear of not finding a job - it has fuelled economic
insecurity among all income classes.
C. Job insecurity - the fear of losing one's job - has intensified across all sections, organized and
unorganized.
D. The organized sector generates over 40 per cent of the national income.
E. The growing fear is that existing jobs are under threat and new jobs are difficult to come by.
F. The squeeze in the organized sector is thus a symptom of a bigger root in the economy.
l. BAFDEC 2. CBEADF 3. DFEACB 4. ECAFDB
86. A. It attacks a temple in Ahmedabad.

B. Terror has acquired an anytime anywhere banality.
C. Terror doesn't require an entry pass.
D. It bombs a French plane taking off the shore of Yemen.
E. It doesn't need a guide to choose the venue.
F. 9/11 may have changed the world, but it hasn't much changed the fighting spirit that authored 9/11.
G. It breezes into the tropical resort of Bali and explodes, killing scores of Saturday night revelers.
l. ECDBAGF 2. GDACBEF 3. CEBGADF 4. FAGDBEC
DIRECTIONS for questions 87 to 91: In each of the questions below, four different ways of writing a sentence
are indicated. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
87. A. Having lived in the city's outer regions as a student of Arabic and a teacher of English at the
American University in Cairo, had some idea what that irascible cobbler's day had been like,
starting with a long and bruising commute on a bus overflowing with workers and their luggage.
B. Having lived in the city's outer regions as a student of Arabic and a teacher of English in the
American University at Cairo, I had some idea what that irascible cobbler's day has been like, starting
with a long and bruising commute on a bus overflowing with the workers and their luggage.
C. Having lived in the city's outer regions as a student of Arabic and a teacher of English at the
American University in Cairo, I had some idea what that irascible cobbler's day has been like,
starting with a long and bruising commute on a bus over flown with the workers and their luggage.
D. Having lived in the city's outer regions as a student of Arabic and a teacher of English in the
American University at Cairo, I had some idea what that irascible cobbler's day had been like
starting with a long and bruising commute on a bus over flown with the workers and their luggage.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
88. A. I moved to Alaska in 1979 from the urban environment of New York, setting on in search
of the essence or spirit that is found in the vastness of the land and philosophy where life is
learned from the patterns found in nature — where the land is not just a scenic backdrop but
an integral part of human life.
B. I moved to Alaska in 1979 from the urban environment in New York, setting out in search of
the essence or spirit that is found in the vastness of the land and philosophy where life is
C. I moved to Alaska in 1979 from the urban environment of New York, setting out in search of
the essence or spirit that is found in the vastness of the land and of a philosophy where life is
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D. I moved to Alaska in 1979, from the urban environment in New York, setting on in search of
the essence or spirit that is found in the vastness of the land and of a philosophy where life is
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
89. A. There has been no dearth of peace initiatives, though all plans fell through amid the debris and
bloodshed triggered by suicide bombers and massive counter-terrorism by the state of Israel.
B. There has been no dearth in peace initiatives, but all plans fell apart amid the debris and
C. There has been no dearth of peace initiatives but all plans fell apart amid the debris and
D. There has been no dearth in peace initiatives but all plans fell through amid the debris and
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
90. A. India has a huge scientific network of institutes, but much of the
spending has been by the government, resulting in poor profitability and complaints of red
tape bureaucratic or even political perceptions, rather than those of the market directing much
of the research.
B. India has a huge scientific network of institutes, but much of the spending has been by the
government, with result of poor profitability and complaints of red tape bureaucratic or even
political perceptions, rather than that of the market directing much of the research.
C. India has a huge scientific network of institutes, but much of the spending has been by the
government, with result of poor profitability and complaints of red tape bureaucratic or even
political perceptions, rather than those of the market directing much of the research.
D. India has a huge scientific network of institutes, but much of the spending has been by the
government resulting in poor profitability and complaints of red tape bureaucratic or even political
perceptions, rather than that of the market directing much of the research.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
91. A. So long as this country with her hoary civilization and many-sided
culture, her wealth of resources and matchless opulence in spirit remained in political
bondage, that very fact constituted implicit denial of those values to which the dominant
nations of the west were wont to pay lip service.
B. So long as this country with her hoary civilization and many-sided culture, her wealth of
resources and matchless opulence of spirit remained in political bondage, which very fact
constituted implicit denial of those values to which the dominant nations of the west were
wont to pay lip service.
C. So long as this country with her hoary civilization and many-sided culture, her wealth of
resources and matchless opulence of spirit remained in political bondage, that very fact
constituted an implicit denial of those values to which the dominant nations of the west were
wont to pay lip service.
D. So long as this country with her hoary civilization and many-sided culture, her wealth of
resources and matches opulence in spirit remained in political bondage, which very fact
constituted an implicit denial of those values to which the nations of the west were wont to
pay lip service.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
92. Official sources put the number of child laborers in the country at 17 million, of which two million are
engaged in hazardous occupations. On the other hand, while some independent sources estimate the number
to be closer to 44 million, there are others who have fixed the figure at 100 million.
Which of the following could be the fundamental reason for the conflicting reports on the size of child labor?
1. Accuracy of official sources.
2. Inaccuracy of independent sources.
3. Lack of agreement between official figures and figures of independent sources in all areas.
4. Prevailing confusion on the question of who constitutes a child laborer.
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MANYACAT
93. Economic policy in general, and economic reform in particular, requires understanding that shaping
economic policy is less about crisis management and more fundamentally about conflict management.
Which of the following would be an example of economic policy based on crisis management?
1. An economic policy which balances conflicting demands without caving in to every powerful
interest group.
2. An economic policy which reflects continuing compromises in economic decision-making with
populist and sectional interest demands.
3. An economic policy which emphasizes the welfare of the poor and downtrodden.
4. An economic policy framed to give a boost to industrial growth in the country.
94. My hypothesis is that institutions are a creative act and the creative act is bound with the person. The
institutions that Gandhi or Tagore or Aurobindo created - they were a natural emanation of their
creative endeavour - they were like works of art. But these people did not see as to how these
institutions survive - how they perpetuate and maintain themselves.
Which of the following could be an apt summary of the above passage?
1. Institution-builders are creative but as a rule do not have vision.
2. Gandhiji and people like him lack the foresight to perpetuate their institutions.
3. Some of the great institution-builders from whose creativity institutions emerged did not think
of ways of perpetuating them.
4. Creativity and myopia exist hand in hand.
95. Clearly, nothing is sacrosanct. Nothing escapes the cannibalizing instincts of the new image managers.
Dance festivals at Khajuraho, fashion shows at the Qutub, cigarette hoardings at sports events - the
past, cultural traditions, values and dreams - are all selectively deployed, packaged and spewed out.
It can be inferred from the above passage that
1. the notion of sanctity makes things unsuitable for commercial exploitation.
2. the present genre of image managers are highly conscious about using national monuments for
commercial exploitation.
3. the present breed of image managers are immune to the notion of sanctity and are focused on
image enhancement at any cost.
4. the present breed of image managers are an uncivilized lot.
Directions For Questions 96 to 100: For the word given on the table, match the dictionary definitions given in
the left hand column (A, B, C, D) with their corresponding usages given in the right hand column (E, F, G, H).
Out of the four numbered choices given in the boxes below the table, identify the one that has all definitions and
usages correctly matched.
96. FIX
A. To repair something that is broken or E. Would you try and fix the brakes of my
not working properly bike please?
B. To decide on a limit for something, F. I‘ll fix him for coming home well past
especially prices, costs, etc., so that midnight.
they do not change.
C. To arrange an election, game, etc. G. The match must have been fixed; every
dishonestly so that you get the result body said so.
you want.
D. To punish some one for some thing H. Prices in this shop are fixed; you cannot
they have done. bargain.
1. 2. 3. 4.
A E A E A E A E
B F B G B H B H
C G C H C F C G
D H D F D F D F
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MANYACAT
97. HANDLE
A. To deal with a difficult situation or E. It is difficult to get a handle on his

problem moods, whims and fancies.
B. To control the movement of a vehicle, F. He couldn’t handle the pressures of his
tool, etc. twelve hour job.
C. The part of a door, drawer, window G. I bought a knife with a silver handle at
etc that you use for opening it the sale.
D. To start to understand a person, H. He handles the huge truck with great
situation etc ease and skill.
1. 2. 3. 4.
A E A E A F A E
B G B H B H B H
C F C G C G C F
D H D F D E D G
98. QUICK
A. Containing or existing for only a short E. She has the habit of biting nails to the
time quick.
B. Moving or happening fast F. A series of quick interviews and my life
changed completely.
C. Able to learn and understand G. I’ll grab a quick launch and be back in
twenty minutes.
D. The sensitive flesh under your H. She is a quick learner; she’ll go places.
fingernails and toenails
1. 2. 3. 4.
A F A H A G A G
B G B F B F B F
C E C E C H C H
D H D H D E D E
99. PIT
A. A hole in the ground, especially one E. Our team was pitted against
made by digging professional players.
B. A mine, especially a coal mine F. They have decided not to take it on
rent; the place is an absolute pit!
C. A house or room that is dirty, untidy, G. He went down into the pit and waited
or in bad condition for further instructions from his boss.
D. To test your strength, ability, power H. They dug a pit in their backyard and
etc against someone else buried their dead dog.
1. 2. 3. 4.
A H A G A G A H
B G B H B H B F
C E C E C E C E
D F D F D F D G
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MANYACAT
100. QUIET
A. Not making much noise E. I like the peace and quiet of the
countryside.
B. A peaceful place where there is not F. You’re very quiet today; is something
much activity and there are not many bothering you?
people
C. Not saying much or not saying G. The winter months are quiet for my
anything field of work.
D. Not busy in business H. Please be quiet because the baby has
just been rocked to sleep.
1. 2. 3. 4.
A H A E A F A F
B E B H B E B G
C F C F C H C E
D G D G D G D H
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MANYACAT
Section III
Directions For Questions 101 to 105: These questions are based on the line graphs given below which show
the rate of flow of water (in litres per minute) through two taps A and B over their first 60 minutes of operation.
50
45
40
35
30
liters/minute
25
20
15
10
0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60
minutes
Tap A Tap B
101. If tap A is a filling tap while tap B is an emptying tap, then during which of the following intervals did
the water level in the tank raise/ fall by the maximum amount? (Assume that the tank is a vertical
cylinder of radius of 1m).
1. 0-5 2. 25-30 3. 20-25 4. 50-60
102. If tap B was an emptying tap, then what is the maximum possible capacity of a tank (which is initially
full) that B alone can empty within the first 50 minutes?
1. 675litres 2. 700litres 3. 825litres 4. None of above
103. If at time t = 0, the two taps together start to fill an empty tank of capacity 1125 litres, then in how
much time will the tank be filled?
1. 25 minutes 2. 30 minutes 3. 35 minutes 4. 40 minutes
104. If both the taps together filled an empty tank completely in exactly the first 17½ minutes, then what is
the approximate capacity of the tank?
1. 525litres 2. 512litres 3. 486litres 4. None of above
105. At time t = 0, the taps A and B simultaneously start filling two tanks T1 and T2 respectively. If the
capacities of T1 and T2 are 825 and 525litres respectively, then which amongT1 and T2 is filled first?
1. T1 2. T2
3. Both take the same time 4. Cannot be determined
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MANYACAT
Directions For Questions 106 to 110: These questions are based on the diagram on the diagram given below
which represents the distribution of the number of students from a well known institute of CAT coaching in
India getting admission at five prestigious Institutes of Management in India.
→ IIMA 24
→ IIMB 6 15
12 2
8
→ IIMC 6 7
4
6 5 7 11
1
→ IIML 16
5
17 14
8 4
→ IIMI
22
106. Of the students who did not get admission into IIMA, how many did not get admission into IIMB or
did not get admission into IIML but manage to get admission into IIMC?
1. 34 2. 35 3. 37 4. None of these
107. How many students are there who got admission into at least one among IIMA and IIMI and also got
admission into at least one among IIMB and IIMC but definitely did not get admission into IIML?
1. 35 2. 34 3. 33 4. None of these
108. How many students got admission into exactly two or into exactly three of the given colleges?
1. 87 2. 90 3. 91 4. None of these
109. How many students got admission into exactly four of the given colleges?
1. 25 2. 30 3. 32 4. None of these
110. How many students got admission into at least two of the given colleges?
1. 199 2. 188 3. 119 4. None of these
Directions For Questions 110 to 113: Read the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
Sixteen members, A through P, belonging to four different families, sit in sixteen chairs arranged in 4 rows and
4 columns. Each family consists of a father, a mother, a boy and a girl.
B, D, F and K are the fathers; M, P, I and G are the mothers; N, L, J and H are the boys and A, C, E and O are
the girls.
1. No two members of the same family sit in either the same row or in the same column.
2. No two fathers or two mothers or two boys or two girls sit either in the same row or in the same
column.
3. Each of the members, K and H; I and L; J, C and M; B and E belong to the same family. G and O
belong to the same family but H is not the brother of O.
4. D is not the husband of G.
5. A boy and a girl always sit adjacent to each other in any given column.
6. A's father sits in the 4th row lst column, N's mother sits in the 2nd row 2nd column, J's mother sits in the
4th row but not in the 3rd column and D sits in the 2nd column.
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MANYACAT
111. Which among the following statement/s is/are required to determine the positions of all the sixteen
members?
(A) N' s father sits in the 3rd row 4lh column.
(B) K' s wife sits in the 1st row 3rd column.
(C) F' s daughter sits in the 4th row.
1. Both (A) and (B) 2. Only (B) 3. Only (C) 4. (A),(B) and (C)
112. If it is given that K' s daughter sits in the 4th column, then in how many ways can all these sixteen
members sit?
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. None of these
113. Which of the following are the members of the same family?
1. K, P, H and C 2. M, J, C and F 3. B, I, L and O 4. F, G, N and O
Directions For Questions 114 and 115: Read the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
Four solids, namely Sphere, Cube, Pyramid and Cone are made of four different materials among Kryptonite,
Wood, Diamond and Glass. Each solid is of a different colour among White, Green, Yellow and Black and each
has a unique weight among 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 kg. The costs of these solids are Rs.l thousand, Rs.l million,
Rs.l billion and Rs.l trillion. Each of the solids is manufactured by exactly one process among Cutting, Casting,
Moulding and Forging. All the above mentioned properties of the solids are not in any particular order.
Further, the following information is available:
1. The Sphere is made of Diamond but it is neither Black in colour nor is it manufactured through the
process of Casting.
2. The Cube is the 3rd heaviest and also the cheapest but it is neither made of Wood nor manufactured
through the process of Casting.
3. The solid made of Kryptonite is manufactured through the process of Cutting but it is not Black in
colour.
4. No two solids have the same relative position in terms of cost and weight.
5. The Pyramid is manufactured through the process of Moulding and is neither the costliest nor the
lightest and it is not made of Wood or Diamond but is Green in colour.
114. If it is given that the solid made of Diamond is the heaviest but not White in colour, then which among
the following statements is true?
1. The Cone, which is made of Wood and manufactured through the process of Casting, is White
in colour.
2. The Cube, which is made of Kryptonite and manufactured through the process of Cutting,
costs Rs.l,000 and is Yellow in colour.
3. The Sphere, which is made of Diamond and is Yellow in colour, is manufactured through the
process of Forging.
4. None of the above
115. Which solid is made of Wood and is manufactured through the process of Casting?
1. Sphere 2. Cube 3. Pyramid 4. Cone
116. If a particular year starts with a Sunday and ends with a Sunday, then which of the following
statements is definitely false?
1. The year is not a leap year.
2. In the year 15th January and 15th October will fall on the same day of the week.
3. In the year 10th July and 10th October will fall on the same day of the week.
4. There will be 53 Sundays in that year.
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MANYACAT
117. Seven people, A through G, sit in a row (not necessarily in the same order). Exactly three people sit in
between A and G while exactly three people sit in between B and E. Exactly four people sit in between
C and E while exactly four people sit in between D and G. Exactly two people sit in between B and D
while exactly two people sit in between C and A. Given that either B or A sits to the immediate right of
D, then who sits exactly at the middle of the row?
1. C 2. B 3. F 4. Cannot be determined
118. Manoj and Manohar go on a long drive of a certain predetermined length. As they drive they play a
game according to which they drive alternately and each of them can, in one chance, drive any whole
number of kilometres between 2 km to 10 km (both values inclusive). The one who gets to drive the
last kilometre is the winner, (assume that both of them play intelligently to win)
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. If Manoj starts the drive, then he will definitely win if the drive is 1008 km long.
2. If Manohar lost, then the drive could not have been 994 km long.
3. If the drive is 1001 km long, then the person starting will always win.
4. Both 1. and 2.
Directions For Questions 119 and 120: Read the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
Seven students A, B, C, D, E. F and G were supposed to receive one prize each from seven prizes M, N, O, P,
Q, R and S, not necessarily in that order. Due to a problem during packing, the prizes got interchanged and
finally after the distribution was over it was found that not all the prizes went to the students that they were
respectively intended for. The following information was further available.
1. D got Q which was not intended for him while B received S which was intended for him.
2. C got N while he was supposed to get M and G got the prize that was intended for him.
3. E got R while F got O and the student who should have got Q did not get R or M.
4. The prizes meant for no two students got interchanged.
119. If E was not supposed to get N, then what was the prize received by the student who was supposed to
get the prize N.
1. R 2. M 3. Q 4. P
120. If not more than two prizes went to the right students, then the student who deserved R got which prize
finally?
1. M 2. Q 3. O 4. R
Directions For Questions 121 to 126: These questions are based on the tables given below.
Average Salaries (In Rupees Per Month) Of Employees In Various Departments Across Eleven
Companies
Production Quality Human Marketing Finance Advertising

SVT 12,839 27,649 13,261 28,392 18,643 21,643
Technologies
Infogyst 13,386 25,431 14,437 27,531 17,436 22,641
Dipro 19,446 28,861 18,546 29,638 18,331 23,436
Cyndel 11,629 21,428 12,341 34,641 15,249 12,121
Saika 18,436 20,808 17,539 26,265 21,648 18,346
Marino 11,629 29,646 11,825 21,649 23,474 12,618
HMLC 17,329 28,341 17,293 28,238 24,531 18,320
Nithyam 12,436 27,647 14,236 26,849 21,356 12,346
Lilips 21,241 21,639 19,641 30,864 25,111 19,421
Fedez 11,486 24,635 12,521 25,323 19,631 12,641
Nicolas 12,648 26,431 13,89 26,341 18,643 12,468
Sample Paper
26
MANYACAT
Number Of Employees In Various Departments Across Eleven Companies
(in unit numbers)
Production Quality Human Marketing Finance Advertising
Control Resource
SVT 19,243 734 421 3,224 233 17
Technologies
Infogyst 21,346 831 214 3,743 229 18
Dipro 61,439 1,129 734 4,864 436 63
Cyndel 43,129 1,641 563 4,136 321 34
Saika 67,538 2,143 641 5,191 471 69
Marino 82,431 3,231 1,815 7,135 732 78
HMLC 36,487 1,146 517 4,784 349 32
Nithyam 49,147 2,431 831 5,136 465 43
Lilips 27,148 1,846 645 2,431 391 18
Fedez 41,365 3,749 439 4,766 411 39
Nicolas 51,431 3,521 1,129 5,734 637 43
121. Which of the following companies, when compared to all the other companies, spend the maximum
amount towards the salaries of the employees in its marketing department?
1. Infogyst 2. Saika 3. Marino 4. Lilips
122. In how many companies is the average salary of the employees in the H. R. department more than that
of the Production department but less than that of the Finance department?
1. 7 2. 8 3. 9 4. 10
123. The total monthly salary to the employees in the Production department of HMLC is 1% of HMLC’s
total revenue of the year and the total monthly salary paid to the employees in HMLC’s Advertising
department forms 0.16% of HMLC’s total expenses for the year. What is the gross profit of HMLC for
the year? (Gross profit = Total revenue – Total expenses).
1. Rs.265.60 crores 2. Rs.265.60 lakhs 3. Rs.26.5 crores 4. Rs.26.56 lakhs
124. If the number of employees is given in ‘100s’ instead of in units, then considering each department of
each company as an instance, in how many instances is the average salary of the employees in that
department numerically more than the number of employees in that department?
1. 9 2. 10 3. 11 4. 12
125. The total salary paid to the employees of the advertising department of which of the given companies is
the lowest?
1. SVT Technologies 2. Infogyst 3. Lilips 4. Cyndel
126. What is the ascending order of the total number of employees in the following companies?
(a) Cyndel (b) HMLC (c) Fedez (d) Nithyam
1. bacd 2. bcad 3. badc 4. abcd
Directions For Questions 127 to 131: These questions are based are on based on the following bar chart and
the formula given. 25
Profit after tax
EPS= 15
number of shares 10
Profit after tax= profit before tax – Tax paid 5
7 5
Profit before tax = Sales revenue – Total expense
A B C
Sales Revenue in Rs. Lakhs EPS in rupee
127. If company A has 90,000 shares and the tax rate is 0.6 percent, then what is the total expenditure of
company A? (in Rs. thousands)
1. 250 2. 500 3. 750 4. 490
Sample Paper
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MANYACAT
128. If all the companies have 1 lakh shares each, which company is most profitable (Profitability is Profit
earned after tax per one rupee of sales)? Assume that all companies pay tax at the same rate.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. Cannot be determined
129. If the sales revenue and the EPS of company C rose by 100 percent and 25 percent respectively, by
how much did the total expenditure grow (over the same time period)?
1. 75 2. 37.5 3. 60 4. Insufficient data
130. Company B has 75,000 shares and its EPS grew by 40% as compared to the previous year. If the total
expenditure remained constant, what was the approximate increase in the total sales revenue given that
the tax rate was cut down this year from 50% to 40%?
1. 10% 2. 8% 3. 9% 4. 12%
131. If a person holds 1,000 shares in each of these companies, what will his total earning in this year be?
Assume that the entire profit is distributed among the shareholders.
1. Rs.14,000 2. Rs.13,000 3. Rs.17,000 4. Rs.15,000
Directions For Questions 132 to 137: These questions are based on the following tables which give the
transportation costs incurred by XYZ Ores and Steel Ltd. for transporting raw materials (i.e. Ore) from its mines
to its plants and for transporting finished steel from its plants to its depots. The following is the complete list of
the facilities of the company. Ton
Four mines: M1 M2, M3, and M4

Five plants: P1, P2, P3, P4, and P5
Five depots: D1, D2, D3, D4, and D5
Cost of transporting Ore Cost of transporting Steel

From Mines to Plants From Plants to Depots
(in Rs. Thousand per ton) (in Rs. Thousand per ton)
Plants P1 P2 P3 P4 P5 Depots D1 D2 D3 D4 D5
Mines Plants
M1 40 0 20 25 15 P1 0 30 35 40 40
M2 30 15 0 20 25 P2 20 0 25 20 15
P3 25 35 0 15 10
M3 25 20 15 0 30
P4 30 20 25 0 20
M4 30 10 10 20 0
P5 15 10 30 25 0
Capacities of the Mines Capacities of the Plants Requirements at the Depots

(tons of Steel) (tons of Steel) (tons of Steel)
Mine Capacity Plant Capacity Depot Requirement

P1 1000 D1 1000
M1 12000 P2 1200 D2 1500
M2 6000 P3 1600 D3 1000
M3 10000 P4 1200 D4 1500
P5 800 D5 1000
M4 4000
There are no other costs of transportation involved.

One ton of raw material (i.e. Ore) yields a quarter ton Steel.
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MANYACAT
132. If M1 works at full capacity, then what is the least possible cost of transportation (in Rs. Thousands)
involved in dispatching all of its ore to the Plants? (The delivery of Ore at any Plant cannot exceed the
plant’s capacity.)
1. Rs.0 2. Rs.108,000 3. Rs.1,16,000 4. Rs.1,28,000
133. If the requirement of Steel at D4 is met completely from the Steel manufactured using the Ore from M2
only, then what is the (approximate) highest possible overall cost of transportation per ton (in Rs.
thousands) incurred for the Steel delivered at D4?
1. 125 2. 148 3. 160 4. None of these
134. If the requirement of Steel at D3 is met completely from the production at P1 only, then what is the least
possible overall cost of transportation per ton (in Rs. thousands) incurred for the Steel delivered at D3?
1. 0 2. 60 3. 135 4. None of these
135. For the Steel stored at D4, the overall cost of transportation ton forms exactly 30% of its cost price. Find
the selling price(in Rs. Thousands) per ton of Steel at D4, if the company makes a 20% profit from it.
1. zero 2. 110 3. 120 4. Cannot be determined
136. If all the five Plants run at full capacity, then for how many of them can the total cost of transportation
of Ore required be zero?
1. 4 2. 3 3. 2 4. 1
137. For how many of the five depots can the overall cost of transportation of the Steel required be zero?
1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3
Directions For Questions 138 to 142: These questions are based on the graph given below.
CORPORATION TAX (Rs. in INCOME TAX (Rs. in crores)

crores)
20000
18000
15500 18000
16000 13250
16000
14000 12480 13500
10500 14000 11000
12000 9200 10500 12000 9500 10925
10000 8125 10000 8300 9500
7870
8000 8000
6000 6000
4000 4000
2000 2000
0 0
'92 - '93 '93-'94 '94-'95 '95-'96 '92 - '93 '93-'94 '94-'95 '95-'96
Budgeted Revised Budgeted Revised
138. The maximum percentage increase in Corporation tax (revised) was in the year
1. 95-96 2. 94-95 3. 93-94 4. None of these
139. The least percentage increase in income tax (budgeted) was _____% in the year__________
1. 22%: 1995-96 2. 20%: 1993-94 3. 20%: 1995-96 4. None of these
140. The ratio of corporation tax to income tax (both budgeted and revised) has been the maximum for
1. 94-95 budgeted 2. 94-95 revised 3. 95-96 budgeted 4. 93-94 revised
141. The trend in the ratio referred to in the question above in case of the budgeted figures has been
1. generally increasing 2. highly fluctuating 3. steady 4. no clear pattern
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MANYACAT
142. The ratio of the absolute increase in the budgeted income tax to the absolute increase in the budgeted
corporation tax over the period is
1. 28:37 2. 2 : 3 3. 3 : 4 4. 37: 28
Directions For Questions 143 to 150: Each question is followed by two statements. You have to decide
whether the information provided in the statements is sufficient for answering the question.
Mark 1 If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using
the other statement alone.
Mark 2 If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark 3 If the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered by using
either statement alone.
Mark 4 If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
143. X is a single digit natural number all of whose powers end in the same digit. What is X?
A. The number is divisible by 5.
B. The number is not a composite number.
144. x + 2y + z = 8;
2x + y + z = 7
What are the values of x, y, z?
A. x, y, z are positive integers.
B. x, y, z are distinct numbers.
145. A truncated cone of base radius 7 cm and height 5 cm is melted into a hollow sphere. What is the inside
diameter of the sphere?
A. The original height of the cone is 10cms.
B. The slant height of the cone originally is 24cms.
146. n = P2 - 1, where P is a prime greater than 3. Find the value of n.

A. n is even.
B. n is between 150 and 200.
147. Does the student X have a score which is below the average score of his class?
A. He belongs to class I. When he migrates to class II, the averages of both classes go up.
B. The average of class II is less than the score of student X.
148. Is a4 + b4 > a3 b + b3 a?
A. a, b are positive real numbers.
B. a, b are different real numbers.
149. What is the number of intersections of 10 lines each of infinite length lying in a plane?
A. No two lines are parallel to each other.
B. No more than two lines intersect at any point.
150. Is ABCD a square?

A. The diagonals of ABCD are perpendicular to each other.
B. The area of ABCD can be expressed as half the product of its diagonals.
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MANYACAT

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MANYACAT SAMPLE PAPER

PreparIng You For Tomorrow

INSTRUCTIONS – Please read these carefully before attempting the test

1. This test is based on pattern of previous years’ CAT papers.

2. There are Three sections

Section I – Quantitative Ability (50 Questions)

7. There are three sections in this test.

your answers on the answer sheet.

10. Relax. You are competing against yourself.

7. If a1 = 1 and a1 + a2 +.... + an = n2 an for all natural numbers n > 1, find a10

12. What is the measurement of PE?

34. For all non-negative integers a and b, g (a, b) is defined as below:

Let # (x, y) = product of x and y

38. The sum of x and y is given by:

40. What is the total number of matches played in the tournament?

45. The age-wise distribution of the population of a town is given below?

51. What is the central idea of the passage?

56. The important aspect of management of IR under democracy is

58. All the following are true except.

63. Identify statements that are true as per the passage.

64. The 'babies of the world' are those who

65. The Brahmin opposed Socrates because he believed that

68. What can 'the struggle' mean?

75. Regarding the three gunas of the human mind,

77. 1. irony 2. array 3. iota 4. eon

78. 1. cultured 2. nurtured 3. injected 4. investigated

79. 1. subsisted 2. multiplied 3. survived 4. thrived

80. 1. reign 2. rein 3. relativism 4. reinforcement

81. 1. obscurantism 2. observation 3. oblivion 4. obsolescence

86. A. It attacks a temple in Ahmedabad.

A. To deal with a difficult situation or E. It is difficult to get a handle on his

Production Quality Human Marketing Finance Advertising

Four mines: M1 M2, M3, and M4

Cost of transporting Ore Cost of transporting Steel

Capacities of the Mines Capacities of the Plants Requirements at the Depots

Mine Capacity Plant Capacity Depot Requirement

There are no other costs of transportation involved.

CORPORATION TAX (Rs. in INCOME TAX (Rs. in crores)

Budgeted Revised Budgeted Revised

146. n = P2 - 1, where P is a prime greater than 3. Find the value of n.

150. Is ABCD a square?

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