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Cse Study Guide 5th Ed
Cse Study Guide 5th Ed
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Control Systems
Engineering (CSE)
Study Guide,
Fifth Edition
for the Professional Engineering
(PE) Licensing Examination
FOR THE
PROFESSIONAL ENGINEERING
LICENSING EXAMINATION
Notice
The information presented in this publication is for the general education of the
reader. Because neither the author nor the publisher has any control over the use of
the information by the reader, both the author and the publisher disclaim any and all
liability of any kind arising out of such use. The reader is expected to exercise sound
professional judgment in using any of the information presented in a particular
application.
Additionally, neither the author nor the publisher have investigated or considered the
effect of any patents on the ability of the reader to use any of the information in a
particular application. The reader is responsible for reviewing any possible patents
that may affect any particular use of the information presented.
Any references to commercial products in the work are cited as examples only.
Neither the author nor the publisher endorses any referenced commercial product.
Any trademarks or trade names referenced belong to the respective owner of the
mark or name. Neither the author nor the publisher make any representation
regarding the availability of any referenced commercial product at any time. The
manufacturer's instructions on use of any commercial product must be followed at all
times, even if in conflict with the information in this publication.
Copyright 2012 by ISA
67 Alexander Drive
P.O. Box 12277
Research Triangle Park, NC 27709
All rights reserved.
Printed in the United States of America.
ISBN: 978-1937560-03-4
No part of this work may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted
in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or
otherwise, without the prior written permission of the publisher.
For information on corporate or group discounts for this book, e-mail: info@isa.org.
TABLE OF CONTENTS
PREFACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
GENERAL INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
STATE LICENSING REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Eligibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Examination Schedule. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Application Procedures and Deadlines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Format. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Content . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Validity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Specifications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Preparation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
MINIMUM COMPETENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
SCORING PROCEDURES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
EXAMINATION PROCEDURES AND INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Reference Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Exam Materials. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Starting and Completing the Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Special Accommodations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
TIPS ON TAKING PE EXAMINATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9
REFERENCES FOR CSE EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
GENERAL REFERENCES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
SPECIFIC KNOWLEDGE AREAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
I. Measurement. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
II. Signals and Transmission . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
III. Final Control Elements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
IV. Control Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
V. Safety Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16
VI. Codes and Standards . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
APPENDIX A
CSE EXAM SPECIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
APPENDIX B
SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
APPENDIX C
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 73
APPENDIX D
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 89
PREFACE
Control Systems Engineering (CSE) was recognized by a vote of the National
Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) at its annual
meeting in Nashua, New Hampshire, on August 10, 1991. Recognition means
that an examination will be developed by NCEES, with help from a
professional society, and offered for use by boards for engineering licensing in
the United States.
NCEES recognition followed a request by control systems engineers to the
Texas Board of Registration for Professional Engineers that it accept CSEs for
licensing in that state. The Texas Board, in turn, asked NCEES to provide an
approved examination. Meetings with CSEs, mostly ISA members, showed
NCEES committee and staff members that this new discipline satisfied their
criteria for recognition: existence of ABET-accredited programs in the field; an
effect on the public health, safety and welfare, and a need on the part of the
profession; sufficient numbers to justify preparation of an exam; and
availability of a professional society willing to support an exam program. An
exam committee was required to submit a two-year supply of acceptable
exam problems.
The supporting professional society is ISA The International Society of
Automation, originally the Instrument Society of America (ISA).
CSE was first recognized in California in the 1970s. A limited period of
licensing without examination (grandfathering) occurred in 1975-76, and an
exam was administered starting in 1978. The California exam did not meet
NCEES standards and was not accepted by other states for registration by
reciprocity. These difficulties were removed with availability of an NCEESapproved exam, administered for the first time in October, 1992.
By April 2010, forty-six state boards had agreed to offer the CSE exam. The
other boards (Alaska, Hawaii, New York and Rhode Island) have asked for a
showing of need and interest in their states before they will recognize CSE.
GENERAL INFORMATION
INTRODUCTION
This study guide is published by ISA The International Society of
Automation, to assist candidates who are preparing for the Principles-andPractice of Engineering examination in Control Systems Engineering (CSE),
one of the requirements for licensure as a professional engineer.
The CSE exam is developed by the National Council of Examiners for
Engineering and Surveying (NCEES). The membership of NCEES is
comprised of the boards of registration in 55 US jurisdictions (50 states, 4
territories and the District of Columbia). As one of its functions, NCEES
provides these boards with uniform exams which are valid measures of
competency for the practice of engineering.
To develop reliable and valid exams, NCEES employs procedures using the
guidelines established in the Standards for Educational and Psychological
Testing (1985), published by the American Psychological Association. These
procedures are intended to maximize the fairness and quality of the exams.
The procedures require the involvement of experienced testing specialists
having the necessary expertise to develop examinations using current testing
techniques.
The exams are the result of careful preparation by committees comprised of
professional engineers from throughout the United States. These engineers
supply the content expertise which is essential in developing exams. By
utilizing the expertise of engineers with different backgrounds, such as
private consulting, government, industry and education, NCEES prepares
exams which are valid measures of competency.
Prior to 1998, most states did not have citizenship or residence requirements.
Now, as a result of the Welfare Reform Act passed by the US Congress in
1996, states cannot confer a benefit (including a professional or commercial
license) on a person who is not a US citizen or legal resident. However,
licenses can be issued to holders of certain types of visas for entry into the US.
Because the rules are complex, candidates affected by this regulation should
discuss their situation with one of the state boards.
Examination Schedule
The CSE exam is offered once per year, on the last weekend in October. Application deadlines vary from state to state, but typically are about three or four
months ahead of the exam date.
Applicants for the CSE exam must have taken and passed the Fundamentalsof-Engineering (FE) exam, also called the Engineer-in-Training (EIT) exam, or
have received a waiver of this exam. Many state boards will waive the FE/EIT
exam for persons with sufficient approved engineering experience, usually at
least eight years. This exam is given in April and October.
Note: Recipients of waivers may encounter difficulty in becoming licensed by
reciprocity or comity in another state where waivers are not available.
Therefore, applicants are advised that it may be advantageous to take and
pass the FE/EIT exam.
Application Procedures and Deadlines
Applications and information are available from the individual boards.
Requirements and fees vary among the jurisdictions, and applicants are
responsible for contacting their board office.
Sufficient time must be allotted to complete the application process and
assemble required data, including a professional work history, references, and
academic transcripts or other verifications of the applicant's engineering
education.
DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION
Exam Format
The NCEES Principles-and-Practice of Engineering exam (commonly called
the PE exam) in Control Systems Engineering (CSE) is an eight-hour exam,
administered in two four-hour sessions.
Each session contains forty (40) questions in a multiple-choice form.
Questions are stated in a standardized form. Questions start with a stem
which describes a situation an engineer might encounter in practice. Any
information or data that the examinee needs appears in the stem. Each
question has a correct answer and three incorrect answers. More than one
question may be based on a common stem.
All of the questions are compulsory; applicants are expected to answer all of
the questions. Each correct answer receives one point. If a question is omitted
or answered incorrectly, it will receive a score of zero. There is no penalty for
guessing.
Sample questions appear in Appendix B of this book.
Exam Content
The subject areas of the CSE exam are described by the exam specification
given in Appendix A.
EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT
Exam Validity
Testing standards require that questions on a licensing exam be representative
of important tasks needed for competent practice in the profession. The
relation between the exam questions and these tasks is established by a
vocational or task analysis of the profession which identifies the duties
performed by practicing engineers. This information is used to develop an
exam content specification which guides development of job-related
questions.
In 1991, ISA retained a contractor to conduct a comprehensive professional
activities and requirements study of the CSE discipline. Questionnaires were
sent to 3200 professional engineers practicing as CSEs; approximately 800
replies were received. Based on their responses, a specification was developed
for an exam to measure critical aspects of the CSE profession. The first exam
was administered in October, 1992. The exam specification was modified
slightly when the all-multiple-choice format initiated in 1998.
Similar studies are performed for all of the disciplines in which NCEES
provides exams. The studies are repeated periodically to reflect changes in
technology. In 2002-3 and in 2009-11, following NCEEs policy, the CSE exam
specification was revised.
Exam Specifications
The examination specification presented in Appendix A shows six major
knowledge areas for CSEs. For each area, possible sub-areas and topics for
exam questions are listed.
Exam Preparation
Exams are developed by a standing ISA committee. Members of the
committee are CSEs, already registered as PEs, who volunteer to write or
review questions. ISA membership is not required.
A group of committee members meets at least twice annually, to determine
the passing score for the most recent exam or to select questions for future
exams. Between these meetings, committee members write new questions.
The content and format of the questions are reviewed by committee members
for compliance with the exam specifications and to assure the quality and
fairness of the exam. These engineers are representative of the profession in
terms of geographic location, area of practice, ethnic background, and gender.
MINIMUM COMPETENCE
One of the most critical considerations in developing and administering
exams for professional engineering registration or licensing is establishment
of passing scores which reflect a standard of minimum competence.
Minimum competence, as measured by the exam component of the licensing
process, is defined by NCEES as follows:
The lowest level of knowledge at which a person can practice professional
engineering in such a manner that will safeguard life, health and property and
promote the public welfare.
The concept of minimum competence is a primary concern of committee
members as they prepare questions for the exam.
SCORING PROCEDURES
Each question is worth 0 or 1 point, so the entire 8-hour exam has a maximum
score of 80 points.
Because it is impossible to write multiple-choice questions to a precise degree
of difficulty, a passing score cannot be set in advance but must be determined
individually for each exam administration.
However, candidates should understand that NCEES exams are NOT graded
by the curve so that pre-specified percentages of examinees will pass and
fail. Instead, they are graded by an item-specific, criterion-referenced
method, i.e., answers are evaluated in terms of what a minimally-competent
candidate is expected to know. With this procedure, each candidate is judged
separately and without regard to the performance of other examinees.
To achieve this result, a passing score workshop or equivalent procedure is
conducted for each exam.
Exam Materials
Before each session, proctors will distribute exam booklets and answer sheets
to be used in responding to the questions.
The exam booklet should not be opened until you are instructed to do so by
the proctor. Read the instructions and information given on the front and back
covers. Enter your name in the upper right corner of the front cover. Listen
carefully to all instructions read by the proctor.
ALL answers must be recorded on the answer sheets in the spaces
corresponding to the question numbers. NO credit is given for anything
written in the exam booklet.
The answer sheets for the multiple-choice questions are machine scored. For
proper scoring, the answer spaces should be blackened completely. Use only
#2 pencils or mechanical pencils with HB lead. Marks in ink or felt-tip pens
may not be scanned accurately. If you decide to change an answer, the first
answer must be erased completely. Incomplete erasures and stray marks may
be read as intended answers.
One side of the answer sheet is used to collect identification and biographical
data. Proctors will guide you through this part of the answer sheet prior to
your taking the test. The process will take about 15 minutes.
Copies of the answer sheets described above are given in the following pages.
It will be wise to become familiar with them before the exam.
Starting and Completing the Exam
You are not to open the exam booklet until instructed to do so by the proctor.
Inside the front cover is additional important information. If you should
complete the exam with more than 30 minutes remaining, you are free to
leave. Within 30 minutes of the end of the exam, you are required to remain
until the end to avoid disrupting those still working and to permit orderly
collection of all exam materials.
Regardless of when you complete the exam, you are responsible for returning
the numbered exam booklet assigned to you. Cooperate with the proctors
collecting the exam materials. Nobody will be allowed to leave until the
proctor has verified that all materials have been collected.
Special Accommodations
If you need special accommodations in the test-taking procedure, due to a
disabling condition, you should communicate your need to your board office
well in advance of the examination day so that appropriate arrangements can
be made.
GENERAL REFERENCES
Below is a list of reference material that one successful PE examinee used:
ISBN
Title
Author/Editor/
Publisher
Bla G. Liptk
Bla G. Liptk
11
C.F. Cusick
Honeywell
Lasse Kamppari
Neles-Jamesbury
Engineering Handbook For Neles-Jamesbury Neles-Jamesbury
Control Valves Technical Bulletin T150-1
Engineering Data
Gorman-Rupp Pumps
Programmable Controllers Practices &
Concepts
Control Valve Handbook 2nd Edition
978-1937560034
Dresser Industrial
Valves
Control Systems Engineering Study Guide ISA
5th Edition
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
IEEE
Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers
445 Hoes Lane
Piscataway, NJ 08854-1331
(732) 981-0060
S 315A-1986 - SUPPLEMENT TO GRAPHIC SYMBOLS FOR
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS DIAGRAMS
ANSI/IEEE 488-1-1987 - IEEE STANDARD DIGITAL INTERFACE
FOR PROGRAMMABLE INSTRUMENTATION
802.1-QBB-2011 - IEEE APPROVED DRAFT STANDARD FOR
LOCAL AND METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORKS - VIRTUAL
BRIDGED LOCAL AREA NETWORKS - AMENDEMENT: PRIORITYBASED FLOW CONTROL
991-1986 - IEEE STANDARD FOR LOGIC CIRCUIT DIAGRAMS
OSHA
Occupational Safety & Health Administration
200 Constitution Avenue NW
Washington, DC 20210
(202) 693-2000
1910 OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH STANDARDS,
SUBPART H, HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 1910.119, PROCESS
SAFETY MANAGEMENT OF HIGHLY HAZARDOUS CHEMICALS
21
APPENDIX A
CSE EXAM SPECIFICATION
The following page shows the official NCEES exam specification, in the form
distributed by its member boards. The specification shows six major areas of
activity for control systems engineers, identified as I through VI, with a
descriptive title and the fraction of the exam (expressed in percent) devoted to
that area. For each area of activity, associated sub-areas of knowledge are
indicated.
23
The exam uses both the International System of units (SI) and the US
Customary System (USCS).
Approximate
Percentage of
Examination
20%
I. Measurement
A. Sensor technologies applicable to the desired type of measurement
(e.g., flow, pressure, level, temperature, analytical, counters, motion,
vision)
B. Sensor characteristics (e.g., rangeability, accuracy and precision,
temperature effects, response times, reliability, repeatability)
C. Material compatibility
D. Calculations involved in pressure drop
E. Calculations involved in flow element sizing
F. Calculations involved in level, differential pressure
G. Calculations involved in unit conversions
H. Calculations involved in velocity
I. Calculations involved in linearization
J. Installation details (e.g., process, pneumatic, electrical, location)
15%
5%
24
5%
5%
20%
8.75%
3.75%
25
5%
2.5%
22%
5%
7%
10%
26
IV.Control Systems
A. Drawings (e.g., process flow diagrams, P&IDs, loop diagrams,
ladder diagrams, logic drawings, cause and effects drawings,
electrical drawings)
B. Theory
1. Basic processes (e.g., compression, combustion, evaporation,
distillation, hydraulics, reaction, dehydration, heat exchangers,
crystallization, filtration)
2. Process dynamics (e.g., loop response, pressure-volumetemperature relationships, simulations)
3. Basic control (e.g., regulatory control, feedback, feed forward,
cascade, ratio, PID, split-range)
4. Discrete control (e.g., relay logic, Boolean algebra)
5. Sequential control e.g., batch, assembly, conveying, CNC)
C. Implementation
1. HMI (e.g., graphics, alarm management, trending, historical data)
2. Configuration and programming (e.g., PLC, DCS, hybrid systems,
SQL, ladder logic, sequential function chart, structured text,
function block programming, data base management, specialized
controllers)
15%
2.5%
5%
7.5%
8%
V. Safety Systems
A. Basic documentation (e.g., safety requirements specification, logic
diagrams, test procedures, SIL selection report)
B. Theory
1. Reliability (e.g., bathtub curve, failure rates)
2. SIL selection (e.g., risk matrix, risk graph, LOPA)
C. Implementation
1. Safety system design (e.g., I/O assignments, redundancy,
segregation, software design)
2. Safety integrity level (SIL) verification calculations
3. Testing (e.g., methods, procedures, documentation)
4. Management of change (e.g., scope of change, impact of change)
27
APPENDIX B
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This is the fifth study guide published for the CSE exam. The following
questions have been assembled from various sources, including past exams in
CSE and other disciplines, and some have been written specifically for this
publication.
The following questions are intended to illustrate the types of questions
which may be encountered in the CSE exam. Questions in this study guide
will NOT appear in future exams.
The following set of questions conforms to the NCEES exam specification in
having the prescribed number of questions for each listed topic. Half of the
questions are numbered 101 to 140 for the morning or AM part of the exam;
the others are numbered 501 to 540 for the afternoon or PM part. To the extent
possible, questions on a particular topic are divided equally between the two
parts of the exam.
Because the following questions resemble an actual exam, candidates wishing
to evaluate their performance under test conditions can do so. Select a time
and place where you will not be interrupted, assemble the materials you
would take to the actual exam, and allow yourself up to four hours for each
half of the exam. To create an answer form, use a sheet from a pad of lined
writing paper; make four columns, numbered 101-120, 121-140, 501-520, and
521-540. Do not check your answers while you are taking the exam; wait until
you are finished with both parts.
Answers and/or solutions are given separately, in Appendix C, so that users
of the study guide can read the questions and record their responses without
simultaneous exposure to the answers. Answers in Appendix C are identified
by topic areas, so you can easily see which areas require the most attention in
preparing to take the actual exam.
Candidates should understand that any one CSE exam can cover only some of
the areas of activity and knowledge listed in the exam specification. Thus, the
following questions do not necessarily deal with all of the possible sub-areas
of CSE activity or knowledge that may appear in future CSE exams.
Likewise, while an effort was made to match the level of difficulty of actual
exams, the match may not be exact. Variations in difficulty from exam to exam
are considered in setting the passing scores. For this reason, candidates
should view their ability to answer the sample questions as an indication of
where to focus their preparatory efforts, not as a prediction of their success on
the actual exams.
29
Morning Session
31
101.
102.
32
The flow rate of a clean, low-viscosity liquid is to be measured as the process input to a
flow control loop. The loop has a 4:1 turndown ratio, and the accuracy requirement is 2%.
The flow rate is best measured using a(n):
(A)
Thermal
(B)
(C)
Pitot tube
(D)
Orifice plate
On-line measurement of the 90% point of a gasoline blending component is best done
using a:
(A)
Liquid chromatograph
(B)
Mass spectrometer
(C)
(D)
Infrared analyzer
Morning Session
103.
19.2
(B)
37.2
(C)
55.7
(D)
60.0
33
104.
105.
106.
34
You must provide a tank gaging system for a liquified natural gas (LNG) tank. LNG is a
cryogenic liquid and is stored at near atmospheric pressure. Under certain conditions, the
LNG can stratify and potentially lead to unsafe conditions. The best choice to provide
reliable, safe operation of the LNG tank would be:
(A)
(B)
(C)
Servo-type that provides liquid level plus temperature and density profiles
(D)
A liquid with an S.G. of 0.8 flows to a pump at 100 psig. The viscosity of the liquid is 3 cP,
the molecular weight is 94, and the temperature is 15C. The pump supplies 100 ft of
head. Piping losses are insignificant. The pressure (psig) at the inlet to the control valve
will be most nearly:
(A)
35
(B)
44
(C)
135
(D)
154
TK-1 has a capacity of 30,000 barrels (US). It is required to fill TK-1 in 6 hours. FV-1 will
need to be sized for a flow rate (gpm) of most nearly:
(A)
3,500
(B)
5,000
(C)
7,143
(D)
21,000
Morning Session
107.
108.
109.
Which of the following Gas Chromatograph (GC) detector types is most appropriate for
measuring low concentrations of sulfur in hydrocarbon fuels?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which pair of devices listed below are most likely to be hazardous gas/gas environment
detectors?
(A)
(B)
P2O5, infrared
(C)
(D)
A safety barrier limits the energy transfer to a hazardous location by limiting the
maximum current (using a fuse) and shunting any high-voltage faults in the safe area to a
safety ground (through Zener diodes).
Which of the following considerations does NOT apply to a shunt Zener Diode barrier?
110.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A control loop of a DCS consists of an isolated 420 mA output and a grounded control
element. A remote indicating device must be installed between the DCS and the control
element. The indicating device has an input range of 1-5 V and is referenced to ground.
Which of the following components (I/I is a current-to-current converter) is/are required
to give a full-scale reading of the indicating device without affecting the control element?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
35
111.
112.
113.
114.
Which of the following statements about wireless (radio) data transmission systems for
use in plantwide data collection and control applications is FALSE?
(A)
(B)
(C)
Wireless systems do not eliminate the need to deliver power to sensor and/or
controller locations.
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
What is the principle advantage of a fieldbus installation over traditional 420 mA with
HART protocol?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ring
II Star
III Bus
IV Mesh
36
(A)
I * IV
(B)
I * II
(C)
II * IV
(D)
All of these
Morning Session
115.
A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a
liquid service application.
Original Service Conditions:
Maximum capacity= 60,000 SCFH
P for valve sizing= 50 PSI
Gas molecular weight= 44
Inlet pressure = 300 PSIG
Inlet temperature= 120F
New Service Conditions:
P for valve sizing= 10 PSI
Liquid specific gravity= 0.81
Inlet pressure = 240 PSIG
The valve coefficient Cv for the original service conditions is approximately equal to:
(A)
4.8
(B)
6.9
(C)
8.5
(D)
10.4
37
116.
117.
118.
119.
38
Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false?
(A)
At least 10-20 pipe diameters of straight run inlet piping should be provided
upstream of control valves.
(B)
(C)
(D)
Valves must be installed with the flow arrow in the correct direction.
Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false?
(A)
If the material is not hazardous, vent lines are not needed for fluid trapped
between stop valves.
(B)
Valves must be located where an operator can see indicators or gages needed for
manual control.
(C)
(D)
Higher flow velocities are allowed in gas lines than in liquid or steam lines.
A suggestion is made that a rising stem globe valve should be replaced with a rotary stem
ball valve. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A)
The ball valve Cv would likely be too large for the application.
(B)
The piping would need to be changed because the ball valve will likely be longer
than the globe valve.
(C)
(D)
The applicable ASME (American Society of Mechanical Engineers) code limits the
maximum superimposed constant backpressure on pressure relief devices to what value?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Morning Session
120.
What is the maximum vessel pressure (in psig) allowed by ASME Code Section VIII
when only PSV-1 is in service and relieving?
FLARE HEADER
PSV
2
PSV
1
CSO
PCV
CSO
GAS FLOW
OUT
GAS FLOW
IN
NLL
LC
10 FT.
4 FT.
LV
LIQUID OUT
Vessel Data:
Max Allowable Working Pressure (MAWP): 200 psig
Dimensions: 4 OD, 10 cylinder, elliptical heads
Normal liquid level: 3.5
Operating pressure: 150 psig
Operating temperature: 100F
Process Data:
Inlet gas flow: 80,000 lb/hr
Molecular weight: 19
(A)
200
(B)
210
(C)
220
(D)
230
39
121.
40
What is the most acceptable, cost-effective method for protecting a safety relief valve in
corrosive service?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Morning Session
122.
How would you insert a DCS RUN/STOP using a single DO into a motor control which
uses a local momentary START/STOP where the local stop can shutdown the motor?
A)
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
LCL
START
N
M
MX
RUN
B)
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
MX
STOP
STATUS
LCL
START
N
M
MX
MX
RUN/STOP
STATUS
C)
H
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
LCL
START
N
M
MX
MX
RUN/STOP
D)
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
STATUS
LCL
START
N
M
MX
STOP
RUN
MX
STATUS
41
123.
An HVAC blower has a shutdown from a building fire detection/protection panel for
Confirmed Fire. Which of the following motor controls is the most correct?
A)
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
HOA
HVAC
PANEL
RUN/STOP
OFF
FIRE
DETECTED
STOP
AUTO
N
M
HAND
MX
EOL
STATUS
B)
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
HOA
HVAC
PANEL
RUN/STOP
OFF
FIRE
DETECTED
STOP
AUTO
N
M
HAND
MX
STATUS
C)
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
HOA
HVAC
PANEL
RUN/STOP
OFF
FIRE
DETECTED
STOP
AUTO
N
M
HAND
EOL
MX
STATUS
D)
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
HOA
HVAC
PANEL
RUN/STOP
OFF
AUTO
FIRE
DETECTED
STOP
N
M
HAND
MX
STATUS
42
Morning Session
124.
According to ANSI/ISA-5.1-2009, which of the following is the symbol for a pressurereducing regulator with an external pressure tap:
125.
The logic diagram on the next page depicts the control scheme for an acid injection pump
used to control the pH in a plant water system. The control of the pump in performed
exclusively by a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC). The HOA local hand switch is
spring return to OFF from the HAND position.
The combination of OR-gate C with AND-gate D is commonly referred to as:
(A)
A flip-flop circuit
(B)
An exclusive-OR circuit
(C)
A seal circuit
(D)
An inverter
43
44
Morning Session
126.
Refer to the sketch shown below, where two liquid feed streams are combined for a
certain mixing operation to produce a single stream (product).
FLOW CONTROL LOOP #1
INPUT STREAM #1
PRODUCT OUT
FLOW CONTROL LOOP #3
INPUT STREAM #2
FLOW CONTROL LOOP #2
Based on the conservation requirements, what are the degrees of freedom of this system?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
45
127.
46
(A)
0.4
(B)
0.5
(C)
0.6
(D)
0.7
Morning Session
128.
Estimate the integral time for Integrated Absolute Error and the resulting damped cycle
period under integral control.
1) Process Time Delay is 0.3 minutes.
2) A 20% change in feeder setpoint causes 28% change in mass flow rate.
Motor
Variable
Speed
Drive
129.
FC
Flow Set Point
(A)
I = 45sec, 0 = 9 sec
(B)
(C)
I = 1 sec, 0 = 2 sec
(D)
Variable
Speed
Feeder
WT
Weight
According to ISA-5.5-1985 concerning graphic symbols for use on Visual Display Units
(VDUs), the generic term for cathode-ray tube or solid-state display devices, which of the
following statements is true:
I
I and III
(B)
I and IV
(C)
II and III
(D)
47
130.
Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is installing for
personnel protection.
The maximum permissible level of H2S for an 8-hour (weighted average) exposure is 20
ppm (parts per million). A dose of 150 ppm or more for a short time can cause permanent
injury or possibly death. The human nose can detect 1 ppm levels but is desensitized
quickly with continuing exposure.
The range of the H2S analyzer is 0-20 ppm. The most appropriate setting for the alarm
point (in ppm) would be:
131.
(A)
0 - 4.9
(B)
5.0 - 9.9
(C)
10.0 - 14.9
(D)
15.0 or higher
A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently responded too slowly to load
disturbances because of a noise-free, but slow measurement device. An appropriate
action to accelerate the disturbance response would be to:
I
132.
48
(A)
I and II
(B)
I and III
(C)
III
(D)
IV
A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently overcompensated for low humidity
conditions in a humidity-controlled room by injecting too much steam into the air supply
duct. An appropriate action to reduce the overshoot problem would be to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Morning Session
133.
134.
135.
136.
(B)
(C)
(D)
A percentage (between 0 and 100) used to define the ratio of the safe failure rate
and the total failure rate.
(B)
Piece of equipment
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
What are the best factors to base safety system test intervals on?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49
137.
138.
139.
140.
50
(B)
(C)
(D)
The symbols defined in this standard can be used to implement logic functions in
any type of hardware electronic, electric, fluidic, pneumatic, mechanical, etc.
(B)
Symbols from different standards cannot be used in the same logic diagram.
(C)
The flow of intelligence in a logic diagram is normally left to right, top to bottom.
(D)
The term valve closed is not the same as valve not open.
NEMA 1 enclosure.
(B)
NEMA 2 enclosure.
(C)
NEMA 3 enclosure.
(D)
NEMA 4 enclosure.
Coal grinding areas in a coal-fired steam power plant would be classified under
hazardous area provisions of the National Electric Code (NEC) as:
(A)
Class I, Group B
(B)
Class I, Group D
(C)
(D)
Afternoon Session
51
Afternoon Session
501.
If LI-100 initially reads 50 percent and the pressure increases by 10 percent, the new
reading of LI-100 at steady-state conditions would be (in percent):
(A)
(B)
40
(C)
50
(D)
60
53
502.
503.
504.
54
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The flow of water in a 4-inch steel pipe is measured with an orifice plate and a differential
pressure transmitter. At a flow rate of 120 gallons per minute (GPM), the differential
pressure is 27 inches of water. At a flow rate of 176 GPM, the differential pressure will be
most nearly equal to
(A)
12
(B)
18
(C)
39
(D)
58
For measuring the flow of raw sewage in a 4-inch steel pipe at a flow rate of 150 gpm,
which of the following sensing devices will provide the most reliable and maintenancefree installation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
Orifice plate
(D)
Afternoon Session
505.
A tank level is measured using a differential pressure transmitter and a bubbler tube. The
tank is vented to the atmosphere. The bubbler tube bottom is 1 foot above the tank
bottom; the tank wall is 20 feet high. A 0-10 psi differential pressure gauge, accurate to
0.25 percent of full scale, is connected to the bubbler tube connection at the high-pressure
side of the transmitter. The low-pressure side of the transmitter is connected to the tank
top.
When the water level in the tank is 14 feet, the gauge reading in pounds per square inch
(psi) is most nearly equal to
506.
(A)
5.6
(B)
6.1
(C)
6.5
(D)
13.0
507.
(A)
I and V only
(B)
II and IV only
(C)
I, II and V only
(D)
(B)
Infrared detector
(C)
(D)
Self-check UV detector
55
508.
Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is installing for
personnel protection.
Assuming no mechanical problems or other limitations at the site, where should a field
sensor be placed to provide the earliest possible warning of an excessive concentration of
H2S?
509.
510.
511.
56
(A)
(B)
(C)
Eye level
(D)
Fiber optics
(B)
(C)
(D)
Coaxial cable
(B)
(C)
(D)
Comparing unshielded twisted pairs (UTP) with shielded twisted pairs (STP) for data
transmission in a control system, which of the following statements is false?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Afternoon Session
512.
513.
514.
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
IEC 61131
(B)
IEC 61158
(C)
IEC 61508
(D)
57
515.
A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a
liquid service application.
Original Service Conditions:
Maximum capacity= 60,000 SCFH
P for valve sizing= 50 PSI
Gas molecular weight= 44
Inlet pressure = 300 PSIG
Inlet temperature= 120F
New Service Conditions:
P for valve sizing= 10 PSI
Liquid specific gravity= 0.81
Inlet pressure = 240 PSIG
In the new service, assuming the maximum Cv = 12, the maximum flow in gallons per
minute (gpm) is:
58
(A)
30.7
(B)
34.2
(C)
37.9
(D)
42.2
Afternoon Session
516.
Consider a gas flow control loop in manual, with the initial process conditions (A =
upstream and B = downstream) as given in the figure below. All conditions remain
constant other than the changes specified in each question. Subscripts 1 and 2 refer to the
old and new conditions, respectively.
If only the open flow area (X) of the valve increased, which of the following best
describes how the mass flow (F) would change?
517.
(A)
F2 = F1(X1/X2)0.5
(B)
F2 = F1(X2/X1)0.5
(C)
F2 = F1(X2/X1)
(D)
F2 = F1(X2/X1)2
Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is FALSE?
(A)
(B)
For safety reasons, valves must always go to a closed or open position on power
failure.
(C)
To allow for plant expansion, it is common to initially select valves smaller than
the connecting pipe.
(D)
59
518.
You are to engineer a motor control system in a relay-based motor controller in the DCS
with the following requirements:
1) Run status is to be displayed on the operator HMI
2) The motor is NOT to automatically restart after a power failure
3) You have 1-DI and 2-DO available
How are the I/O to be configured and wired into the motor control circuit?
A.
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
DCS
STOP
LCL
START
STARTER
STATUS- DI LATCHED
MX
MX
START- DO MOMENTARY
STOP- DO MOMENTARY
STATUS
DCS
START
B.
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
DCS
STOP
LCL
START
STARTER
STATUS- DI LATCHED
MX
MX
START- DO LATCHED
STOP- DO MOMENTARY
STATUS
DCS
START
C.
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
LCL
START
DCS
STOP
STARTER
STATUS-LATCHED
START/STOP LATCHED
MX
MX
STATUS
DCS
START
D.
STATUS-LATCHED
START/STOP LATCHED
60
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
HOA LCL
OFF
STARTER
RUN
AUTO
START
STOP
STATUS
Afternoon Session
519.
A new pump was installed with the motor control, shown in the figure below, with a low
flow shutdown. the wiring and pump rotation was confirmed during checkout. When
operation went to place the pump in service, the pump will not start. What is the most
likely cause?
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
DCS
STOP
LCL
START
MX
LOW
FLOW
SHUTDOWN
STARTER N
M
MX
DCS
START
STATUS
520.
(A)
The low flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay on
relay.
(B)
The flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay off
relay.
(C)
The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay off
relay.
(D)
The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay on
relay.
(B)
(C)
(D)
61
521.
Which of the following diagrams shows the best scheme for double-acting, fail-lastposition actuation of the process valve?
KEY:
I.A.
I.A.
INSTRUMENT AIR
SOLENOID VALVE
3-WAY SOLENOID VALVE
(arrow shows fail position)
PISTON ACTUATOR
PISTON ACTUATOR
(with spring return)
(B)
I.A.
I.A.
I.A.
I.A.
FC
VENT
FC
O
FC
(A)
62
(C)
VENT
FC
(D)
Afternoon Session
522.
523.
Which of the following Boolean statements (using the notation + means OR and
means AND) describes the operation of the logic circuit shown in the following
diagram?
(A)
M = A + (B C D)
(B)
M = A + B + (C D)
(C)
M = A (B + (C D))
(D)
M = A + (B (C + D))
A
M
C
63
524.
Data List:
1.
s+4
Gs(s) = system transfer function = ----------------------------2
s + 6s + 13
2.
K(s + 3)
Gc(s) = controller transfer function = -------------------s(s + 1)
64
(A)
All K > 0
(B)
All K < 0
(C)
All K > 19
(D)
Afternoon Session
525.
The two data items obtained from a closed-loop test and used in tuning parameter
calculation are the period and amplitude of oscillation.
II The tuning parameters obtained from a closed-loop test are likely to be more accurate
than those determined from an open-loop test.
III It is necessary to observe the process for many cycles (say, 10 or more) to be sure that
the oscillation is neither decaying nor increasing.
IV The engineer conducting a closed-loop test has no control over the amplitude of the
oscillation.
(A)
I and III
(B)
I, II and IV
(C)
II and III
(D)
II and IV
65
526.
527.
528.
66
Compared to a control loop with no dead time (pure time delay), a control loop with an
appreciable dead time tends to require:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
A control system that uses controllers built into valve positioners or fieldmounted transmitters and connected together by a fieldbus
(C)
(D)
Which of the following tuning criteria would be most appropriate for designing a
controller to regulate the temperature in the room where you are now sitting?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Afternoon Session
529.
A Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) is used to start a motor using the circuit shown
below.
STOP
PERMISSIVE
START
OUT 1
IN 1
IN 2
IN 3
M
IN 4
MOTOR
STARTER
Which of the following logic statements will cause the motor to start running and
continue running after the start contact closes and then reopens?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
67
530.
68
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Afternoon Session
531.
532.
533.
Which ISA standard gives requirements for the specification, design, installation,
operation and maintenance of safety instrumented systems?
(A)
5.1
(B)
50
(C)
84
(D)
88
To test that the hardware and software satisfy the requirements defined in the
safety requirements specification.
(B)
To test and document that the facility fabricating the system is qualified to
perform the required work.
(C)
To test that field devices are operational before placing them in service.
(D)
To create test procedures that will be used during the life of the system to verify
functionality.
The fundamental goal of any Safety Integrity Level selection study is to ensure that
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
69
534.
A control system employs three sensors, each having a failure probability of 0.02 in six
months of operation. The system can function properly when any two or more of the
sensors are working, but it must shut down if two or three of the sensors fail.
The probability that the system can operate for six months without a shutdown is most
nearly equal to:
535.
536.
537.
70
(A)
0.9412
(B)
0.9600
(C)
0.9800
(D)
0.9988
The logic solver shall be separated from the Basic Process Control Systems except
where some applications have combined control and safety functions in one logic
solver.
(B)
The sensors for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the sensors
for the Basic Process Control System.
(C)
The final elements for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the
final elements for the Basic Process Control System.
(D)
Changes for the Safety Instrumented System shall not be allowed from the SIS
operator interface.
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
Replacements in kind
(C)
Changes to software
(D)
Changes in personnel
Afternoon Session
538.
539.
The OSHA Process Safety Management Directive, 29CFR, Part 1910, addresses all of the
following EXCEPT:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
540.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
71
APPENDIX C
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This appendix contains solutions and/or answers to the questions contained
in Appendix B.
A one-page summary list of the answers is included to facilitate scoring for
those who treat the questions in Appendix B as a sample exam.
Comments about the questions and answers will be appreciated. They should
be sent to the Director of Credentialing Services, ISA, P.O. Box 12277,
Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 for forwarding to the CSE examination
committee.
73
74
CORRECT
ANSWER
QUESTION
CORRECT
ANSWER
QUESTION
CORRECT
ANSWER
QUESTION
CORRECT
ANSWER
QUESTION
ANSWERS
101
121
501
521
102
122
502
522
103
123
503
523
104
124
504
524
105
125
505
525
106
126
506
526
107
127
507
527
108
128
508
528
109
129
509
529
110
130
510
530
111
131
511
531
112
132
512
532
113
133
513
533
114
134
514
534
115
135
515
535
116
136
516
536
117
137
517
537
118
138
518
538
119
139
519
539
120
140
520
540
102.
The 90% point is a boiling characteristic of a hydrocarbon liquid. Thus, the only
suitable analyzer is a boiling point analyzer. The other instruments measure different
characteristics of materials.
The correct answer is (C).
103.
Span = S.G. d
density of Process at Normal Temp = 280F
S.G. = ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------water density at Standard Temp = 60F
3
57.941#/ft
S.G. = ----------------------------- = 0.929
3
62.364 #/ft
Span = 0.929 60 in. = 55.7 in. H 2 O
The correct answer is (C).
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
The correct answer is (C). Zener diode barriers are inexpensive and easy to use.
The other statements are true.
75
110.
CONTROL
ELEMENT
DCS
I/I
250 ohm
INDIC.
111.
The correct answer is (A). Wireless systems with a large number of links or channels in a
limited radio frequency spectrum can interfere with each other; there is no limit on the
possible number of wired or cable channels.
(B) is True. Wireless systems do not require conduit or cable trays to be routed through
the plant in order to connect a multitude of inputs to controllers and central processors;
many functions are built into the wireless system components.
(C) is True. Sensors and controllers in a wireless system still need power to perform their
functions.
(D) is True. By means of channel hopping, encryption, resending data packets, etc.,
wireless systems can be given a high degree of immunity to electrical noise.
112.
The correct answer is (B) since the fiber can be broken by a small-radius bend.
113.
114.
115.
76
The correct answer is (C); putting valve stems in a vertical position is a common practice
but is not an absolute requirement for all situations. (See J.W. Hutchison, ISA Handbook
of Control Valves, 2nd Ed., 1976, p. 353.)
117.
The correct answer is (A); vent lines should be provided so that personnel or equipment
will not be inadvertently sprayed, even with harmless material, when a vent valve is
opened. (See J. W. Hutchison, pp. 336-337.)
118.
(A) is the correct answer. Ball valves usually have larger Cv for the same size body than
globe valves.
(B) Piping might need to be revised, but ball valves are usually shorter than the same
size globe valve.
(C) Ball valves often use piston actuators, but can use diaphragm-type actuators as well.
(D) Ball valves are often used for on/off control, but are also used for modulating
control.
119.
The correct answer is (A). AMSE Section VIII Division 1, UG-134, Pressure Setting of
Pressure Relief Devices, (d) says: The pressure at which any device is set to operate shall
include the effects of static head and constant back pressure.
120.
The correct answer is (C). The maximum vessel pressure with one valve in service is 110
percent of MAWP (10 percent accumulation) or 1.1 * 200 = 220 psig.
121.
122.
The correct answer is (B). A single maintained contact is to be placed between the
Emergency STOP SIS and the local STOP and after the local START.
123.
The correct answer is (A). The typical fire detection/protection panel outputs are
normally closed and supervised. See NFPA-74. Therefore, motor control A is the only
correct answer.
124.
77
125.
126.
Number of equations: 1*
*Material balance: F3 = F1 + F2
Therefore, degrees of freedom = 3 - 1 = 2
Any two of the flows can be specified; the third flow must satisfy the material balance.
127.
0.5815 0.500
The overshoot is ------------------------------------ 100 = 16.3%
0.500
From standard response curves, the damping ratio is approximately 0.5, one-half of
critical damping. Alternately, the damping ratio () can be calculated from the equation
16.3 = 100e
e
100
= ---------- = 6.135
16.3
1 = ln 6.135 = 1.814
2 2
= 0.25 ; = 0.5
The correct answer is (B).
128.
129.
78
The correct answer is (C); statements II and III are true. Statement I is false because flows
can be in any direction; recycle flows will be right-to-left if the main flows are left-toright, and some flows are vertical, up or down. Statement IV is a common but not
universal convention; the convention can vary from company to company or industry to
industry.
The alarm point should be set above the noise or background level, perhaps caused by
small, intermittent releases of H2S, and well below the prescribed maximum permissible
level. Of the choices given, the best is 5-9.9 ppm. The correct answer is (B).
131.
The correct answer is (D) since derivative action in a relatively noise-free system allows
the controller to anticipate the effects of a load disturbance and take pre-emptive action.
Action I might also work, but there is nothing to indicate that action III is required as
well.
132.
The correct answer is (A) since all of the other tuning objective would required overshoot
which is stated to be undesirable. This question deals with important tuning criteria other
than the classical -wave decay criteria favored by Ziegler and Nichols.
133.
134.
The correct answer is (D). Based on clauses 3.2.74, 9.2.2, 10.3.1 (and more) of ISA 84.
135.
136.
The correct answer is (B). Based on clauses 16.3.1.3 and 11.9.2 of ISA 84.
137.
138.
The correct answer is (B), which is a false statement. Symbols from different standards
can be used in the same diagram IF they are clearly defined.
139.
Because water hoses may be used for house cleaning purposes, watertight (NEMA 4)
enclosures are desirable. General-purpose (1), drip tight (2), weatherproof (3), and dust
tight (5) enclosures are not indicated. The correct answer is (D).
140.
Class II, Group F is for areas where coal dust is present. The correct answer is (D).
79
Since the differential pressure measurement provides for pressure fluctuation and water
is an incompressible fluid, the level measurement remains unchanged.
The correct answer is (C).
502.
If a single differential pressure transmitter was used, mounted at one of the platforms,
the connecting lines would be significantly different in length. Extraneous effects, e.g.,
temperature or gravity head, could adversely affect the accuracy. Therefore, two pressure
transmitters should be used.
The correct answer is (D).
503.
176 2
or P 2 = ( 27 ) --------- = 58.1 in. of H 2 O
120
504.
For a stream containing solids, the best choice is a flow sensor that offers a minimum
obstruction to the flowing stream, i.e., a magnetic flowmeter.
The correct answer is (B).
505.
62.4
The pressure reading is ( 14 1 ) ---------- = 5.6 psi
144
The correct answer is (A).
81
506.
The correct answer is (D). All of the listed factors influence the accuracy of measurements
made with orifice-type elements.
507.
508.
Hydrogen sulfide (MW = 44) is heavier than air (MW 29), therefore its concentration is
highest close to the ground. For early detection, the field sensor (analyzer inlet) should be
as close to the ground as possible, i.e., one foot.
The correct answer is (A).
509.
510.
511.
Answer (C) is false and is, therefore, the correct answer. Some LAN vendors insist on
STP.
512.
According to IEEE 802.3, the designation 10BASE5 refers to millions of bits per second
and distances in hundreds of meters.
The correct answer is (C).
82
514.
515.
For the new service conditions, using the maximum CV = 12, the maximum flow can be
calculated using the equation (Eq. 1, ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-1985):
G
q
C V = ------------- ------fN 1 F p p
with
FP =
1 (assumed)
Gf =
0.81
p =
10
N1 =
units factor
=
=
p
q = C V ------Gf
10
= 12 ---------0.81
= 42.2 gpm
The correct answer is (D).
516.
X 2
F 2 = F 1 -------
X 1
The mass flow is directly proportional to open area of valve.
The correct answer is (C).
83
517.
The correct answer is (B). In some cases, the best action is to hold the previous position, at
least in the short term.
518.
The correct answer is (A). Upon loss of power, the MX contact opens and the motor will
remain off until either the local or DCS start is activated and the motor starter pulls in
sealing in the circuit.
519.
On Delay
ON
POWER
OFF
CLOSED
NO
OPEN
CLOSED
NC
OPEN
TIMER
Off Delay
ON
POWER
OFF
CLOSED
NO
OPEN
CLOSED
NC
OPEN
TIMER
Flow Switch
Bypass active
POWER ON
84
520.
The correct answer is (D). A double-acting actuator must be given power to open and
again to shut. Fail safe means that a device, if not already so, will, on its own, go to a
safe mode upon loss of signal/control power.
521.
The correct answer is (D). Blocks in the pressure on solenoid failure. If momentarily
actuated, is immune to loss of instrument air as well.
Distracters:
(A) Fails closed.
(B) Fails closed if solenoid fails. Unpredictable on loss of air. Also, will not actuate in
both directions.
(C) Almost works, but it may move when failed if the process exerts force on the valve.
522.
523.
The correct answer is (D). This Boolean statement means that M is activated when A or (B
and (C or D)) are closed. This is correct.
85
524.
19 + K
s3
13 + 7K
s2
s1
b = 12K
a ( 13 + 7K ) 7b
c = ---------------------------------------a
12K
7 ( 19 + K ) ( 13 + 7K )
a = ------------------------------------------------------7
133 + 7K 13 7K
= -----------------------------------------------7
120
= --------7
7
= 13 + 7K 7 ( 12K ) ---------
120
= 13 + 7K 4.9K
= 13 + 2.1K
d = b = 12K
The first column will be positive when c > 0 and d > 0. The first condition requires
K > 6.2; the second requires K > 0.
The correct answer is (A).
525.
I
False - The parameters are the period of the oscillation and the gain needed to
produce the oscillation.
II True
III False-3 or 4 cycles are sufficient.
IV True
The correct answer is (D).
86
527.
528.
The correct answer is (D) since a rooms temperature is to be maintained in spite of load
disturbances. This question deals with the difference between tuning for setpoint
tracking or disturbance rejection.
529.
530.
The correct answer is (B). Note that the NOT element at the input to the following
AND element.
531.
532.
533.
The correct answer is (C). Based on clauses 3.4 and 3.5 of Part 3 of ANSI/ISA-84.00.01
(IEC 61511-3 Mod).
534.
= 1.000000
87
535.
The correct answer is (C). ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Section 7.4.3.1 only mandates separate
valves for SIL 3 (Safety Integrity Level 3).
The other statements are true.
536.
537.
The correct answer is (B). Based on OSHA PSM regulation (29 CFR 1910.119), not
specifically referenced in ISA-84.
538.
539.
The correct answer is (D). This is required by NFPA Standard 85C and precludes the
selection of (A), (B) or (C). Also, most PLC manufacturers recommend an external master
relay to remove all power from field devices in an emergency.
540.
The correct answer is (B); the over-riding principle in this area is that the person
responsible for engineering designs should sign the drawings. Signatures by other people
wont hurt, but they are not required.
88
APPENDIX D
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS
89
SERIAL
NAME:_________________________________
Last
First
Middle
Initial
SAMPLE
91
93
First name
Middle initial
TEST DATE
Month
Day
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
Year
LOCATION
City
LAST NAME
First 5 letters
State
DATE OF BIRTH
DAY
19 YEAR
MONTH
Jan
Feb
Mar
Apr
May
Jun
Jul
Aug
Sep
Oct
Nov
Dec
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
2
3
4
2
3
4
0
1
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6
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8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
Combined
Chemical
Civil
Electrical
Mechanical
Sanitary
Structural
Aeronautical/
Aerospace
Agricultural
Control Systems
Fire Protection
Industrial
Manufacturing
Metallurgical
Mining
Nuclear
Petroleum
Special Struct. 1
Other
Indicate
the last
2 digits
of the
year you
graduated
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
I am taking
the test in the
following discipline:
(mark one)
19
EXAMINEE
IDENTIFICATION NUMBER
I am taking the
test for the:
10
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
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2
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1
2
3
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5
6
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8
9
La.
Maine
Mass.
Md.
Mich.
Minn.
Miss.
Mo.
Mont.
MP
N.C.
N. Dak
Nebr.
Nev.
N.H.
N.J.
N. Mex.
N.Y.
Ohio
Okla.
Oreg.
Pa.
P.R.
R.I.
S.C.
S. Dak
Tenn.
Tex.
Utah
Va.
V.I.
Vt.
Wash.
W. Va
Wis.
Wyo.
I AM A GRADUATE OF:
4 year Engineering
(ABET accredited)
First time
Second time
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(or more)
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