Task 3:::units To Be Sold To Earn A Profit of $30000: Fixed Cost + Profit

You might also like

Download as docx, pdf, or txt
Download as docx, pdf, or txt
You are on page 1of 4

Task 3:::Units to be sold to earn a profit of $30000: Fixed cost + Profit

Contribution per unit


So, $60 000 + $30000
(20-14)

so, 15 000 units.

Current profit when Fixed cost decrease by $10 000 and variable cost decrease by $10%:
VC = $14 10% of 14 = $12.6; contribution = $20 - $12.6 = $7.4; 8,000units x $7.4= $59 200 FC $50
000 = Profit $9,200;
Task 4:
GP margin: GP/Sales X 100

2012
39.7/145x100=27.38%

2013
40/160x100=25%

NP margin:PBIT/Salesx100

13.7/145x100=9.44%

10/160x100=6.25%

ROCE: PBIT/capital employedx100

13.7/95x100=14.42%

10/98x100=10.20%

Gearing: debt/capital employedx100

38/95x100=40%

38/98x100=38.77%

Inventory days:Inventory/COSx365

32/105.3x365=110.9da
ys
36/120x365=109.5days

Interest cover:PBIT/Interest

13.7/3.3=4.15times

10/3.6=2.78times

Receivable days:
Receivable/creditsalesx365

24/145x365=60.41day
s

41/160x365=95.53days

Payable days: Payable/COSx365

11/105.3x365=38.13da
ys
17/120x365=51.71days

Current ratio: CA/CL


Quick ratio: CA-Inventory/CL
Task: 5

72/12=6:1

78/25=3.12:1

40/12=3.33:1

42/25=1.68:1

Normal screen :
Customer variance: Budgeted customer-Actual customer x
budgeted price
(4500-44)x5.25= $525 (A)
Price variance: (Budgeted price-Actual price) x
Actual customers
($5.25-$5.5)x4400=$1100 (F)
Total variance: (4500x5.25)-(4400x5.5)=575(F)

hope u can do it for New screen


Change your Annual membership. Its 1,000,000x60%= 600 000
Part time Instructor salary: $54 000/12=$4,500 x 3instructor=$7,500
Overdraft facility if balance comes as negative then only its taken from bank. whenits taken then you pay interest.
(refer this to your teacher)
After these changes find the balance.

Task: 7.colormix:
Years

Cash flow
1
2
3
4

(8000+scrap)
5

PV 10%

16,500
22,000
22,000
15,000

0.909
0.826
0.751
0.683

20,500

0.62

NPV
14998
.5
18172
16522
10245
12710
72647
.5

Net Present Value: Net cash flow comes to $72,647.5 minus the investment (62,500-scrap12,500)=$22,647.5
Pay back method:
cumulative
cash inflow
16,500
38,500
60,500

In the 3rd year your income is 60,500 a difference of $2,000 has to be recovered in the 4 th year but it
will take only some months(62,500 60,500)calculated as: 1 full year income is 15,000 so to earn
2,000 how many months it will take?

2,000 x 12/5,000=1.6months; so the

payback period is 3years and 1.6 months.


3

Average Rate of return: Average profit /Investment x 100:


(16,500+22000+22000+15000+20500)/5=19,200;so 19,200/50,000x100=38.4%

Print plus:
Years

Cash flow

PV 10%

6,600

0.909

13,600

0.826

13,600

0.751

4
5

5,600
11,600

0.683
0.62

NPV
5999.
4
11233
.6
10213
.6
3824.
8
7192
38463
.4

No Payback for print plusit going into loss. ARR you calculate understanding the previous one.
Task 8: Marginal costing: Variable costs= $5+$10=$15 x markup 40%=$6;
Absorption costing: 300+40+960(both VC n FC)=1,300+40% of 1300= 1,820 selling price.

You might also like