Tutorial 1

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Question 3

Mr Baffled, the managing director of Confused


plc, has heard that the internal rate of return
(IRR) method of investment appraisal is the best
modern approach. He is trying to apply the IRR
method to two new projects.
Year

Project C

Project D

-3,000

-3,000

+14,950

+7,500

-12,990

-5,000

a) Calculate the IRR of each projects.


Project C
12%, -3,000+(14,950/(1+0.12))+(-12,990/(1+0.12)^2)
= -7.34
13%, -3,000+(14.950/(1+0.13))+(-12,990/(1+0.13)^2)
= 57
IRR= 12+(7.34/(7.24+57)x(13-12))= 12.11%
*-3,000+(14,950/(1+0.121))+(-12,990/(1+0.121)^2)
= 0 (result)

Project D
31%, -3,000+(7,500/(1+0.31))+(-5,000/(1+0.31)^2)
= -188.41
34%, -3,000+(7,500/(1+0.34))+(-5,000/(1+0.34)^2)
= -187.6
36%, -3,000+(7,500/(1+0.36))+(-5,000/(1+0.36)^2)
= -188.59

b) Explain why Mr Baffled is having


difficulties with the IRR method.
Non conventional cash flow cause problem.

c) Advise Confused whether to accept either or


both projects. (Assume a discount rate of 25
percent)
Project C
-3,000+(14950/(1+0.25)+(-12,990/(1+0.25)^2)
= 646
Project D
-3,000+(7,500/(1+0.25))+(-5,000/(1+0.25)^2)
= -200
Accept project C since NPV >0

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