Q14-33 Insights 2015 Questions

http://www.insightsonindia.
com Extra
Test (Test Series 2015) INSIGHTS
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST (EXTRA)
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some
particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should
hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i)
There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii)
If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
http://insightsonindia.com
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015
HTTP://WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM

INSIGHTS
[INSIGHTS MOCK TEST 2015, EXTRA TEST]
1. Consider the following statements with

respect to Agent Orange.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1. Agent Orange is a chemical

composition, famously known to be
used in Vietnam War, is a herbicide
and defoliant.
2. The orange colour of the compound
gives it the name.
3. Defoliants are used in cotton
cultivation.
4. Consider the following statements.

1. Global Warming causes melting of
ice and melting of ice in turn
increases the global warming.
2. The Antarctic has not warmed as
much as the Arctic.
3. Arctic region is often seen as a
high-sensivity indicator of climate
change.
Choose the correct answer using the codes

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
All

below:

1. The sulphur content in the fossil
fuel is a major source of pollution.
2. Some microorganism can be used
to cleave the carbon-to -sulphur
bond to remove sulphur from coal
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None

below:
1. Biomining and Bioleaching

techniques are environment
friendly
2. Minerlals like
cobalt,copper,zinc,lead and nickel
are extracted through this
technique but metals like gold and
uranium cannot .
3. But this technique cannot be
applied at greater depths.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 only
2 only
2 & 3 only
All
6. Consider the following statements

about Oil Spills.
1. Oil spills affects the plummage of
birds and reduces their insulating
abilities.

below:
[Type text]
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
5. Which of the following is/are true

about Aerosols?
1. Pollens,spores,water droplets ,sea
salt can be termed aerosols
2. Volcanic ash of sulphur is also an
aerosol.
3. Aerosols have led to global
dimming.
3. Consider the following statements :-
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
http://www.insightsonindia.com Extra
2. They restrict the photosynthetic

ability of plants.
3. They make birds and animals less
buoyant.
4. Oil consuming bacteria can help
in bioremediation of oil spills.
d) All of the above

regarding conservation of Tigers in
India :
1. In-situ conservation is done in zoos
and ex-situ in sancuries and
national parks
2. Zoos cannot use the assisted
reproduction technology for
increasing their captive carrying
capacity.

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
1 & 2 only
1 & 3 only
1 & 4 only
All of the above

below:
Which of the following is true

regarding the term Land Farming:1. Land Farming is a method of
farming which is commercially
very viable.
2. Land Farming uses the technique
of aeration.
3. It uses microbes for getting back
the fertility of soil.
a)
b)
c)
d)

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
1 and 2 both
None
10. Which of the following is true

regarding Perma-frost?
1. Melting of permafrost is worsening
Global Warming.
2. Frozen organic matter in the
permafrost holds around oneseventh of the worlds
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

below:
8. With reference to the use of NPK
fertilisers which of the following is
true:1. Over Use of NPK fertilizers reduce
the protein content of wheat, maize
and grams.
2. The carbohydrate quality is also
affected.
3. Excess potassium decreases the
Vitamin C in vegetables and fruits.
4. Carotene content is however
increased.
below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 ,3 & 4 only
c) 1 ,2 & 3 only

INSIGHTS
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
1 and 2 both
None
11. Consider the following statements:1. Unconventional sources of natural

gas are shale gas, coal bed
methane ,methane hydrates and
tight sandstone.
2. Only USA,China and Canada
produce shale gas in commercial
quantity.

3. China holds the highest reserve of

shale gas.
d) All

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
15. With regard to biodiesel ,pick up from

the options which of them are sources
of biodiesels
1. jatropha,jojoba,algae,fungi
2. jatropha,algae
3. jatropha and jojoba only
3 only
1 and 2
1 only
All of the above

below:
12. Under which ministry is the National
Green Corps Programme run ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Ministry of Defence and Ministry of

Environment & Forests
b) Ministry of Urban Development
c) Ministry of Environment & Forests
d) Ministry of Health

regard to Reverse osmosis Water
purifiers:1. RO purifiers use chlorine and nano
silvers to purify water.
2. Use of chlorine over a long period
can lead to cancer.
13. Which of the following agencies

publishes the Global Environment
Outlook ?
a) UNDP
b) UNESCO
c) UNEP
d) WWF

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)

about Phyto-indicators or Bioindicators :1. Lichens can be used as a reliable
indicator to predict air quality.
2. Lichens are also indicators of
radioactive materials.
3. Presence of gold,silver and
Diamond can also be traced fom
the presence of certain variety of
plants

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 & 3 only
[Type text]
1 only
2 only
1 & 2 both
None of the above
17. Which of the following are regarded as

Legumes ?
1. Beans and lentils
2. Clover
3. Tamrind
4. alfalfa

below:
1 only
2 only
1,2 & 3
None of the above
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1,2 & 3 only
All of the above
18. Coral Bleaching is a result of which of

the following causes :
1. Increased solar radiations
2. Increased pH of water due to
carbon sequestration
3. Bacterial infections
4. Mixing of sunscreen ingredients in
water
as crystals. These crystals are removed and

dewatered. The water vapor from evaporation
is condensed and returned to the process.
In the context of the statements above, which
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect.

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1,2 & 3 only
All of the above
19. An oligotropic lake has which of the

following properties:a) High levels of nutrient in water
b) High aquatic productivity
c) Algal blooms
d) Low nutrients and low productivity

respect to aspects of Bio-Leaching :1. CFL Bulbs emit UV radiation and
can cause skin irritation.
2. The mercury vapour released from
it can pose health hazard.
Which of the above statements is/are
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)

about Earth Hour :1. It is organised worldwide by WWF.
2. Thane became the National earth
hour capital of India and Seoul
became the global Earth Hour
Capital in 2015.
23. With reference to the glaciers, consider

the following statements:
1. Totten Glacier is the largest
glacier which is in East
Antarctica
2. It is melting at a considerable
fast rate due to effect of warm
ocean water beneath it.

INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
Which among the above statements is / are

correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

regarding Zero Liquid Discharge :-
1 Only
2 Only
Both 1 & 2
None of them
Assertion (A): Countrys knitwear hub,

Tirupur in southern Tamil Nadu, has become
the first textile cluster in India to achieve zero
liquid discharge (ZLD) in their units.
Reason (R): ZLD technology includes pretreatment and evaporation of the industrial
effluent until the dissolved solids precipitate
24. Which among the following statements

are correct regarding Bio-piracy?
1. Traditional Knowledge Digital
Library is a collaborative project
between Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research (CSIR),

INSIGHTS
Ministry of Science and

Technology and Department of
AYUSH, Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare, and is being
implemented at CSIR..
2. It will prevent misappropriation
of Indian traditional knowledge,
mainly by breaking the format and
language barrier and making it
accessible to patent examiners at
International Patent Offices for
the purpose of carrying out search
and examination.
3. Kaziranga National Park has the

highest density of rhinos in the
world.
4. Translocations of rhinos from
source populations in Kaziranga
and Pabitora to target areas such
as Manas.
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 3 Only
1 & 4 Only
1,2 & 3 only
2,3& 4 only

given below:
a)
b)
c)
d)

about the various programmes and
activities initiated by Bureau of Energy
Efficiency:
1. GOI has launched the Perform,
Achieve and Trade Scheme to
enhance energy efficiency in
large energy-intensive industries
and facilities.
2. The Bachat Lamp Yojana under
the Clean Development
Mechanism (CDM) of UNFCCC
as a public initiative.
3. The initiatives are applicable to
public industries only.
1 Only
2 Only
Both 1 & 2
None of them
25. Study of pug marks can provide the

certain information such as:
1. Presence of different species in
the area of study.
2. Population of large cats (tigers,
lions etc.).
3. Sex ratio of large cats.
4. It helps in determination of age
also.

given below:

given below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 3 Only
2 & 3 Only
All
None of them

about Stockholm Convention.
1. This Convention aims to
eliminate or restrict the
production and use of
persistent organic pollutants
(POPs).
2. POPs are defined as chemical
substances that persist in the
environment, but do not bio-

related to Indian Rhinos Vision 2020:
1. The goal of IRV 2020 is to
increase the total rhino population
in Assam from 2,000 to 3,000 by
the year 2020
2. Pabitora National Park has the
largest number of one horned
rhinos in the world

[Type text]
1 Only
2 & 3 Only
All
None of them
accumulate through the food

web.
3. Convention has listed the
chemicals in three categories
of A-Elimination, BRestriction and CUnintentional Production.
4. The United States and Israel
have not ratified the
Convention.
3. It also addresses the movement of

radioactive waste between
different nations.
given below:
a)
b)
c)
d)

given below:
a)
b)
c)
d)

about PEACE (Promoting Energy
Access through Clean Energy)
initiative.
1. It is a joint initiative of India and
USA.
2. It focuses on sharing best
practices and institutional and
other approaches.
3. "PEACE setter fund" will be
established under the initiative.
1 & 3 Only
1 & 4 Only
1,2 & 3 only
1,3& 4 only

about the "National Mission for a
Green India":
1. To regenerate at least 4 million ha
of degraded forest.
2. Increase density of forest cover on
2 million ha of moderately dense
forest
3. Overall increase the density of
forest and tree cover on 10 million
ha of forest, waste, and
community lands

given below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 3 Only
1 & 2 Only
1 only
1, 2 & 3 only

about Basel Convention?
1. It is an international treaty that
was designed to reduce the
movements of hazardous waste
between nations.
2. It specifically focuses on to
prevent transfer of hazardous
waste from developed to less
developed countries (LDCs).

1 & 3 Only
1 & 2 Only
1 only
1, 2 & 3 only

respect to pollution.
1. In cities the brown haze dome over
cities is mostly because of sulphur
dioxide.
2. Sulphur dioxide is a product from
volcanoes and industrial processes.
3. Ammonia, which has a
characteristic pungent odour, is a
building block in the synthesis of
many pharmaceuticals.

given below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 3 Only
1 & 2 Only
1only
1, 2 & 3 only

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

about the Environment Performance
Index.
1. India ranks 155 out of 178 countries
in the Global ranking of EPI.
2. EPI is calculated by aggregating
indicators reflecting the National
level environment data like health
impacts,bio-diversity,air quality,
water and sanitation ,water
resources,agriculture
,forests,fisheries etc.
3. EPI released by Yale and Columbia
University in collaboration with the
World Economic Forum
supplements the environment
targets set by Millenium
Development goals.
35. Which of the following observation

about Ethanol is /are correct?
1. Ethanol has a higher energy density
than gasoline, hence 100% ethanol
can be used as fuel.
2. Ethanol has a lower octane rating ,
thus it improves the compression
ratio of the engine which is better
for increased thermal efficiency.
3. Ethanol as fuel causes damage to
engine due to knocking ,hence
knock sensors are used in such
engines.
Choose the incorrect answer using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
36. Which of the following is/are NOT true

about desertification?
1. Water erosion, wind erosion,
vegetal degradation and frost
shattering are the major processes
of desertification.
2. Rajasthan, Gujarat,J & K and
Maharashtra have the largest areas
undergoing desertification.

regarding bio-fuels:1. Scientists have found techniques to
genetically engineer tobacco leaves
in order to increase their oil
content
2. The Indian approach to biofuels is
based solely on non food feedstocks
to be raised on degraded or
wastelands not suited for
agriculture,thus avoiding a conflict
beteween food and energy security.
3. Cellulosic ethanol and algal
biodiesel are Second generation
bio-fuels.
4. Bio-diesel and green diesel are
same.
5. An alkaloid developed from
jatropha has anti-cancer properties.

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1, 2, 3 & 5 only
2 ,4 and 5 only
None of the above
[Type text]
1 only
2 only
Both
None

about the National Green Tribunal
established for the effective and
expeditious disposal of cases related to
environment protection and forest
conservation :1. The NGT,with its main bench in
New Delhi, is the first body of its
kind to apply its parental statute of

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Polluter pays principle and the

principle of sustainable
development.
2. India is the first country in the
world which has an exclusive body
like NGT to tackle environmental
issues.

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
40. Consider the following statements:

1. The area recorded as forests in
government records is known as
Forest Area.
2. Land having an area of more
than 1 hectare with a minimum
tree canopy density of 10%
irrespective of ownership or
legal status is Forest Cover.
3. A forest cover is always a part of
Forest Area.
2 only
1 and 2
1 only
None of the above
38. Which of the following is true

regarding the term Water Footprint:1. It is the total volume of freshwater
used to produce goods and services
consumed by the individual or
community or produced by any
business.
2. It is measured in terms of cubic
meters/person/year.
3. Blue water footprint is the volume
of fresh water that was polluted in
producing goods and services
consumed by an individual or
community.

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
39. With reference to the term Global

Hectare which of the following
statements are true:1. It is used to measure the
ecological footprint of the entire
earth.
2. It is used to measure the
biocapacity of the entire earth.
3. It is the average productive land
and water an individual or
community requires for
producing all resources one
consumes.

1 only
2 only
1 and 2 both
All
41. Which of the following is not a correct

match?
a) Forest survey of India head
quarters at Dehradun
b) Zoological survey of India at
Kolkata
c) Botanical survey of India at Pune
d) Central Natural Herbarium at
Howrah

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
42. Which of the following is not the

correct match?
1. Eastern Dooars Elephant reserve is
located in Assam
2. Mayurbhung Elephant reserve is
located in West Bengal
3. Shrivilliputtur Elephant reserve is
located in Kerala
4. Nilambur Elephant reserve is
located in Tamil Nadu
Choose the incorrect answer using the codes
below:
INSIGHTS
10 [INSIGHTS MOCK TEST 2015, EXTRA TEST]

a)
b)
c)
d)
3 only
1 and 2
1 only
All of the above
6. The Montreux Record is a register

of internationally recognised
wetlands where changes in ecology
have happened.
below:

regarding Biosphere Reserves and
National Parks:-
a)
b)
c)
d)
1. The Wildlife Protection Act 1972

provides for 4 types of protected
areas:- Wildlife
sanctuaries,national
parks,community reserves and
conservation reserves.
2. In a Biosphere reserve no economic
activity is permitted.
3. No human activity is allowed in a
National Park but in a wildlife
sanctuary limited activities are
permitted.
4. There is o comprehensive
legislation for Bio-sphere reserves.

about Phumdis :1. Phumdis are floating islands in
Loktak Lake in Meghalaya.
2. Kiebul Lamjao National Park, the
worlds largest floating park is
home to Sangai, a deer subspecies
indigenious to this area.
3. Phumdis are a cause of ecological
concern for the Loktak Lake.
below:

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 & 4 only
1,2 & 3 only
1 3 & 4 only
All of the above
[Type text]
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 & 3 only
None of the above

respect to Lyophilisation Technology.
1. It is a technique launched for the
conservation of river Ganga from
the sewage disposed off into it.
2. The process is low on chromium
intake and utilises much less water
as compared to conventional
techniques.

about Wetlands :1. Study of Wetlands is known as
Paludology
2. Wetlands help in mitigating the
effect of climate change by acting as
a carbon sink.
3. They can remove important
nutrients like phosphorus and
nitrogen dissolved in water.
4. The biological productivity of a
wetland is comparable to tropical
rainforests.
5. Ramsar Convention is a not part of
UNESCO system of convention and
environmental agreements.

1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
2, 3, 4 and 6 only
1, 2 , 3 and 4 only
All of the above

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None of the above

regard to paddy cultivation.
1. Paddy fields are among the
worlds biggest producers of
methane contributing
approxmately 10% of global
emissions.
2. Methane, a compound of carbon
and oxygen is produced by
bacteria in soil.
3. Production of methane by
paddy fields cannot be reduced
without significant reduction in
rice yields.
4. Digestive process of ruminant is
a major source of Methane
1.
2.
3.
4.

below:
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 & 2 only
d) All of the above

about the Olive Ridley turtles:1. The Astaranga Coast and
Gahirmatha marine sanctuary,
located in West Bengal are home to
Olive Ridley turtles.
2. They are best known for their
behaviour of synchronised nesting
termed as Arribadas.

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1,3 & 4 only
All of the above

regard to Red Sanders :1. The Andhra Pradesh government
has sent a proposal for inclusion of
Red Sanders in Schedule IV of
Wildlife Protection Act 1972
2. It is listed as critically endangered
species in IUCN list because of its
over-exploitation in South India.
3. Its wood is aromatic similar to
sandalwood.
4. Its endemic to southern Eastern
Ghats .

below:a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 & 2
None of these

1. Xenobiotics are foreign substances,
naturally occuring outside body
which have an action when
introduced within the body causing
impact on hormonal /metabolic
balance.
2. Xenobiotics are a large problem in
sewage treatment plants.
3. DDT is a type of xenobiotic
compound.

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Bamboo
Sandalwood & Pulpwood
Soapnut & Honey
Tendu leaves
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1,2 & 3 only
All of the above

INCORRECT?
49. Which of the following are not
considered as Minor Forest Produce as
per ST and other Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act
2006 ?

INSIGHTS
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 Only
2 Only
Both
None

a)
b)
c)
d)

regarding statements :Assertion (A): Technically, any desirable trait
found in nature can be transferred to any
chosen organism.
Reason (R):It has been discovered that DNA
is interchangeable among
animals,plants,bacteria and other organisms.
of these is true?
55. Which among the following statements

are correct regarding Eutrophication?
1. Use of precipitants like sodium
arsenite, copper sulphate, alum,
lime, Iron and sodium aluminate
can be used to limit the dissolved
nutrients which lead to growth of
fungi.
2. Electro-dialysis, ion-exchange and
reverse osmosis are some other
techniques to control
eutrophication.
a. A and R both are true, and R is

the correct explanation for A.
b. A and R both are true, and R is
the NOT the correct explanation
for A.
c. A is correct, R is incorrect.
d. A and R both are incorrect.

given below:
a)
b)
c)
d)

respect to aspects of Bio-Leaching :1. It is being used successfully to
recover metals from a variety of
ores.
2. It is energy saving alternative.
3. It is not very environment friendly.
1. The ozone hole occurs during

the Antarctic spring, from
September to early December;
as strong easterly winds start
to circulate around the
continent and create an
atmospheric container.
2. Every summer (December to
January) the hole repairs itself
when stratospheric temperatures
rise and the air above Antarctica
mixes with the rest of the world's
atmosphere.
1 and 2 Only
1,2 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
3 Only
54. With reference to the mechanism of

Global Heat Balance, consider the
following statements:
1. The water vapour in the
atmosphere absorbs short-wave
radiation causing Global Warming.
2. The rising columns of warm areas
in urban areas are due to formation
of urban heat islands and are called
Urban Thermal Plume.

correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

correct?

[Type text]
1 Only
2 Only
Both 1 & 2
None of them
56. Consider the following observations

related to Ozone Hole:

INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both 1 & 2
None of them
1 Only
2 Only
Both 1 & 2
None of them

57. If a tropical rainforest is removed, it

doesnot regenerate quickly as
compared to a tropical deciduous
forest. This is due to:a) The soil of rainforest is
deficient in nutrients.
b) Propagules of trees in a rain
forest have poor visibility
c) The rainforest species are slow
growing
d) Exotic species invade the fertile
soil of the rain forest.
61. Which of the following statements is

correctional about the International
whaling Commission?
1. The Commission was setup under
the International Commission for
Regulation of whaling signed in
1946.
2. India is the founding member of
this commission.
58. Select the correct sequence of food

chain in the arctic waters from the
following:-

correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Zooplankton---diatoms---fish--polar bear---seal
b) Diatoms---zooplankton---fish--seal---polar bear
c) Fish---diatoms---seal--zooplankton---polar bear
d) Diatomsfish---polar bear--seal---zooplankton
62. With reference to Women Scientists

Scholarship Scheme, consider the
1. The Ministry of Women and
Child development is
implementing this scheme.
2. The Scheme aims to provide
opportunities to disabled women
scientists for pursuing Higher
Studies in frontier areas of
Science and Engineering.
59. Which one of the following terms

describes not only the physical space
occupied by an organism but also its
functional role in the community of
organisms?
a) Ecotone
b) Ecological niche
c) Habitat
d) Home range

a)
b)
c)
d)
60. Consider the following statements :Assertion (A): Diversity observed in the entire
geographical area is called Gamma Diversity.
Reason (R): Biodiversity decreases from high
altitude to low altitude.
of these is true?

1 Only
2 Only
Both 1 & 2
None of them
INSIGHTS
1 only.
2 only.
Both.
None.

regarding the North East Centre for
Technology Application and Research
(NECTAR):
1. It is an autonomous society, set
up under Department of Science


& Technology, Government of

India.
2. It is headed by the Union
Minister for Science and
Technology.
3. NECTARs main task is to ensure
that the funds allocated for
technological innovations to
North Eastern States are spent
correctly and efficiently.

a)
b)
c)
d)

regarding the Science and Engineering
Research Board:
1. It is an autonomous body under
the Department of Science and
Technology, Government of
India.
2. It is a statutory body, established
by an Act of the Parliament of
India in 2009.
3. It is chaired by the Union
Minster for Science and
Technology.

incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only.
1 & 3 only.
2 & 3 only.
None.

regarding the Department of Scientific
and Industrial Research (DSIR):
1. It is a part of the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry.
2. It has a mandate to carry out the
activities relating to indigenous
technology promotion,
development, utilization and
transfer.
3. It oversees the Council of
Scientific and Industrial Research
(CSIR), India's largest research
and development organization.

a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only.
1 & 3 only.
2 & 3 only.
None.
65. With reference to Innovation in

Science Pursuit for Inspired Research
(INSPIRE) programme, consider the
1. INSPIRE is an innovative
programme developed and being
implemented by the Ministry of
Youth Affairs and sports.
2. The Programme covers students
in the age group 10-32 years.

[Type text]
1 & 2 only.
1 & 3 only.
2 & 3 only.
None.
67. With reference to Streptokinase drug,

consider the following statements:
1. It is an inexpensive clot dissolving
drug used in the treatment of
myocardial infarction and
pulmonary embolism.
2. It works by activating
plasminogen to produce plasmin
which in turn helps in dissolving
the clot.
3. Recombinant Streptokinase has
been launched for Indian market
under the brand name Lupifio
and Klotbuster.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only.
2 only.
Both.
None.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 only.
1 & 3 only.
2 & 3 only.
All.

b) 2 only.
c) Both.
d) None.

regarding the Diastep:
1. It is special footwear suitable for
low-risk diabetic patients.
2. It was developed by the Council of
Scientific and Industrial Research
(CSIR).
3. It has been designed to take
special care of fluctuations in foot
volume.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 only.
3 only.
2 & 3 only.
All.
71. With reference to Cyclotrons, Consider

1. It is a type of particle accelerator.
2. It makes use of the magnetic
force.
3. In Cyclotrons, charged particles
accelerate outwards from the
center along a spiral path.
a)
b)
c)
d)
69. With reference to Panchi, an

Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV),
1. It is the wheeled version of
Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)
Nishant capable of taking-off
and landing using small
airstrips.
2. It was designed and developed
by the Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research (CSIR).
72. With reference to Pressurised Heavy

Water Reactors (PHWR), consider the
1. It is a nuclear power reactor that
uses heavy water (D2O) as its
coolant and moderator.
2. All the nuclear reactor units of
Rajasthan and Kaiga in India are
based on PHWRs.
3. Compared to ordinary Light
Water, Heavy Water creates
greatly enhanced neutron
economy, allowing the reactor to
operate without fuel-enrichment
facilities.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only.
2 only.
Both.
None.

regarding the CSIR 800 program:
1. It is a project by CSIR which aims
to provide broadband facility to
800 villages in the country by
2016.
2. It is a World Bank funded
program.
incorrect?
a) 1 only.

1 & 2 only.
3 only.
2 & 3 only.
All.
INSIGHTS
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only.
1 & 3 only.
2 & 3 only.
All.

regarding the Geosynchronous
Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III
(GSLV Mk III):
1. It was developed by the Indian
Space Research Organization in
collaboration with the European
Space Agency.


2. It is designed to be a three stage

vehicle and uses an indigenous
cryogenic engine in the third
stage.
3. GSLV Mk III will provide the
capability to launch 4t class
communication satellites into
orbit.
a)
b)
c)
d)
76. With reference to the Kayakalp

council, consider the following
statements:
1. It is an innovation council setup
by the Ministry of Road
Transport and Highways for the
purpose of business reengineering and introducing a
spirit of innovation in the Indian
Transport system.
2. Currently, the council is headed
by Ratan Tata.
3. The council allocates funds to
various state governments for
the up gradation of State
Highways to National Highways.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only.
1 & 3 only.
2 & 3 only.
All.
74. With reference to Indian Regional

Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS),
1. The IRNSS space segment
consists of seven satellites, of
which three satellites will be in
geostationary orbit.
2. IRNSS-1D, the fourth satellite in
the Indian Regional Navigation
Satellite System (IRNSS), was
launched by ISRO`s Polar
Satellite Launch Vehicle, PSLVC27.
3. IRNSS is being developed by
ISRO with the assistance from
France Space Agency.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 only.
1 & 3 only.
2 & 3 only.
All.

below:
75. Which of the following are correctly

matched?
1. IRNSS: India.
2. GPS: The United States.
3. GLONASS: Russia.
4. Galileo positioning system:
European Union.
5. Doris: France.
a)
b)
c)
d)

below:

[Type text]
2 only.
2 & 3 only.
1 & 3.
All.
77. The Golden Quadrilateral, a highway

network, connects which of the
following metropolitan cities?
1. Delhi.
2. Mumbai.
3. Chennai.
4. Guwahati.
5. Kolkata.

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1, 2 & 4
Only 1, 2 & 3.
Only 1, 2 & 5.
All
1, 2 & 3 only.
2, 4 & 5 only.
1, 2, 3 & 5 only.
All.

regarding the Central Road Fund:
1. The Fund was established by a
Resolution of the Parliament
passed in 1988.
2. Statutory status to the fund was
given by the Central Road Fund
Act, 2000.
3. The Fund is utilized for the
development and maintenance of
National Highways and State
Highways only.
over the Indian airspace and in

the adjoining area.
3. The first GAGAN navigation
payload was flown on GSAT-8 in
May, 2011.
a)
b)
c)
d)

correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

regarding the National Mission for
Clean Ganga (NMCG):
1. It is the implementation wing of
National Ganga River Basin
Authority (NGRBA).
2. It was originally formed by the
Ministry of Environment, Forests
and Climate Change(MoEFCC).
3. Union Minister for Water
Resources is the chairman of the
Governing Council of NMCG.
1 & 2 only.
2 & 3 only.
1 & 3.
All.
79. Which of the following National

Waterways (NW) are correctly
matched?
1. National Waterway 1: Allahabad
Haldia
2. National Waterway 2:
Kottapuram-Kollam
3. National Waterway 5: Sadiya
Dhubri

a)
b)
c)
d)

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only.
2 & 3only.
1 & 3 only.
All.
80.With reference to GPS Aided GEO

Augmented Navigation (GAGAN)
project, consider the following
statements:
1. The project is being
implemented by the Airport
Authority of India with the help
of the Indian Space Research
Organization's (ISRO)
technology and space support
2. The goal is to provide navigation
system for all phases of flight

1 only.
2 & 3 only.
1 & 3 only.
All.
1 & 2 only.
2 & 3 only.
1 & 3.
All.
82. Which of the following are

Constitutional Bodies in India?
1. National Commission for
Scheduled Castes
Scheduled Tribes
3. National Commission for Women
Backward Classes
below:
INSIGHTS
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 only.
2 & 4 only.
1, 2 & 3. Only.
All.

83. With reference to Rashtriya Mahila

Kosh (RMK), consider the following
statements:
1. It is an autonomous body under
the aegis of the Ministry of
Women and Child Development.
2. It provides loans to various state
governments for setting up of skill
training centres for women.
b) 2, 3 & 6 only.
c) 1, 3, 4, 5 & 6 only.
d) All.
86. With reference to Sabla- Rajiv Gandhi

Scheme for Empowerment of
Adolescent Girls (RGSEAG), consider
1. It aims at all-round development
of adolescent out of school girls of
11-18 years only.
2. Under this scheme, the central
government provides funds to
various states/UTs to set up a
School in every district for out-ofschool adolescent girls.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only.
2 only.
Both.
None.
84. With reference to Integrated Child

Development Services (ICDS) Scheme,
1. The scheme aims at holistic
development of under-six
children.
2. The Scheme aims at providing
nutritional and health support to
pregnant and lactating mothers.
3. The scheme is implemented
through the States/UTs on a cost
sharing basis in the ratio of 50:50
for all the states.

a)
b)
c)
d)
87. With reference to National Service

Scheme (NSS), consider the following
statements:
1. It is a central governmentsponsored public service program
conducted by the Department of
Youth Affairs and Sports of the
Government of India.
2. The scheme was launched in
Gandhijis Centenary year, 1969.
3. Under the scheme, cheap loans
are given to Micro Small and
Medium Enterprises for
technological up gradation.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 only.
2 & 3 only.
1 & 3.
All.
85. Stree Shakti Puraskar awards include:

1. Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Award
2. Kannagi Award
3. Mata Jijabai Award
4. Rani Gaidinliu Zeliang Award
5. Rani Lakshmi Bai Award
6. Rani Rudramma Devi Award
a)
b)
c)
d)

below:
a) 1, 2, 3 & 5 only.

[Type text]
1 only.
2 only.
Both.
None.
1 & 2 only.
2 & 3 only.
1 & 3.
All.

regarding the Youth to Edge Scheme:
1. The Scheme is aimed to promote
adventure activities in the remote
areas of North East Region (NER).
2. The Scheme was started by the
Ministry of Development of North
Eastern Region (DONER) in
collaboration with the Ministry of
Youth Affairs and Sports.
achievement of reforms during the

previous year.
3. Central assistance will be to the
extent of 100% of project cost for
North Eastern States and Sikkim.
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only.
2 only.
Both.
None.

1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna awards
are given for the most spectacular
and outstanding performance in
the field of sports by an individual
sportsperson or a team.
2. The Dronacharya Award honours
eminent Coaches who have
successfully trained sportspersons
or teams and enabled them to
achieve outstanding results in
international competitions.
3. Dhyan Chand Award is Indias
highest award for lifetime
achievement in sports and games.
91. With reference to Jan Aushadhi

Scheme, consider the following
statements:
1. It seeks to make available quality
medicines at affordable prices for
the poor and the disadvantaged
only.
2. Under this scheme, less priced
quality unbranded generic
medicines will be made available
through Jan Aushadhi stores.
3. Under this Scheme, the State
Government has to provide space
in Government Hospital premises
for the running of the outlets
(JAS).
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only.
1 & 3 only.
2 & 3.
All.

reference to the proposed Atal Mission
for Rejuvenation and Urban
Transformation (AMRUT):
1. AMRUT is the new avatar of the
National Urban Livelihoods
Mission (NULM).
2. Under this mission, 50% of the
budget allocation will be given to
states and union territories as
incentive based on the

3 Only
1 Only
1 and 3 Only
None
1 & 2 Only.
2 & 3 Only.
1 & 3 Only.
All.
92. With reference to the National youth

Policy 2014, consider the following
statements:
1. The National Youth Policy 2014
defines the age of youth as
persons between the age 15-35
years.
2. The vision of NYP-2014 is to
empower youth to achieve their
full potential, and through them
enable India to find its rightful
place in the community of
nations.
INSIGHTS

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only.
2 only.
Both.
None.
95. With reference to Pradhan Mantri JanDhan Yojana (PMJDY), consider the
1. It provides Life insurance cover of
Rs.30,000/2. Under the Scheme, No minimum
balance required to open a bank
account.
3. Under the Scheme, Accidental
insurance cover of Rs.1.00 lac is
provided.
4. After satisfactory operation of the
account for 6 months, an
overdraft facility will be permitted
under the Scheme.

regarding the Rashtriya Swachhata
Kosh:
1. It has been set up to facilitate and
channelize individual
philanthropic contributions and
Corporate Social Responsibility
(CSR) funds to achieve the
objective of Clean India (Swachh
Bharat) by the year 2019.
2. Approval for the withdrawal of
Fund has to come from the
President of India.
Which of the above statements are Correct?

a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only.
2 only.
Both.
None.

regarding the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao
programme:
1. The Ministry of Women and Child
Development is the nodal
Ministry for this initiative.
2. Under the Scheme, separate
residential schools for girls will be
set up in every district.

reference to Saansad Gram Adarsh
Yojana:
1. The Project was launched on the
occasion of birth anniversary of
Lok Nayak Jai Prakash Narayan.
2. Under the Scheme, a separate
fund will be created at the state
level and will be attached to the
consolidated fund of the State.
3. The goal of the Yojana is to
develop three Adarsh Grams or
model villages by March 2019, of
which one would be achieved by
2016.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 Only.
2 & 3 Only.
1 & 3 Only.
All.
[Type text]
1 only.
2 only.
Both.
None.
97. With reference to the Forty-second

Amendment of the Constitution of
India, officially known as The
Constitution (Forty-second
Amendment) Act, 1976, consider the
following statements?
1. It was passed in accordance with
the provisions of Article 368 of the
Constitution, and was ratified by
more than half of the State
Legislatures, as required under
Clause (2) of the said article.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 Only.
1, 2 & 3 Only.
1, 2 & 4 Only.
All.
2. The amendment inserted a new

article 228A in the Constitution
which gave High Courts the
authority to "determine all
questions as to the constitutional
validity of any State law".
3. This Act amended Article 74 and it
was explicitly stipulated that "the
President shall act in accordance
with the advice of the Council of
Ministers".
4. This Amendment gave primacy to
the Directive Principles, by stating
that "no law implementing any of
the Directive Principles could be
declared unconstitutional on the
grounds that it violated any of the
Fundamental Rights".
2. The theme for 2015 is- Fostering

Scientific Temper and Energy
conservation.
3. It is celebrated to mark the
discovery of the Raman Effect, for
which a Nobel Prize winning
research paper submitted by Sir
C.V. Raman was accepted on that
day.
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
100.
Which of the following services
are being offered by the National Voter
Service Portal (NVSP), which was
launched recently?
1. Search the name in Electoral List.
2. User can view details of his
Polling booth, Assembly
Constituency and Parliamentary
constituency.
3. Users can feed Aadhaar Number
for attaching it with Election
Photo Identity Card (EPIC) data.
4. Those on election duty can cast
their votes through e-voting
option available on the portal.
1, 2 & 3 only.
2, 3 & 4 only.
1, 3 & 4 only.
All.

regarding the Param Vir Chakra:
1. It is India's highest military
decoration awarded for the highest
degree of valour or self-sacrifice in
the presence of the enemy.
2. It is awarded only posthumously.
3. The award carries a cash allowance
for those under the rank of
lieutenant or the appropriate
service equivalent.

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 only.
2 & 3 only.
1 & 3 only.
All.
99. With reference to the National Science

Day, consider the following
statements:
1. It will be celebrated on February
28th every year.

1 & 2 only.
2 & 3 only.
1 & 3 only.
All.
INSIGHTS
1, 2 & 3 only.
2, 3 & 4 only.
1, 3 & 4 only.
All.

Few Extra Questions:
denomination of Rs. 1000,

5000 and 10,000.
2. Under the Scheme, there is no
upper ceiling on investment.
3. The KVP certificates can be
issued in single or joint names
and but cannot be transferred
from one person to any other
person.
4. The KVP certificate can be
pledged as security to avail
loans from the banks and in
other case where security is
required to be deposited.
101.
The Nobel laureates who were
Indian citizens at the time they were
awarded the honored Nobel Prize
include:
1. Amartya Sen
2. Kailash Satyarthi
3. C V Raman
4. Rabindranath Tagore
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 & 3 only.
3 & 4 only.
1, 2 & 4 only.
All.

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
102.
With reference to the Indira
Gandhi Prize for Peace, disarmament
and Development, consider the
1. It is awarded only to
organizations in recognition of
creative efforts towards
enlarging the scope of freedom
and enriching the human spirit.
2. The Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO) has won the
Prize for 2014.
3. Organizations who win this
award are exempted from the
payment of any tax for three
consecutive years.
104.
Consider the following
statements with reference to the RuPay
System:
1. RuPay is Indias own card
payment gateway network and
provides an alternative system
for banks to provide a debit
card service.
2. The RuPay prepaid card
service was recently launched
by the IRCTC in collaboration
with Union Bank of India and
the National Payment
Corporation of India.
3. RuPay card holder will get
free Rs.1 lakh accident
insurance coverage as part of
the benefits to customers.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 only.
2 only.
1 & 3 only.
All.

a)
b)
c)
d)
103.
With reference to the relaunched Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP),
1. It will be available to the
investors only in the

1, 2 & 3 only.
3 & 4 only.
2 & 4 only.
All.
[Type text]
1 only.
2 & 3only.
1 & 3 only.
All.

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 14
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Time Allowed: 1.5 Hours
Maximum Marks: 150
INSTRUCTIONS
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING
PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 75 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii)
If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
http://www.insightsonindia.com
INSIGHTS
Page 1
1. The idea of Invisible Hand of the free

market in an economy means that
a) Markets work in tandem with the
state.
b) Market forces of supply and demand
bring equilibrium in the economy.
c) Competition in the markets helps the
state to fulfil its obligations.
d) Individuals pursuing their own
interest frequently promote the good
of society than when they really intend
to promote it
2. Many economic roles which were under

complete government monopolies were
now opened for participation by the
private sector. This change in a economy
can be called
a) Privatization
b) Deregulation
c) De-reservation
d) De-licensing
3. Consider the following statements about

the role of the state in an economy.
1. The state cannot earn profits like a
private enterprise.
2. The state regulates competitive
practices in the economy.
3. The state has the responsibility to
redistribute economic resources in the
economy.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

the Indian constitution.
1. Public comments were invited while
finalizing the constitutional document.
2. It was put to referendum.
3. Some provisions of the constitution
came in force even before India
adopted the constitution fully on the
first republic day.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
5. The Constitution contains not only the

fundamental principles of governance but
also detailed administrative provisions.
This fact can be supported by looking up
in which of the following provisions of the
constitution?
1. Fifth and Sixth schedule
2. Centre-state relations
3. Appointment and functions of several
constitutional bodies
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
6. Net Domestic Product (NDP) is arrived at

by
a) Subtracting the annual depreciation
and subsidies from the GDP.
b) Subtracting the annual depreciation
from the GDP.
c) Adding annual deprecation to the
GDP.
d) Adding the annual depreciation and
subsidies to the GDP.
INSIGHTS
Page 2
7. If the difference between the GDP and

NDP of an economy is becoming less year
over year, it may imply that
1. Research and development in the
economy is cutting down the levels of
depreciation in the economy.
2. The GDP growth rate has reduced
over years.
3. The government has reduced
subsidies and indirect taxes over the
years.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 only
All of the above
8. NDP is not used to compare the

economies of the world. This is because
a) The deprecation levels set by different
economies for goods are different.
b) NDP is also affected by the levels of
indirect taxes and subsidies offered by
an economy which can be different for
economies.
c) IMF and World Bank do not use NDP
for comparing economies.
d) None of the above
9. In which of the following cases, the Gross

National Product (GNP) of India would
increase?
1. More remittances are being sent by
Indians residing in Gulf countries.
2. India borrows less and lends more to
other World economies.
3. Software exports from India increase.
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) All of the above
10. In which of the following ways is the

concept of GNP used across the World?
1. IMF ranks nations as per their GNP in
terms of Purchasing Power parity
(PPP).
2. GNP also shows the external strength
of the economy.
3. It shows the financial dependence of
one economy over the other.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

Net National Product (NNP).
1. National Income of an economy is
counted in terms of NNP.
2. Per capita income of a nation is
obtained from NNP by dividing it
with the working population of the
country.
3. It is not influenced by factors external
to the economy.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 only
1 and 3
2 and 3

a) 1 and 2
INSIGHTS
Page 3
12. Factor Cost is an important component

while calculating national income. It is
a) input cost the producer has to incur
in the process of producing something
b) total market value of a product minus
subsidies given by the state
c) total market value of a product minus
indirect taxes imposed by the state
13. Choose the correct equation of National

Income from the following.
a) National Income at Factor Cost = NNP
at Market Cost Indirect Taxes +
Subsidies
b) National Income at Factor Cost = GNP
at Market Cost Indirect Taxes +
Subsidies
c) National Income at Market Cost =
NNP at Factor Cost Indirect Taxes +
Subsidies
d) National Income at Market Cost =
GNP at Factor Cost Indirect Taxes +
Subsidies
14. Which of the following do NOT require a

constitutional amendment?
1. Settlement of a boundary dispute
between India and another country
2. Changing the name of a state
3. Creation of a new state
15. The Constitution of India confers which of

the following rights and privileges on the
citizens of India (and denies the same to
aliens)?
1. Right to Education
2. Right against discrimination on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth
3. Freedom of speech and expression
4. Freedom of assembly
5. Right to conserve and safeguard
minority culture
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1. In India citizens by birth as well as a
naturalised citizen are eligible for the
office of President.
2. Foreigners staying in India do not
have to oblige to the fundamental
duties.
3. The Constitution does not prescribe
any qualifications for citizenship.
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
3 and 4 only
2 and 5 only
All except 1
All of the above
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
17. The application of fundamental rights to

the citizens can be restricted in which of
the following situations?
1. Presidents rule
2. Financial emergency
INSIGHTS
Page 4
3. Martial Law
4. Internal emergency

a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
3 only
1 and 3 only

the calculation of the Human
Development Index (HDI).
1. Life expectancy used in HDI data is
calculated at the time of death.
2. Under education, School enrolment
has a higher weightage than
educational attainment among adults.
3. Real per capita income used in the
calculation is adjusted for the differing
purchasing power parity among
nations.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

the Government of India Act, 1935.
1. It successfully established an All-India
federation.
2. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces
and introduced provincial autonomy
in its place.
3. It extended franchise.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
2 only
3 only
19. Which of the following correctly highlight

the difference between NITI Aayog and
the scrapped Planning Commission?
1. While Planning Commission enjoyed
the powers to allocate funds to
ministries and state
governments, NITI Aayog will be
an advisory body, or a think-tank.
2. States had a more direct and
authoritative role in NITI Aayog.
3. Planning Commission decided policies
for states and tied allocation of funds,
which NITI Aayog will not do.
21. The Union Ministry of Youth Affairs &

Sports has revised the Scheme of
Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar.
According to the revised plan, this scheme
will be given in following four categories.
They are,
1. Encouragement of sports through
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
2. Employment of sportspersons and
sports welfare measures
3. Sports for Development has been
provided for the NGOs in order to
recognize their contributions.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 5
22. An open competition system of selection

and recruitment of civil servants; and a
separate legislative wing for the
Governor-General was introduced by
a) Charter Act of 1853
b) Charter Act of 1833
c) Charter Act of 1861
d) Charter Act of 1892

the Government of India Act 1858.
1. It abolished the East India Company.
2. It changed the entire structure of
government in India prevailing earlier.
3. As per the Act, Indian Government
was to be supervised and controlled in
England.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
24. Which of the following acts are concerned

with changes to the legislative councils in
British India?
1. Act of 1909
2. Act of 1892
3. Act of 1861
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
1. Bicameralism
2. Direct elections
3. Dyarchy
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
26. Although the Simon Commission was

boycotted by all political parties in India,
some of the recommendations of the
commission were towards better
governance of India. These were
1. Abolition of dyarchy
2. Extension of responsible government
in the provinces
3. Establishment of a federation of British
India and princely states
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
27. The Jeevan Amrut Yojana of the

Maharashtra government is aimed at
providing the facility of
a) Blood supply to patients
b) Free piped drinking water to rural
Below poverty Line citizens
c) Free drinking water to the whole rural
Maharashtra
d) Organ donation facility to needy
patients
25. Which of the following were introduced

for the first time in India by the Act of
1919?
INSIGHTS
Page 6
28. As per a recent United Nations

Conference of Trade and Development
(UNCTAD) report, China has overtaken
the United States (US) as the top
destination for foreign direct investment
(FDI). Arrange the following countries in
decreasing order of the FDI they receive.
1. Hong Kong
2. Singapore
3. Canada
4. India
Choose the correct order from the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1234
2431
1243
2134

the Maritime Silk Road (MSR) project.
1. It has been initiated by China.
2. It involves building infrastructure in
strategically significant countries, inter
alia, in Africa and Europe.
3. No ports will be built in Pakistan or
Bangladesh under MSR.
3. There were to be no nominated

members in the CA as per the decided
scheme.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. If the secondary sector contributes 50
per cent or more to the total produce
value of an economy, it is an industrial
economy.
2. The tertiary sector always provides
livelihood to the largest number of
people in Industrial economies.
3. Shift from agrarian sector to the
service sector always happens
gradually with the growth of the
Industrial sector.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1 only

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

the constituent assembly (CA).
1. It was based on a scheme suggested by
the Cabinet mission.
2. All provinces and princely state were
to be represented in the CA as per the
decided scheme.
32. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the

value of the all final goods and services
produced within the boundary of a nation
during one year. For India, this calendar
year period is from
a) 1st April to 31st March
b) 1st Jan to 31st December
c) 1st March to 28th February
d) There is no standard calendar year
period. GDP is calculated for different
annual periods
INSIGHTS
Page 7
33. Consider the following uses of the concept

of GDP.
1. It does not say anything about the
qualitative aspects of the produced
goods and services by the economy.
2. It is used by the IMF/WB in the
comparative analyses of its member
nations.
3. If the GDP is growing at the same rate
every successive year, it will add the
same
income to the income to the
economy in all these years.
a)
b)
c)
d)
allowed. Now consider the following

courses of action.
1. Complain to the local police authority
about this discrimination and violation
of your fundamental right of free
movement
2. Approach the state High court of this
violation of fundamental right
3. Approach the Supreme Court with a
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) on the
same issue
Which of the above options are legally and
constitutionally appropriate?
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
34. The structural part of the Constitution is,

to a large extent, derived from the
Government of India Act of 1935. This
argument is supported by which of the
following features/provisions of the
constitution?
1. Public Service Commission of Union
and States
2. Federal polity
3. Division of powers in lists between
Centre and states
4. Bicameralism in state assemblies
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) All of the above
35. Consider that you belong to the religion
Zoroastrianism. You are outside a Hindu
temple managed by the state and want to
enter. But somewhere at the entry you
find this written Only Hindus are
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
3 only
All of the above
None of the above
36. India has adopted the parliamentary

system of Government. It is based on the
principle of
a) Doctrine of separation of powers
between the legislature and executive
organs
b) Cooperation and co-ordination
between the legislative and executive
organs
c) Doctrine of separation of powers
between the legislature and judicial
organs
d) Doctrine of separation of powers
between the executive and judicial
organs

1. The term Federation has nowhere
been used in the Constitution.
2. The state and local governments
derive their authority from the
constitution rather than from the
Union government.
INSIGHTS
Page 8
Which of the above is/are true?

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

1. As per the Independence Act of 1947,
the constituent assembly was to
become the first dominion legislature.
2. The constituent assembly was not a
fully sovereign body.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1. The government takes the sole

responsibility of providing goods and
services to the population.
2. No direct payments are made by the
consumer.
3. Prices of the goods and services are
determined in the open market.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
39. Among all the committees of the

Constituent Assembly, the most important
committee was the Drafting Committee.
Who among the following were NOT the
members of the committee?
1. N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
2. Syed Mohammad Saadullah
3. T T Krishnamachari
4. Dr K M Munshi

a)
b)
c)
d)
41. Which of the following arguments can be

forwarded to weaken the proposition of
choosing Industry as the prime mover of
the Indian economy post-independence?
1. Lack of investible capitalbe the case
of either the government or the private
sector.
2. Absence of the market for industrial
goods.
3. Industry as a prime mover cannot
work in a state led economy.
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
4 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All were the members
40. Consider the following statements about a

State led distribution network in an
economy.
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
2 only
3 only
42. For industrialisation and its success, every

economy needs the healthy presence of
some basic industries. These are
1. Electricity
2. Oil Refining
3. Coal
4. Crude Oil
INSIGHTS
Page 9
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
43. Many Public Sector Units (PSUs) were

established post-independence. Which of
the following functions were NOT
performed by them?
1. Providing disposable income to the
government
2. Provision of Public goods
3. Cutting down the monopoly existing
in the private sector then
45. Which of the following arguments

support a market led economy?
1. Dynamic operation of market forces
brings a state of equilibrium to the
economy.
2. It values continuous improvement in
provision of goods and services as it is
based on competition.
3. Markets can fulfil all the needs of an
economy.

a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 only
2 only
3 only

the Charter Act of 1833.
1. The act created, for the first time, a
Government of India having authority
over the entire territorial area
possessed by the British in India.
2. It ended the activities of the East India
Company as a commercial body.
3. It separated, for the first time, the
legislative and executive functions of
the Governor-Generals council.
46. In India, all citizens irrespective of the

state in which they are born or reside
enjoy the same political and civil rights of
citizenship all over the country and no
discrimination is made between them
excepting in few cases in
1. Tribal areas
2. State of J&K
3. Areas mentioned under Article 371 of
the Constitution
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
47. Which of the following terminologies find

a mention in the Constitution of India?
1. Consolidated fund of India
2. State Public Service Commission
4. Quasi-legislative
INSIGHTS
Page 10

a)
b)
c)
d)
1. Territory of India is a wider

expression than the Union of India as
the former includes
only states &
UTs.
2. India can acquire foreign territories
according to the modes recognised by
international
law.
3. Parliament can establish new states
that were not a part of the Union of
India.
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
48. State emergency or Presidents rule can be

applied to an Indian state on which of the
following grounds?
1. Failure to comply with Centres
directions
2. Breakdown of constitutional
machinery in the state
3. Threat to the financial stability of the
state
4. Internal aggression in the state

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

the Preamble of the Constitution.
1. The Preamble of the source of
authority of the Constitution.
2. It declares the nature of the Indian
state.
3. It envisages political as well as social
ideals.
51. Article 3 of the Constitution authorizes the

Parliament to
1. Increase or diminish the area of any
state
2. Merge a state and Union Territory to
form a new state
3. Grant special status to the newly
created weak states
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

52. The Supreme Court of India is

1. A federal court
2. The guarantor of the fundamental
rights of the citizens
3. The guardian of the Constitution
4. The enforcer of Central as well as state
laws
INSIGHTS
Page 11

a)
b)
c)
d)
Parliament only with the prior

recommendation of the President.
2. Before the bill is approved by the
Parliament, it refers the same to the
state legislature concerned for
expressing its views within a specified
period.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
53. That the Indian Constitution is founded

on the bedrock of the balance between the
Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Principles has been
a) Ruled by the Supreme Court
b) Provided for in the Constitution of
India
c) Affirmed by a resolution of the
Parliament
d) Affirmed by a resolution of the
Constituent assembly of India
54. The Constitution of India stands for a

secular state. Hence, it does not uphold
any particular religion as the official
religion of the Indian State. Which of the
following articles of the Constitution
reveal the secular character of the Indian
State?
1. Article 14
2. Article 15 and 16
3. Article 30
4. Article 44
Which of the above is/are correct?

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
56. The term State has been used in different

provisions concerning the fundamental
rights against which the citizens are
protected. State can include which of the
following?
1. A Public Sector Undertaking
2. District Planning Committee
3. A Private party under a Public Private
Partnership (PPP) contract with the
government
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above

the process of creation of new states.
1. A bill which intends to form a new
state can be introduced in the
57. Article 14 of the constitution says that the

State shall not deny to any person
equality before the law or the equal
protection of the laws within the territory
of India. Which of the following would
come under equal protection of the
laws?
1. The equal subjection of all persons to
the ordinary law of the land
administered by ordinary law courts.
INSIGHTS
Page 12
2. Similar application of the same laws to

all persons who are similarly situated
3. Equality of opportunity to all under
the laws made by the Parliament
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
58. Writ of Mandamus is a command issued

by the court. It can be issued to
1. Governors
2. Tribunals
3. Inferior courts
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
59. As per the Supreme Court, which of the

following are included in the Freedom of
Speech and expression?
1. Right against tapping of telephonic
conversation
2. Right to know about government
activities.
3. Right against bandh called by a
political party or organisation
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
60. Right to fair trial, Right to hearing, Right

to speedy trial and Right to free legal aid
are provided to citizens under which of
the following fundamental rights?
a) Equality before law and equal
protection of laws
b) Right to Life and Liberty
c) Right against arbitrary arrest and
detention
d) Right against exploitation
61. Article 23 of the Constitution prohibits

traffic in human beings, forced labour and
other similar forms of forced labour. It is
enforced by which of the following laws
made by the Parliament?
1. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
2. Contract Labour Act, 1970
3. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
62. Consider the following provisions of the

Civil Nuclear Liability Act, 2010 that has
been in news for some time.
1. This Act limits the liability of the
operator in case of nuclear accident.
2. It secures the operator the right to
recourse under certain circumstances.
3. It provides a mechanism to
compensate victims of nuclear
damage.
Which of the above provisions have been cause(s)
of contention between India and other nuclear
supplier countries in recent times?
INSIGHTS
Page 13
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
63. Recently, two beneficial algal species Ulva

paschima Bast and Cladophora goensis
Bast were discovered off the west coast of
India. Consider the following statements
about them.
1. They are endemic to India.
2. These species have excellent carbon
capture properties.
3. They can be used as bio-fuels.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
64. The Indian constitution explicitly contains

which of the following provisions for
exercising direct democracy?
1. Referendum
2. Plebiscite
3. Recall
4. Initiative
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
3 and 4 only
None of the above
3. Article 16
4. Article 19
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
66. The status of the Preamble of the

Constitution has always been a question
of debate in the country. The present
opinion of the Supreme Court about the
status of the Preamble is that
a) It is a part of the constitution but
cannot be amended.
b) It is a not part of the constitution and
cannot be amended.
c) It is a part of the constitution and can
be amended.
d) It is not a part of the constitution but
can be amended.
67. Mass de-worming campaigns of school

children have been used both as a
preventive as well as a treatment method.
In this regard, the union ministry of
Health & Family Welfare launched the
National De-worming initiative. Which of
the following problems due to worming
will the scheme tackle?
1. Malnutrition
2. Wasting
3. Cognitive Impairment
4. Tissue damage that may require
corrective surgery
65. Which of the following provisions of the

chapter on Fundamental Rights in the
Constitution ensure civic equality?
1. Article 13
2. Article 14
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 14

the recently launched Deen Dayal
Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana.
1. The scheme lays Greater emphasis on
projects for poor rural youth in Jammu
and Kashmir
2. The scheme provides for greater
support for placed candidates in terms
of post-placement support, migration
support and alumni network.
3. Demand led skill training at no cost to
the rural poor
order, morality and the like. Which of the

following can be done by the state
constitutionally?
1. Regulate a religious institution
2. Throw open Hindu religious
institutions of a public character to all
classes and sections of
Hindus.
3. Restrict a religious practice
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which of the above are the features of the

scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
69. The vision of Digital India as launched

by the Prime Minister seeks of achieve
which of the following within the
stipulated time period?
1. Broadband for All rural panchayats
2. A digital cloud access to every Indian
citizen
3. One Common Service Centre in each
Gram panchayats
4. E-healthcare services
71. The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

is narrower and less discretionary than
that of a high court in what respects?
1. High courts can enforce legal rights
too, SC cannot.
2. High court can issues it both against
persons and state, SC can issue it only
against the
later.
3. SC cannot refuse to issues writs when
it comes to Fundamental Rights, High
courts can.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
70. Although India is a secular country, the

state can take some steps to ensure public
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

the write of Habaes Corpus.
1. It can be issued by even District courts
in India.
2. It can be issued against private
individuals too.
INSIGHTS
Page 15
3. It cannot be issued when the detention

of the person is lawful.

below.

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

the Right to Freedom from taxation for
Promotion of religion.
1. The state cannot use public tax money
for the promotion of any religion.
2. The state cannot impose a fee on any
religious activities.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
75. Judicial review in India is based on the

procedure established by law contained
in the Indian Constitution (Article 21).
What is meant by this principle?
a) Courts can review a Parliamentary
enactment if it is not reasonable.
b) Courts can review a Parliamentary
enactment if it goes against the goals
and objectives enshrined in the
constitution.
c) Courts can review a Parliamentary
enactment only if it was not enacted
following the right procedure.

the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
1. Any court in India can be moved for
enforcing this right.
2. The right to move to courts can never
be suspended under this right.
3. A citizen cannot go directly to the
Supreme Court to get this right
enforced. He has to go
by way of
appeal to higher courts.
INSIGHTS
Page 16

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
question.
(iii)
for that question.
INSIGHTS
Page 1
1. The Directive Principles of State Policy

denote the ideals that the State should keep in
mind while formulating policies and enacting
laws. These principles are applicable to which
of the following organs?
1. Legislative
2. Executive
3. Local authorities
4. Public Sector enterprises (PSUs)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1, 2 and 3 only
1 only
2 and 3 only

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
4. Which of the following is NOT a Directive

Principle of State Policy?
1. Free legal aid to poor
2. Public assistance in cases of
unemployment
3. Secure the participation of workers in the
management of industries
2. In the colonial legacy of government in India,

the Directive Principles in the present Indian
Constitution resemble which of the following
colonial enactments?
a) Codes enacted under Act of 1919
b) Instrument of Instructions enacted under
Independence Act, 1947
c) Instrument of Instructions enumerated in
the Government of India Act of 1935
d) Duties of State enumerated in the
Morley-Minto Act of 1909
3. As per the Supreme Court of India, if a law

may transgress certain fundamental rights,
but seeks to give effect to a Directive
Principle, the law may be saved from
unconstitutionality. Which of the
fundamental rights may be transgressed by
law this way?
1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 30
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All are Directive Principles
5. In the constitution, the ideal of Economic

Equity is implied in
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Universal Adult franchise
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Part IX and X of the Constitution
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
INSIGHTS
Page 2
6. To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code

throughout the country is one of the
Directive Principles. It means that
a) All citizens will be under the same laws
irrespective of their caste
b) All citizens will be under the same laws
irrespective of their religion
c) All citizens will be under the same laws
irrespective of their political authority and
status
d) All citizens will be under the same laws
irrespective of them residing or not
residing in India
7. The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a

new Directive Principle relating to cooperative societies in the Constitution. The
amendment is concerned with which of the
following aspects of cooperative societies?
1. Autonomous functioning
2. Democratic control
3. Professional management
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
8. As per the Constitution, which of the

following is/are fundamental in the
governance of the country?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Preamble
below.
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only
9. Directive Principles of State Policy help in

1. Amplifying the Preamble
2. Guiding courts in Judicial review of
legislative and executive acts
3. Supplementing fundamental rights of
citizens
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. Fundamental Rights are subordinate to
Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP).
2. DPSP is not enforced automatically by
merely being a part of the Constitution; it
requires a legislation to enforce it.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
11. For a citizen of India, the duty to pay taxes is

a:
a) Fundamental Duty
b) Legal obligation
c) Constitutional obligation
d) Moral obligation
a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only
INSIGHTS
Page 3
12. Which of the following is a fundamental duty

mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution?
1. To develop a spirit of inquiry
2. To respect the National Flag and National
Anthem
3. To safeguard Public property
4. To do charitable activities which promote
social and economic equity
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only

Fundamental duties.
1. They are enforceable by law.
2. They can be used by the courts for
determining the constitutionality of any
law that transgresses certain
fundamental rights.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
14. As per Article 368 of the Constitution, the

amendment of the Indian constitution can be
initiated in
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. The office of The President
4. State Legislatures
5. Council of Ministers
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 5 only
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 5 only

Constitutional amendment in India.
1. A private member of the Parliament
cannot introduce a constitutional
amendment bill
2. The prior permission of the President is
required for the introduction of every
constitutional amendment bill
3. Special days are reserved for introducing
constitutional amendment bills
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
16. A constitutional amendment bill must be

passed in each house by a combination of
which of these conditions
1. Two-thirds of total membership of each
house
2. Majority of those present and voting in
each house
3. Two-thirds of those present and voting in
each house
4. Majority of total membership of each
house
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2
3 and 4
1 only
Either option (b) OR (c)
Page 4
17. When a constitutional amendment bill is

produced before the President, what are the
options available to him?
1. Withhold the bill
2. Return the bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament
3. End the bill
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
18. A number of provisions in the Constitution

can be amended by a simple majority of the
two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of
Article 368. These provisions include, inter
alia
1. Citizenship clauses
2. Abolition or creation of legislative
councils in states
3. Election of the President and its manner
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
19. As per a ruling of the Supreme Court, the

basic structure of the constitution can not be
amended by the Parliament. Which of the
following come under the basic structure?
1. Power of Supreme Court to issue writs in
case of violation of Fundamental Rights
2. Effective access to justice
3. Parliamentary system
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
20. Collective Responsibility of the council of

ministers to the Parliament is the bedrock
principle of parliamentary government. It
implies that
a) The Parliament can remove the council of
ministers from office by passing a vote of
no confidence
b) The council of Ministers is appointed and
dismissed by the Parliament
c) All important decisions of the council of
Ministers have to be approved by the
Parliament
21. If there is frequent disagreement on major

decisions in the Council of Ministers due to
just a few ministers, what option(s) does the
Prime Minister has/have?
1. Dismiss the Ministers who are causing
disagreement
2. Enforce his decision irrespective of the
view of the Council of Ministers
3. Convene a Parliamentary session to take
final view on the decision
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
22. In which of the following cases, the Lok Sabha

may be dissolved?
1. Prime Ministers recommending
dissolution of Lok Saha to the President
INSIGHTS
Page 5
2. No-confidence motion passed against the

incumbent government
3. Resignation of majority of cabinet
ministers
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
23. With reference to Indias physical setting,

1. India lies entirely in the northern
hemisphere
2. Distance between Indias two extreme
longitudes is larger than distance
between its two extreme latitudes
a)
b)
c)
d)
24.
1 Only
None
2 Only
Both
Which of the following states does NOT

share their borders with Mynamar?
1. Mizoram
2. Nagaland
3. Assam
4. Arunachal Pradesh
5. Tripura
6. Manipur

a)
b)
c)
d)
1,3 and 4
2, 3 and 6
3 and 5
1 and 6
25. With reference to Indias perennial rivers,

consider the following statements
1. The rivers Ramganga and Mahananda
are important tributaries of Yamuna
2. The rivers Manas and Dhansiri are
principal tributaries of river
Brahmaputra
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
26. The entire India is divided into twenty river

basins. With reference to these river basins,
1. Rivers with drainage area of 2000 sq.
km to 20000 sq. km are considered as
Major river basins
2. Narmada and Tapti river basins are
considered as Medium river basins
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
27. With reference to the Himalayan flora,

consider the following statemnets
1. The oaks, laurels, maples,
rhododendrons and birch are found in
the temperate regions of Eastern
Himalayas
2. Silver fir, juniper and silver birch are
found at altitudes higher than 4500
metres in the Western Himalyan
region and are known as alpine trees
a) 1 Only
INSIGHTS
Page 6
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
28. With reference to Census 2011 and its
findings, consider the following statements
1. Census 2011 was the fourteenth census
since 1872
2. Overall sex ratio decreased by seven
points since 2001 census
3. The population of India since 1901 has
grown steadily with each passing
census without exception
4. According to 2011 census, West Bengal
is the thickly populated state in India
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
1,2 and 4 Only
All

1. The design of the national flag was
adopted by the Constituent Assembly
of India after India became republic
2. The display of the National Flag is
solely governed by the non-statutory
instructions issued by the government
time to time
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
1. The words Satyameva Jayate inscribed on

national emblem are taken from Mundaka
Upanishad
2. Indias state emblem is an adaptation of
sculpture from Ashokas Sanchi pillar
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None

1. The national song Vande Mataram
was composed by Bankimchandra
Chatterji in Bengali language
2. Vande Mataram was first sung on 27 th
December 1911, at the Kolkata session
of the Indian National Congress
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
None
2 Only
Both

1. The national calendar is based on Saka
Era with Chaitra as its first month
2. According to Indias national calendar, 1
magha starts on 21st January of Gregorian
calendar
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
Page 7

1. The President of India is the
constitutional head of executive of the
Union
2. The Council of Ministers are
collectively responsible to both the
houses of the Parliament
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
34. With reference to some of the provisions of

the Constitution of India related to the
Fundamental rights and Directive principles
of state policy(DPSPs) , consider the following
statements
1. Prohibiting all forms of forced labour,
child labour and human trafficking is
enshrined in Directive Principles of
State Policy
2. The equal pay for equal work for men
and women is a fundamental right in
India
3. According to the Constitution of India,
the DPSPs are fundamental to the
governance of the country
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 Only
3 Only
2 and 3 Only
35. During an emergency, our political structure

undergoes a transformation from being
Federal to
a) Military
b) Quasi-federal
c) Unitary
d) Being only a Single Government

1. National emergency can be declared even
if security of India is not in threat, but
there is a case of imminent danger.
2. The operation of National Emergency
always applies to the whole of Indian
Territory.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
37. The President of India can declare a National

emergency only after the
1. Approval of the Cabinet
2. Approval by the Parliament
3. Approval by the State legislatures
involved
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
38. The concept of Indicative Planning means

that
a) The private sector is involved directly in
the planning process for the nation
b) The state fixes long-term growth targets
for various sectors of the economy and
facilitates the private sector to achieve it
INSIGHTS
Page 8
c) The planning is decentralised with the

state and local governments being made
an integral part of the planning process
d) Allowing the market forces to work with
little regulation and no direction by the
state so that it results in optimum resource
utilization
39. Constitutional provisions which have a

bearing on planning in the country can be
found in
1. Seventh Schedule
2. Part IX
3. Sixth Schedule
41. Which of the following are monitorable

targets set to be achieved at the end of the 12 th
Five Year Plan?
1. Generating 50 million new work
opportunities in the non-farm sector
2. Completing Eastern and Western
Dedicated Freight Corridors
3. 50 per cent gram panchayats achieve
Nirmal Gram Status
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
40. Which of the following is/are NOT the

functions of the recently established NITI
Ayog?
1. Giving technical advice to the state
governments
2. Supervise the Implementation of various
social sector schemes
3. Allocating funds for the economic
projects approved by the Government
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
None mentioned above are the functions
of NITI Aayog.
42. Which of the following is/are NOT a

Fundamental Duty as enshrined in the
Constitution of India?
1. To value and preserve the rich
heritage of our composite culture
2. To safeguard public property and to
abjure violence
3. Who is a parent or guardian to
provide opportunities for education to
his child or ward, as the case may be,
between the age of six and fourteen
years
4. To uphold and protect the
sovereignty, unity and integrity of
India
5. To respect women and uphold Indias
rich culture
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
3 and 5 Only
3 Only
5 Only
1 and 5
Page 9
43. The President of India is elected by members

of an electoral college consisting of
1. Elected members of Lok Sabha

INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2. Elected members of Legislative

Assemblies of states
3. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
1 Only
2 Only
3 Only
None
4. Elected members of Legislative

Councils of states
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 1,2 and 4 Only
d) All the four
44. With reference to the office of Vice President

of India, consider the following statements:
1. When he is acting as President, he still
46. With reference to various Parliamentary

committees in India, consider the following
statements
1. Standing committee is permanent in
nature
2. Standing committees are formed only
by Lok Sabha
3. Ad hoc committees are temporary in
nature
4. The Committee on Petitions is an
example of ad hoc committee
performs the function of the Chairman
a)
b)
c)
d)
of the Rajya Sabha

2. The Vice-President is elected
indirectly by members of an electoral
1 and 2 Only
1,2 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 3 Only
college consisting of the members of

both Houses of Parliament
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
47. Which of the following best describes the

function of committee on public
undertakings?
a) to examine the reports, if any, of the
Comptroller and Auditor General on the
Public Undertakings
b) to suggest alternative policies in order to
bring about efficiency and economy in
45. With reference to the Rajya Sabha, consider

the following statements
1. It is not subject to dissolution
2. One third of its members retire every
second year
3. All the elected members of the Rajya
Sabha are indirectly elected
administration
c) to ascertain whether the money granted
by Parliament has been spent by
Government "within the scope of the
Demand"
INSIGHTS
Page 10
48. Which of the following is NOT a function of

the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs?
a) Planning and Coordination of legislative
and other official business in both Houses
b) Organisation of Youth Parliament
Competitions in Schools/Colleges
throughout the country
c) Appointment of Members of Parliament
on Committees and other bodies set up
by Government
49. Which of the following features given in the

Constitution show that the division of powers
in the Constitution is in favour of the Centre?
1. Centre has overriding authority over the
Concurrent List
2. States in India have no right to territorial
integrity.
3. Veto of Parliament over State bills
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
50. The legislative matters on which uniformity

of legislation throughout the country is
desirable but not essential are enumerated in
the (Constitution)
a) Residuary List
b) Concurrent List
c) Fifth and Sixth Schedule
d) Directive Principles of State Policy
51. In case of a conflict between the Central law

and the state law on a subject enumerated in
the Concurrent List, which of the following is
possible?
1. Central law prevails over the state law.
2. State law prevails if it has received
Presidential assent
3. State law prevails of Governors of two
or more states have approved the
same legislation
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
52. The Constitution empowers the Parliament to

make laws on any matter enumerated in the
State List under which of the following
extraordinary circumstances?
1. When states make a request
2. To implement International agreements
3. When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to
that effect
4. Presidents order in the Extraordinary
gazette of India
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
All of the above

1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
Page 11
53. In which of the following cases can the

Governor reserve a State bill for the approval
of the President?
1. During a financial emergency
2. If the bill restricts inter-state free trade
and commerce
3. If the Central Cabinet specifies in a
written order so.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
54. Which of the following duties have been

constitutionally prescribed for the Centre to
exercise control over the state administration?
1. To protect every state against external
aggression and internal disturbance
2. To ensure that corruption and
maladministration do not affect state
governments
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
55. There are extra-constitutional devices to

promote cooperation and coordination
between the Centre and the states. These
include
1. Inter-state Councils
2. NITI Ayog
3. North-Eastern Council
4. Governors conference
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
56. The Constitution provides for a division of

taxation powers between Centre and States.
Among the several taxes, service tax is
a) Levied by the Centre but Collected and
Appropriated by the States
b) Levied by the Centre but Collected and
Appropriated by the Centre and the States
c) Levied, collected and retained by the
Centre
d) Levied, collected and retained by the
States
57. The receipts from which of the following form

the major sources of non-tax revenues of the
Centre?
1. Broadcasting
2. Banking
3. Irrigation
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
58. The Constitution provides for specific grants

for promoting the welfare of the scheduled
tribes in a state or for raising the level of
administration of the scheduled areas. It
comes under
a) Statutory grants
b) Discretionary Grants
c) Backward area development grant
d) Grants-in-aid
INSIGHTS
Page 12
59. A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty

in which states are interested can be
introduced
a) Only on the recommendation of the
President
b) Only with the consent of two or more
states
c) Only after Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
to that effect
d) Only on the recommendation of the
Finance Commission
62. The Union Government has recently imposed

an anti-dumping duty on imports of graphite
electrodes used in steel plants for five years.
Consider the following statements about antidumping duty
1. It is imposed by Ministry of Commerce.
2. It is imposed on products which are sold
in domestic markets at much higher
prices than international prices.
3. It is used to counter trade imbalance.
60. Article 262 of the Constitution provides for

the adjudication of inter-state water disputes
by a separate tribunal. The need for an extra
judicial machinery to settle inter-state water
disputes is because
a) The courts being overburdened with
litigations and adjudicating slowly are
incapable of adjudicating sensitive water
disputes
b) water resources are not private property
and so rule of law is applied by ordinary
courts is not appropriate to deal with its
distribution
c) Division and distribution of any natural
resources is out of judicial scrutiny in
India
d) The courts cannot employ technical
committees to ascertain the distribution of
water resources
61. The festival Vanaj was organised for the first

time by the Union Government. It is related
with
a) Countering Wildlife extinction
b) Increasing green cover of India
c) Bridge the gaps of social divide and
promote tribal culture in India
d) Generating awareness about conserving
the ecosystem services humanity received
from forests
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
None of the above
63. India and Sri Lanka have a Memorandum of

Understanding in which of the following?
1. On establishment of Nalanda University
2. On cooperation in peaceful uses of
Nuclear energy
3. On cooperation in Cultural
documentation
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
64. The Government of India announces

Minimum Support Prices (MSP) from time to
time. Which of the following factors are taken
into account while calculating MSP?
1. Inter-crop parity
2. International Prices
3. Subsidy levels
4. Inflation levels
INSIGHTS
Page 13

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
65. As per government norms, the Buffer stock of

grains with FCI can be used for which of the
following purposes?
1. Countering food inflation
2. Meeting grain shortages across
geographical regions
3. Disaster relief
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
66. Import of Edible oils in India has increased in

the last few decades. What factors are
responsible for it?
1. Competitive International Prices of Edible
oils
2. Very low import duty on Edible oil
3. India does not produce quality edible oil.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
2. Grading and standardization of

agricultural produce
3. Direct sale of agricultural produce to
markets
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
68. National Horticulture Mission (NHM) does

NOT include which of the following?
1. Aromatic plants
2. Medicinal plants
3. Spices
4. Plantation crops
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of these are included.
69. Consider the following statements about the

government interventions in Agricultural
insurance.
1. Private sector insurers have not been
allowed in agricultural insurance till date.
2. Not only post-harvest losses, but preharvest risks have also been covered.
3. Insurance has been restricted to incidents
of adverse weather situations in farms.
67. Presently the Agricultural Produce Marketing

Committees (APMC) do NOT offer which of
the following facilities to farmers?
1. Regulation of remunerative prices to
farmers
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
Page 14
70. Which of the following would come under

macro-stabilization measures?
1. Fiscal stimulus
2. Cutting Inflation levels
3. Reducing Current Account Deficit
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
71. In the context of economic reforms,

Privatization may mean
1. Facilitating expansion of the Private
sector by the state
2. Disinvestment in State owned enterprises
3. Increasing economic integration with
other State economies
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
72. Factor Market Reforms are considered to be

an important component of Second
Generation Economic Reforms in India. Factor
market reforms may include
1. Cutting down level of subsidies
2. Dismantling the Administered price
Mechanism
3. Rationalizing the taxation system
73. Which of the following are instruments of

Deflation in the economy?
1. Increase in tax rates
2. Increase in interest rates
3. Restricting from printing money
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
74. Cutting the Repo rate, cutting the Cash

Reserve Ratio (CRR) and tweaking other
monetary policy tools will NOT help fight
price rise in which of the following goods?
1. Salt
2. Wheat
3. Oil
4. Automobiles
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
4 only
75. Core inflation shows price rise in all goods

and services excluding
a) Energy and food articles
b) Manufacturing goods
c) Unorganized sector services
d) Energy commodities

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
INSIGHTS
Page 15
76. Inflationary spiral is a situation in an

economy which results out of a process of
interaction between
a) Wages and prices
b) Interest rates and prices
c) Taxes and prices
d) Employment levels and prices
a) The economy has seen price rise over the

last year
b) The economy has seen lowering of prices
over the last year
c) The purchasing power parity of masses
has increased over last year
d) The purchasing power parity of masses
has reduced over last year
77. Stagflation is a situation in the economy when

high X and low Y occur simultaneously. X
and Y respectively are
1. Inflation
2. Economic growth
3. Unemployment
4. Development
80. Consider the following effects of inflation in

the economy.
1. Lenders suffer and borrowers benefit.
2. With the same wages purchasing power
of people get reduced
3. Savings rate may increase
Choose the correct combination of X and Y.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
3 and 2
2 and 4
3 and 1

Skewflation.
1. It denotes a highly irregular trend of
inflation in the economy.
2. Food articles in India have shown
Skewflation in India in the last 4-5 years.
3. Skewflation cannot be countered using
conventional monetary policy tools.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
81. Wholesale Price Index (WPI) does NOT

calculate for price rise in which of the
following categories?
1. Services
2. Energy commodities
3. Intermediary goods
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
79. If the GDP deflator in an economy is greater

than 1, it implies that
INSIGHTS
Page 16
82. With few exceptional years, India has been

facing the typical problem of structural
inflation. The factors responsible for this can
be
1. Shortfall in supply of goods
2. Infrastructure deficit
3. High fiscal deficit
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
83. The economy might face structural problems

like shortage of investible capital, lower
savings, falling standard of living, creation of
a sellers market in which of the following
phases of business cycle?
a) Recession and Boom
b) Recession only
c) Recovery and Recession
d) Depression and Recovery
84. Which of the following sectors of the Indian

economy accounts for the largest share of the
unorganised sector?
a) Agriculture
b) Construction sector
c) Services sector
d) Mining sector
85. Tenancy reforms is an important component

of Land reforms in India. It includes
1. Regulation of rent
2. Abolition of Intermediaries
3. Ownership rights to tenants
4. Security of tenure
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
86. Swine flu is NOT transmitted among humans

by
1. Touch
2. Vectors
3. Food
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
87. Department of Border Management of

government of India is part of which of the
following ministry?
a) Ministry of Defence
b) Ministry of Home Affairs
c) Ministry of Planning
d) Ministry of Earth Sciences
88. With reference to the Comptroller and

Auditor General of India, consider the
following statements
1. The reports of the Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India relating to the
accounts of the States shall be submitted
to the president, who shall cause them to
be laid before concerned Legislative
Assemblies
2. He shall only be removed from office in
like manner and on like grounds as a
Judge of the Supreme Court
a) 1 Only
INSIGHTS
Page 17
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
89. The bhoochetana project in Karnataka is

related to
a) Enhancing availability of credit to
farmers
b) Enhancing productivity of rainfed
areas
c) Enhancing marketing facilities for
farmers

1. The formation of tribunals in India
owes their origin to Constitutional
provisions
2. The administrative tribunals exercise
original jurisdiction in respect of
service matters of employees covered
by them
Council with duties identical with

those of the Inter-State Council
a)
b)
c)
d)
92. With reference to electoral rolls, consider the

1. The electoral roll is a list of all people
in the constituency who are registered
to vote in Indian Elections
2. Only those people with their names on
the electoral roll are allowed to vote
3. The electoral roll is revised once every
five years
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
91. With reference to the Inter State Councils,

1. A provision in the Constitution of
India governing formation of Inter
State Councils was added later
through an amendment
2. The genesis of the article can be traced
directly to Section 135 of the Govt. of
India Act, 1935 provided for
establishment of Inter-Provincial
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
1 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
93. The Parliament exercises control over the

Government using which of the following
devices?
1. Question Hour
2. Adjournment motion
3. Discussions
4. Parliamentary committees
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
All of the above

1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
Page 18

Parliamentary system in India.
1. Parliament is the supreme authority in
India.
2. In India, the Prime Minister can be from
either house of the Parliament.
3. A person who is not a Member of
Parliament is also eligible to become a
Minister.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
c) Protect the observatory from any damages

from earthquake and other disasters
d) Save the observatory from the influence of
primordial gravitational waves

Soil Health Card scheme for farmers.
1. The card will carry crop wise
recommendations of nutrients/fertilizers
required for farms.
2. The card can be assessed without the aid
of technical or laboratory equipment.
3. Cards will be distributed by the State
governments.
95. In a federal system of Government, there

must be
1. A Written Constitution
2. Independent Judiciary
3. Bicameral legislature
4. Local governments
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
96. The objective of Indian Neutrino Observatory

(INO) is to conduct basic research on the
elementary particle called neutrino. The
observatory will be located underground so
as to
a) Safeguard the observatory from the
electro-magenetic waves travelling on
Earths surface
b) Provide adequate shielding to the
neutrino detector from cosmic
background radiation.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
98. As per World Banks recently released

report Building Resilience for Sustainable
Development of the Sundarbans, which of
the following factors have been blamed for
the decline of Sundarbans ecosystem?
1. Mangrove destruction
2. Coral reefs destruction
3. Destructive impact of cyclones
4. Unsustainable fishing
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
Page 19
99. The Union Government has recently launched

a Grievances Monitoring portal
named MADAD (Help) to register
grievances from
a) General public
b) Litigants stuck in court cases
c) Indians living abroad
d) Indian students
100. Which of the following Institutes/bodies

have a bearing on skill development in India?
1. Khadi and Village Industries Commission

(KVIC)
2. Rural Self Employment Training Institute
(RSETI)
3. National Skill Commission
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
Page 20

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
question.
(iii)
for that question.
INSIGHTS
Page 1

the Indian economy immediately postindependence.
1. India decided to be a state led
economy.
2. All the industries were kept under the
compulsory licensing provision for
the private sector.
3. State governments did not have the
right to monopoly over any industry.
Choose the correct answer from the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
None of the above
2. To regulate monopolistic and unfair

practices in the market, the Competition
Act, 2002 had been introduced. It
regulates which of the following aspects
related to business firms in the market?
1. Merger and acquisition
2. Pricing
3. Investment in security markets
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3. India was faced with a severe balance of

payment crisis in 1991. The factors
responsible for the crisis may be
1. Higher oil prices due to Gulf war
2. High Inflation
3. Unmanageable fiscal deficit
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
4. Disinvestment is an important policy

thrust of the government in market
friendly reforms. The proceeds of
Disinvestment are used by government
for which of the following?
1. For Infrastructural development
2. For Social sector schemes
3. To privatize other PSUs
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
INSIGHTS
Page 2
5. Token disinvestment in PSUs means that

a) Government will not lose ownership
and disinvest only a small share in the
PSU
b) Government will not lose ownership
but will disinvest till 26% stake for it
remains
c) Government will lose ownership and
will disinvest a majority of its stake in
the PSU
6. As per the present Disinvestment policy

in PSUs
1. Citizens can also own shares of PSUs.
2. Government must retain majority
shareholding in the PSUs being
disinvested.
3. Profitable PSUs cannot be disinvested.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
7. If the Gross capital formation is

increasing in India, this means that
a) India is creating more and more
infrastructure
b) Indias financial markets are receiving
more and more investment
c) Banks in India are witnessing
gradually decreasing Non-performing
assets
d) Non-plan expenditure is increasing in
successive annual budgets
8. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is NOT

allowed in which of the following sectors
in India?
1. E-Commerce
2. Housing and Real Estate Business
3. Coffee Plantations
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
9. FDI in automatic route does NOT require

approval from the
1. Concerned State Government
2. RBI
3. Foreign Investment Promotion Board
(FIPB)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
10. FDI in select sectors beyond a certain

percentage of stake has to approved via
the Government Route. Which of the
following stakeholders may be involved
in the approval?
1. Ministry of Finance
2. Ministry of Commerce
INSIGHTS
Page 3
3. Foreign Investment Promotion Board

(FIPB)
4. RBI
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
d) Manchester.
14. What was the name of the committee

which was set up to fight for the rights of
the passengers in Komaghata maru ship
in Vancouver?
a) Shore Committee.
b) Justice Committee.
c) Liberal Committee.
11. Who started the newspaper Free

Hindustan in North America?
a) Tarak Nath Das.
b) Lal Hardayal.
c) Lal Lajpar Rai.
d) Kudiram Bose.
12. Who set up a Swadesh Sevak Home in

Vancouver on the lines of the India House
in London?
a) Tarak Nath Das.
b) Lal Har Dayal.
c) Lal Lajpar Rai.
d) G.D. Kumar.
13. Yugantar Ashram was set up in

a) Punjab.
b) San Francisco.
c) London.
d) Ghadar Committee

1. Ghadar movement was a democratic
and egalitarian movement.
2. It was clearly stated by the Ghadarites
that their objective was the
establishment of an independent
republic of India.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None

1. The Ghadar Movement failed to
generate an effective and sustained
leadership that was capable of
integrating the various aspects of the
movement.
INSIGHTS
Page 4
2. The Ghadar movement also lacked

effective organization.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.
17. Delayed investments in last few years

resulted into an alarmingly high rate of
increase in stalled projects reaching upto
8.8 lakh crores. As per the latest Economic
Survey, the factor that is responsible for
delay in a large number of projects is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Lack of speedy regulatory clearance

Unfavourable market Conditions
Low environmental clearances
Land clearances
18. The latest Economic Survey points out

that price subsidies are regressive. It
means that
a) A rich household benefits more from
the subsidy than a poor household
b) There is huge leakage in the
distribution of subsidies
c) Corporates are enjoying a much larger
share of subsidies than the poor
households
d) High price subsidies is pulling down
economic growth in India
19. The Eurozone crisis is one of the major

reasons of the global economic slowdown.
Which of the following factors made the
crisis difficult to resolve?
1. The eurozone lacks a single fiscal
authority capable of strict
enforcement
2. Economies with different levels of
competitiveness (and fiscal positions)
have a single currency.
3. There is no lender of last resort like a
Central bank.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
20. As per the World Bank the East Asian

Miracle Economies are the ones whose
economic growth was
a) export-led
b) state-led
c) Demographic dividend led
d) Services led
21. Indias energy dependence on imported

energy sources is in which of the
following?
1. Coal
2. Nuclear Fuel
3. Biofuels
4. Natural Gas
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 5
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
None of A, B or C options
combination is correct.
22. Which of the following does NOT form

part of the Indian money market?
1. Treasury bills
2. Mutual Funds
3. Share market
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
23. Which of the following bodies come

under the category of financial regulators?
1. Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority (IRDA)
2. Forward Markets Commission (FMC)
3. NABARD
4. SIDBI
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
24. Money market is that segment of financial

markets that
a) satisfies the short-term capital needs

of corporations
b) satisfies the long-term capital needs of
corporations
c) provides short-term loans on
discounted interest rate to the
corporations
d) provides long-term loans on
discounted interest rate to the
corporations
25. The provision of repos and the reverse

repos help in
1. Getting banks the required amount of
funds
2. Allowing banks to park idle surplus
funds
3. Controlling inflation in the economy
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
26. The call money market is an important

segment of the money market where
uncollateralized borrowing and lending of
funds take place on overnight basis.
Which of the following are NOT players
in the call money market?
1. Commercial banks
2. Regional Rural Banks
3. Cooperative banks
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 6
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All are players in call money market.
27. Open Market Operations (OMOs) are the

purchase and sale of securities between
a) RBI and the Government
b) Government and the Market
c) RBI and the market
d) RBI and Foreign Exchange Markets
28. The effectiveness of the Open Market

Operations (OMOs) is constrained by
which of the following factors
1. Fiscal deficit of the Government
2. Amount of Government Securities in
the market
3. Bank rate
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
29. Liquidity Adjustment facility (LAF) is

a) The difference between repo and
reverse repo rate
b) The margin upto which banks can
reduce their Statutory Liquidity
requirements (SLR)
c) The difference between bank rate and
repo rate
d) A special facility granted by RBI to

banks to cut down on Cash Reverse
Ratio (CRR) obligations
30. Under the Marginal Standing Facility

(MSL), commercial banks are allowed to
a) Park funds with RBI at a slightly
higher rate than official reverse repo
rates
b) Borrow funds overnight from RBI at a
slightly higher rate than repo rate
c) Cut down their obligations of SLR
upto a certain limit

Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs).
1. They are traded like stocks.
2. They contain a basket of commodities
and assets.
3. ETFs are not allowed in India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
32. A non-banking financial company (NBFC)

can NOT
1. Lend money to people
2. Have principal business as industrial
activity
3. Acquire stocks, bonds or securities
issued by Government
INSIGHTS
Page 7

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
3 only
33. Which of the following functions/roles

are performed by the RBI?
1. Agent of the Government of India in
the IMF
2. Developmental and promotional
functions
3. Keeper of the foreign currency
reserves
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All are performed by RBI.

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
1. It is decided by the Government of
India.
2. It is necessary to consult the Boards of
all Public sector banks before deciding
CRR.
3. Increase in CRR increases the money
supply in the economy.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
35. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) can be

maintained by banks in the form of
1. Gold
2. Government Securities
3. Cash
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
36. The interest rate which the RBI charges on

its long-term lendings is known as the
Bank Rate. The clients who borrow
through this route can be
1. Union Government
2. State Governments
3. NBFCs
4. Commercial banks
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
37. Inflation can be countered by increasing

which of the following?
1. CRR
2. Reverse Repo rate
3. SLR
INSIGHTS
Page 8
4. Bank rate
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
38. Which of the following Union Territories

participate in the election of the
President?
1. Delhi
2. Puducherry
3. Chandigarh
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
39. The nominated members of both Lok

Sabha and Rajya Sabha do NOT
participate in which of the following?
1. Election of President
2. Passing of Constitutional Amendment
Bill
3. Impeachment of President
4. Election of Vice-President
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

regarding the election of President.
1. The value of vote of a MLA is
equivalent to that of a MLC casting
vote in Presidential election.
2. The value of vote of a MLA is
equivalent to that of a MP casting vote
in Presidential election.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
41. During the tenure of the Indian President,

he is immune from which of the
following?
1. Criminal proceedings
2. Civil Proceedings
3. Arrest and Imprisonment
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

the Impeachment of the Indian President.
1. Impeachment can only be initiated by
Lok Sabha.
2. Supreme Court is the authority that
investigates against the charges
levelled against the President.
INSIGHTS
Page 9
3. Representatives of Union Territories

in the Parliament do not participate in
the impeachment process.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
43. Which of the following appointments are

made by the President?
1. Attorney General of India
2. Chairman of Finance Commission
3. Comptroller and Auditor General of
India
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
44. The President is an integral part of the

Parliament of India. Which of the
following are done by the President, with
reference to the sessions of the
Parliament?
1. Summoning
2. Proroguing
3. Dissolving Lok Sabha
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
45. Consider a case where the Parliament has

passed a legislation sent to the President
and the President returns it to the
Parliament for reconsideration. For the bill
to get passed now which of these should
happen?
a) Parliament should pass the bill again
but this time by a higher majority
b) Parliament should pass the bill again
by an ordinary majority
c) A joint sitting should be convened to
get the bill passed
d) Parliament should wait for 6 months
without taking any action on the
returned bill, after which it will be
deemed passed.
46. Which of the following bills can NOT be

returned for reconsideration or withheld
by the President?
1. Money Bills
2. Constitutional Amendment Bills
3. Private member bills
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
INSIGHTS
Page 10

1. The Extremists wanted to extend the
Swadeshi Movement from Bengal to
the rest of the country.
2. The Extremists also wanted to
gradually extend the boycott from
foreign goods to every form of
association or cooperation with the
colonial Government.
3. The Moderates wanted to confine the
boycott part of the movement to
Bengal and were totally opposed to its
extension to the Government.
a) Only 1 & 3.
b) Only 1.
c) Only 2 & 3.
d) All.
c) Only 2 & 3.
d) All.

regarding the Indian Councils Act of 1909:
1. The Indian Councils Act of 1909
increased the number of elected
members in both the imperial
Legislative Council and the provincial
legislative councils.
2. According to the Act said that, an
Indian was to be appointed a member
of the Governor-Generals Executive
Council.
3. The Act allowed to Vote on separate
budget items.
a) Only 1 & 3.
b) Only 1.
48. Which of the following resolutions were

passed at the 1906 Calcutta session of the
Indian National Congress?
c) Only 2 & 3.
d) All.
1. Swadeshi.
2. Boycott.
3. National Education.
4. Self-Government.
below:
50. Who organized Abhinav Bharat?

a) V.D. Savarkar.
b) Rash Behari Bose.
c) Subhas Chandra Bose.
d) B.G. Tilak.
a) Only 1 & 4.
b) Only 2, 3 & 4.
INSIGHTS
Page 11

1. An ordinance made when both the
Houses are in session is void.
2. Decision of the President to issue an
ordinance can be questioned in a
court.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

the pardoning power of the President.
1. He can exercise this power even
without the advice of the cabinet.
2. The President is not bound to give
reasons for his order.
3. Final decision of the President need
not rely on the evidences of the case.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
53. Though the President has no

constitutional discretion, he has some
situational discretion in which of the
following cases?
1. Appointment of Prime Minister when
no party has a clear majority in the
Lok Sabha.
2. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha if the

council of ministers has lost its
majority.
3. Imposing Presidents rule in States in
case of constitutional breakdown
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
54. Who among the following will not be

qualified for being a candidate for the
post of Vice-President?
1. Governor of any state
2. Union Cabinet Ministers
3. State cabinet Ministers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. The Constitution does not contain any
specific procedure for the selection
and appointment of the Prime
Minister.
2. A person must prove his majority in
the Lok Sabha before he is appointed
as the Prime Minister.
3. The Prime Minister may be a member
of any of the two Houses of
parliament.
INSIGHTS
Page 12

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

the powers of the Prime Minister (PM).
1. The President can appoint only those
persons as ministers who are
recommended by the Prime Minister.
2. The PM can bring about the collapse
of the council of ministers by
resigning from office.
3. The council of Ministers cannot
function when the PM resigns.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. The advice tendered by Ministers to
the President shall not be inquired
into by any court.
2. After the dissolution of the Lok Sabha,
the council of ministers does not cease
to hold office with immediate effect.
3. A minister who is a member of one
House of Parliament has the right to
speak and to take part in the
proceedings of the other House also.

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
57. Who among the following can be invited

to the meetings of the Cabinet?
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Union Ministers of State
3. Deputy Ministers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
58. Which of the following is/are NOT

mentioned in the Constitution of India?
1. Powers and functions of the Union
Cabinet
2. Powers and functions of the State
Cabinets
3. Cabinet Committees
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 13

Cabinet Committees.
1. They are setup by the President.
2. Non-cabinet ministers can not become
members of these committees.
3. All cabinet committees are headed by
the Home Minister.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
60. Who among the following can review the

decisions taken by the Cabinet
Committees?
1. Prime Minister
2. Cabinet
3. Parliament
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
61. The President of India is an integral part

of the Parliament. One of the reasons for it
is that
a) He has a constitutional right to attend
the meetings of the Parliament.
b) A bill passed by both the Houses of
Parliament cannot become law
without the Presidents assent.
c) He has the constitutional authority to

both constitute and dissolve the
Parliament.
d) He is the head of the executive branch
of the Government in our
Parliamentary democracy.

the representation in Rajya Sabha.
1. All the Union Territories (UTs) are
represented in Rajya Sabha.
2. Members in Rajya Sabha are
nominated by the president only on
the advice of the Council of Ministers.
3. Nominated members in Rajya Sabha
are more than those representing the
UTs.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Assertion (A): The simple majority system of
territorial representation does not represent
the whole electorate.
Reasons (R): It does not secure due
representation to minorities or other small
groups.
of these is true?
INSIGHTS
Page 14

64. Out of the several kinds of proportional

representation system, which of the
following has been adopted in India?
1. List System
2. Single Transferrable Vote system
3. Mixed member proportional
representation
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
65. On the question whether a member is

subject to any of the disqualifications
mentioned under the Representation of
People Act (1951), whose decision is final?
a) President
b) Supreme Court
c) Election Commission of India
d) Lok Sabha Speaker
66. In the oath or affirmation by every

Member of Parliament (MP), s/he swears
to
1. Uphold the sovereignty and integrity
of India
2. Do right to all manner of people in
accordance with the Constitution and
the law, without fear or favour,

affection or ill will.
3. Preserve, protect and defend the
Constitution and the law
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above

the Lok Sabha speaker.
1. The speaker has to be elected from
amongst the Lok Sabha members.
2. When Lok Sabha is dissolved, the
speaker does not immediately cease to
hold office.
3. His decision in all Parliamentary
matters is final.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
68. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his

powers and duties from
1. The Constitution of India
2. Parliamentary Conventions
3. Parliamentary laws
4. Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 15
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
69. The decision of the Lok Sabha speaker is

considered in which of the following
cases?
1. Deciding whether a bill is money bill
or not
2. Disqualifying MPs under antidefection law
3. Deciding on calling a joint meeting of
both the Houses
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
70. To impeach the Lok Sabha speaker

a) Both houses need to pass a resolution
to that effect by an absolute majority
b) Both houses need to pass a resolution
to that effect by an ordinary majority
c) Only Lok Sabha needs to pass a
resolution to that effect by an absolute
majority
d) Only Lok Sabha needs to pass a
resolution to that effect by an ordinary
majority
71. Lok Sabha has recently passed Mines and

Minerals (Development and Regulation)
Amendment Bill, 2015. It covers which of
the following minerals?
1. Limestone
2. Bauxite
3. Manganese
4. Iron
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
72. Election Commission of India (ECI) has

launched National Electoral Roll
Purification and Authentication
Programme (NERPAP). Under the
programme
a) Voter ID card of voters will be linked
with Aadhar data.
b) Voter ID card of voters will be reissued after redundancy check and
verification.
c) Voter ID card of voters will be stored
online and new cards will be allotted
online.
73. Worlds first electric satellites were

successfully lifted off by a Space
Exploration (SpaceX) Technologies rocket.
What differences does an electric satellite
have with respect to conventional
satellites?
INSIGHTS
Page 16
1. It does not use a chemical propulsion

system.
2. Electric propulsion from these
satellites consumes relatively less fuel.
3. These satellites are heavier than
conventional satellites.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
74. With regard to taxation, in the Budget of

2015-16 which of the following items has
remained unchanged?
1. Service Tax
2. Income Tax Slab
3. Wealth Tax
4. Corporate Tax
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
75. MUDRA bank announced in the Budget

2015-16 will provide finance wit highest
priority for
a) First generation SC/ST entrepreneurs
b) Women entrepreneurs
c) Entrepreneurs in Self-Help Groups
d) Young graduate entrepreneurs aged
less than 35 years
76. Which of the following initiatives have

been taken in this Budget 2015-16?
1. Creation of a Universal Social Security
system for all Indians
2. Forward Markets Commission (FMC)
will be merged with the Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
3. As an alternative to purchasing gold,
Sovereign Gold Bond will be
launched
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
77. The Union Cabinet recently gave its

approval for establishing the New
Development Bank (NDB). Apart from
Infrastructure, the NDB will provide
capital for investment in which of these
areas?
1. E-governance
2. Sustainable Development
3. Border Modernization
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 17
78. Union government has accepted

recommendations of the 14th Finance
Commission (FC) as per its agenda of
cooperative federalism. The major
recommendations are?
1. Increase tax devolution to States to
42% from 32% previously.
2. Special grants for strengthening
duly elected gram panchayats
3. Larger financial role for states in
the NITI Ayog
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
79. Which of the following brake systems are

being used presently in the Indian
railways?
1. Disc brake system
2. Air brake system
3. Rubber brake system
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
b) Energy Sector
c) Mining Sector
d) Transportation sector
81. Which of the following papers were

launched by Annie Besant?
1. New India.
2. Commonwealth.
3. Yugaantar.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 1 & 2.
All.
None.

regarding Annie Besant:
1. Annie Besant founded the
Theosophical Society in London.
2. In 1898 she established the Central
Hindu College at Benares.
3. She was made the President of the
1917 Calcutta Session of the Indian
National Congress.
a) Only 1.
80. In India, which of the following accounts

for the highest share of greenhouse
emissions as per recently released data by
the World Resource Institute?
a) Agriculture and Livestock
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
d) All.
INSIGHTS
Page 18

1. Congress and the Muslim League
supported Annie Besants decision to
set up Home Rule Leagues.
2. She actively took part in Civil
Disobedience Movement.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
2. Karnataka
3. Central Provinces
4. Berar
below:
a) Only 1.
b) Only 1, 2 & 3.
c) Only 3 & 4.
d) All.
d) None.
84. Who among the following have been the

members of Home Rule Leagues?
1. J.L. Nehru.
2. Madan Mohan Malaviya.
3. M.A. Jinnah.
4. Surendranath Banerjea.
below:
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 4.
86. To ensure an environment friendly Indian

railway, which of the following initiatives
have been taken in the latest Railway
Budget 2015-16?
1. Expanding bio-toilets
2. Roof top solar energy generation
plants
3. Waste-to-energy plants for waste
generated from stations
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
c) Only 1 2 & 3.
d) All.
85. Tilaks Home Rule League operated in

which of the following areas?
1. Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city)
87. Majority of the existing farm credit corpus

in India goes to the
a) Agro-based industries
b) Farmers
c) Land improvement techniques
d) Food subsidies
INSIGHTS
Page 19
3. GIS devices
88. In the recently launched Economic Survey
2014-15, which of the following have been
pointed out as signs of worry for the
Indian rural economy?
1. Sharp decline in rural wages
2. Declining rate of agricultural
growth
3. Low expenditure in rural Public
health Infrastructure
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
89. Natural cooling cycles in the X and the

Y have offset global warming in the past
decade, say researchers. X and Y are
a) Arctic and Antarctic
b) Arctic and Pacific
c) Antarctic and Pacific
d) Siberian and Pacific
90. A low cost mobile weather station made

recently in Sri Lanka can capture and
transmit near real-time data on rainfall. It
raises alarm in the event of extreme
rainfall and other natural disasters, which
can help farmers, disaster management
officials and the scientists plan ahead.
Which of the following technologies have
been used in the device?
1. Atomic Clock
2. GPS Sensor

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
91. With reference to Rashtriya Krishi Vikas

Yojana (RKVY), consider the following
statements:
1. Under this scheme, many sub-schemes
are selected and implemented by state
governments
2. Vidharbha Intensive Irrigation
Development Programme is one of its
sub-schemes
3. A sub-scheme called Nutri Farm has
been launched under RKVY which
provides subsidized fertilizers to BPL
farmers
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
92. With reference to the National Food

Security Mission (NFSM), consider the
1. Coarse cereals crops and commercial
crops (such as sugarcane, jute, cotton)
are not included in the missions
objective
2. The missions aims to help India
produce additional 10 million tonnes
INSIGHTS
Page 20
of rice, 8 million tonnes of wheat and 4

million tonnes of pulses by the end of
12th Five Year Plan.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
Both
2 Only
None
93. With reference to the National Mission for

Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), consider
the following statements
1. It is a sub-mission under Rashtriya
Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)
2. Comprehensive soil health
management; efficient on-farm water
management and mainstreaming
rainfed technologies are its main focus
areas
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
94. With reference to agriculture cooperation

in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Agriculture cooperatives provide
around 25% of agricultural credit in
the country
2. Agriculture cooperatives produce
nearly 50% of Indias sugar
3. Agriculture cooperatives produce
nearly 25% of Indias fertilizer

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
3 and 2 Only
2 Only
1 and 3 Only
95. With reference to mechanization of

agriculture in India, consider the
1. Though India lacks far behind world
average rates in many farm
mechanization areas, but in case of
tractor density per thousand hectares,
it leads the world
2. Mechanization of farm is considered as
essential input in modern agriculture
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
96. The National School of Drama was

established by
a) Lalit Kala Academy
b) Sangeet Nataka Academy
c) Sahitya Academy
d) Ministry of Culture, Government of
India
97. With reference to Ananda

Coomaraswamy, consider the following
statements:
1. He is described as a person who was
largely responsible for introducing
ancient Indian art to the West
INSIGHTS
Page 21
2. He was a noted Kannada scholar

3. Sahitya Academy has instituted a
Anand Fellowship in his honour
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 3 Only
All
98. Which of the following cities one of the

seven the Zonal Cultural Councils
established by the government of India is
NOT located?
a) Patiala
b) Dimapur
c) Thanjavur
d) Khajuraho
99. With reference to Visa on Arrival facility,
1. Some of the countries included in this
scheme include nationals from Finland
and New Zealand too
2. Visa on Arrival is also applicable to

Diplomatic/Official Passports
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
100. Which of the following is the function

of National Statistical Commission ?
a) To identify the core statistics, which
are of national importance and are
critical to the development of the
economy
b) To constitute professional committees
or working groups to assist the
Commission on various technical
issues
c) To evolve national policies and
priorities relating to the statistical
system
d) All the above
INSIGHTS
Page 22

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
question.
(iii)
for that question.
INSIGHTS
Page 1
1. The Constitution does NOT contain

any specific procedure for the selection
and appointment of the
1. Chief Minister
2. Governor
3. Prime Minister
4. President
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3
All of the above
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only

1. The Chief Minister (CM) may be a
member of any of the two Houses
of a state legislature.
2. The CM may be dismissed by the
Governor even if he enjoys
majority support in state legislature
4. Chairman, State Public Service

Commission
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
4. With India adopting a decentralized

and participatory model of planning,
state planning boards have become
more relevant. The Chairman of the
State Planning board is
a) Minister of Planning, State
Government
b) Planning Secretary of the State
c) Chief Secretary
d) Chief Minister

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
3. The Governor requires advice of the

CM in appointing which of the
following important officials?
1. State election Commissioner
2. Advocate General
3. Chief Justice of High Court
5. With reference to the Akali Movement,

1. The main objective of the
movement was to reform the Sikh
religion and clean it from the
influence of Hinduism
2. The Shiromani Akali Dal was the
central body that organized the
movement and accepted nonviolence as the soul of the
movement
INSIGHTS
Page 2
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
6. In relation to the Council of Ministers

(CoM) of Centre and State, which of
the following powers are enjoyed by
both the President and the Governor
respectively?
3. Sending a decision of the CoM for
re-consideration
4. Dismissing the CoM
5. Getting the CoM to furnish desired
information to Governor/President
8. The Constitution provides for the

abolition or creation of legislative
councils in states. Accordingly, the
Parliament can abolish or create a
legislative council in a state when
1. The state assembly passes the
specific resolution with special
majority
2. It is passed in the Parliament by
ordinary majority.
3. A prior recommendation has been
made by the President.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
7. Article 163 provides for a council of

ministers with the chief minister at the
head to aid and advise the governor in
the exercise of his functions except the
discretionary ones. If any question
arises whether a matter falls within the
governors discretion or not, the final
decision lies with the
a) Governor
b) Chief Minister
c) State High Court
d) President
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
9. The size of the state council of

ministers and the ranking of ministers
is specified and determined by the
a) Constitution of India
b) Chief Minister
c) Governor
d) Laws enacted by the State
Legislative Assembly

about the legislative council in a state.
1. Its strength is fixed by the
Parliament.
2. The size of the council depends on
size of the assembly of the
concerned state.
INSIGHTS
Page 3
3. None of its members are directly

elected.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
13. The Chairman of the State Legislative

Council
1. Has to be a member of the Council
for being eligible
2. Elected by the Council
3. Appointment is approved by the
Governor
below.
11. The famous Keys Affair during the

freedom struggle is related to:
a) The handover of the keys of the
Toshakhana of the Golden Temple
by the British to the Akalis
b) The Killing of the British officer
John Keys by the Akalis
c) The transfer of the corrupt British
officer John Keys from Amritsar
after stiff agitation by the Akalis
12. In the election to the Legislative

Council of a State, which of the
following participate?
1. Municipalities
2. Members of Legislative Assembly
of the State
3. Important District Functionaries
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
14. Consider the position with respect to

lapsing of bills on the dissolution of
the assembly.
1. A Bill passed by the assembly or
passed by both the houses but
pending assent of
the
governor or the President does not
lapse.
2. A Bill passed by the assembly but
pending in the council lapses.
3. A Bill pending in the council but
not passed by the assembly does
not lapse.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 4
15. When a bill passed by the legislative

assembly transmitted to the legislative
council is rejected by it, then which of
the following is possible?
a) The assembly will pass the bill
again and the bill will be deemed to
be passed by the legislature.
b) The assembly will pass the bill
again, transmit it to the council and
only after the assent of the council
will the bill be deemed to be passed
by the legislature.
c) The assembly will pass the bill
again, transmit it to the council and
even without the assent of the
council will the bill be deemed to
be passed by the legislature.
d) The Governor will have to call a
joint sitting of both the houses.
16. With reference to the Vaikom

Satyagraha, consider the following
statements
1. E.V. Ramaswami Naicker was its
prominent leader
2. The demand of the movement to
seek entry to the temple for avarnas
(depressed classes)
17. Consider the following about the State

Legislature.
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced
in the legislative council.
2. Money bills can be introduced only
on the recommendation of the
Governor.
3. The Governor cannot reserve a
money bill for the consideration of
the President.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
18. In which of the following matters, the

powers and status of the council are
broadly equal to that of the assembly?
1. Approval of ordinances issued by
the governor.
2. Consideration of the reports of the
constitutional bodies.
3. Selection of ministers including the
chief minister.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 5
19. Concerning the High Court, which of

the following is done by the President?
1. Determining the Strength of High
Court
2. Appointing the Judges
3. Removal of Judges

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
20. The Constitution has made which of

the following provisions to safeguard
and ensure the independent and
impartial functioning of a high court?
1. Conduct of Judges cannot be
discussed in state legislature
2. Their expenses are charged on
Consolidated Fund of India
3. Security of Tenure
22. The High courts are also called as

courts of record. It means that
1. The judgements, proceedings and
acts of the high courts are recorded
for
testimony.
2. The Judgements of HCs are
recognized as legal precedents.
3. The acts of the HCs cannot be
questioned if produced before any
subordinate
court in India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
21. A high court does NOT enjoy which of

the following jurisdiction and powers?
1. Advisory Jurisdiction
2. Writ jurisdiction
3. Supervisory Jurisdiction
4. Original Jurisdiction
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
23. Judicial review is one the powers of a

high court. Under Judicial review
constitutionality of which of the
following can be examined by the HC?
1. Legislative enactments of
Parliament
2. Executive orders of State
governments
3. Executive orders of Central
government
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 6
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
24. With reference to the temple entry

movement and the Gandhian or
nationalist approach in fighting caste
oppression during the national
movement, consider the following
statements:
1. The Indian National Congress
lacked a clear strategy in ending
the caste system
2. The growth of casteism and the
continuous existence in practice of
oppression and discrimination
against the lower castes in post1947 India can be attributed to
failure of national movement in
ending this practice

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
None of the above
26. The appointment, posting and

promotion of district judges in a state
are made by the
a) Governor in consultation with the
High Court
b) Chief Justice of the concerned High
Court
c) Governor in consultation with the
High Court and the State Public
Service Commission
d) Chief Justice of the concerned High
Court in consultation with a
collegium of senior-most judges

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None

1. The Constitution of India does not
recognize subordinate courts.
2. The Independence of Subordinate
courts from the executive is
secured via State laws.
3. Only the High Court, not the
District court, can exercise
superintendence over the lower
courts.

about Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
1. An amendment made to the
Constitution of India does not
apply to the state unless it is
extended by a presidential order.
2. It is the only state in the Indian
Union which has its own separate
state Constitution.
3. The President has no power to
suspend the Constitution of the
state on the ground of failure to
comply with the directions given
by him.
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 7
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
28. Which of the following are the

financial services offered by the Post
Offices in india?
1. Savings Bank account (SB).
2. Recurring Deposit account (RD).
3. Monthly Income Scheme (MIS).
4. Public Provident Fund (PPF).
5. Senior Citizens Savings Scheme
(SCSS).
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 1, 2 , 3 & 5.
Only 2, 3, 4 & 5.
All.

regarding the National e-Governance
Plan (NeGP):
1. NeGP has been formulated by the
Department of Electronics and
Information Technology (DeitY)
and Department of Administrative
Reforms and Public Grievances
(DARPG).
2. Under the Plan, National e
governance fund has been created
under the Ministry of Finance to
provide funds at concessional rates.
3. There are 31 Mission Mode Projects
under NeGP.
Which of the above statements are true?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2.
Only 1 & 3.
None.
30. MeghRaj Project is:

a) a Weather predicting application
prepared by the ISRO.
b) An app created by the Delhi
government for the safety of
women.
c) a new scheme for the development
North Eastern Areas.
d) a new project related to Cloud
Computing.

regarding the National Optical Fibre
Network:
1. It is a project to provide broadband
connectivity to over two lakh Gram
panchayats of India.
2. The project provides internet access
using existing optical fibre and
extending it to the Gram
panchayats.
3. A special purpose vehicle Bharat
Broadband Network Limited
(BBNL) is created as a Public Sector
Undertaking (PSU) under the
Companies Act of 1956 for the
execution of the project.
4. The project will be funded by the
Universal Service Obligation Fund
(USOF).
INSIGHTS
Page 8
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2, 3 & 4.
Only 2 & 4.
All.

regarding the Cyber Appellate
Tribunal:
1. It has been established under the
provisions of the Information
Technology Act, 2000.
2. It is the first and the only Cyber
Appellate Tribunal in the country.
3. The Cyber Appellate Tribunal has
powers to regulate its own
procedure including the place at
which it has its sittings.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 1 & 3.
All.

regarding the Indian Computer
Emergency Response Team (CERT-In):
1. It is the Government organization
under Ministry of Communications
and Information Technology.
2. It is a nodal agency that deals with
cyber security threats like hacking
and phishing.
34. Governors rule is a unique feature of

the J&K polity. It is imposed when
a) The Central Government imposes
Presidents rule in the state
b) There is National emergency or
internal disturbance
c) The state administration is not
carried in accordance with the
provisions of the J&K constitution
d) The President is satisfied that the
state government is incapable of
administering the state and hands
over the governance to the
Governor of the state
35. The State of Nagaland is a special state

as per the Indian constitution.
Nagaland has relative political
autonomy in deciding which of the
following matters?
1. Administration of Civil and
Criminal Justice
2. Ownership of land and its transfer
3. Customary law and its practice
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2.
Both.
None.
INSIGHTS
Page 9
36. Which of the following were the

implications of the 73 rd Constitutional
Amendment?
1. Constituting Panchayats became
mandatory for states.
2. Panchayats were brought under the
justiciable part of the Constitution.
3. The Structure of Panchayats across
the country was made uniform and
harmonised.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
37. As per the Constitution, every

Panchayat should have a Gram Sabha.
A Gram Sabha is a body consisting of
a) The whole population of the
villages under the Panchayat other
than Children of less than five
years
b) The adult population of the villages
under the Panchayat
c) The registered voters of the villages
under the Panchayat
d) All the Village committees
constituted by the Panchayat
38. Which of the following bodies were

constituted in pursuance of the 73 rd
and 74th constitutional amendment?
1. State Finance Commission
2. State Election Commission
3. District Planning Committees
4. District Rural Development

Agency
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
39. As per the Constitution, Which of the

following functional items can be kept
within the purview of the Panchayats?
1. Public Distribution System
2. Welfare of Weaker Sections
3. Primary Health Centres
4. Adult and non-formal education
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
40. Consider the following provisions

under the 73rd amendment.
1. Direct elections to all seats in
panchayats at the village,
intermediate and district levels.
2. Indirect elections to the post of
chairperson of panchayats at the
intermediate and district levels.
3. Providing reservation of seats for
backward classes in panchayats at
any level
INSIGHTS
Page 10
Under the 73rd amendment, these above

provisions are
a) Compulsory for most states
b) Voluntary for most states
c) Some are compulsory, some
voluntary for states
d) Dependent on whether the state is
a special category state or not.
41. Provisions of the Panchayats

(Extension to the Scheduled Areas)
Act, 1996, popularly known as the
PESA Act or the Extension Act has
which of the following objectives?
1. To provide self-rule for the bulk of
the tribal population
2. To evolve a suitable administrative
framework consistent with
traditional practices
3. To safeguard and to preserve the
traditions and customs of tribal
communities
the Scheduled Areas shall be

coordinated at the Panchayat level
3. For the exploitation of minor
minerals prior recommendation of
the Gram Sabha or the Panchayat is
needed.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
43. At the Central level, the subject of

urban local government is dealt with
by which of the following ministries?
1. Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Ministry of Urban Development
3. Ministry of Defence
below.

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
42. As per the PESA Act

1. Acquisition of land requires
consultation with the concerned
Gram Sabha
2. Actual planning and
implementation of the projects in
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
44. The institutions of urban local

government originated and developed
in modern India during the period of
British rule. Which of the following
substantiate the argument?
1. Local self-government was
declared a provincial subject under
the Government of
India Act of
1935.
INSIGHTS
Page 11
2. Lord Ripons Resolution of 1882

has been hailed as the Magna
Carta of local self-government.
3. First panchayats and municipal
corporations in India were setup
under the British.
3. Members of State Legislative

Assembly
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. The Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party
was advocated that the nationalists
should end the boycott of the
legislative councils and enter them
to expose them as sham
parliaments
2. The Swarajists came to be known
as no-changers
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
46. The representation of the following

persons in a municipality can be
provided for by the State Legislature?
1. Persons having special knowledge
or experience in municipal
administration
2. Members of the Lok Sabha of that
constituency
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
47. Executive directors in Public Sector

banks are appointed
a) By Appointments Committee of the
cabinet on the recommendation of
the RBI Governor
b) By Appointments Committee of the
cabinet on the recommendation of a
selection panel headed by the RBI
Governor
c) By a selection panel headed by the
RBI Governor
d) By the Appointments Committee of
the Cabinet on the
recommendation of Department of
Personnel and Training

about the Attorney General.
1. He is a constitutional authority.
2. He comes under the purview of the
RTI Act.
3. He is appointed by the Chief Justice
of India.
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 12
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
49. The term Blue Economy in Indias

MOUs with other countries refers to
a) Ocean based economy
b) Electronics based economy
c) An economy that gives greater
priority to bluechip companies
d) Fisheries based economy
50. A recent amendment to the Land

Acquisition Act removes the Consent
Clause of 80 per cent of land owners
for private projects and that of 70 per
cent of land owners for PPP projects in
case of acquiring land for which of the
following categories of land usage?
1. Rural Infrastructure
2. Industrial Corridors
3. Affordable Housing
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about the Swiss long-range solarpowered aircraft project Solar Impulse
2.
1. It does not consume any

conventional fuel and runs solely
on solar energy.
2. It does not emit any Carbon
Dioxide.
3. It cannot fly at night.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
52. Who formulates the Foreign Trade

Policy of India?
a) Department of Commerce.
b) Department of Economic Affairs.
c) Department of Industrial policy &
promotion.
d) Department of Publication.

regarding the Special Economic Zones
in India:
1. A foreign agency cannot set up
SEZs in India.
2. Currently, Tamil Nadu has the
second highest number of
operational SEZs in India.
3. Presently, there is no minimum
land requirement for setting up of
an IT/ITES SEZ in India.
INSIGHTS
Page 13
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 3.
None.

regarding the Zero Duty Export
Promotion Capital Goods Scheme:
1. The scheme allows import of
capital goods on zero duty for pre
production, production and post
production without any subject to
an export obligation.
2. Spares for the existing plant and
machinery may also be imported
under the EPCG scheme.
3. Under the Scheme, EPCG
authorization holder cannot export
through a third party.

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 2.
All.
55. Which of the following departments

come under the Ministry of
Information and Technology?
1. Department of Posts.
2. Department of
Telecommunications.
3. Department of Information
Technology.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1. The modern postal system in India
was established by Lord Clive in
the year 1766.
2. The statute presently governing the
postal services in India is the
Indian Post Office Act, 1898.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2.
Both.
None.
57. Maharashtra government has

launched Bhagyashree scheme for
girls. Consider the following about it.
1. It is for a girl child born in a BPL
family.
2. After the girl completes 18 years of
age, the government will give
provide a certain maturity amount
to the family.
3. It has not been linked with the Beti
Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme of the
central Government.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

below:
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 1 & 3.
All.
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 14
58. North East Indias first Kisan Call

Centre (KCC) was opened in Agartala,
Tripura. A Kisan Call centre facilitates
information in which of the following?
1. Seed Procurement
2. Marketing of agricultural produce
3. Fertilizers and Soil Heath
60. NASAs Dawn space probe will help

in knowing
a) The limits of the Solar system
b) About the Solar systems
beginnings
c) All the unreached dwarf planets in
the solar system
d) The asteroids orbiting between
Mars and Jupiter

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about the Rotavirus vaccine- Rotavac
launched recently by the Union
Government.
1. It was developed under the joint
collaboration between India and
the United States.
2. It will help fight Diarrhoea.
3. This is the first vaccine available
globally against Rotavirus.
4. It is Indias first indigenously
developed rotavirus vaccine.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
61. The state of Jammu & Kashmir is

culturally rich. Dej-Hor found in the
state is
a) an ornament worn by married
Kashmiri Pandit women
b) a festival celebrated by rural
Kashmiri Pandits
c) a place of worship for the Kashmiri
Pandits
d) the name of an idol worshipped by
Kashmiri Pandits
62. Thermal Plasma Technology

developed by BARC to fulfil the
Swacha Bharat Abhiyan is ideally
suited for the treatment of
1. Solid Waste
2. Liquid waste
3. Gaseous pollutants
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
Page 15
63. Environmental isotope techniques is

emerging as an important tool in the
water resources development and
management in the country. It can be
used for
1. Assessing groundwater salinity
2. Assess contamination in surface
water
3. Evaluate changes due to long-term
exploitation of groundwater
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
66. Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF) is an

emerging technology in solid waste
management. Consider the following
about it.
1. It is a processed form of Municipal
Solid Waste
2. It can act as a substitute for coal
energy.
3. It does not emit any carbon
dioxide.
below.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
64. Which of the following leader was

NOT a swarajist?
a) Motilal Nehru
b) C. Rajagopalachari
c) C.R. Das
65. AKRUTI ( Advance Knowledge of

Rural Technology Implementation)
Program run by Bhabha Atomic
Research Centre (BARC) is related
with
a) Solid waste management in rural
areas
b) Safe drinking water in rural areas
c) Stopping contamination of Soil in
rural areas
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
67. The World Health Organization

(WHO) has started a unique initiative
First Embrace. It focuses on
a) Reducing new born and infant deaths
b) Reducing maternal deaths
c) Reducing diseases caused due to lack
of vaccination in African nations
d) Cutting down on the level of antibiotics to reduce the anti-bacterial
resistance
about Monkey fever reported to
spread in Kerala recently.
1. Large animals such as cattle play a
major role in the transmission of
the virus.
2. Those who visit forests regularly
are at a greater risk than those who
dont.
INSIGHTS
Page 16
3. The virus is transmitted to humans

by the bite of a tick.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
69. A report, published in the Journal of

Dental Research, says that more than
2.4 billion people across the world
have untreated tooth decay. India is
also becoming a Dental Tourism spot.
Which of these Hill stations in India is
known for dental tourism?
a) Idduki
b) Ponmudi
c) Ooty
d) Connor
70. The Patna High Court has recently

directed the Union government and
Bihar state government to restore the
original course of the Ganga in the
state capital. Which of the following
have been cited as causes for the
course diversion?
1. Illegal Sand Mining
2. Dredging
3. River Inter-linking Project
4. Climate Change
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
71. In the managed exchange rate system,

what are the ways in which the
exchange rate can be affected by the
Government or Central Bank?
1. Buying or Selling Foreign
Currencies
2. Raising the caps on Foreign Direct
Investment
3. Raising Interest rates on Foreign
Currency bank accounts
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
72. Current Account of the External Sector

of the Indian economy includes which
of the following?
1. Export of Services from India
2. Foreign Aid
3. Private Remittances
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

below.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
INSIGHTS
Page 17
73. A Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis is a

situation when
1. The forex reserves are not capable
of financing the BoP
2. Inflow of foreign funds and
investments is not bridging the BoP
below.
a) 1 alone happens
b) 2 alone happens
c) Both 1 and 2 happen
simultaneously
d) Either of 1 or 2 happen
74. The issue of currency convertibility is

concerned with foreign currency
1. Outflow
2. Inflow
3. Investments
c) Weighted average of exchange

rates before the currencies of all of
Indias trading partners.
d) Simple average of exchange rates
before the currencies of all of
Indias trading partners.
76. With reference to the Swarajist activity

in the legislatures, consider the
1. The Swarajists lacked any policy of
coordinating their militant work in
the legislatures with mass political
work outside
2. Its activities inside legislatures
helped the Congress to wing many
municipal elections during 1923-24
a)
b)
c)
d)

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 alone
2 alone
3 alone
Both 2 and 3
75. The Nominal Effective Exchange Rate

(NEER) of the rupee is a
a) Weighted average of exchange
rates before the currencies of
Indias major trading partners.
b) Simple average of exchange rates
before the currencies of Indias
major trading partners.
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
77. A Hard currency is the one which:

1. Has a high level of liquidity
2. Belongs to the country with the
highest as well as highly
diversified exports
3. Is needed by every open economy
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 18
78. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are

essentially industrial clusters which
are
1. Duty free enclaves
2. Treated as Foreign territory for all
purposes
3. Meant largely for exports
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
79. The GAAR (General Anti-Avoidance

Rules), originally proposed in the
Direct Taxes Code 2010 , are targeted
at arrangements or transactions made
specifically to avoid taxes. The
objective of the GAAR provisions is to
codify the doctrine of substance over
form which means that
a) real intention of the parties and
purpose of an arrangement is
taken into account for
determining the tax consequences
b) Only those arrangements be
questioned which create rights
and obligations that are not at
arms length
c) Those transactions be questioned
which lack commercial substance
or are deemed to lack commercial
substance
d) Transactions will be questioned
irrespective of the Intention of the
parties and purpose of the
agreement, if tax avoidance is

even one of the purposes of the
agreement
80. A High Current Account Deficit has

implications for
1. Rupee Volatility
2. Business Confidence in the
Economy
3. Stability of Macro-economic
indicators in the economy
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
81. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is

preferred to the foreign portfolio
investments (PIS) because
1. FDI has a long-term nature of
investment.
2. It is not subject to immediate and
spontaneous fluctuations in the
market economy.
3. PIS does not bring benefits like
shared technology and managerial
practices.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 19
82. Which of the following are NOT the

functions of the International
Monetary Fund (IMF)?
1. To facilitate international monetary
cooperation
2. To promote exchange rate stability
3. To assist in the establishment of a
multilateral system of payments
3. Interest Tax
4. Corporate Tax
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
3 only
All those mentioned are functions
of IMF.
83. What was common between the

following leaders of the national
movement?
a) Surya Sen
b) Jogesh Chandra Chatterjea
c) Bhagwati Charan Vohra
d) Chandrashekhar Azad
Choose the correct answer from the below
options:
a) All of them were from Bengal
b) All of them were part of nonviolent struggle during initial days
c) Except Bhagawati Chandra Vohra,
all were revolutionary terrorists
85. VAT does not have a cascading effect

on the prices of goods and it does not
increase inflation. It is because
a) Tax is imposed and collected at
different points of value addition
chain
b) Tax is imposed and collected at one
point of the value addition chain
c) VAT is direct tax and is passed on
to the consumers
d) Both (a) and (c)

about the Goods and Services (GST)
Tax.
1. It will be levied based on the VAT
model.
2. It will be imposed all over the
country with the uniformity of rate.
3. It will subsume all Direct and
Indirect taxes.
below.
84. Which of the following are examples

of Indirect taxation in the country?
1. Excise Duty
2. Sales Tax
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 20
87. Commodities Transaction Tax (CTT)

was introduced for non-agricultural
commodity futures last year. Which of
the following are the objectives of
CTT?
1. Discouraging excessive speculation
2. Bring parity between Security
market and commodities market
3. Discouraging price discovery of the
underlying commodity
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
88. Capital gains tax is a direct tax applied

on the profit made by the owner of an
asset. It can be applied on
1. Mutual Funds
2. Shares
3. Corporate Bonds
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
89. The Government of India can borrow

long-term capital from which of the
following sources?
1. Foreign banks
2. Foreign Financial Institutions other
than banks
3. IMF

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

regarding the universal Service
Obligation Fund (USOF):
1. The fund is created under
department of telecommunications,
Ministry of communication and
information technology.
2. It is a non-lapsable fund.
3. The Fund has a statutory support
under Indian Telegraph
(amendment) act 2003.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 3.
All.

regarding the Telecom Regulatory
Authority of India (TRAI):
1. It is a statutory body.
2. The Head of the authority should
either be a retired Supreme Court
Judge or a retired High Court Chief
Justice.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
Only 1.
Only 2.
Both.
None.
Page 21

regarding the Exclusive Economic
Zones:
1. It is a sea zone prescribed by the
United Nations Convention on the
Law of the Sea.
2. A country has special rights over
these zones regarding the
exploration and use of marine
resources, including energy
production from water and wind.
3. It stretches from the baseline out to
350 nautical miles (nmi) from the
coast.

regarding Nirbhay Missile, which was
recently tested:
1. It is India`s first indigenously
designed and developed long range
sub-sonic cruise missile.
2. The missile has a range of more
than 1000 km.
3. It is capable of being launched from
multiple platforms on land, sea and
air.
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 1 & 2.
All.

regarding One Rank One Pension
Scheme:
1. This Scheme will ensure that
soldiers of the same rank and the
same length of service receive the
same pension, irrespective of their
retirement date.
2. The Scheme has already been
implemented by Indian Navy.

regarding Agni-V missile, which was
recently tested:
1. It has a strike range of over 5000
kms.
2. It can carry a nuclear warhead.
3. It can be configured to launch small
satellites.
4. It can be used to shoot down
enemy satellites in orbits.
a)
b)
c)
d)

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2.
Both.
None.
Only 1.
Only 2.
Only 1 & 3.
All.
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 1, 2 & 4.
All.
96. The capital expenditure of the

Government of India includes which
of the following?
INSIGHTS
Page 22
1. Loans forwarded by the GoI to the

PSUs
2. Loans to World Bank
3. Capital expenses to modernize the
defense forces
4. Interest payments received on
loans forwarded by GoI in the past
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
97. Monetised deficit is a term being used

in India as a sign of fiscal prudence. It
is
a) The fiscal deficit minus the interest
liabilities
b) The part of fiscal deficit provided
by the RBI to the government
c) The part of fiscal deficit financed
from Internal borrowing
d) The part of revenue deficit financed
from Internal borrowing
98. Among the following, which is the
best way of deficit financing keeping
the health of macro-economic
indicators in mind?
a) External Borrowing
b) External Grants
c) Borrowing from RBI
d) Printing Currency
99. Mundells impossible trinity is a

trilemma which recently has gained
substantial relevance in Economics.
Which of the following are part of this
trilemma?
1. Free capital flows
2. Fixed exchange rate
3. An Independent Monetary policy
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
100.
Comparative Rating Index of
Sovereigns' (CRIS) on the basis of
sovereign ratings of various countries
is an innovation by the Ministry of
Finance, India. If India moves up on
the index, it means that
1. India has become a better
investment destination.
2. India has done better in its debt
ratings than other nations even if
its overall
absolute rating
has gone down.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Page 23
INSIGHTS
Page 24

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
(i)
There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii)
If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.


Page 1

District Planning Committees.
1. It is constitutionally mandated for
each state to constitute a District
Planning Committee (DPC).
2. The DPC does not plan for the urban
based Municipalities.
3. All members of the DPC are elected
indirectly.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

the composition and functioning of
Municipal Corporations (MCs).
1. The composition of the MCs is
governed solely by State laws.
2. The Municipal Commissioner heads
the council in the MCs.
3. All decisions in the MCs are subject to
the approval of the Municipal
Commissioner.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above

1. The constitution provides for a
uniform administrative system in all
Union Territories (UTs).
2. An administrator of a union territory
is an agent of the President and not
head of state like a Governor.

3. The governor is to act independently

of his council of ministers if he is
administering a UT too.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

correct about the legislative control of
Parliament over the Union Territories
(UTs)?
a) The Parliament cannot make laws in
State List for those UTs that have a
legislative assembly.
b) The Parliament can make laws in
State List for even those UTs that have
a legislative assembly but only after
prior recommendation of the
President.
c) The Parliament can make laws on any
subject of the three lists (including the
State List) for the union territories.
d) None of the above.

reference to the National Tiger
Conservation Authority:
1. It is a statutory body under the
Ministry of Environment, Forests and
Climate Change.
2. It approves the tiger conservation plan
prepared by the State Government.
3. It is set up under the Chairmanship of
the Minister for Environment and
Forests.
Page 2

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 1 & 3.
Only 2 & 3.
All.

regarding the Karchi Session of Indian
National Congress, 1931:
1. Resolutions on Fundamental Rights
and the National Economic
Programme were passed and adopted
during this session
2. The session, which was under public
pressure after the execution of Bhagat
Singh, rejected a resolution on the
Gandhi-Irwin
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
7. The Government has proposed a

Comprehensive Bankruptcy Code of global
standards to be brought in fiscal 2015-16.
This will help in improving
a) Ease of doing business in India
b) Banking standards in India
c) The situation of Micro-finance
Institutions in India
d) The situation of debt-ridden poor
families
8. The Government has announced Tax free

infrastructure bonds in the recent Budget
for which of the following sectors?
1. Rail
2. Road
3. Irrigation

4. Energy
below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 4 only
9. SETU - Self-Employment and Talent

Utilization has been established in the
recent budget to support entrepreneurs in
which of the following domains?
1. Technology related issues
2. Financial issues
3. Facilitation to start-up the business
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
10. In the latest Annual Budget 2015-16,

highest tax revenue has been generated
from
a) Corporation tax
b) Excise duty
c) Service Tax
d) Income Tax
11. Arrange the following items in order of

increasing quantum of spending in the
recent Annual budget 2015-16.
1. Subsidies
2. Defense Services
3. Grants to State and UTs
4. Interest Payments
Choose the correct order from the codes
below.
Page 3
a) 1243
b) 4123
c) 4321
d) 3412
12. The Government proposes to set up 5 new

Ultra Mega Power Projects (UMPPs), each
of 4000 mw capacity in the plug-and-play
mode. What is meant by plug-and-play
mode in this context?
a) The UMPPs will be a high end
technology venture supported by the
government from the very initial
phases
b) All clearances and linkages will be in
place before the project is awarded by
the Government
c) The basic infrastructure of the UMPPs
will be setup by the government, and
then ownership will be transferred to
the private sector for further
upgradation
13. The Finance Minister has proposed to set

up a Public Debt Management Agency
(PDMA) in the latest Budget. Consider the
following statements about it.
1. PDMA will take care of both Indias
external borrowing and domestic
debt.
2. It will purchase and re-issue various
bonds.
3. The agency will also regulate the
security markets in the country.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
14. In the recent Budget, the Government has

mooted to bring an India Financial Code.
Which of the following domains will be
included in the code?
1. Public Debt management
2. Financial Consumer protection
3. Monetary Policy
4. Reducing systemic risks in the Indian
financial system
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
15. The Ministry of Finance is composed of:

1. Department of Economic Affairs.
2. Department of Expenditure.
3. Department of Revenue.
4. Department of Disinvestment.
5. Department of Financial Services.
Choose the answer using the codes below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1, 2, 3 & 5.
Only 2, 3, 4 & 5.
Only 1, 2, 3 & 4.
All.
16. Indias foreign exchange reserves

comprise:
1. Foreign Currency Assets.
2. Gold.
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs).
Page 4
4. Reserve Tranche Position in the IMF.

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1, 2 & 3.
Only 2, 3 & 4.
Only 1 & 3.
All.
17. Which of the following functions are

performed by the Central Statistical
Office?
1. Compilation of National Accounts.
2. Conduct of Annual Survey of
Industries and Economic Censuses.
3. Compilation of Index of Industrial
Production.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 1 & 3.
All.

the Election Commission of India (ECI).
1. Being an all-India body it serves both
the Central and State Governments.
2. It is not at all concerned with elections
to any level of Panchayats and
Municipalities.
3. The State election Commissions work
under the overall supervision of the
ECI.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

19. Which of the following fiscal indicators

mentioned in the Annual budget has/have
increased as a percentage of GDP from
last year?
1. Revenue Expenditure
2. Gross Tax revenue
3. Tax devolution to states
4. Total outstanding liabilities of the
Government
below.
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
20. As per the latest World Bank data, arrange

the following countries in decreasing
order of per capital GHG emissions.
1. USA
2. Australia
3. India
4. Indonesia
Choose the correct arrangement from the
codes below.
a) 1243
b) 1234
c) 2134
d) 2143
21. The PAT (perform - achieve - trade), as a

part of the National Action Plan for
Climate Change Mission, is a scheme for
a) trading energy-efficiency certificates in
large energy-intensive industries
b) trading carbon credits between
developing economies
c) trading GHG credits between energy
intensive industries within a country
Page 5
22. A ordinance can only be issued by the

Lieutenant Governor (LG) in Delhi UT
when
a) The Chief Minister of Delhi has
endorsed it.
b) The CM along with the Council of
Ministers has endorsed it.
c) The President has given prior
recommendation to issue it.
d) The LG is satisfied that the situation
demands it and no approval is
required at the time of issuing the
ordinance.
23. Coral Reefs in India are found in:

1. Gulf of Mannar.
2. Gulf of Kachchh.
3. Lakshadweep.
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 1 & 2.
Only 1, 3 & 4.
All of the above.

1. Nine of the eighteen biosphere
reserves in India are a part of the
World Network of Biosphere
Reserves, based on the UNESCO
Man and the Biosphere (MAB)
Programme list.
2. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was
the first biosphere reserve in India
established in the year 1986.
3. In Biosphere Reserves protection is
granted not only to the flora and
fauna of the protected region, but
also to the human communities who

inhabit these regions, and their ways

of life.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 1 & 2.
All.

reference to the National Biodiversity
Authority:
1. It is a statutory autonomous body
under the Ministry of Environment
and Forests.
2. The recommendations made by it
are advisory in nature.
3. It is headed by the Prime Minister
of India.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1 & 2.
Only 3.
Only 1 & 2.
All.
26. The Convention on Biological Diversity

(CBD):
1. Is a legally binding multilateral
environmental agreement.
2. Has 193 contracting Parties
(Countries) as its members.
3. Provides for equitable sharing of
benefits arising from the utilization
of traditional knowledge, and
practices, with holders of such
knowledge.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 1 & 3.
All.
Page 6
d) None
27. Which of the following activities have

been recently brought under MGNREGA
as part of Green India Mission?
1. Water Harvesting
2. Afforestation
3. Farm Forestry
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
30. NASAs Hubble Space Telescope has

recently spotted massive saltwater ocean
under the icy crust of Jupiters moon
Ganymede. Consider the following
statements about Ganymede.
1. It is the largest moon in our Solar
system.
2. It is the only moon with its own
magnetic field.
3. The moon also creates ribbons of hot
electrified gas called as auroras.
below.
28. Researchers have recently found

Endophytic alga thriving in the Indian
Ocean. Its discovery is significant because
a) It can be used to make bio-fuels
b) It can be used to clean up oil spill
disasters in oceans
c) It contains anticancer compounds
such as Taxol
d) It can act as an effective phytoremediator
29. With reference to the Communal Award

announced by the British government in
August 1932, consider the following
statements:
1. According to it, Muslims would be
elected only by Muslims to the
legislatures
2. This Award declared that the
Depressed Classes as minorities and
would be treated on par with Muslims
or any other religious minorities
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
31. Recently Pakistan has successfully tested

some of its first indigenously built defence
missiles and equipments. In this context,
what are Burraq and Barq?
a) All-weather armed drone and laser
guided missile
b) Laser guided missile and all-weather
armed drone
c) Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile
(ICBM) and Unarmed surveillance
drones
d) Unarmed surveillance drones and
Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile
(ICBM)

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both

Page 7
32. Japan and France have recently signed an

arms transfer agreement for military
equipment, services and technology. This
will help Japan in developing
1. Drones
2. Unmanned technologies for
underwater search missions
3. Amphibian Flight technologies
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

reference to the Right of Children to Free
and Compulsory Education Act, 2009:
1. According to the Act, every child
in the age group of 6 to 14 years
has Right to elementary
education.
2. The Act makes provisions for a
non-admitted child to be admitted
to an age appropriate class.
3. Education in the Indian
constitution is a concurrent issue
and both centre and states can
legislate on the issue.
the National Policy on Education,

1986.
2. The Mahila Samakhya Scheme is
currently being implemented in all
states across the country except
the North Eastern States and
Sikkim.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2.
Both.
None
35. The Economic Survey points out that the

Indian banking system is afflicted by what
might be called double financial
repression. It means
1. Returns to savers and bankers are
reduced
2. Misallocation of capital to investors
3. Not enough capital for government to
borrow from the market
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2 & 3.
Only 1 & 3.
All.

reference to Mahila Samakhya
Programme:
1. The programme was launched in
1989 to pursue the objectives of


the role of UPSC.
Assertion (A): It has to be consulted in all
promotion and disciplinary matters
concerned with higher Public Services.
Reason (R): It is the Central personnel agency
in India.
of these is true?
Page 8

37. Article 280 of the Constitution of India

provides for a Finance Commission.
Which kind of a body is Finance
Commission?
a) Quasi-judicial
b) Executive
c) Administrative
d) Quasi-legislative
38. As per the qualifications prescribed by

law, who among the following is/are fit to
become the Chairman of the Finance
Commission?
1. A high court Judge
2. A person who has special knowledge
in economics but has not worked for
the Government anytime before
3. A person who has served for two or
more years as Secretary to the
Government of India
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only

Assertion (A): The recommendations made by
the Finance Commission binding on the
government.
Reason (R): Finance Commission is a
constitutional body.


of these is true?
c) A is incorrect, R is correct.
40. Which of these is/are Constitutional

bodies?
1. National Commission for SCs
2. National Commission for Minorities
3. National Commission for Protection
of Child Rights
4. National Human Rights Commission
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
2, 3 and 4 only

the National Commission for SCs.
1. The Chairman of the Commission is
appointed by a Selection panel which
includes he PM, Lok Sabha Speaker
and Leader of Opposition, Lok Sabha.
2. The commission presents an annual
report to the president which is
presented to Parliament.
3. The orders of the commission are
binding on the Government.
below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Page 9
42. As per the official view expressed in the

recent Economic Survey, which of the
following factors may have been
responsible for hindering private
investment in India in last few years?
1. Deficiencies of the public private
partnership (PPP) model in
infrastructure
2. Weak corporate balance sheets
3. High NPAs of banks
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
43. Consider the followings statements with

reference to Rajiv Gandhi Grameen
Vidyutikaran Yojana:
1. The scheme is being implemented
through the Rural Electrification
Corporation (REC) which has been
designated as Nodal Agency by
Ministry of Power.
2. The scheme provides for free of cost
connection to all rural households
living below poverty line.
3. It is a 100% centrally sponsored
scheme.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 1 & 2.
Only 1 & 3.
All.

the Climate Investment Fund (CIF).
1. It is for developing and middle-income
countries only.

2. It also funds investment in clean

technologies.
3. It provides funding support for
development planning, including
public and private sector projects.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

1. As per the IMF, every fast-growing
Asian economy in recent years has
accelerated as it underwent a
demographic transition.
2. In India, the higher growth states have
witnessed a greater demographic
dividend than the lower growth states
in the last two decades.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
46. Which of the following virtuous cycles of

economic growth is related with the
demographic dividend (DD)?
a) DD-> Lower dependency ratio (LDR) > High Growth-> Low fertility -> LDR
b) DD-> High employment -> High
growth -> LDR-> High employment
c) DD-> High Growth -> High
Employment -> DD
Page 10
47. With reference to Gandhijis views on

untouchability, consider the following
statements:
1. According to him the very existence of
Hinduism was at risk if untouchability
continued to exist
2. He asked his followers to ignore
shastras if they preached
untouchability even in subtle form
3. Gandhiji not being hostile to Dr
Ambedkars or other Harijans
criticisms was a way of undergoing
penance for the mistakes committed by
caste Hindus against lower castes
4. It can be said that acceptance of
reservations for scheduled castes by
the caste Hindus during the early years
after gaining independence was a
reaction to Gandhijis please for
penance and reparation
a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1, 2, and 4 Only
d) All
48. Which of the following accurately defines

employment rate?
a) growth in those looking for work who
actually find it
b) growth in the fraction of those who can
work and that actually look for work
c) the total percentage of people
employed in the country divided by
the total working age population
49. Total Factor Productivity (TFP) is the

portion of output not explained by the
a) amount of input used in production
b) investment put in production
c) wages of labour needed for production

d) market supply and demand forces
50. Which of the following provisions have

been announced by the Government in the
recent Budget concerning agricultural
marketing?
1. Need to create a National Agriculture
Market
2. A new Central Warehousing agency
will be set up
3. Private sector will be allowed to
purchase grains directly from farmers
from their doorsteps.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 only
51. Which of the following freedom fighter is

NOT considered as New Swarajist?
a) Bhulabhai Desai
b) Asaf Ali
c) M.A.Ansari

reference to the Accelerated Rural
Electrification Programme:
1. Assistance under the Scheme will
be available for electrification by
conventional and nonconventional sources of energy.
2. The interest subsidy under the
Scheme is 4%.
3. Funds would be provided under
the scheme on the basis of Net
Present Value of the interest
subsidies applicable on
Page 11
disbursement under Accelerated

Rural Electrification Programme.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 1 & 2.
Only 1 & 3.
All.

1. No sanction is required under the
provisions of the Electricity Act,
2003 for setting up captive power
plants.
2. The Electricity Act provides that
any person may construct,
maintain or operate a captive
generating plant and dedicated
transmission lines.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2.
Both.
None.
54. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA):

1. Is a Statutory Body.
2. The generating stations need not
compulsorily follow the CEA
technical standards specified for
construction of electrical plants and
electric lines.
3. Is headed by the Union Home
Minister.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 1 & 2.
Only 1 & 3.
All.

55. Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam was incorporated

as a joint venture of:
a) The government of India and the
government of Himachal Pradesh.
b) The government of India and the
government of Jammu &
Kashmir.
c) The government of India and
NTPC Ltd.
d) The government of India and
NHPC Ltd.
reference to the Jawaharlal Nehru
National Solar Mission:
1. The Mission has set the ambitious
target of deploying 20,000 MW of
grid connected solar power by
2022.
2. The Mission is under the aegis of
Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2.
Both.
None.
57. India is a party to which of the following

international convention/conventions:
1. Convention on International Trade
in Endangered Species of Wild
Fauna and Flora (CITES).
2. International Whaling Commission
(IWC).
3. United Nations Educational,
Scientific, and Cultural
Organizations World Heritage
Convention (UNESCO WHC).
4. Convention on the Conservation of
Migratory Species of Wild Animals
(CMS).
Page 12

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 2, 3 & 4.
Only 1, 2 & 4.
All.
is benefitting rich more than the poor. In

which of these sectors is the distortion
observed?
1. Electricity subsidies
2. Water Utilities subsidies
3. Railways fare
below.
58. A per a recent study Preliminary

Modeling Studies on Carbon Taxes and
GDP Loss conducted by the Ministry of
Environment and Forest, GoI, carbon
taxes are revenue positive when
a) it involves no adjustment to other tax
rates in the economy.
b) other tax rates are adjusted so that the
revenue inflow from carbon tax is
exactly balanced by an equal reduction
in yields from reduced taxes.
c) it is in line with the carbon credits in
the economy
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
61. Consider the following macroeconomic

indicators.
1. Current Account Deficit
2. Economic Growth
3. Savings
Which of the above has reduced in the last
couple of years as per the Economic Survey
2014-15?
59. Both the central and state governments

subsidise a wide range of products with
the expressed intention of making these
affordable for the poor. These include
1. Iron ore
2. Fertilizer
3. Sugar
4. Pulses

below.

below.

1. Amongst the BRICS countries, India is
the most attractive foreign investment
destination.
2. Amongst the BRICS countries, China is
the biggest tourist attraction
destination and tourist economy.
a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

60. One of the important points mentioned in
the recent Economic Survey is the
inequitable distribution of subsidies that

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Page 13
d) None
63. The Delhi Legislative assembly can make

laws on all the matters of the State List
and the Concurrent List except the three
matters of the State List, that is
1. Public Order
2. Police
3. Land
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
64. The Lieutenant Governor is the

Administrator of the Delhi UT. In the case
of difference of opinion between the lt.
governor and his ministers, what option
can he chose?
a) Refer the matter to the president for
decision and act accordingly.
b) Refer the matter to the Legislative
Assembly for decision and act
accordingly.
c) The decision of the Council of
Ministers endorsed by the CM
prevails.
d) The decision of the Lieutenant
Governor, even though opposed by
CM, prevails.
65. With reference to the ideology of the Left

during the freedom struggle, consider the
1. It considered the Indian National
Congress as an organisation led by
bourgeois
2. The Left advocated armed struggle
against the British to liberate India

3. The Left was Convinced that the

masses were ever ready for struggles in
any form if only the leaders were
willing to initiate them.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
All
66. Indian banking system has been going

through several challenges. One of the
paradoxes of recent banking history is that
a) The share of the private sector in
overall banking aggregates barely
increased at a time when the country
witnessed its most rapid growth which
was fuelled by the private sector.
b) The share of the private sector in
overall banking aggregates heavily
increased at a time when the country
witnessed its slowest growth in a
decade due to lack of private
investment.
c) Banking NPAs increased at a time
when the private sector stopped
borrowing from banks and investing
67. Under the scheme Mechanism for

Marketing of Minor Forest Produce
through Minimum Support Price and
development of Value chain for
MFP" Minimum Support Price (MSP) for
Minor Forest Produce (MFP) has been
fixed for some MFP which includes
1. Tamarind
2. Honey
3. Mahua Seed
4. Lac
5. Kusumi
Page 14

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

2, 4 and 5 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 5 only

the Union Public Service Commission
(UPSC).
1. The Chairman and other members are
appointed by the President.
2. The constitution does not mention the
qualification for the post of UPSC
Chairman.
3. One-half of the members of the
Commission should have worked
under either the Government of India
or any state government.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
70. In the coming years, which of the

following factors would help increase
Indias economic growth rate?
1. Lowering of Oil Prices
2. Monetary easing
3. Lower Inflation
4. Increase in Savings
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only

reference to the Zoological Survey of
India:
1. It works under the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEFCC).
2. The ZSI participates in the Indian
Antarctic Program.
3. Similar to the Red Data Book
produced by IUCN, ZSI also releases a
Red Data Book on Indian Animals.
69. If the UPSC tenders an advice to the

Government of India, which of these can
follow?
a) Only the Department of Personnel and
Training (DoPT) can reject the advice
of UPSC on reasonable grounds.
b) Only the Appointments Committee of
the Cabinet can reject UPSCs advice.
c) Any concerned Ministry can reject
UPSCs advice.
d) For UPSCs advice to be rejected,
approval from the Departmental
Standing Committees of the
Parliament is needed.

a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 1 & 2.
Only 1 & 3.
All.

1. The forest survey report, 2013,
notes down that the overall
Mangrove cover in the county in
2013 has decreased compared to
2011.
2. Mangroves in India account for
about 3% of the worlds mangrove
vegetation.
Page 15
3. Sundarbans in West Bengal

accounts for almost half of the total
area under mangroves in the
country.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1.
Only 1 & 2.
Only 1 & 3.
All.
73. Law Commission of India in its 255th

report on electoral reforms recently
submitted to the Government of Indian
has pitched for stronger Election
Commission of India (ECI). Its
recommendations include
1. Equal Constitutional protection to all
members of ECI in removability from
Office
2. Appointment of the Election
Commissioners by a three member
Selection panel
instead of the
present system of appointment by
President
3. The elevation of an EC should be on
the basis of seniority.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
74. Union Government has launched Pharma

Jan Samadhan scheme, for redressal of
grievances of consumers related to
1. Over-pricing of Drugs
2. Non-availability of Medicines
3. Non-availability of Doctors in Public
Hospitals


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

correct with reference to the use of
Drones in India as of now?
a) The Aircraft Rules do not cover use of
drones as well as its sale and
purchase.
b) A license is required from Ministry of
Defense for sale and purchase of
drones; and a special permission is
required from the Indian Air Force
(IAF) to use drones in India
c) No special permission is needed to
manufacture drones. Only a special
permission is needed from the IAF to
use drones.
d) Drones are not treated as a special
defence equipment and are treated at
par with other defence instruments
76. In the recent years, Economic Survey

points towards a trend of declining
Employment Elasticity of Growth. This
means that
a) High growth has not been able to
create jobs.
b) Disproportionate growth across
various sectors has hindered job
creation.
c) Hiring and firing has become more
flexible and inevitable with higher
economic growth.
d) Share of unorganized sector
employment has been increasing with
high growth rates.
Page 16
77. Which of the following steps taken by the

Government in recent times are growthfriendly?
1. Passing an ordinance to make land
acquisition less onerous
2. Raising gas prices
3. Deregulating diesel prices
4. Passing the Mines and Minerals
(Development and Regulation)
(MMDR) Amendment Ordinance
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
78. In the pursuit of economic growth, ease of

doing business is a very important factor.
To achieve the same, in which of the
following areas, both the Centre and the
State can endeavour jointly?
1. Land Law reforms
2. Labour reforms
3. Reducing the cost of capital
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
79. The JAM number trinity Solution has

been hailed as an important driver of
growth and inclusion in India in the
coming years. It is essentially
a) Technology-enabled Direct Benefit
Transfers
b) M-banking

c) Universalizing the Banking

Correspondent model supplemented
with Micro-ATMs
d) USSD based mobile transfers
80.Which of the following factors have been

held responsible for the present decline in
global crude oil prices?
1. Weak Global demand
2. Increase in crude-oil and shale gas
production in US
3. Iraq crisis
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
81. As per the recent Economic Survey,

Indias external sector economy is
vulnerable to which of the following
factors?
1. Risks from shift in US monetary policy
2. Eurozone slowdown
3. Rising non-oil, non-gold imports
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
82. In case of difference of opinion amongst

the Chief Election Commissioner and/or
two other election commissioners, how is
the matter decided?
a) It is decided by majority in the
Commission.
Page 17
b) The Chief Election Commissioners

decision prevails over other
commissioners.
c) The matter is referred to the
Parliamentary Standing Committee on
Subordinate Legislation the decision
of which is final and binding on ECI.
d) If two or more Election
Commissioners disagree on a matter,
then their disagreement will prevail.
83. The chief election commissioner is

provided with the security of tenure. He
cannot be removed from his office except
in same manner and on the same grounds
as that of
a) A Supreme Court Judge
b) UPSC Chairman
c) Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG) of India
d) Either (a) or (c)
84. Though the constitution has sought to

safeguard and ensure the independence
and impartiality of the Election
Commission of India (ECI), which of the
following has not been specified explicitly
by the Constitution?
1. Qualification of the Election
Commissioners
2. Term of the members of the ECI
3. Manner of Appointment
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

85. Which of the following functions are NOT

performed by the Election Commission of
India?
1. Determining the territorial areas of
the electoral constituencies
2. Advising the president on matters
relating to the disqualifications of the
members of Parliament.
3. To cancel polls in the event of
Violence at election booths
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All are performed by the ECI.
86. Elections are being conducted almost

every year in India. Elaborate machinery
is required for election management. Who
acts as the District returning Officer in the
Districts in these elections?
a) District Collector
b) Divisional Commissioner as the Chief
electoral Officer is incharge of the
Districts under him.
c) An Officer appointed by the District
Magistrate
d) An Officer other than the District
Magistrate appointed by the ECI.
87. As per the recent report of the

Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC), adverse impacts of
Climate Change are likely to be felt more
acutely in
a) Tropical Zone countries
b) Sub-tropical zone countries
c) Temperate Zone countries
d) Polar zone countries
Page 18
88. With reference to the Congress Socialist

Party (CSP) which was formed at Bombay
in October 1934, consider the following
statements:
1. One of its main objectives was to give
the Indian National Congress a social
direction
2. CSP was formed by Jayaprakash
Narayan and others
3. CSPs long-term goal was to root out
Indian National Congress once the
British were driven out and establish a
government based on scialist
principles
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 3 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
89. The Census 2011 reported that the sex
ration in India declined from 927 in 2001,
to 918 in 2011. Alongwith India, which of
these countries witnessed a decline in Sex
ratio in this decade?
1. China
2. Bangladesh
3. Sri Lanka
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
90. For India to have a good fiscal

performance and a high growth rate, the
Economic Survey recommends
expenditure switching from consumption
to investment. It means
a) Directing more investment on gross
capital formation

b) Manufacturing more durable goods

c) Producing more intermediate goods
d) Encouraging more savings habit in
India

Scheduled Areas.
1. Scheduled areas are declared under
laws passed by the Parliament.
2. The concerned state can not exercise
executive power within the Scheduled
area.
3. The administration of these areas is
entirely under the control of the
President.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above

tribal areas in Sixth Schedule.
1. They are completely autonomous of
the State Government.
2. The autonomous districts are
governed by an elected District
Council.
3. The district and regional councils are
empowered to assess and collect land
revenue and to impose certain
specified taxes.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 19
93. The district and regional councils under

Sixth Schedule administer the areas under
their jurisdiction. Consider the following
statements about it.
1. They can constitute village councils
or courts for trial of suits and cases
between the tribes.
2. Laws made by them do not require
the assent of either the Legislature or
the Governor.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
94. A simple way to compare the relative

economic situation of countries is to
supplement the macro-economic
vulnerability index with a Rational
Investor Ratings Index (RIRI). Which of
the following components are accounted
in RIRI?
1. Inflation
3. Fiscal Deficit
4. Currency Exchange Rate
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
95. Land acquisition appears to be a major

challenge. Different state governments are
adopting diverse approaches for dealing
with the issue. Gujarat has a land-pooling
model. Under the model
a) 50 per cent of the land is acquired
while the remaining 50 per cent is left

with the original owners giving them a

stake in the upsides generated by land
monetisation.
b) Land is not acquired but pooled from
its owners, who get benefits out of
land monetisation
c) Government does not acquire land, but
leaves it to the industries themselves
who acquire land after a fair
settlement with a pool of owners
96. HDR measures inequality in terms the

Gini Coefficient which measures
a) inequality in income or consumption
among individuals within a country
b) inequality in income or consumption
among individuals across countries
c) inequality in health and labour force
indicators among individuals within a
country
d) inequality in health and labour force
indicators among individuals across
countries

reference to socio-economic development
comparison between Indian states.
1. Bihar had the highest decadal (200111) growth rate of population.
2. The poverty estimates indicate that the
highest poverty headcount ratio
(HCR) exists in Bihar.
3. Lowest poverty is in Himachal Pradesh
followed by Kerala.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Page 20
98. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY)

scheme provides smart card-based
cashless health insurance to
1. Landless labourers
2. BPL families
3. Unorganized sector workers
below.
a) 1 in 2
b) 3 in 2
c) 2 only
d) 3 only
99. Which of the following statements

regarding Indias trade with the World is
correct?
1. Before the 2008 Financial crisis,
services exports growth rate outpaced
manufacturing exports growth rate.
2. After the 2008 Financial crisis,
manufacturing exports growth rate
outpaced services exports growth rate.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
100. The Economic Survey recommends

offsetting the Countervailing Duty for the
success of Make in India initiative.
Countervailing duty is
a) imposed in order to counter the
negative impact of import subsidies to
protect domestic producers
b) imposed on defense equipments for
strategic reasons
c) imposed on goods and services
produced from all SEZs in India
d) imposed on goods and services
produced from all NMIZs (Industrial
Corridors) in India

Page 21

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
(i)
(iii)
that question.


Page 1
1. If the Earths shape had been flat

instead of being spherical, which of the
following would happen?
1. The whole earth will have Sun rise
and Sun set at the same time.
2. Visible horizon remains the same
irrespective of altitude.
3. Diversity of seasons would not have
been possible on Earth.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. The Sun is never overhead at any
time of the year anywhere on earth
beyond tropics.
2. Beyond the tropics, latitude is
preferable to calculate distances
than longitude.
2. Nikshay has been launched by the

Central Government which is a case
Based Web Based recording and
reporting system for
a) Tuberculosis cases
b) HIV Positive cases in LGBT
community
c) Hepatitis B cases in rural areas
d) Japanese Encephalitis cases
3. Indias first Polar Remotely Operated

Vehicle (PROVe) was successfully
operationalised for research in North
Antarctica by National Institute of
Ocean Technology (NIOT). Consider
the following about it.
1. It has been indigenously built
under the Union Ministry of Earth
Sciences.
2. It is also capable of probing the sea
bed.
3. PROVe will help understanding the
phenomenon of Monsoon better.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
5. Which of these statements is true?

1. A traveller crossing the date line
from east to West loses a day (in
time).
2. There is a difference of one whole
day in time between the two sides
of 180 degree meridian.
3. The period of twilight is longer in
Britain than in Malaysia.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 2
6. Savings as a percentage of GDP is an

important economic indicator.
Consider the following statistics with
regard to the last one decade.
1. Savings by households has
persistently declined over this
decade.
2. Physical savings by households has
always been greater than the
financial savings.
3. Household savings has always been
greater than savings from public
and private sector.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
7. Fold mountains are formed due to

large scale movements in the Earths
surface when stresses are setup in the
earths crust. These stresses that lead
to their formation can be induced by
1. Increased load of overlying rocks
2. Flow movements in the mantle
3. Magnetic intrusions in the crust
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
8. If the Indian government wants to

amend the Companies Act 2013, which
of the following ministry will be

primarily concerned with this

amendment and its implementation?
a) Ministry of Law and Justice
b) Ministry of Heavy Industries and
Public Enterprises
c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
d) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
9. In humid highlands, several dissected

plateaus like Scottish Highlands are
found. Which of the forces are
responsible for the formation of such
dissected plateaus?
1. Stream action
2. Cuts done due to Glaciation
3. Abrasion by Wind
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about Loess.
1. These are blown from deserts and
barren surfaces and deposited upon
hills and valleys.
2. Areas covered by Loess are infertile
lands.
3. They are responsible for the
formation of peneplain.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 3

about the treatise named
SoopaShastra.
1. It is the only compilation in a
regional language during the
medieval ages.
2. It is entirely devoted to cookery.
3. The treatise belongs to the period
of Hoysala dynasty.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

regarding usage of Urea
1. Excessive use of Urea encourages
climate change
2. Excessive use of urea cause
groundwater pollution
3. Use of Urea beyond recommended
rates enhances crop succulence,
thus making the plants prone to
disease and pest infestation, and to
lodging.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
13. The goals of RNTCP are to decrease

mortality and morbidity due to TB and
cut transmission of infection until TB
ceases to be a major public health
problem in India. Which of the
following are concerned with RNTCP?
1. DOTS (Directly Observed
treatment short course)

2. ACSM (Advocacy, communication,

and social mobilization)
3. CB-NAAT (Cartridge-based nucleic
acid amplification)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
14. With reference to All India Kisan

Sabha, consider the following
statements:
1. Swami Sahajanand was its first
President and N. G. Ranga was its
first General Secretary
2. Its ideology was mainly leftist
3. Unlike other political organizations
of the time, Kisan Sabha worked
independently of the Indian
National Congress and never
associated with it in any form due
to ideological differences
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
3 and 2 Only
1 and 3 Only
All
15. Consider the following about

Governments effort to contain
Tuberculosis in India.
1. TB now is a notifiable disease
under Government notification.
2. Govt. of India has banned the use
of serology in the diagnosis of TB.
3. Standardized treatment guidelines
have been made compulsory for the
private sector.
Page 4

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
16. The Pacific Ring of Fire is a chain of

volcanoes that extends for more than
2,000 miles and includes locations
from
1. New Zealand
2. Alaska
3. Pacific islands of Solomon
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
17. A Hot water spring can exist at any

part of the earth where
a) water sinks deep enough beneath
the surface to be heated by
interior forces
b) gases in the interior of the Earth
are powerful enough to eject hot
water at high pressure from deep
below the earths surface
c) volcanoes necessarily exist near a
groundwater source
2. The Chairman is appointed by the

President after a recommendation
is made from the Ministry of
Social Justice and empowerment.
3. The Conditions of Service and
tenure of the members of the
Commission is determined by the
Constitution.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above

about the power of the National
Commission for STs.
1. The Central government and the
state governments are required to
consult the Commission on all
major policy matters affecting the
STs.
2. Annual report submitted by the
commission is placed before the
Parliament by the President.
3. The commission has powers of
investigation into cases concerning
the rights and safeguards of STs.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
All of the above

about the National Commission for
STs.
1. It comes under the Ministry of
Social Justice and empowerment.

Page 5
20. Jawahrlal Nehrus admiration for

Soviet Russia was due to many
reasons. Which of the following is/are
true?
1. He admired it because of Soviet
Russias socialist ideology
2. He admired because he considered
Soviet Russia as an anti-imperial
force and hope for the future
3. He admired Stalins policies
3. At the Central level, the

Commissioner falls under the
Ministry of Minority Affairs.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
2 and 1 Only
All
21. With reference to the Rashtriya

Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) ,
1. As of March 2015, the scheme
since its inception is being
Health and Family Welfare
2. It is a health insurance scheme for
BPL (below poverty line) families
a)
b)
c)
d)
Both
None
1 Only
2 Only

about the Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities.
1. Originally the Constitution did not
make any provision for it.
2. The Constitution does not mention
qualifications for the Office.

23. The Defence Acquisition Council

(DAC), chaired by Defence Minister,
recently approved the development of
an indigenous Airborne Warning and
Control Systems (AWACS). AWACS
will be a
a) radars mounted on an aircraft to
provide seamless 360-degree
coverage of the airspace
b) a modern radar system on ground
to provide seamless 360-degree
coverage of the airspace for flying
fighter aircrafts
c) a radar system that will be
attached with the IRNSS for geopositioning purposes for early
attack warnings
24. The Union Agriculture Ministry

recently approved the setting up of a
price stabilisation fund (PSF). The
fund will
1. be used to support market
interventions for managing prices
of all agricultural commodities for
which MSP is announced
2. be used to forward loans to
governments for creating
warehousing infrastructure
Page 6
3. be used by APMC Committees for

stabilising prices of agri
commodities in local markets
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
25. The One belt One Road initiative is an

economic belt along the Silk Road.
Which of the following regions are
expected to be developed due to the
initiative?
1. Middle East
2. North Africa
3. East Asia
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about NITI Aayog.
1. It is a think-tank and does not have
the power to impose policies.
2. It has no power to allocate funds.
3. The CEO of NITI Aayog is
appointed by the PM.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
27. The Chairman and members of the

National Human Rights Commission
(NHRC) should be
a) Retired chief justice of India; and
Serving judges of the Supreme
Court
b) Retired chief justice of India; and
Serving or retired judges of the
Supreme Court
c) Serving chief justice of India; and
Supreme Court or Chief Justice of
High Court
d) Retired chief justice of India; and
Supreme Court or Chief Justice of
High Court; and persons having
knowledge or practical experience
with respect to human rights
28. Which of the following sectors has the

highest Labour productivity in the
Indian Economy?
a) Real Estate and Business Services
b) Financial Services and Insurance
c) Registered manufacturing
d) Public Administration and defence
29. The Chairman of NHRC can be

removed on the same grounds and
procedure as that of the
a) Chairman, UPSC
b) CAG
c) Member, Election Commission of
India
d) Judge, High Court
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Page 7
30. Nehru was critical of some of

Gandhian policies and strategies.
Which of the following did he criticise
most?
1. He criticized Gandhiji for
refusing to recognize the
conflict of classes
preaching harmony among the
British and the Indians and
broadly between the exploiters
and the exploited
putting forward the theories of
trusteeship by, and conversion
of, the capitalists and landlords
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
3 and 2 Only
2 and 1 Only
All
31. The chairman and members of NHRC

are appointed by the president on the
recommendations of a committee
consisting of the prime minister as its
head and
1. Central Home Minister
2. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
3. Leader of Opposition Lok Sabha
4. Leader of Opposition Rajya
Sabha
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
32. Prime Minister of India recently

launched multi-purpose and multimodal platform PRAGATI (Pro-Active
Governance and Timely
Implementation). Consider the
following about it.
1. It is essentially about addressing
grievances of a common man.
2. PRAGATI will monitor and review
state government projects also.
3. Geo-spatial technology has been
used in PRAGATI.
4. It will be headed by Ministry of
Statistics and Programme
Implementation.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
33. Venus is often considered as Earths

twin because
a) its spin and rotation time around
the Sun is almost the same as that
of Earth
b) of its close proximity in Size, mass
(weight) and density with Earth.
c) its surface and core is made of the
same gases as that of Earth
d) it shares its natural satellites with
Earth
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

Page 8

1. While all public investment in the
railways is undertaken by the
central government, public
investment in roads is undertaken
by the central government as well
as state governments.
2. Indian Railways has received more
public funding than all other
transportation infrastructure in
India put together.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
1 only
Both 1 and 2
None

about the railways coal freight
comparison between China and India.
1. China carries about thrice as much
coal freight per hour vis--vis India.
2. Coal is transported in India at more
than twice the cost vis--vis China.
3. It takes longer in India to transport
coal than China via railways.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
36. The Supreme Court has recently

declared Section 66A of the IT Act as
unconstitutional. Which of the
following activities that could have
been charged under the law earlier can
now be allowed based on the
judgment?

1. A comment on Social networking

website that is viewed as offensive
by some individuals or community
2. A false declaration in public (not on
internet) about an incident or fact
that has not occurred
3. A private e-mail message that
causes insult to an individual
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
37. In this years budget, the government

proposed to institutionally separate
debt management from monetary
policy by way of a Public Debt
Management Agency. By this
separation which of the following
powers will be lost by RBI?
1. deciding how much of the old debt
RBI
wants to buy or sell (open market o
perations)
2. power to issue currency to the
Government
3. power to issue rules and guidelines
for debt management to public
sector banks
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
Page 9
38. The Congress could not attempt a

complete overhaul of the agrarian
structure by completely eliminating
the zamindari system when it formed
provincial governments during 1930.
Consider the following reasons:
1. According to the constitutional
structure of the 1935 Act, the
provincial Ministries did not have
enough powers to do so
2. They suffered from an extreme
lack of financial resources, for the
lions share of Indias revenues
was appropriated by the
Government of India
Which of the above reasons is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
None
Both
2 Only
1 Only

about our Solar system.
1. All the planets revolve around the
Sun in elliptical orbits.
2. No gas that is found on Earth is
found on Jupiter and Saturn.
3. The only planet to rotate in
clockwise direction around the Sun
is Uranus.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) All parts of the globe would have

equal days and nights at all times of
the year.
b) The temperature would be the same
at all points at a given time on the
Earth where there is daylight.
c) only the global distribution of
temperature would change a little;
and the rest would be the same as it
is now.
d) Seasonal changes would become
more diverse and rapid.
41. The Union Cabinet has recently given

its in-principle approval for the
concept and institutional framework of
Sagarmala Project. Consider the
3. It seeks to develop a string of
ports around Indias coast.
4. It would start Coastal Economic
Zones (CEZ) around sea coasts in
India.
5. India and China will be partners
for this project.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
40. The axis of the Earth is inclined to the

plane of the elliptic in which it rotates.
If its axis were perpendicular to this
plane then

Page 10
42. The Jan Ausadhi Campaign was set

up with the intention of providing
access to affordable medicines for all.
Consider the following statements
about the new campaign and schemes
related to the same.
1. It seeks to dispel the myth that
quality of medicines is linked to
its price.
2. The scheme is highly dependent
on subsidies from Central and
State Governments.
3. As a part of the campaign, State
Government has to ensure
prescription of unbranded generic
medicines by the Government
doctors.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
43. With reference to the Competition

Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT) and the
Competition Commission of India
(CCI), consider the following
statements:
1. COMPAT is a statutory body
whereas CCI is a quasi judicial body
2. If CCI imposes penalty of X Rupees
on Y company, this company can
appeal to COMPAT for justice
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)

about Municipal bonds.
1. They are issued by the Central
government to finance municipal
projects.
2. Any interest or payment from the
bond is given only after the
municipal project has been
completed.
3. Municipal bonds cannot be tax
exempted as they relate to local
governments.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above

about Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas
Yojana (PMKVY).
1. It will be implemented with the
help of the private sector and
National Skill Development
Corporation (NSDC).
2. It is supported by the World Bank.
3. The State government would have a
role in monitoring the
implementation of the scheme.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the abov
2 Only
Both
1 Only
None

Page 11
46. Mission Indradhanush launched by the

Central Government is concerned with
a) covering all those children who
are partially vaccinated or
unvaccinated.
b) providing insurance cover to
drought affected areas
c) covering nutritional support for
children suffering from
development related disabilities
d) tracking the mental health of
people from BPL families
47. Which of these sectors have shown

negative growth in overall employment
shares in the Economy in the postreforms period?
1. Registered Manufacturing
2. Public Administration and defence
3. Construction
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. He spearheaded the movement for
separate statehood for Gujarat
2. He was a prominent leftist who
worked outside the framework of
any organized left-wing party
during freedom struggle
To which of the following persons does above
description aptly apply?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Indulal Yagnik
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
N. G. Ranga


about Rajasthans human milk bank,
Jeevan Dhara.
1. It has been started by a NGO in
association with the Rajasthan
Government.
2. Under the scheme, free human
milk will be provided to
malnourished infants all over
Rajasthan.
3. The scheme is being funded by the
WHO.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above
50. Which of the following are responsible

for creating the double financial
repression as pitched by the
Economic Survey?
1. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
2. Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
3. Non Performing Assets (NPAs)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
51. Which of these rocks make up for large

portions of the crust of Earth?
1. Granitic rocks
2. Basaltic rocks
3. Pumic rocks
4. Obsidian rocks
Page 12

given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
52. I have never been able to take pride in

the fact that Burma has been made
part of British India. It never was and
never should be. The Burmese have a
civilization of their own.
Which of the following Indian freedom
fighters said the above lines?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Jawaharlal Nehru
Rabindranath Tagore
Mahatma Gandhiji
C Rajgopalchari

about igneous rocks.
1. They are generally crystalline in
nature.
2. They occur in layers and often
contain fossils.
3. Igneous rocks are always acidic in
nature.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
54. With reference to the Mid Day Meal

scheme, consider the following
statements:
1. It was launched by the Ministry of
Food and Civil Supplies in 1995

2. The nutritional guidelines for

minimum amount of protein in the
food and calorie content per child
per day for Upper Primary school
students are 20 gram and 700
calories respectively
a) 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) None
d) Both
55. Without a magnetic field, our planet
will lose its atmosphere as per
Researchers. How is Earths magnetic
field helping to hold the atmosphere?
a) it deflects ionizing particles from
the Sun which would otherwise
wear atmosphere away
b) The charged particles in the
Earths atmosphere are being held
by this magnetic field
c) Magnetic field supports the
gravitation forces in increasing
the escape velocity of gas particles

about the CAG.
1. No minister can represent the CAG
in Parliament.
2. The Parliament decides upon the
extent of powers of the CAG.
3. CAG needs the prior permission of
the Governor before auditing the
concerned State Governments
accounts.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 13
57. Arrange these financial accountability

processes in chronological order (i.e.
from start to end) in a financial year.
1. Detailed Budget allocations by the
Ministry of Finance
2. CAG Submitting audit report to the
President
3. Public Accounts Committee
submits report to Parliament
Choose the correct order.
a)
b)
c)
d)
123
321
132
312
58. In 1937, Japan launched an attack on

China. What was the opinion of the
Indian national Congress on this
event?
a) INC welcomed the development
as a tiny Asian country was able
to defeat mighty country
b) INC passed a resolution
condemning Japan and calling
upon the Indian people to
boycott Japanese goods
c) INC remained neutral
59. Some public corporations account is

audited exclusively by private
professional auditors and the CAG
does not come into the picture at all.
These organizations are
1. LIC of India
2. RBI
3. Food Corporation of India
4. State Bank of India
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
60. Consider the following geological

locations.
1. Coastal mountain ranges
2. Off-shore islands
3. Midst of Deep Ocean beds
Which of the above are likely for the
occurrence of Volcanoes?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
61. Consider the following about the Office

of Attorney General of India.
1. The Attorney General (AG) is
appointed by the president after
consultation with the Chief Justice
of India.
2. He must be a person who is
qualified to be appointed a judge of
the Supreme Court.
3. The Constitution does not contain
the procedure and grounds for his
removal.
4. He may be removed by the
president at any time.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

below.

Page 14

about the roles, powers and
responsibilities of the Attorney
General of India.
1. He does not fall in the category of
government servants.
2. He enjoys all the privileges and
immunities that are available to a
Member of Parliament.
3. He is not debarred from private
legal practice.
4. He has the right to speak and to
take part in the proceedings of both
the Houses of Parliament and any
committees thereof where he is a
member.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

1. The Attorney General (AG) is not a
member of the Central cabinet.
2. Just like the AG, other offices
subordinate to AG like Solicitor
General and others are provided for
by the Constitution.
3. The AG looks after all the legal
matters of the Government.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
1. is appointed by the President in

consultation with the Chief Justice
of High Court
2. is the Chief Law officer of the
Government
3. may not be a citizen of India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
65. In October 1920 the Communist Party

of India was set up at
a) Kolkatta
b) Moscow
c) Tashkent
d) Kanpur

1. During freedom struggle,
Jawaharlal Nehru became the
President of Indian National
Congress sessions only once
2. The Independence for India League
was organized by Bhagat Singh and
his comrades
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
None
Both
2 Only
1 Only
64. The Advocate General in the State


Page 15
67. The NITI Aayog comprises which of

the following?
1. Chief Ministers of all the States
2. Experts, specialists and
practitioners with relevant domain
knowledge as special invitees
nominated by the Prime Minister
3. Chief Secretary of all the States
4. Lieutenant Governors of all UTs
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 4 only
68. In which of the following ways Block

mountains can be formed?
1. Faulting due to compression earths
crust
2. Faulting due to tension in earths
crust
3. Bending due to compression on
Earths crust
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
69. To which of the following did the Floud

Commission report relate to?
a) It recommended that sharecroppers pay one third of their crop
to jotedars instead of one half
b) It recommended for the first time
for the abolition of zamindari
system in Bengal
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

70. Tectonic plateaus are formed due to

earth movements that cause uplifts.
Which of the following are tectonic
plateaus found on Earth?
1. Meseta of Central Iberia
2. Harz of Germany
3. Tibetan Plateau
4. Bolivian plateau found between two
ranges of Andes
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
71. As per the Economic Survey, some

peculiar reasons have been the major
factors behind the stalling of projects
in specifics sectors. Match accordingly.
1. Electricity - Fuel/feedstock/raw
material supply problem
2. Construction and Real Estate Lack of non-environmental
clearance
3. Manufacturing - Unfavourable
market conditions
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 16
72. As per the Economic Survey, which of

the factors unique to India have been
responsible for high and rising NPAs
for banks in India and weak balance
sheet for corporates?
1. Indias debt is almost exclusively
financed by public sector banks.
2. The public sector is exposed to
corporate risk in the form of public
private partnerships, and lending
by the public sector banks.
3. High inflationary situation
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
73. All rocks whether igneous or

sedimentary can become metamorphic
rocks under great temperature and
pressure. In this manner, which of the
conversions to metamorphic rocks
below is correct?
1. Clay to Slate
2. Coal to graphite
3. Sandstone to Quartzite
4. Shale to Schist
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
74. Gamma-ray bursts (GRBs) are formed

by intense explosions in space, for
instance when a giant star explodes or
two stars collide. How are GRBs a
threat to Earth?

a) a long GRB can obliterate the

planets ozone layer, exposing all
life forms to ultraviolet radiation
from the sun.
b) a long GRB can wipe out Earths
entire atmosphere
c) a long GRB can cause disruptions
in Earths magnetic and
gravitation field causing
instability on earth
d) The electromagnetic waves sent by
GRBs interfere with the climatic
phenomena in troposphere and
can cause long term climate
change
75. The Congress Socialist Party (CSP)

which emerged in 1930s, subscribed to
which of the following political
ideologies?
a) Rightist
b) Leftist
c) Conservative
76. The numbers of pollinating birds and

mammals are declining worldwide as
more such species are on the verge of
extinction, says a new study by IUCN.
Which of the following are key
pollinator bird species?
1. Hummingbird
2. Honeyeaters
3. Sunbirds
4. White-eyes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 17
77. To remove the CAG from his office,

which of the following would be
absolutely required?
1. Resolution passed with special
majority by Lok Sabha
2. Resolution passed with special
majority by Rajya Sabha
3. Enquiry by the Supreme Court
4. Order of the President
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
78. High SLR reduced Banks profitability.

So the Economic Survey recommends
reducing SLR. Which of the following
are viable options for government
financing other than SLR?
1. Foreign-Currency Dominated Debt
2. Bond market
3. Priority Sector Lending
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
b) how efficiently debt has been

converted to profitability in the
company
c) the ratio of debt from internal and
external sources in a sovereign
bank
80.Consider the following statements

1. The major aim of the newly
launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
Grameen Kaushalya Yojana is
bringing inclusive growth to the
country
2. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen
Kaushalya Scheme is implemented
by the Ministry of Rural
Development
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
None
Both
81. Capital to risk weighted assets ratio

(CRAR) is arrived at by dividing the
capital of the bank with aggregated
risk weighted assets for
1. Credit risk
2. Market Risk
3. Operational Risk
below.
79. A leverage ratio is any one of several

financial measurements that look at
a) how much capital comes in the
form of debt (loans) in comparison
to equities of a company

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 18
82. Gross capital formation as a

percentage of GDP, since the 1991
reforms has been the highest from
which of the following sector?
a) Household
b) Private Sector
c) Public Sector
d) Private Corporate Sector
83. The NHRC is vested with which of the

following powers under the Protection
of Human Rights Act, 1993?
1. Suo moto inquiry
2. Power to regulate its own
procedure
3. Powers of Civil Court
4. Powers to utilise the services of any
officer or investigation agency of
the Central government or any
state government
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

1. India is yet to succeed in
successfully testing indigenous
Cryogenic Upper Stage
2. Crew Module Atmospheric Reentry Experiment (CARE) was
successfully carried by GSLV Mk III
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
Both
None
2 Only

85. Consider that the NHRC has just now

completed inquired into a case of
women trafficking in India due to
gross neglect by a public servant.
Which of the following actions can be
taken by it?
1. Imposing a punishment on the
guilty public servant
2. recommending to the concerned
government or authority the
initiation of proceedings for
prosecution
3. approaching the Supreme Court or
the high court concerned for the
necessary directions, orders or
writs
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
86. The recent Economic Survey points out

that a large number of projects in India
are stalled leading to a reduction in
economic growth. Consider the
following about it.
1. More number of projects are stalled
in the private sector than public.
2. Manufacturing dominates in total
value of stalled projects even over
infrastructure.
3. The stock of stalled projects has
been piling year on year since the
last five years.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 19
87. Education is an important parameter

of average skill level of labourers and
their productivity. In which of these
sectors, majority of the labour has
completed at least secondary
education?
1. Health and Social Work
2. Transportation and
Communication
3. Real Estate and Business Services
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
88. With reference to Differences between

NITI and Planning Commission,
1. NITI Aayog will not have the
powers to allocate funds to
ministries and state governments
unlike erstwhile Planning
Commission
2. The role of Chief Ministers has
increased in the NITI Aayog which
was minimal in Planning
Commission
3. Niti Aayog is a think-tank and does
not have the power to impose
policies, whereas Planning
Commission decided policies for
states and tied allocation of funds
with projects it approved
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
3 and 2 Only
1 and 2 Only
All


about the river Jhelum that has been
caused floods in J&K twice within a
short period of time.
1. It is the largest of the five rivers of
Punjab.
2. The river Jhelum rises
from Verinag Spring situated at the
foot of the Pir Panjal.
3. No dams and barrages have been
built on the river so far.
4. It flows through Srinagar and
the Wular Lake before entering
Pakistan through a deep
narrow gorge.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
90. The Enforcement Directorate (ED)

recently has provisionally attached
assets in connection with the Israeli
diplomat attack case. Which of the
following laws does the ED enforce?
1. Prevention of Money Laundering
Act, 2002
2. Foreign Exchange Management
Act, 1999
3. The Industrial Disputes Decision
Act, 1995
4. Competition Act, 2002
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
Page 20
91. The Defence Acquisition Council has

recently approved the Maitri project
with France. Consider the following
statements about it.
1. It is a next-generation quickreaction surface-to-air
missile (QRSAM) system .
2. It is long range and can be used to
target neighbouring countries too.
3. While the project is jointly
developed, the technology for the
missile is indigenous by DRDO.
4. The project concerns all three
wings of Indian armed forces
army, navy and air force.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
92. China has provided details about its

proposed Silk Road initiatives, which
would impact 4.4 billion people and,
within a decade, could generate trade
above 2.5 trillion dollars. Which of the
following are concerned with this plan?
1. Maritime Silk Road
2. Silk Road Economic Belt
3. Belt and road initiative
4. Sea lines of Communication Belt
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

93. The Food Safety and Standards

Authority of India (FSSAI) has been
established under the Food Safety and
Standards Act, 2006 as a statutory
body for laying down science based
standards for articles of food. What
other domains related to food are
being regulated by FSSAI?
1. Sale and import of food
2. Licensing Registration and Health
And Sanitary Permits
3. Packaging and Labelling
4. Provide training programmes for
those involved in food businesses
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
94. The Congress Ministries which were

formed in many provinces, resigned in
October 1939 primarily due to which of
the following reasons?
a) Opposition by Gandhiji and Nehru
for continuation in power
b) Political crisis brought by
beginning of the World War II
c) Their five year term ended in 1939
d) The British forced resignation of
ministries
95. Excessive use of urea leads to several

adverse implications on soil, crop
quality and overall ecosystem. Which
of the following may address the
harmful effects of Urea on soil?
1. Inclusion of legumes
2. Modified Nitrogen scheduling
using leaf color chart
Page 21
3. Neem oil coated urea should be

preferred over pilled urea
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
96. With reference to The Rajiv Gandhi

Scheme for Empowerment of
Adolescent Girls (RGSEAG) Sabla ,
1. It is a centrally sponsored program
of Government of India under
Ministry of Women and Child
Development
2. Bringing into mainstream out of
school adolescent girls into
formal/non formal education is one
of its objectives
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
Both
2 Only
None
97. Some European countries, including

Germany, France, Britain, and Russia
along with Australia have recently
decided to join the China-led Asian
Infrastructure Investment Bank
(AIIB). Consider the following
statements about AIIB.
1. AIIB provides finances to
infrastructure projects in the AsiaPacific region only.
2. India is the second largest
shareholder in the Bank after
China.

3. AIIB and BRICS New Development

Bank have a joint funding facility
for needy nations.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
98. Socialist ideas became more popular

during the 1930s in India due to which
of the following developments?
1. Great Depression in America
2. Overthrowing of despotic Czarist
regime in Russia
3. Defeat of Germany in First World
War
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
99. Which of the following were prominent

Congressmen and at the same time
rich industrialists?
1. Jamnalal Bajaj
2. G.D. Birla
3. Ambalal Sarabhai
4. Vadilal Lallubhai Mehta
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 4
1 and 4
Page 22
100.
With reference to stopping of
train when a chain is pulled by a
passenger, consider the following
statements:
1. It is based on the Disc Brake
System (DBS) and this system is
microprocessor controlled for more
efficient braking system
2. Disc Brake System is an advanced
version of Air Brake system
3. Alarm Chain Pulling contributes to

4% of the punctuality loss cases on
Indian Railways.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3, 2 and 1
2 and 3
2 and 1
1 and 3

Page 23

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 150
INSTRUCTIONS
4. This Test Booklet contains 75 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best.
In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
(i)
(iii)
that question.


Page 1

Assertion (A): The Central Information
Commission is not a constitutional body.
Reason (R): It has been established under the
provisions of the Right to Information Act
(2005).
of these is true?

about the Central Information
Commission (CIC).
1. The CIC consists of a Chairperson
and two other members.
2. MPs and MLAs are eligible to
become members of the CIC.
3. The Chairperson should be an
eminent justice in the opinion of
the President or eligible to be a
Supreme Court Judge.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only.
3 only
None of the above.
3. The Central Information Commission

is a/an
a) high-powered independent body
which inter alia looks into the
complaints made to it and decide
the appeals

b) body that comes under Ministry of

Information & Broadcasting, which
inter alia looks into the complaints
forwarded to it by the Ministry and
decide the appeals
c) independent body that refers to
complaints only submitted to it by
the Department of Public
Grievances
d) quasi-judicial body that is
supervised by one of the special
benches of the Supreme Court, and
works independently of the
Government of India
4. The Chief Information Commissioner

is appointed by a selection committee
consisting of
1. Union Home Minister
2. Union Law Ministry
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Lok Sabha Speaker
5. Leader of Opposition, Rajya Sabha
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 4 and 5 only
All of the above
None of the above
2, 3 and 4 only
5. Which of the following are NOT

eligible for reappointment to the
office?
1. Comptroller and Auditor General of
India
2. Chief Information Commissioner
3. Chairman, UPSC
4. Chief Election Commissioner
below.
Page 2
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
6. The Chief State Information

Commissioner can be removed by
a) the State Governor after an enquiry
by the Supreme Court upholds the
cause of removal
b) the State Governor after an enquiry
by the High Court upholds the
cause of removal
c) the President after an enquiry by
the Supreme Court upholds the
cause of removal
d) the President after an enquiry by a
Parliamentary Committee upholds
the cause of removal

about the Constituent assembly of
India.
1. Its constitution was finally subject
to the approval of the British
Parliament.
2. The selection of representatives of
various Indian states was flexible
and decided by consultation.
3. Members of the CA from Provinces
were elected directly from the
people by a very limited franchise.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only


about the appointment of CVC.
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. The recommendation of the
nominee of the post comes from the
Council of Ministers.
3. Appointment of CVC cannot be
challenged in court.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
9. Consider the following procedures.

1. President referring the matter to
the Lok Sabha.
2. Inquiry by the Supreme Court.
3. Parliament passes the motion by a
simple majority in both the houses.
Which of the following procedures are
followed in the removal of CVC. Choose the
order that is chronological from the ones
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
123
213
2 only
13 only
10. Which of the following

ministries/departments/organs of the
Government of India (GoI) have a
bearing on the Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI)?
1. Ministry of Law and Justice
2. Ministry of Home Affairs
3. CVC
4. UPSC
5. Department of Personnel and
Training
Page 3

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
None of the above
1, 3 and 5 only

powers/responsibilities are exercised
by CVC?
1. Part of the Selection Committee in
the appointment of the Director,
CBI
2. Instituting inquiries against
Union and State Ministers
3. Superintendence of Police in
matters of corruption
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
None of the above
1 only
12. Which of the following domains are

handled by the CBI for investigation
and reporting?
1. cyber and high technology crime
2. transnational organised crime
3. Economic crimes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
3 only

13. Which of the following is/are NOT

National Investment and
Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) that
have been approved in principle by the
Government of India (GoI)?
1. Kolar in Karnataka
2. Prakasam in Andhra Pradesh
3. Nagpur in Maharashtra
4. Chittor in Andhra Pradesh
Choose the correct matches using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
4 only
All are NMIZs.
14. In order to boost the MSME sector,

several schemes are operational. Some
of the major initiatives taken for the
development of this sector are
1. Technology Centre Systems
Programme
2. India Inclusive Innovation Fund
3. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy
4. Credit Guarantee Scheme
5. MSE-Cluster Development
Programme
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 5 only
2 and 3 only
2, 4 and 5 only
All of the above
15. According to the Financial Sector

Legislative Reforms Commission
(FSLRC), what are the core functions
of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
1. Controlling inflation
2. Public debt management
3. Banking supervision
Page 4

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
16. Who/Which among the following

comes under the jurisdiction of the
Lokpal?
1. Prime Minister
2. All categories of public servants.
3. Entities receiving donation from
foreign sources
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
3 only
17. RESIDEX launched by the National

Housing Board of India measures the
a) movement of prices in the
residential housing segment.
b) growth rate of the construction of
residences in the residential
housing segment.
c) growth rate of the real state sector
in general
d) movement of prices in the real state
sector in general.
18. The Government of India Act, 1919

popularly known as Montague
Chelmsford Act was significant in
which of the following ways?
1. Established a responsible
Parliamentary system of
Government in the country

2. The final decision on all important

questions was no more in the
hands of the Viceroy
3. It relaxed previously stringent
control of centre on provinces.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
19. The demand for a constituent

assembly was made officially by Indian
National Congress for the first time at
a) Second Round table conference
b) After the departure of Simon
Commission
c) the time of Gandhi-Irwin Pact
20. Consider the following about the

power of inquiry of the Central
Information Commission. The CIC
1. can exercise suo-moto inquiry
powers
2. has powers similar to a civil court
during inquiry
3. may examine any record which is
under the control of the public
authority
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 5
21. The 97th Constitutional Amendment

Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status
and protection to co-operative
societies. In this context, which of the
following changes were made in the
constitution?
1. Right to form co-operative
societies became a fundamental
right
2. It included a new Directive
Principle of State Policy on
promotion of co-operative
societies
3. It established a Central
constitutional authority for
overseeing matters related to
cooperatives.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
3 only
22. The Constitution of India contains

explicit and specific provisions for
which of following language related
aspects?
1. Directive for development of the
Hindi language
2. Facilities for instruction in
mother-tongue at primary stage
for Children
3. Language to be used in
representation for redress of
grievances

composition of the Lokpal at the
Central Level.
1. 50 per cent of the members shall
be judicial members.
2. Seats are reserved for minority
and women in Lokpal members.
3. One member will be an eminent
jurist nominated by the President.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
3 only

Assertion (A): Despite Agriculture being a
State Subject, the Centre can legislate on it
even in ordinary circumstances.
Reason (R): Agriculture is a means of
livelihood to a majority of population in
India. The Parliament legislates in national
interest.
of these is true?

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
1 and 2 only

Page 6

1. Wind gaps in the course of a river
do not allow the construction of
upland roads and railways.
2. Deltas are less preferred sites than
estuaries for the siting of large
ports.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
26. Indias economic growth rate has

reduced over the last few years. Which
of the following sectors have been
unaffected by this reduction in growth?
1. Construction
2. Electricity
3. Mining
4. Manufacturing
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
4 only
All have been affected.
27. Offshore companies will now be

taxable in India, if key management
decisions are being taken from India.
This move by the Government was
necessitated because
a) Shell companies were being used in
business transactions to evade
taxes.
b) Such offshore companies extract
Indias oil resources; hence the tax.
c) Offshore companies were being
used for organized crime.

d) there was a need to increase

investment in the Oil sector by
squeezing extra resources

about the recently undocked
submarine Kalvari.
1. It has been built indigenously.
2. It has stealth capability.
3. It cannot operate in any other
environment than tropics.
4. It can be used for intelligence
gathering purposes.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only

composition, powers and
appointments related to the Central
Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
1. The Chairman and members are
appointed by a collegiums
consisting of senior Supreme court
judges headed by the Chief Justice
of India.
2. The members are drawn from both
judicial and administrative stream.
3. CAT orders and decrees are final,
and no provision of appeal lies
whatsoever.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
Page 7
30. DigiLocker can be used to securely

store e-documents as well as store
Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) link
of e-documents issued by various
issuer departments of the Government.
For a user, which of the things are
indispensable to register for
Digilocker?
1. Mobile number
2. Aadhaar number
3. E-mail ID
4. Bank Account
5. Residence proof
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1; and either 2 or 3
2, 3 and 4 only
2; and either 1 or 3
2, 4 and 5 only
31. 4538 Vishyanand is a minor planet

named after Indias first chess
grandmaster Vishwanathan Anand.
about minor planets.
1. A large comet can be designated as
a minor planet.
2. It also includes dwarf planets that
orbit around the Sun.
3. International Astronomical Union
(IAU) is also responsible for
naming the minor planets.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above.
1 and 3 only

32. In recently released 2015 FM Global

Resilience Index, India has been
ranked 119 out of 130 countries. Which
of the following factors are taken into
account in the index?
1. Quality of fire risk management
2. Quality of natural hazard
management
3. Corruption control
4. GDP
5. Political risk
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 4 and 5 only
All of the above
33. Union Government recently has

unveiled new Foreign Trade Policy
(FTP) to make India an exporting
powerhouse in the next five years.
Which of the following areas have been
addressed in the FTP?
1. E-commerce
2. Skill India programme
3. Paperless governance
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above.
1 and 3 only
34. The provisions of the 97th amendment

cover which of the following aspects
related to cooperatives?
1. Regulation
2. Winding-up
Page 8
3. Appointment of Board of
Directors
4. Auditing
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
1 and 4 only
35. In deciding the official language of a

State, the choice of the state is
a) Limited to the languages
mentioned in the Eighth Schedule
of the Constitution
b) Limited to the languages officially
recognized by the State
Government
c) Either an aboriginal language or a
classical language or
English/Hindi
d) Not limited; any language can be
choose.
36. Which of the following is the criterion

for a language to be officially
recognized in a State of India?
a) If the Governor is satisfied that a
certain language should be
recognized; and declares so
officially
b) If the State Legislature passes a
resolution to that effect
c) When the President is satisfied
that a substantial population of
the state speaks that particular
language; and declares so
officially


about the fishery sector of India.
1. India ranks second in world fish
production.
2. More fishing volume comes from
the inland sector rather than the
marine sector.
3. Fisheries contribute more than
50% of the agricultural GDP.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
38. If the Model Agricultural Produce

Marketing Committee (APMC) Act is
implemented successfully all across
India, it will result in
1. Closure of government sponsored
mandis
2. barrier-free and tax-free national
market for agri commodities
3. freedom of trading in futures
market of agricultural commodities
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above

about food procurement in India.
1. Coarse grains are procured by state
governments and their agencies.
2. FCI is responsible both for openended procurement and storage of
foodgrains.
Page 9
3. Decentralized Procurement Scheme

(DCP) has been adopted by all state
governments.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
All of the above
40. Leeves are formed in a flood plain

when the river
a) flows normally in a bed that rises
by the accumulation of deposits
b) flows rapidly in a bed that has been
eroded by large granular deposits
c) falls near a river cliff and
accumulates the deposit thereof
d) is just nearing the Delta plains
41. Deltas are formed when a river nears

the sea and starts depositing its
sediment load in the plains. Which of
the following can be the consequences
of delta formation?
1. Change of river course
2. Formation of several distributaries
of the original river
3. Fertility of the local soil increases.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
42. Which of the following conditions are

favourable for the formation of Deltas?
1. Coast should be sheltered,
preferably tideless.

2. The sea adjoining the delta should

be shallow.
3. There should be no large lakes in
the river course.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
43. To ensure last-mile connectivity,

extension services need to be geared to
address emerging technological and
knowledge needs. Under this, the Sub
Mission on Agricultural Extension
(SMAE) under the National Mission on
Agricultural Extension and Technology
(NMAET) was revamped. Which of the
following has been subsumed under it?
1. District-level Agriculture
Technology Management Agencies
(ATMAs)
2. Mass Media and Kisan Call Centre
schemes
3. Central-sector Establishment of
Agri-Clinics and Agri-Business
Centres (ACABC) Scheme
4. SMS portal for farmers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
44. Horticulture sector comprising a wide

array of crops. India is the largest
producer of which of the following?
1. Mango
2. Banana
Page 10
3.
4.
5.
6.
Coconut
Pomegranate
Papaya
Cashew

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1, 4, 5 and 6 only
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
All of the above
45. Farmer Producer Organizations

(FPOs) have been identified as one of
the key strategies for achieving
inclusive agricultural growth during
the Twelfth Plan. In this regards,
consider the following statements with
reference to the role of The Small
Farmers Agribusiness Consortium
(SFAC).
1. It is the central procurement
agency for undertaking price
support operations under MSP for
pulses and oilseeds.
2. The SFAC is the nodal agency of
FPOs and will operate only through
FPOs at the farm gate.
Which of the above is correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

1. Vertical erosion is dominant in the
upper courses of the river.
2. Incised meanders are features of
river rejuvenation.
3. Mass movement of earth is mainly
due to the lubricating action of
rain-water and gravitational forces.


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
47. Piedmont glaciers are formed when

1. Glaciers slowly erode the base soil
and reach the feet of the mountain
2. steep valley glaciers spill into
relatively flat plains
3. glaciers spread out in bulb-like
lobes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about Central Services and All-India
Services.
1. Any disciplinary action (imposition
of penalties) against these officers
can only be taken by the Central
government.
2. The personnel of Central services
(even though are posted in states)
work under the exclusive
jurisdiction of the Central
government.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Page 11
49. Article 323 A empowers the

Parliament to provide for the
establishment of administrative
tribunals for the adjudication of
disputes relating to recruitment and
conditions of service of persons
appointed to public services of the
1. Other Public Authorities
2. State
3. Local Bodies
4. Public Corporations
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
50. In the globe, the possibility of finding a

desert is highest in the regions
1. which are within 15-30 degrees of
North-south latitude from the
equator
2. which lie on the western sides of
the continents where trade winds
are offshore
3. that near cold currents
2. By rift valleys due to faulting

3. By glaciations
4. By volcanic activity
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

None of the above
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
52. Recently RBI seems to be concerned

with the Sacrifice ratio in deciding
monetary policy matters. Sacrifice
ratio is
a) cumulative output losses that an
economy must endure to reduce
average inflation, on a permanent
basis, by one percentage point
b) the multiplier effect of the
liquidity injected by the Central
bank in the economy divided for
every one percentage of deposit
ratio sacrificed by banks
c) the amount of fiscal stimulus
flexibility foregone by the
government for each percentage
point hike in the monetary policy
indicators

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
51. Lakes are among the most varied

features of the earths surface. In
which of the following ways can lakes
be formed?
1. By tectonic action

53. The National Green Tribunal (NGT)

has recently ordered banning of diesel
vehicles older than 10 years in the
capital city of India. Why are old cars
with Diesel engines a problem for the
environment?
1. They emit more CO2 than normal
petrol cars.
2. Diesel cars emit several times more
NO2 than petrol cars.
3. They emit more hydrocarbons than
petrol engines.
Page 12

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
54. If a river is passing through an area

where rocks are composed of
homogenous beds of uniform
resistance to corrosion, then
1. The tributaries will join the main
valley obliquely as insequent
streams
2. The evolving drainage pattern will
be tree-like in appearance.
3. It will not form a catchment area.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
55. Consider the following features in a

drainage system.
1. Interlocking spurs
2. Meanders
3. River cliffs
4. Rapids and waterfalls
Which of the above will be found in the
middle course of the river system?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1. Oder Germany & Poland

2. Mekong Laos & Thailand
3. Yalu North Korea & China
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
57. India meets the production needs of

which of the following fertilizers
domestically (i.e. majority share need
not be imported)?
1. Urea
2. Potassic fertilizer
3. Phosphoric fertilizer
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
58. Ultra-processed junk foods are known

to be a health hazard as they are high
in
1. Trans fats
2. Salt
3. Hydrocarbons
4. Fats
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
56. Consider the following matches of river

with the countries that they separate.

Page 13
59. The government has recently launched

National Air Quality Index (NAQI).
Which of the following air pollutants
will be reported by the NAQI?
1. Ozone
2. Particulate matter
3. Hydrocarbons
4. CO2
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
4 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 4 only
60. India is NOT one the worlds top

producers of
1. Rice
2. Wheat
3. Milk
4. Fruits
5. Vegetables
below.
a) All of the above
b) India is one of the worlds top
producers of all of these.
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 5 only
61. In the functioning of the Central

Administrative Tribunal (CAT), it is
guided by and follows the
a) Civil Procedure Code of 1908
b) Principles of natural justice
c) Criminal Procedure Code
d) Indian Penal Code
62. Under Article 323 B, the Parliament

and the state legislatures are

authorised to provide for the

establishment of tribunals for the
adjudication of disputes relating to
which of the following matters?
1. Food stuffs
2. Rent and tenancy rights
3. Industrial labour
4. Elections to State legislatures
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
3 and 4 only

Statement (S): Under the Constitution, the
civil servants are conferred personal
immunity from legal liability for official
contracts.
Implication (I): The government (Central
or state) is liable for the contracts made by
Civil servants.
In the context of the statements above,
choose the correct option from the following.
a) Both S and I are correct, and I
follows correctly from S.
b) Both S and I are correct, but I does
not follow correctly from S.
c) S is correct, but I is incorrect.
d) Both S and I are incorrect.
64. With regards to the distribution and

procurement of food, which of the
following provisions have NOT been
provided in the National Food Security
Act, 2013?
1. grievance redressal mechanisms at
district and state levels
Page 14
2. In case of non-supply of entitled

foodgrains or meals, the
beneficiaries will receive a food
security allowance
3. doorstep delivery of foodgrains to
Targeted PDS outlets
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
All have been provided
65. As per the Public Procurement Policy

for Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs)
1. Every central
ministry/department/public
sector-undertaking shall set a
minimum annual procurement
(purchase) goal from MSEs.
2. There is provision for mandatory
government purchase from MSEs
owned by SC and ST entrepreneurs.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
b) 3 and 4 only
c) None of the above
d) All of the above
67. In a glacial landscape, arrange the
following in the order from which they
occur from the foot of the mountain
range?
1. Moraines
2. Crevasses
3. Arete
4. Corrie
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1234
4321
4213
1342

about the movement of glaciers.
1. If more snow and ice are added
than are lost through melting,
calving, or evaporation, glaciers
will advance.
2. Glaciers move by
internal deformation.
3. The middle of a glacier moves
faster than its sides.
below.
66. In recent years, which of the following

sectors have attracted some of the least
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in
India?
1. Automobile industry
2. Metallurgical Industries
3. Drugs and pharmaceuticals
4. Power
below.
a) 1 and 2 only

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
69. In India, the share of services sector in

the overall GDP of the state is the
lowest and highest respectively in
which of the following states?
a) Arunachal Pradesh & Chandigarh
Page 15
b) Sikkim & Delhi

c) Chattisgarh & Mizoram
d) Sikkim & Goa

about the Service Sector in India &
World.
1. Indias share in world services
exports has been increasing faster
than its share in world merchandise
exports.
2. Services Sectors share in the World
GDP is more than 50%.
3. Unlike major European and
Western countries, the shares of
both Service income (per capita)
and service sector employment is
low in both India and China.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about Central Vigilance Commission
(CVC).
1. Originally the CVC was neither a
constitutional body nor a statutory
body.
2. It is free of functional control from
any executive authority.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
frame her constitution, Cripps mission

was sent in 1942 to India. Which of the
following were a part of the agreement
offered by the mission?
1. The constitution of India was to be
framed by an elected constituent
assembly of people.
2. Any province has the rights not to
accept the constitution.
3. British government had rights to
enter into agreements with specific
Indian states.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about the impact and occurrence of Elnino in the Indian subcontinent in the
last decade?
1. While El-Nino has occurred every
year in the last decade, agricultural
productivity has not been affected
negatively every year.
2. El-Nino has affected only Kharif
crops, not Rabi crops.
3. The production of crops like
Sugarcane, groundnut and
soyabean also take a hit due to ElNino.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
72. With the recognition by the British

government that India should herself

Page 16

about the Gross Capital Formation
(GCF) in the agriculture sector of
India?
1. Public sector invests more in GCF
than private sector.
2. Public sector GCF is largely
subsidies.
3. Private sector GCF has not created
any irrigation or water-saving
infrastructure.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
New Policy on Seed Development

(NPSD) that include
1. permitting 100 per cent foreign
direct investment (FDI) under the
automatic route
2. simplifying the procedure for
inclusion of new varieties in the
Organisation for Economic
Cooperation and Development
(OECD) Seeds Scheme
3. creation of a seed bank
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
75. Several important policy initiatives

have been taken under the amended


Page 17

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 170
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
(i)
(iii)
that question.


Page 1
1. The list of castes or tribes that are to be

identified as SCs or STs are specified in
a) a Presidential order with respect to
each State and Union Territory
(UT)
b) the Fifth and Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution of India
c) the resolutions passed by the
respective state legislatures
d) the order issued by the State
Governor in the extra-ordinary
Gazette of India
2. As it does with respect to the SCs, the

National Commission for SCs is also
required to discharge similar functions
with regard to the
1. OBCs
2. STs
3. Anglo-Indian Community
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
3. The Election Commission registers

political parties for the purpose of
elections and grants them recognition
as national or state parties on the basis
of their
1. Assets and liabilities
2. Geographical presence in more
than four constituencies
3. Number of workers, volunteers and
election candidates
4. Poll performance
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
4 only

1. There is only one general electoral
roll for every territorial
constituency for election to the
Parliament and the state
legislatures.
2. The state legislatures, apart from
Parliament can also make provision
with respect to all matters relating
to elections to the state legislatures.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
5. Which of the following government

officials are a part of the machinery of
Election Commission of India that
conducts and supervises elections in
India?
1. Observers
2. Presiding officer
3. Returning Officer
4. Chief Electoral Officer
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

given below.

Page 2
6. The Model Code of Conduct for

guidance of candidates and political
parties comes immediately into effect
a) after the Election Commission of
India announces the election
schedule in a major press
conference
b) after the Election Commission of
India issues a specific order
enforcing the Model code of
conduct
c) automatically exactly one month
before the election dates
d) after the deadline for nominating
candidates ends
7. Every candidate seeking election to the

Parliament or a State Legislature has
to furnish on his nomination paper the
information on which of the following
matters?
1. Educational qualifications
2. Criminal Record
3. Assets and Liabilities
4. Details of political funding
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above

about Elections to Rajya Sabha.
1. A candidate has to be an elector in
the state from where he wishes to
be elected in Rajya Sabha.
2. Secret Ballot system is used in
Rajya Sabha elections.
3. Both the Legislative assembly and
the legislative council take part in
the Rajya Sabha elections.


given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
9. Which of the following correctly points

the difference between Exit polls and
Opinion Polls?
1. Exit polls are not banned, but
opinion polls are banned in India.
2. Exit polls are taken after the elector
votes and exits from a particular
polling booth; opinion polls are
taken before the election.
3. Exit polls are conducted by the
Election Commission of India,
whereas opinion
polls are
conducted by private media
agencies.
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
10. Disqualification on ground of defection

does not apply in cases of
1. Political Party mergers
2. Political party splits
3. A candidate quitting political party
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
Page 3
11. Consider a case where a MP has voted

against his political party in the
Parliament. Which among the
following authorities will decide on his
disqualification pertaining to antidefection law?
a) Presiding Officer of that House of
the Parliament
b) President of India
c) Election Commission of India
d) Parliamentary Committee on Antidefection
12. Which of the following authorities

have a bearing on the decision of
Nuclear retaliation to a first strike on
India?
1. Nuclear Command Authority
2. Indian Armed Forces
3. Parliament
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
14. Article 366 contains the definitions of

various terms used in different
provisions of the constitution. Which
of the following terms have NOT been
defined in the Constitution?
1. Indian State
2. Ruler
3. Anglo-Indian
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
3 only
All have been defined.
15. Consider the following associations of

Individual islands and the Straits that
separate them from Mainland.
1. Newfoundland separated by Strait
of Belle isle
2. Tasmania by the Bass strait
3. Madagascar by the Mozambique
channel
below.
13. In the Table of Precedence, which of

the following figures/authorities
precede the Chief Election
Commissioner?
1. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
2. Judges of Supreme Court
4. Leader of Opposition, Lok Sabha.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
16. The reef-building corals will NOT

flourish in conditions where
1. Cold currents frequently upwell
2. waters are very deep
3. there is absence of silt and water is
salty
Page 4

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
17. The Continental shelves are of great

geographical significance for which of
the following reasons?
1. They are the richest fishing
grounds in the world as they are
rich in plankton growth.
2. They help increase the height of
tides.
3. They are rich in hydrocarbon
resources.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
18. A swimmer finds it easier to float in a

more saline denser ocean than a less
denser one. Which of the following
factors would have contributed to
making the ocean more saline making
it easy to swim?
1. High rate of evaporation
2. Degree of water mixing by currents
being less
3. Less precipitation over that ocean
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
19. The Norwegian coast, even at Latitude

60-70 degrees, is ice-free throughout
the year because of the influence of
1. Warm North Atlantic current
2. Continentality
3. Westerly trade winds
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
20. Which of the following factors decide

the movement of ocean currents?
1. Planetary Winds
2. Rotation of earth
3. Salinity of Ocean
4. Temperature of Ocean water
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
21. In the North Indian ocean, there is a

complete reversal of the direction of
ocean currents between Summer and
Winter due to
a) Western tropical cyclones
b) Reversal in the direction of Jet
streams
c) Changes in the Monsoon winds
d) Cooling down of Tibetan plateau
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

Page 5
Assertion (A): Death rate due to diseases is

normally high in tropical countries and low in
deserts.
Reason (R): Germs are not readily
transmitted in regions of high temperature
and low humidity.
of these is true?
23. A barometer if subjected to the same

pressure will show different readings
when the following change
1. Altitude of the device
2. Gravitational force at different
latitudes
3. Temperature
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
24. Relative humidity of the air in a

particular location governs which of
the following factors?
1. Cloud formation
2. Precipitation
3. Circulation of Ocean currents
below.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
25. The phenomenon of continentality

happens because
a) Ocean currents cannot reach inner
seas surrounded by land
b) land surfaces are heated and
cooled faster than the ocean water
around it
c) there is a larger landmass in the
Northern hemisphere than
Southern hemisphere
d) the effect of ocean waves and tides
is less pronounced in inner
continental regions
26. Consider the following.

1. Cold air underlies warmer air at
higher altitudes.
2. Passage of a cold front
3. Invasion of sea air by a cooler
onshore breeze
Which of the above will be seen when
temperature inversion occurs?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Assertion (A): During a temperature
inversion, air pollution released into the
atmosphere's lowest layer is trapped there
and can be removed only by strong horizontal
winds.
Page 6
Reason (R): Inversion of air temperature

restricts vertical mobility of wind.
of these is true?
28. Consider the following sequence of

events.
1. Convergence of cold and warm air
2. Warm air rises above the cold air
3. Cold air pushes warm air
For a cyclonic or frontal rain, the above
activities should happen in which sequence?
a)
b)
c)
d)
123
213
132
321
29. Arrange the following planetary winds

in order of their occurrence from
North to South Pole.
1. South-Westerlies
2. North-East Trade winds
3. North-Westerlies
4. South-east trade winds
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1243
1234
3241
None of the orders above is correct.


1. Winds in the Northern hemisphere
are always deflected to their right.
2. Anticyclones are more frequent in
summer.
3. Cyclones do not occur in temperate
zones.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

about the Rubber plantation.
1. It was first discovered in the
Amazon Basin.
2. Brazil exports practically no natural
rubber.
3. Rubber has been transplanted in
several temperate regions too.
4. Thailand and Indonesia are leading
producers of rubber.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
32. The Aranyakas or the treatises of the

forest
1. present secret explanations of the
rituals mentioned in Vedas
2. have their origin in the
philosophical discussions of the
Brahmanas
3. explain the meaning of Upanishads
Page 7

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
33. As put in the Hindu Mahakavya (great

epics), Ramayana and Mahabharata,
which of the following are a part of
Purushartha (meaning of human life)?
1. Liberation (Moksha)
2. Fulfilment of all desires (Kama)
3. Worldly achievement (Artha)
4. Righteousness (Dharma)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
34. The Puranas were written to illustrate

and expound the truth of the Vedas.
Out of these Mahapuranas became
more popular. Which of the following
subjects are dealt by Mahapuranas?
1. Sarga, the original creation of the
universe
2. Pratisarga, the periodical process of
destruction and re-creation
3. Manvantara, the different eras or
cosmic cycles
4. Surya Vamsha and Chandra Vamsa,
the histories of the solar and lunar
dynasties of Gods and sages
5. Vamshanucharita, the genealogies
of kings
below.

a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 5 only
1, 4 and 5 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
35. All the Buddhist canonical literature is

in Pali which includes Tipitaka
(threefold basket). Choose the right
matches among them with the subject
they deal with.
1. Vinaya Pitaka - Collection of the
speeches and dialogues of the
Buddha
2. Sutta Pitaka - Contains the
monastic rules of the Order of
Buddhist monks
3. Abhidhamma Pitaka - Elucidates
the various topics dealing with
ethics, psychology or theory of
knowledge
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
3 only

about early Dravidian Literature.
1. In Manimekalai (Tamil) there is an
elaborate exposition of the
doctrines of Buddhism.
2. Vaishnava bhakti literature was a
part of it.
3. There was no place for subjective
love poems or poetry in early
Dravidian literature.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
Page 8
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
37. Which of the following were advocated

or being talked about by Nanak in
early Punjabi literature?
1. Truth is supreme, but above truth
is truthful living.
2. Unchanging reality
3. Cosmic law
4. Meditation
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
38. The most powerful trend of medieval

Indian literature between 1000 and
1800 A.D. is devotional (bhakti)
poetry. The dominating note of bhakti
is
a) ecstasy and total identity with God
b) bliss in becoming the servant of
God
c) detachment of worldly identities
and service of God
d) detachment of worldly identities
and service of mankind
39. Which of the following were NOT

advocated by the Bhakti
movemement?
1. There is God in every human being.
2. Annihilation of the age-old caste
system
3. Conceptual erudition
below.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
40. Consider the following about Sufism.

1. It was concerned with the mystical
dimensions of Islam.
2. It is a science whose objective is the
reparation of the heart and turning
it away from all else but God.
3. It also advocated the practice of
Dikhr reading religious scriptures
filled with the understanding of
Gods grace.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
41. The practice of Muraqaba in Sufism

can be likened to the practices of what
in other religions and faiths?
a) Prayer to God
b) Meditation
c) Dancing and whirling in the
expression of God
d) Religious pilgrimage to attain
liberation
42. Recently the Social progress index has

been in news that measure the all
round social development of a country.
It does NOT include
1. Access to advance education.
2. Tolerance and inclusion
3. Women participation
4. Personal safety
Page 9

given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
3 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
43. Ministry of Textile has taken a decision

to promote the use of geo-textiles in
North-eastern belts of India. Consider
the following statements about
Geotechnical textile products.
1. Geo-textiles are used most
commonly in the transportation
market for construction of
roadways.
2. Using these products consumes
more space in landfill projects.
3. India is the second largest producer
of this.
4. It is useful in desert area road
connectivity.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1 only
3 only
44. Which of following is NOT concerned

with the recommendations of the latest
reports of the 20th Law Commission?
1. Make it compulsory for parties to
declares all donations below a
certain limit
2. In Favor of compulsory voting.
3. Ban independent candidates from
contesting election.
4. The disqualification decision for
candidates concerning antidefection law should be made by
President and governor
respectively.


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 only
4 only
3 only
45. Which of the following are the features

of the recently launched Dhanush
Missile?
1. It is an air to air missile.
2. It is a liquid propelled missile.
3. It is capable to target both land
based and sea based target.
4. It cannot be used for intercontinental missile attacks.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
All of the above

about the International Renewable
Energy Agency (IRENA).
1. It is an intergovernmental
organization.
2. It has three governing bodies
(assembly, council, executives).
3. India is a permanent member of
it.
4. It is an organ of United Nations.
Which of the above is NOT correct about
IRENA?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
3 only
2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
Page 10

about bio-diversity.
1. Buddha peacock butterfly is
endemic to East Asia.
2. Malayan Green Banded peacock
butterfly also discovered in west
Bengal.
3. Sarus crane is the official bird of
Uttarakhand.
organization for any of the

purpose which it has to conduct.
4. Its objective is to generate
employment in rural India.
Which of the above is NOT true about the
KVIC?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 only
3 only
1 and 2 only
Choose the correct answer using codes below.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1 only

about Green peace.
1. It is a non-profit organization.
2. Government of India has
suspended the registration of
Green peace India.
3. It is regulated under FCRA 2010.
given below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about the Khadi and village industry
cCmmission.
1. It is an executive body.
2. It comes under the ministry of
micro, small and medium
enterprise.
3. The KVIC is authorized to
establish and maintain separate

50. Rail budget 2015 announced

Kayakulp council. Consider the
following about it.
1. Its objective is to transform only
customer service in Indian
railways.
2. Government officials will head
this body.
3. It will have representatives from
rail trade unions as well.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
51. Supreme court has recently given a

ruling over the growing cases of acid
attacks on women. Consider the
following with reference to it.
1. State will be responsible to
provide compensation to the
victim.
2. Victim will be provided free
reconstruction surgery.
3. Criminal action can be taken on
the hospitals that discriminate
with such victims.
Page 11
4. State will provide special

privileges for the livelihood of the
victim.
Which of the above is NOT correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
3 only
4 only
2 and 4 only

about two species Chestnut breasted
partridge and Telangana crab spider.
1. Chestnut breasted partridge is
endemic to western Himalayas.
2. Chestnut breasted partridge is
Endangered according to IUCN.
3. Telangana crab spider do not
construct webs.
4. Telangana crab spider work as
bio-control agents against insects.
Which of the above is NOT correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
4 only
3 and 4 only

Assertion (A): Radar cannot be used to track
thing in water bodies.
Reason (R): Radar uses high electromagnetic
frequency which is absorbed by water and
thus cannot travel more.
of these is true?
54. Consider the following with reference

to the principle of Net neutrality that
has been in news for long. As per the
principle
1. Free internet cannot be given.
2. All traffic on internet should be
treated equally.
3. For the same service, users can
not be charged differently.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

about Project 75, a bilateral joint
project.
1. It is to develop submarine with
joint India and Germany
collaboration.
2. No production has been
undertaken till date under the
project.
3. Vehicles designed under the
project will not be used for
intelligence gathering and stealth
capabilities.
Which of the above is true about Project 75?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above


Page 12
56. Which of the following nations provide

nuclear fuel to India for the purposes
of generating nuclear energy?
1. Russia
2. Kazakhstan
3. Canada
4. Australia
5. USA
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 5 only
2, 4 and 5 only
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2 and 3 only

regard to the terms of reference of the
task force on Inter-linking of rivers set
up by the Government of India.
1. It will not take up Himalayan
rivers in the inter-linking project.
2. Only intra-state rivers can be
interlinked as per the government
orders.
3. Inter-linking work will be taken
under PPP mode of investment.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
58. Which of the following genres were

NOT parts of the trend of the medieval
literature?
1. Bhakti
2. Love ballads
3. Heroic poetry
4. Mystical poetry


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above were parts.
None of the above were parts.
59. The birth of writing and publishing of

novels in Indian literature is
associated with the
a) social reform-oriented movement
of the 19th century
b) writings of Amir Khusro and other
Medieval writers and poets
c) incoming of Christian
missionaries in India
d) early decades of postindependence when freedom of
speech was granted
60. Novels were found to be the most

appropriate medium to eulogize the
intellectual and physical richness of
the past, and reminded Indians about
their obligations and rights. In this
context, novels were written by
1. Bankim Chandra Chattarjee
2. Hari Narayan Apte
3. Rabindranath Tagore
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 13
61. Slowdown in the Indian economy is

associated and aggravated by
slowdown in which of these other
economies?
1. China
2. Japan
3. Europe
4. Russia
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
62. Which of the following economic

indicators have not grown since the
onset of the recent economic slowdown
in India?
1. Gross capital formation as a
percentage of GDP
2. Savings rate as a percentage of
GDP
3. Per capita Net National Income
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
63. Consider the following about money

and credit flow in India.
1. With the recent actions of RBI,
broad money has reduced over the
last years as a percentage of GDP.
2. Scheduled commercial bank credit
has been reducing as a percentage
of GDP since the economic
slowdown in the recent years.


a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
64. Which of the following changes have

been made in the calculation of
headline growth in India?
1. Headline growth rate will now be
measured by GDP at constant
market prices instead of GDP at
factor cost at constant prices.
2. Sector-wise estimates of gross
value added (GVA) will now be
given at basic prices instead of
factor cost.
3. GDP growth data will be released
on a monthly basis for the
information of investors.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
65. The gap between domestic savings and

domestic investment in economics is
definitionally equal to the
a) Current account balance
b) Capital account balance
c) Domestic deficit
d) Reserves of all the scheduled
commercial banks in India
66. Which of the following can be included

in Gross Fixed Capital Formation
(GFCF)?
1. Dwellings
Page 14
2. Cultivated biological resources

3. Intellectual property products
4. Machinery
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
67. The decline in inflation during the last

financial year turned out to be much
faster than was anticipated in the
initial months of the year by the
government. Which of these factors
may have contributed to the same?
1. Persistent decline in crude oil
prices
2. Tight monetary policy
3. Relative stability of rupee
compared to other major
currencies
4. Base effect
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
68. Arrange the following in decreasing

order of their total value in Indian
exports.
1. Manufacturing goods
2. Crude and petroleum products
(including coal)
3. Agriculture and allied products
a)
b)
c)
d)
123
312
321
132

about the performance of the external
sector of India in the last one decade.
1. Net capital flows have never been
higher than the Current Account
Deficit (CAD).
2. Indias foreign exchange reserves
have not increased (rather
decreased).
3. Among the major economies with
a CAD, India is the second largest
foreign exchange reserve holder
after Brazil.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1 only
70. With a zero Current account Deficit,

which of the following can lead to an
increase in the Foreign exchange
reserves of India?
1. Higher export of invisibles
2. Higher portfolio investment
3. Higher External Commercial
Borrowing
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

below.

Page 15

regard to External Commercial
Borrowings (ECBs).
1. Only private sector can use ECBs
to raise resources from abroad.
2. ECBs cannot be used for
investment in stock market or
speculation in real estate.
3. An infrastructure project can be
fully funded by an ECB.
4. A borrower cannot refinance its
existing rupee loan through ECB.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
72. Indias external debt stock can increase

because of an increase in
1. Foreign Direct Investment
2. ECBs
3. Non-resident Indian Deposits
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
73. Out of the four sources of taxation

listed below, which two have
contributed more to the total tax
revenue over last half decade?
1. Income Tax
2. Custom Duty
3. Service Tax
4. Corporation tax


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 4
1 and 3
1 and 4
74. Consider the following sector-wise

comparisons with regard to the Central
Plan outlay in the last two annual
budgets. Plan outlay for
1. Energy is higher than that for
Industry and minerals.
2. Industry and minerals is lower
than that for transport.
3. Social services is higher than that
for energy.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
75. The introduction of the GST would be

a significant step in the field of indirect
tax reforms in India. Consider the
1. GST would be a destination-based
tax as against the present concept
of originbased tax.
2. It would also be levied on interstate supplies.
3. Taxpayers with a turnover below a
certain threshold would be
exempt from GST.
4. GST will be levied only by the
Centre, and from there it will be
appropriated to the states.
below.
Page 16
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
76. The legendary struggle which also

became famous by the name of the
August Revolution in India was
a) Quit India movement
b) Civil Disobedience Movement
c) Non-cooperation movement
d) Swadeshi Movement

events/incidents were precursors to
the Quit India movement?
1. Failure of the Cripps Mission
2. British evacuation (leaving their
non-white subjects) from Malaya
and Burma
because of
Japanese invasion of Burma
3. British raising import duty on
various Indian manufactured
items
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
78. The Quit India movement

1. was not ratified by Indian
National Congress
2. was spearheaded by Gandhi
3. started from Bombay.
4. was aimed at getting dominion
status for India
below.
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
79. Which of the following official appeals

were made by the leadership of the
Quit India movement before launching
the struggle?
1. Government servants to resign
from their posts
2. Soldiers to leave their companies
3. Princely states to declare that they
have withdrawn from the
suzerainty of the British
4. Peasants to refuse paying the land
revenue
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
All of the above
1, 3 and 4 only
4 only
80.A significant feature of the Quit India

Movement was the emergence of what
came to be known as parallel
governments in some parts of the
country. These were
1. Ballia in East U P
2. Tamluk in the Midnapur district
of Bengal
3. Satara in Maharashtra
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Page 17

about the pre-Independence Indian
National Army (INA).
1. It was formed after the failure of
Quit India movement.
2. The idea of the INA was first
conceived in Malaya by Mohan
Singh.
3. The INA was raised by the
Japanese Army and supported by
them till our Independence.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
82. The failure of the Imphal campaign

quashed any hopes of the INA
liberating the nation. The Imphal
campaign was
a) Japanese armies attempt to
destroy the Allied forces at Imphal
and invade India
b) INAs secret operation to invade
India with the help of Burmese
army
c) British armiesattempt to destroy
the Axis forces at Imphal and
invade Imphal

about the Tebhaga movement.
1. It was initiated by the Kisan Sabha
in Bengal.
2. The demand of the movement was
to reduce the share given to
landlords.

3. It was a non-violent movement

based on Satyagraha and
negotiation.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
84. The Warlis movement organized in

Western India was against
1. Forest contractors
2. Money lenders
3. British Bureaucracy
4. Rich farmers
5. Landlords
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 4 and 5 only
1 and 2 only
3, 4 and 5 only
All of the above
85. The British were using political control

to subordinate the Indian economy
and society to the needs of the British
economy and society. Among them
Drain of wealth was caused by
1. Plunder and taxation
2. Employment of Englishmen in
India (Home charges)
3. Investing British capital in India
4. Free and unequal trade with India
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
All of the above
1, 3 and 4 only
4 only
Page 18

Page 19

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
(i)
(iii)
that question.


Page 1
1. Indian art is deeply rooted in religion

and it conduces to fulfilling the
ultimate aim of life, Liberation. It
means
a) A vision of the divine
b) Release from the cycle of birth and
death
c) out of body experience
d) Release from all earthly bondage
and resting in heaven
2. Miniature painting in India existed in

the form of illustrations to the religious
texts in which of the following cults
1. Buddhist
2. Vaishnav
3. Mughal
4. Jain
4. Lomas rishi cave in Bihar is a typical

example of early Indian cave
architecture. If you happen to visit
Lomas cave, which of these things may
come to your notice?
1. Entrance is a representation in
stone of a hut entrance
2. No timber has been used in the
cave
3. A carved frieze of stone-made
elephants
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

1. Mughal paintings were not secular,
while other schools like Pahari had
secular paintings.
2. Art of stone masonry and stone
carving were imported in Ashoka's
times from Persia.
3. Timber was not used in Harappan
architecture.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only


about Buddhist stupas.
1. One cannot enter the stupas.
2. They were constructed by royal
patronage when Buddha was
teaching.
3. Jataka stories have also been
engraved on stupas.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
6. With reference to ecosystem, consider

1. It is self regulating
2. It is self sustaining
Page 2
3. Biosphere can also be called as an

ecosystem
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
All
2 and 3 Only
1 & 2 Only

about the inscriptions found at Aihole,
Karnataka.
1. Sanskrit as well as Tamil has been
used in the inscriptions.
2. The inscription contains the
description of historical defeats of
kingdoms.
3. There is mention about the
poet Kalidasa in the inscriptions.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
8. In Indian architecture,
Mahabalipuram is known to have
1. Rock cut temples
2. Monolithic structures
3. Structural temples
4. Limestone caves
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only


about Nalanda.
1. This place was visited by Buddha
and Mahavira.
2. Nalanda was an important centre of
Pala sculptures.
3. Nalanda was a principal centre of
Mahayana (Buddhism) learning.
4. The Chinese Pilgrims Huien Tsang
and Fa-hien studied at Nalanda.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
10. Consider the following features of

temple architecture.
1. The barrel-shaped tower does not
crown the sanctum sanctorum or
thegarbha-griha
2. There is a Vimana - temple tower
over the main shrine
3. The style consists of three distinct
types of temples - Rekha Deula,
Pidha Deula and Khakhara Deula.
The above mentioned features are found in
the temple architecture of which state in
India?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Orissa
TamilNadu
Karnataka
Madhya Pradesh
11. Which of the following different styles

of architecture have been imbibed in
Hindu temple architecture?
1. Champa architecture
2. Gadag architecture
3. Maru-Gurjara architecture
Page 3
4. Khmer architecture
5. Sreekovil architecture
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All except 1 and 4

All except 2 and 3
All except 5
All of the above

Dravidian style of temple architecture.
1. It is always square in plan.
2. Mandapas always cover and
precede the door leading to the cell.
3. Pillared halls are an invariable
feature of temples.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
13. Which of the following is NOT an

Abiotic component of an ecosystem?
1. Water
2. Soil
3. Humidity
4. Atmosphere
5. Radiation
14. Consider the following about the Pala

dynasty.
1. It ruled eastern-south Asia from 8th
-12th century.
2. Buddhism and Hinduism were
subjugated and suppressed under
Pala dynasty.
3. The Pala school of art flourished in
the Magadha region of Southern
Bihar.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
15. Which of the following features were

infused by Islamic architecture in
India?
1. Use of concrete as a factor of
construction
2. Use of lime mortar as a base for
decoration
3. Use of arches and vaults in
construction
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
3 Only
5 Only
None

16. Which of these are the features of

Indo-Islamic architecture, but not
Hindu architecture?
1. utilisation of kiosks (chhatris)
2. tall towers (minars)
3. half-domed double portals
4. human worship in decorations and
embroidery
Page 4

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
17. Consider the following decorative

elements.
1. Pink sandstone
2. Octagonal forms
3. Shallow water-channels
4. Raising of platforms
5. Rhythm in structures
Which of the above are features of Persian
architecture?
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1, 2 and 5 only
2, 3 and 4 only
18. With reference to migration of an

animal species, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a phenomena of short distance
seasonal movement into new
region
2. A young Atlantic salmon leaving
the river of their birth when they
have reached a few inches in size
can be considered as true migration
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
19. Which of these statements is NOT

correct about the Indus Valley
civilization?
1. People worshipped the Mother
Goddess or Goddess of fertility.
2. Dancing was a part of the culture at
Indus valley.
3. The trade and cultural contacts
were restricted to the other cultures
in the Indus valley.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
20. The abacus of Lion capital at Sarnath is

supported by a bell-shaped base
consisting of a lotus
with dharmachakra. It may best
symbolize
a) Victory of the good over evil
b) Victory of righteousness over
physical force
c) Path of renunciation in Dharma
d) All life is governed by the same set
of laws
21. With reference to Saprotrophic

nutrition, consider the following
statements:
1. It involves processing of dead or
decayed organic matter
2. Organisms involved usually are
protozoa
a)
b)
c)
d)

3 only
1 only
2 only
All of the above
1 Only
Both
None
2 Only
Page 5
22. Buddha is never represented in human

form in Buddhist art before the
Christian era, as his spirituality was
considered too abstract for the
purpose. Which of the following forms
was he represented in then?
1. Empty throne
2. Royal umbrella
3. Wheel of Law
4. Triratna symbol
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
23. In the Gandhara school of art, Buddha

as seated in the typically Indian Yogic
posture is a sculpture style that has
been borrowed from
a) Hellenistic tradition of art
b) Gothic tradition of art
c) Roman sculpture style
24. In Buddhism, the word Bodhisattva is

used for the one who has
a) Attained enlightenment but is not
ready for Nirvana
b) Attained enlightenment, but is not
seeking Nirvana and has decided to
teach others out of his compassion
c) Seeking enlightenment
d) Who became enlightened and then
liberated from the cycle of birth and
death

25. Instead of the classical dignity,

sobriety and simplicity, the sculpture is
now more and more tending towards
ornamentation, creating highly ornate
art objects, with strange and unusual
imaginary creatures, such as half
human, half monsters, etc. This
transformation in sculpture style holds
true for the shift in
a) Gupta sculpture to Medieval
sculpture
b) Buddhist sculpture to Gupta
sculpture
c) Medieval sculpture to Modern
sculpture
d) Buddhist sculpture to Modern
sculpture

about the Kailasa temple at Ellora.
1. It was built by the Chalukyas.
2. It is based on Dravidian style of
architecture.
3. It is a rock-cut temple.
4. It is a part of the Ellora caves.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
27. Consider the following depictions.

1. Ravana shaking Mount Kailasha
and Siva is pressing down the
mountain with his foot.
2. King of the Naga and his queen
seated on a throne attended by a
hand maiden
3. Krishna teaching Arjuna in the
middle of Mahabharata
Page 6
Sculptures depicting which of the above can

be found at Ellora?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
28. Consider the following about Pala

paintings.
1. It is characterised by sinuous line
and subdued tones of colour.
2. It is totally disconnected from the
classical art of Ajanta.
3. The Pala art flourished under the
royal patronage of the Mughals.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above

1. Omnivores are considered as
secondary consumers in a food
chain
2. Herbivores are considered as
tertiary consumers
3. Carnivores are considered as
primary consumers in a food chain
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 Only
1 Only
1 & 2 Only
All
30. Students and pilgrims in from various

countries studies in Buddhist
monasteries. They took back to their
countries examples of Pala Buddhist

art, in the form of bronzes and

manuscripts which helped to carry the
Pala style to
1. Nepal
2. Java
3. Tibet
4. Burma
5. Sri Lanka
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 , 3 and 4 only
2, 4 and 5 only
1, 3 and 5 only
All of the above

Assertion (A): Despite Jainism being present
in Western India, no works motivated by
Jainism are found in Western Indian art.
Reason (R): Jainism did not receive any royal
patronage by the Kings of the Chalukya
Dynasty who ruled Gujarat and parts of
Rajasthan and Malwa.
of these is true?
d) A and R both are incorrect
32. Deccani school of painting made a

significant contribution to the
development of the Mughal style in
North India. The centres of Deccani
school were in
1. Ahmednagar
2. Bijapur
3. Golconda
Page 7
4. Hyderabad
5. Tanjore
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 , 3 and 4 only
2, 4 and 5 only
1, 3 and 5 only
All of the above

about the art of painting in Rajasthani
and Pahari regions.
1. These were largely secular in
character.
2. They drew inspiration from Mughal
school of paintings.
3. Paintings are marked by light
colours and bold drawings.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
2 only

about the Wildlife institute of India.
1. It is an autonomous body.
2. It is under the Ministry of
Environment and Forests.
3. It has recently launched an
initiative for allowing PSU and
Companies to adopt endangered
species.
4. It has proposed that wildlife
conservation efforts spending be
counted under Corporate Social
responsibility (CSR).
below.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above

1. This biome is home to many
species of grasses such as purple
needlegrass, wild oats, foxtail,
ryegrass, and buffalo grass.
2. Rain in these biomes usually occurs
in the late spring and early summer
3. These are known as Pampas in
South America
To which of the following biomes, are the
above statements related to?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Savannah Biome
Tropical Grasslands
Temperate Grasslands
Taiga
36. 20th Law Commissions recent reports

provide several recommendations to
end discrimination against leprosy
patients. Consider the legal state of
affairs regarding leprosy.
1. Leprosy is a valid ground for
divorce under personal laws of
India.
2. Leprosy patients are banned from
Contesting election in local bodies
in some states.
3. Lepers Act permits segregation of
lepers into separate asylums.
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 8

about the recently launched Pradhan
Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana.
1. It is applicable to people of all age
groups.
2. Bank account is mandatory for
taking benefit from the scheme.
3. The insurance will be offered by
private insurance companies which
will be regulated by LCI and IRDA.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
38. RBI has recently mandated the banks

to keep side emergency fund called
Counter cyclical capital buffer. What
purposes will be served by this?
1. It will restrict the banking sector
from indiscriminate lending in the
periods of excess credit growth.
2. It will help RBI to manage foreign
exchange reserves better.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
39. With reference to desert plants,

1. They have a short life and the
capacity to leave behind very hardy
forms of propagation
2. They usually have small leaves and
tiny roots to save water

3. Creosote bush is one of the

examples of desert plants
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
All

Assertion (A): Ocean acts as the largest
carbon sink on earth.
Reason (R): The difference in partial pressure
of the CO2 between seawater and air facilitate
gaseous exchange.
of these is true?
d) A and R both are incorrect
41. One way to increase the carbon

sequestration efficiency of the oceans
is to add micrometre-sized iron
particles in a certain form in the ocean.
The sequestration efficiency of oceans
increases because
a) Iron has the effect of stimulating
growth of plankton in the ocean.
b) It increases the rate of dissolution
of CO2 with ocean water.
c) Adding Iron increases the surface
density of the Ocean allowing for
easier gas exchange.
d) Iron helps increase the
photosynthesis rate of large marine
plants.
Page 9
42. The dissolved carbon dioxide is

important in the ocean because
1. It regulates PH of seawater and
thereby health of marine
organisms.
2. It helps marine organisms form
calcareous material.
3. It helps Phytoplanktons in
photosynthesis.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
43. With reference to atmospheric gases,

1. The percentage of carbon dioxide in
atmosphere is more than that of
argon gas
2. No other gas found above
troposphere zone of the
atmosphere
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
44. The Critically Endangered Great

Indian Bustards is found in which of
the following states of India?
1. Rajasthan
2. Gujarat
3. Maharashtra
4. Haryana
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1 only
All of the above
45. Using bio-refining, It is possible to

obtain bio-ethanol from
1. Sea weeds
2. Corn
3. Rice straw
4. Coconut
5. Water hyacinth
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 5 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
46. Consider the following benefits.

1. Reducing coastal eutrophication
2. Cutting down on global warming
3. Obtaining fertilizers
Which of these can come from growing
extensive sea weeds in the ocean?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

can deliver justice only in matters
pertaining to which of the following
subjects?
1. Air pollution
2. Climate change
3. Biodiversity
4. Conservation of Water

below.

Page 10

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
48. In high temperature high humidity

weather, why does it appear that we
are sweating more profusely as
compared to even hotter but dry
weather situations?
a) Sweat doesnt evaporate quickly
due to the high relative humidity
outside
b) In hot humid conditions,
hypothalamus (gland controlling
secretion) becomes more active
c) Human body releases more water
in conditions of high humidity
d) High humidity blocks the secretion
glands on the skin and the humidity
sticks on the skin

about 3D printing technology.
1. Objects produced cannot be
circular in shape.
2. Ultraviolet light lasers are used in
the printing process of adding
layers.
3. It cannot be used to produce
components used in aerospace.
4. Human organs can be produced
using 3D bio-printers.
Choose the correct statements using the
codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

50. The Rajya Sabha recently passed The

Rights of Transgender Persons Bill,
2014. It provides for
1. Reservation of transgenders in
public educational institutions and
government jobs.
2. Establishment of a special
transgender rights court.
3. Right for transgenders to adopt
children
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
51. With reference to lentic ecosystem,

1. A wetland ecosystem is an example
of lentic ecosystem
2. In a lentic ecosystem, bacteria are
present only in the benthic zone i.e.
which comprises the bottom and
shore regions.
Which of the above stateents is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
None
Both
1 Only
2 Only
52. Consider the following about ESamiksha designed by National

Informatics Centre (NIC).
1. It is a part of the Digital India
program.
2. It is mandatory for all the states to
adopt and integrate this system in
their governance model.
Page 11
3. Using E-Samiksha, District

Magistrates can get directly in
touch with the panchayats and
block heads.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
53. Consider the following about the INS

Visakhapatnam.
1. It is built entirely of Indian steel.
2. It is capable of launching BrahMos
missiles from its deck.
3. It has been designed and processed
in Israel.
4. The ship does not have a weapon
system of its own.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
54. The remora species that rides attached

to sharks and other fishes is a best
example of
a) Mutualism
b) Parasitism
c) Commensalism

Indian missile Astra.
1. It is a land to air missile.
2. This is the smallest of the missiles
developed by DRDO.

3. It can chase enemy aircraft at

supersonic speeds.
4. It has been developed indigenously.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
56. With reference to Profundal Zone of

pond ecosystem, consider the
1. It is well lit zone
2. This is the main photosynthetic
body of the lake.
3. This zone produces food and
oxygen
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 3 Only
All
57. As per a recent survey less than 30%

eligible women got the benefits of
Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana
(IGMSY). Consider the following about
IGMSY.
1. It provides partial wage
compensation to pregnant and
lactating women.
2. It is applicable only upto a
maximum of two children from a
mother.
3. It aims at promoting institutional
deliveries.
below.
Page 12
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
58. The Health minister recently launched

Mission Indradhanush for vaccination
against 7 preventable diseases. It
covers
1. Tuberculosis
2. Malaria
3. Whooping cough
4. Rotavirus
5. Rubella
6. Tetanus
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 4 and 6 only
2, 4 and 5 only
1, 3 and 6 only
All of the above
59. The earthquakes near the Himalayan

region are generally triggered due to
the collision/friction between which of
the following tectonic plates?
a) Indo-Eurasian plate and Central
Asian plate
b) Eurasian plate and Australian plate
c) Indian plate and Eurasian plate
d) Indian plate and Central Asian
plate
60. It is a biological interaction between

two or more organisms that is
detrimental to at least one of them; it
can also be an antagonistic association
between an organism and the
metabolic substances produced by
another.

In the above questions, it refers to:

a) Antibiosis
b) Parasitism
c) Predation
d) Colonisation
61. Prime Minister recently inaugurated

Indias Healthcare Tourism Portal. It
will be useful for Medical tourism as it
provides information on
1. Ayurveda and wellness centres
2. Details such as costs related to
treatment in hospitals
3. Visa procedures
4. Travel and stay
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. It is a partly enclosed coastal body
of brackish water with one or more
rivers or streams flowing into it.
2. They form a transition zone
between river environments and
maritime environments
The above statements describe which of the
following given geographical features?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Isthmus
Peninsula
Estuary
None of the above
Page 13
63. India and Bangladesh have decided to

take concerted conservation efforts to
protect the rare spectacled Langur.
about it.
1. It is found in Patharia Hills Reserve
Forest.
2. The primary focus of this
conservation effort is to preserve
the habitat for the survival of the
primates.
3. It is the ancestor of the endangered
Hoolock Gibbon and Golden
Langur.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. In interactions in a biotic
community, colonization is
considered as a Positive interaction
between species
2. In interactions in a biotic
community, competition is
considered as a Negative
interaction between species
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
65. India was placed at 117th position in

the recently released World Happiness
Report 2015 among the 158 studied
nations. Consider the following.

1. The report was published by the

World Health Organization
(WHO).
2. The study for the report was done
by the United Nations
intergovernmental wing.
3. The happiness report takes account
of the social freedom and
corruption levels in
the country.
4. The report will be placed before the
United Nations general assembly
for a resolution and further
discussion.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
66. With reference to micronutrients,

1. Iodine, vitamin and iron are some
of the micronutrients needed for
humans
2. Zinc, one of the micronutrients
needed by plants, is necessary
for osmosis and ionic balance
a)
b)
c)
d)
None
2 Only
Both
1 Only

about the occurrence of Volcanoes.
1. There are no active volcanoes in the
coastal belt of South America.
2. The Andes Mountains and
Indonesian region come under the
Ring of Fire.
Page 14
3. Volcanoes are also found in Midoceanic ridges.

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
68. With reference to energy flow in an

ecosystem, consider the following
statements:
1. All energy needed by living
organisms is provided by reduction
process of sugar through
respiration and release of energy
2. The loss of energy through body
heat is far greater in warm-blooded
animals, which must eat much
more frequently than those that are
cold-blooded
3. The energy is passed on
from trophic level to trophic level
and each time about 10% of the
energy is lost
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
1 Only
3 Only
1 and 3 Only
69. India has emerged as the fourth largest

supplier of generic medicines to the
United States. Some countries impose
stringent regulatory measures on
import of generic medicines from
India. Which of these regions do not
allow such imports?
1. West Asia
2. Africa
3. Europe


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above
70. Under the United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) regime
1. Developing countries do not have
any obligation to share reports
about HFCs
2. Developed nations are bound to cut
green house gas emissions.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
71. With reference to deciduous forests,

1. They lose their leaves to conserve
water or to better survive winter
weather conditions
2. They have xylem vessels with larger
diameters and therefore a greater
rate of transpiration (and hence
CO2 uptake as this occurs
when stomata are open) during the
summer growth period.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
Page 15
72. Mosquitoes are more attracted to some

human than others. Which of the
following factors play a role in it?
1. Body odour
2. Amount of CO2 in exhaled air
3. Body heat
4. Colour of clothing
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
All of the above
73. The basic cause of Monsoon type of

climate is
a) Difference in the heating and
cooling of land and sea
b) Deflection of trade winds by coriolis
force
c) Change of seasons frequently in
various parts of a sub-continent
d) The periodic occurrence of warm
currents near oceans that border
continents
74. With reference to ecological pyramids,

cnsider the following statements:
1. The bottom of the pyramid
represents tertiary producers
2. The primary producers take energy
from the environment in the form
of sunlight and are located at the
apex of the pyramid
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
75. For the survival of winter cereals sown

in Punjab, which of the following rains
is vital?

a)
b)
c)
d)
North-east Monsoons
Cyclonic rainfall
Convectional rainfall
Both (a) and (c)

about Tropical Marine climate of
India.
1. It is found at eastern coasts of
India.
2. It receives steady rainfall from
trade winds all the time.
3. It is not prone to tropical cyclones.
4. Trees found in this climate region
are normally deciduous.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
1, 3 and 4 only

1. The eastern coasts of continents
within the tropics have much
heavier rainfall than the interior or
the west coasts.
2. There is a marked difference in the
temperature between the east and
west coasts of countries in latitude
20 degrees to 35 degrees north.
The above is because of the effect of
a) Eastern cyclonic disturbances in
the tropical areas
b) Jet streams in tropical areas
c) Presence of warm currents on the
eastern coasts at the tropics
d) Continentality due to several
enclosed areas in the tropics
Page 16
78. Burmese Python in Florida state of

USA is considered as
a) Invasive species
b) Non-invasive species
c) Migratory species

about rainfalls in various parts of the
world.
1. Both the length of the rainy season
and total amount of rainfall
decreases appreciably from the
equatorial region polewards
towards the desert fringes.
2. In the Southern hemisphere, rainy
season is during the Southern
Summer.
3. The Sudan type of climate has
heavy rainfalls due to extreme
diurnal ranges.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
80.The aridity of the hot deserts is mainly

due to the effects of
1. Off-shore trade winds
2. Off-shore cold currents
3. Continentality
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

81. Amongst the mid-latitude deserts,

many are found on plateaux and are at
a considerable distance from the sea.
Which of the following are such
deserts?
1. Gobi
2. Turkestan
3. Patagonian
4. Sahara
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
82. The mid-latitude deserts that are

sheltered by high mountains around
them receive rainfall by
1. Depressions
2. Convectional rainfall
3. Orographic rainfall
codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
83. The Warm temperate western margin

climate is found in relatively few areas
of the world. The basic cause of this
type of climate is
a) Shifting of wind belts
b) Change in the direction of cold
currents
c) Presence of cyclonic depressions
d) Regular visit of Polar winds to the
regions
Page 17

1. At the lowest trophic level (the
bottom of the food chain), plants
convert about 1% of the sunlight
they receive into chemical energy.
2. The efficiency with which energy or
biomass is transferred from one
trophic level to the next is called
the ecological efficiency.
3. Consumers at each level convert on
average only about 10% of the
chemical energy in their food to
their own organic tissue
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 3 Only
All
85. The prominence of local winds around

the Mediterranean Sea can be
explained by which of the following
topographic factors?
1. High Alps in the North
2. Open Atlantic on the West
3. Cold air masses from the
continental interiors
4. Sahara deserts in the South
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
86. Which of the following kinds of

vegetation are NOT likely to be found
in the Mediterranean regions?
1. Evergreen coniferous forests
2. Grass
3. Deciduous forests
below.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
87. Chinook, a famous local wind, comes

on the eastern slopes of Rockies in
Canada. It is useful because
1. It makes the snow covered pastures
grazable.
2. It is a hot wind and warms the local
climate.
3. It brings moderate amount of
rainfall with it.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
88. Which of the following is/are

autotrophs?
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Red Algae
3. Fungi
4. Green Algae
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
3 and 4 Only
1, 2 and 4 Only
89. The recent turnaround of the external

sector and the lowering of the current
Account deficit can be attributed to
which of the following factors?
1. Lowering of international prices of
crude petroleum
2. Restrictions on gold imports
3. Trade diversification process
Page 18

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

1. Predators are usually located at the
third trophic level in an ecological
pyramid
2. Decomposers are part of the first
trophic level of the food chain
Which of the above statemens is/are
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
91. Since the recent economic slowdown in

India, which of the following imports
items has registered a decline in
growth?
1. Capital goods
2. Crude oil related products
3. Textile and allied products
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
92. With reference to CO2 in ecosystem,

1. The concentration of Carbon
Dioxide is more than oxygen in
water
2. Rising CO2 will stimulate plant
growth in an ecosystem


a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
93. A keystone species is a species that
a) Has high biomass and crucial role
in a community
b) Has low biomass but huge role in a
community
c) Has minimal effect on an ecosystem
even if its loss is huge
d) Dwells as parasite on larger
animals
about the state of economic affairs
since the beginning of the millennium.
1. Increasing use of imported inputs
has generally caused a decline in
the domestic value added share of
total exports.
2. The foreign value added share in
exports has increased indicating
deepening of the process of
international production
fragmentation.
Which of the above is are/true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
95. Which of the following schemes had

been implemented as a part of Indias
Foreign Policy?
1. Focus Market Scheme
2. Vishesh Krishi and Gram Udyog
Yoajana
3. Focus Product schemes
4. Market Development Assistance
Page 19

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
96. An ecotone is a
a) Transition area between two
biomes
b) Region where a biome ends
c) Region where ecology is protected
from external influences
97. Indian trade portal was launched at
the end of last year aimed at providing
vital information to Indian Industry.
Which of the following information
will be provided by the portal?
1. Most favoured nation (MFN) tariff
2. Details of all Trade agreements in
force
3. Platform for foreign buyers to
contact Indian suppliers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
98. The Trade Facilitation Agreement

(TFA), which was also endorsed by
India at the Ninth Ministerial
Conference of WTO, is basically aimed
at
1. Use of electronic payments
2. Risk management techniques
3. Giving all member nations of WTO
the Most favoured Nation (MFN)
Status

4. Removal of ban on certain

commodities for all member
nations
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
99. If the Indian rupee depreciates against

Dollar persistently for a long period of
time, yet it will not affect Indias
overall trade scenario if
a) Effective exchange rate does not
change much
b) Real effective exchange rate does
not change much
c) Nominal effective exchange rate
does not change much
d) Foreign exchange reserves remain
constant
100.
The Capital account in the
external sector consists of
1. External assistance
2. External Commercial Borrowings
(ECBs)
3. Short-term debt
4. NRI deposits
5. Invisibles
6. Portfolio investment
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All except 2, 5 and 6

All except 3 and 4
All except 1 and 6
All except 5
Page 20

Page 21

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 150
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
(iii)
that question.
Page 1
1. Recently the Union government

cancelled licences of nearly 9,000
Non-Governmental Organisations in
an order issued by the Ministry of
Home affairs. This was done because
a) an off late IB report had
recommended banning all NGOs
that receive foreign funding
b) these NGOs were involved in antidevelopmental activities in various
parts of India
c) these NGOs flouted governmental
norms and accepted projects
radically different that what they
were licensed for
d) these NGOs failed to file their
annual returns and details of
foreign funds received when asked
by the government
about Swayambhunath Stupa located
in Kathmandu.
1. It is worlds youngest Buddhist
shrine.
2. It is one of the seven UNESCOlisted world heritage sites of South
Asia.
3. It has been built out of one single
large rock.
4. The Indian government funds the
conservation of this shrine.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
None of the above
3. Climate change will affect wildlife

directly and indirectly as it may lead to
change in
1. Weather patterns
2. Food that the wildlife feeds on
3. Habitat of the Wildlife

4. Species composition of a particular
region
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
4. India and Japan have recently signed a

Five-point action agenda to increase
bilateral trade and investment between
the two nations. But, in some areas
cooperation is not there. These areas
are
1. Building Industrial townships in
India
2. Strategic sectors
3. IT Sector
4. Agriculture
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
4 only
All of the above
5. In which of the following forms/ways

FDI can be incentivized in the host
country?
1. Export Processing zones
2. Special Economic zones
3. Preferential tariffs
4. Liberalising security markets
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
Page 2
6. A Kathakali performance begins with

the kelikottu, calling the audience to
attention followed by the todayam. It is
a) a devotional number performed
where one or two characters invoke
the blessings of the gods
b) the musicians and drummers
holding the stage entertaining the
audience with an exhibition of their
skills in melappada
c) an orchestra which is also used in
other traditional performing arts of
Kerala
d) a pure dance sequence where the
actor is at great liberty to express
himself and display his skills
7. The Government has proposed to bring
certain changes in the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988. Consider the
following statements about the Act.
1. It covers only the Central
government agencies/bodies and
PSUs.
2. The offences punishable under this
act can be tried by special Judges
only.
3. Police does not have powers to
investigate offences under this
particular Act.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
8. The total precipitation of Siberian

climate is determined by factors such
as
1. Altitude
2. Latitude
3. Proximity to poles
4. Amount of exposure to influence by

westerlies
5. Temperate monsoons on the
eastern side of continents
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2, 4 and 5 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
9. The soils of coniferous forests are

leached, acidic and poor because
1. The evergreen leaves of these
forests provide little leaves for
humus formation
2. decomposition rate of biomass is
low at cold temperatures in
coniferous forests
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
10. The Cool temperate Eastern margin

(laurential) type climate is an
intermediate type of climate between
British and Siberian type climate. This
type of climate is not found in the
Southern hemisphere because
a) only a small section of the southern
hemisphere extends beyond 40
degrees latitude
b) the influence of westerlies is less
stronger because of the large sea
portion in southern hemisphere
c) a large number of warm currents
are present in the southern
hemisphere ocean in comparison to
the cold currents found at same
latitude in Northern hemispheres
Page 3
11. The mission of the Organisation for

Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD) is to
a) promote policies that will improve
the economic and social well-being
of people around the world.
b) promote policies that will improve
the economic and social well-being
of its member nations.
c) promote effective trade policies that
help lower down trade barriers for
its member nations across the
world
d) promote effective trade policies that
help lower down trade barriers for
international trade to flourish
12. Recently some of the eminent Indian
personalities have received highest
civilian awards from some foreign
government. These personalities are
1. CNR Rao
2. Yashwant Sinha
3. Kumar Mangalam Birla
4. LK Advani
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
13. Krishi Vigyaan Kendras (KVKs) work

to support agricultural extension
services to farmers in India. Which of
the following come under their
mandate?
1. Education & training of farmers,
entrepreneurs and voluntary
organizations
2. On farm demonstration of new
technologies
3. Conducting research on Genetically

Modified Organisms (GMOs)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005.
1. Minors are not entitled to relief
under the law.
2. Law can be applicable even to
unmarried couples.
3. The complaint can be filed against
both men and women.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
15. Changes in crude oil prices have a

bearing on Indian Economys
2. Inflation levels
3. Interest rates
4. Exchange rate of Indian rupee
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
Page 4
16. Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) is

an integrated bill payment system
in India offering interoperable and
accessible bill payment service to
customers. Consider the following
about it.
1. Its nodal body will be a private
agency nominated by the
government.
2. It will also protect consumers from
frauds and mischief on e-commerce
transactions.
3. No agents will be involved in BBPS.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
17. RBI recently allowed Indian

companies to issue rupee-denominated
bonds abroad. This is a move towards
a) Full capital account convertibility
b) Full current account convertibility
c) Liberalization of Industrial policy
in India
d) Great autonomy of foreign
exchange markets in India
18. Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOP
Scheme) launched recently under the
National Sports Development Fund
(NSDF) will identify athletes from
which of the following disciplines?
1. Sailing
2. Wrestling
3. Archery
4. Boxing
5. Athletics
below.
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) All of the above
19. Wind is caused due to difference in
temperature and pressure between two
regions. Factors affecting wind
movement can be
1. Latitude
2. Proximity of water bodies
3. Land undulations
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
20. Recently the Central Marine Fish

Research Institute (CMFRI), Kochi has
begun the genetic profiling of The
Indian Mackerel, an important food
fish commonly consumed in South
Asia. Consider the following about it.
1. The fish is commonly found in
warm shallow waters.
2. Regions of maximum population
are along the coasts of the Indian
and West Pacific oceans.
3. No inter-species genetic distinction
is found between these fishes
collected within the Northern
hemisphere.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
a) 1, 3, and 5 only
Page 5
21. When you crack your knuckle it

produces popping sound. This happens
because
a) A cavity/bubble is formed in the
suddenly expanded joint volume
b) the fluid between the joint gets
compressed at high pressure and
produces sound
c) the bones of knuckles counter act
against each other
d) the tissues of knuckles counter act
against each other
22. Eastern Patagonia is a large arid
region. Its aridity can be attributed to
1. Climatic barrier of Southern Andes
2. Frequent and strong influence of
westerlies
3. nearby cold currents
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
23. The meeting of the warm Gulf stream

and cold Labrador current on coastal
waters of the nearby island
(Newfoundland) produces
1. Mist and Fog
2. atmospheric storms
3. Apt fishing grounds
4. frontal systems
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
24. The Kathak dance combines the

elements of and is inspired from?
1. Vaishnavite cult of 15th century in
India
2. The emergence of Raslila in the
Braj region
3. Durbar style impetus from Hindu
courts
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about Kathak dance form.
1. It the only classical dance of India
having links with Muslim culture.
2. It is the only form of classical dance
wedded to Hindustani or the North
Indian music.
a)
b)
c)
d)
26.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Arrange these countries/entities in

descending order in their contribution
to cumulative global CO 2.
1. USA
2. China
3. India
4. EU
5. Russia
Choose the correct order from the codes given

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
14253
41523
45123
12345
Page 6
27. In winter, a steep pressure gradient is

set up between the cold interiors of
Mongolia and Siberia, and the warmer
pacific coastlands. As a consequence of
this
1. The continental polar stream flows
outwards as the North-west
monsoon.
2. There is heavy rain on the
windward slopes.
3. Temperature inversion occurs near
the cold interiors.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
28. The Southern continents also have

violent local storms, which though not
as severe as typhoons or cyclones, are
nevertheless significant. In this
context, the Southerly Buster is
1. a cold wind blowing along the coast
of Wales
2. accompanied by heavy thunder and
rain
3. leads to the formation of local
typhoons
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
29. Lai Haraoba is one of the main

festivals still performed in Manipur.
Consider the following about it.
1. It was conceived after the postvaishnavite period.
2. It is also the earliest form of dance

which forms the basis of all stylised
dances in Manipur.
3. The principal performers in this reenact the theme of the creation of
the world.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
30. The cool temperate western margins

1. remain under the permanent
influence of westerlies
2. do not suffer from any cyclonic
activity
3. are not visited by heat waves
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
31. Barley, a member of the grass family, is

a major cereal grain. It can be used as
1. Algicide
2. Fish feed
3. Preservative
4. a cure for cardiovascular diseases
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
Page 7
32. Which of the following are related to

Hindustani Classical music?
1. Sruti
2. Saptak
3. Antara Gandhara
4. Moorcchanas
5. Gramas
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 5 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
33. A characteristic contribution of India

to musical rhythm is the tala. Tala is a
a) scale of melodies
b) cyclic arrangement of time units
c) subsidiary notes of a basic scale of
music
d) unit difference between the various
consecutive pitches within a scale
34. Consider the following about Thumri
form of singing.
1. It is not lyrical in its structure and
presentation.
2. It is essentially a love song.
3. Musical grammar is not adhered to
in Thumri.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
35. Tappa is a popular type heard in

concerts in India. It consists of song
uttered in
1. fast note patterns
2. very simple compositions
3. ragas where strong ragas like

bhairavi dont find a place
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
36. Which of the following musical forms

come under the Carnatic classical
music?
1. Gitam
2. Suladi
3. Svarajati
4. Kirtanam
5. Kriti
6. Pada
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
All except 2 and 3
All of the above
4 only
37. Consider the following about United

Nations Conference on Trade and
Development (UNCTAD).
1. It is governed by its member
states.
2. Member states are elected by UN
General Assembly.
3. UNCTAD organizes the World
Investment Forum every year to
bring greater investment in
developing economies.
4. It conducts cutting-edge research
and analysis in the field of
investment for sustainable
development.
below.
Page 8
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
38. In the Natya Shastra, compiled by

Bharat Muni dated 200 B.C.-200 A.D.,
musical instruments have been divided
into four main categories on the basis
of how sound is produced. These are
1. Ghana Vadya
2. Tata Vadya
3. Sushira Vadya
4. Reki Vadya
5. Adoor Vadya
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 4 and 5 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
39. Consider the following about Bhavai a traditional theatre form.

1. It belongs to the region of Madhya
Pradesh.
2. It is an entirely romantic play
centred around love and affection.
3. It is associated with local deities
and their popular legends.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
3 only
None of the above
40. Krishnattam, folk theatre of Kerala,

came into existence in the middle of
17th century A.D. under the patronage
of King Manavada of Calicut. Consider
the following about it.
1. It is a cycle of eight plays

performed for eight consecutive
days.
2. The episodes are based on the
theme of Lord Krishna.
3. Themes depict victory of good over
evil.
4. Dashavatar performers wear masks
in this theatre.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
None of the above
41. Consider the following features of folk

theatres.
1. performed by various castes to
appease and worship spirits
2. colourful costume and beautiful
headgears
3. Also called as Gods dance
Which local theatre has these features?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Koodiyaattam
Theyyam
Mudiyettu
Yakshagaana

Therukoothu, the most popular form
of folk drama of Tamil Nadu.
1. It is performed to achieve rain
harvest.
2. It is based on the lives of Ravana.
3. It cannot be performed at temples.
4. It also draws inspiration from
Puranas.
below.
Page 9
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 only
None of the above
43. Consider the following about the art of

puppetry in India.
1. The earliest reference to the art of
puppetry is found in
Natyashashtra.
2. They are mostly based on epics and
legends.
3. Rod puppetry is not practiced in
India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
44. In Performance in Services, an

International Comparison (year on
year) tells us that
1. Indias service sector grew fastest
for the period 2001-13.
2. Service sector in U.S. has suffered
from instances of negative growth
in last one decade.
3. India is the only nation that has
able to maintain a positive growth
rate in services sector since the
economic recession of 2008.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
45. As accepted internationally, which of

the following factors differentiates
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from
portfolio investment?
a) Control of ownership
b) Origin of investment
c) Entity of Investment
d) Outgoing and Incoming
46. Manipur dance has a large repertoire
of popular forms. Some of them are
1. Ras
2. Sankirtana
3. Thang-ta
4. Parengs
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above

Sattriya dance form.
1. It was conceived to propagate
Vaishnava faith.
2. It has not been influenced by
Assamese local folk dances.
3. The dance form is secular in
character.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
Page 10
48. The Services sector had the highest

share in Gross capital formation (GCF)
in the Economy for the last two
financial years. Which of the following
sub-sectors contributed for GCF the
most?
1. Real estate
2. Ownership of dwelling
3. Professional services
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
49. Decision-making in OECD is vested in

the OECD council which consists of
1. One representative from each
member country
2. Elected representatives from five
member countries by rotation
3. A representative of European
Commission
4. Secretary-general of UN
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
50. At present, India is engaged in

bilateral Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
negotiations with which of the
following countries?
1. Canada
2. Thailand
3. Zimbabwe
4. Israel
5. New Zealand
6. Australia

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All except 2 and 3

All except 1 and 6
All except 3
All except 4 and 5
51. Which of the following is NOT covered

under a Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?
1. Free movement of people across
the border of two countries
2. Reducing trade barrier for services
3. Coordination in fiscal and
monetary policy
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about the World Travel & Tourism
Council (WTTC).
1. It is an inter-governmental body.
2. It includes representation from the
private sector too.
3. WTTC campaigns for governments
to implement policies that ensure
the business environment is
conducive to the growth of Travel &
Tourism.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 11
53. The Chhau dances of Orissa is a form

of Indian
a) tribal martial dance
b) narration of legends of local heroes,
kings and deities
c) folk theatre
d) dance in leaping and crouching in
twirling patterns
54. The folk music and dances of
agricultural communities celebrate the
rhythms of daily life. Together these
dances have formed a vast reservoir
from which the classical dances have
drawn sustenance. The classical dances
are
1. Sattriya
2. Kuchipudi
3. Odissi
4. Bhavai
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

Natyashashtra, an ancient Indian
treatise on performing arts.
1. It is traditionally attributed to
the Sage Bharata.
2. It deals with stage design, music,
dance, makeup, and primarily with
aspects of stagecraft.
3. The Natya Shastra is based upon
the Gandharva Veda.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
56. In an international comparison of

tourist performance, the nations which
have the highest international tourist
arrivals and highest international
tourist receipts (income) respectively
are
a) USA and France
b) India and USA
c) India and Spain
d) France and USA
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC).
1. It is an agency under the UN.
2. Membership of IPCC is open to all
members of United Nations
Environment Program (UNEP).
3. The IPCC does not carry out its own
original research.
4. The ultimate objective of the
UNFCCC is to stabilize greenhouse
gas concentrations in the
atmosphere at a sustainable level.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
58. The ecological overshoot problem

essentially means
a) the ecological footprint is larger
than the biocapacity of the
population
b) unsustainable ecology due to
anthropogenic emissions
c) increasing population of lower
trophic levels in an ecosystem
overshooting the higher trophic
levels
Page 12
59. Indian Space Research Organisation

(ISRO) recently successfully tested an
indigenous cryogenic engine. Consider
the following about a cryogenic engine.
1. It is more efficient as it provides
more thrust for every kilogram of
propellant
burnt.
2. Cryogenic fuels are extremely clean
as they give out only water while
burning.
3. It can be used in interplanetary
probes and manned space missions
by India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
60. Consider the following about some of

the regional songs and their roles in
communities.
1. Bhuta song in Kerala is used to
ward away evil ghosts and spirits.
2. Bhakha form of folk music in
Jammu is sung when harvesting is
done.
3. Sana Lamok in Manipur is sung to
evoke the spirit of the presiding
deity.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
61. The Gulf type of climate is the best for

growing cotton because it has
1. more than six months frost free
2. frequent light rain showers
3. long bright sunshine periods
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
62. Bharatnatyam dance is known to

be ekaharya because
a) one dancer takes on many roles in a
single performance
b) It is performed music and dance as
offerings to the deities, in the
temple courtyards
c) It is an abstract piece combining
pure dance with the recitation of
sound syllables.
d) the raga, singer and dancer flow in
one synchronic rhythm
63. The logo for International Day of Yoga
has recently been approved by the
Government of India. Consider the
following about the elements of the
logo.
1. Folding of both hands in the logo
reflects the union of individual
consciousness with universal
consciousness.
2. The brown leaves in the logo
symbolise the earth element.
3. The sun in the logo symbolise the
source of energy and inspiration.
4. The logo has also been adopted by
the United Nations General
Assembly (UNGA).
below.
Page 13
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above

has recently ordered a complete ban on
burning of any kind of garbage, leaves,
plastic waste and rubber in the open in
Delhi-National Capital Region (NCR).
What harmful gaseous emissions can
come out of such burning?
1. Dioxins
2. Furan
3. Nitrogen oxides
4. Methane
5. Hydrochloric acid
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All except 3 and 5

All except 1 and 2
All except 5
All except 4
65. FDI equity inflows in Services sector

cumulatively since 2000 has been
highest in
a) Construction development
b) Hotel & Tourism
c) Telecommunications
d) Computer Software and Hardware
66. Which two sub-sectors had the highest
share in Indias major export services
in the last two financial years?
1. Computer services
2. Professional and consulting
services
3. R&D services
4. Business services
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 4
67. Delhis Indira Gandhi International
Airport (IGIA) has been adjudged the
worlds best airport for the year 2014.
It is run by the Delhi International
Airport Limited (DIAL) which is
a) a joint venture between Delhi
Government and Central
government - Airport Authority of
India
b) run solely by the Central
government Directorate General
of Civil Aviation
c) a private agency licensed by the
Central government
d) a joint venture between the Airport
Authority of India and a private
sector firm
about the Nuclear energy status of
India.
1. India is among the leading
producers of Nuclear energy in the
World.
2. No nuclear power project in India
has been built with indigenous
technology.
3. While only Central government can
sanction nuclear projects, state
governments can also initiate
standalone nuclear projects.
4. There is no Thorium based
operational nuclear power plant in
India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
4 only
None of the above
Page 14
69. The outstanding feature of Carnatic

music is its X system, in the concept
of which, the ideal or 'absolute music'
is reached, and the highly developed
and intricate Y system, which has
made it extremely scientific and
systematic and unique in all respects.
Here X and Y are
a) Sruti and Tala
b) Raga and Tala
c) Sruti and Raga
d) Prabandhas and Raga
70. Consider the following matches of
regional music to the region they
belong to.
1. Rasiya Geet Rajasthan
2. Pankhida Punjab
3. Lotia Rajasthan
4. Mando Goa
Choose the correct matches from the above
using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
71. In the regional song Laman sung in

Himachal Pradesh
a) Local boys and girls sing the song
in replies to each other from
different mountain peaks.
b) women sing folk songs during early
rainy season
c) family members sing every time a
new one is born in the family
d) local deity is worshipped and
praised for better harvests the next
season
72. Powada is the traditional folk art from

Maharashtra. Consider the following
about it.
1. In this narratives are always odes in
praise of an individual hero or an
incident or place.
2. the tempo is fast and controlled by
the main singer
3. It is sung on the third day after the
new moon or amavasya of
shraavana month.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
73. India has been following actionoriented policies to bring rapid

development to its people while
purposefully addressing climate
change. Which of these stands have
been taken by India at global forums?
1. Historical responsibilities of
developed countries and equity in
access to global atmospheric
resources should continue to be the
basis of defining mitigation
commitments.
2. The responsibility of providing
climate related financial assistance
to the developing countries lies
with the developed countries.
3. The developed countries should
provide free climate related
technology transfer to developing
countries without the intellectual
property rights price-tag.
below.
Page 15
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
74. Consider the following about the Clean

Development Mechanism (CDM).
1. It has been defined under the Kyoto
protocol.
2. Developed countries can get
emission reduction credits by
supporting environment friendly
projects in developing countries.
3. One company can trade emission
certificates with another company
in the same developing country
under CDM.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
75. The Warm temperate Eastern Margin

(China type) climate is
1. strongly influenced by maritime
influence
2. a modified form of monsoonal
climate
3. typified by a cool dry winter
4. scarce in rainfall
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 16

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
(i)
(iii)
that question.


Page 1
1. If a state government receives funding

under the National Wetland
Conservation Programme (NWCP), it
means that
1. The funds are to be used strictly for
conserving wetlands by the state
governments only.
2. Research work on wetlands by
states will not be financed under
the scheme.
3. Wetlands coming under Montreux
record only will be considered
eligible for state funding.
Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above

1. If the intensity of an earthquake is
I (one) on the Mercelli Table, this
means there will be total
destruction including the
possibility of objects thrown into
air from the ground
2. Most aftershocks are considered
dangerous because of their higher
magnitude than that of the
mainshock
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None

3. With reference to the aquatic plant

Water Hyacinth, consider the following
statements:
1. It grows only in tropical and
rainforest zones.
2. Leaves are killed by frost and salt
water.
3. It is considered as an invasive
species in lakes outside its native
area.
4. The roots of the plant naturally
absorb pollutants, including lead,
mercury and strontium.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
4. Tackling the presence of detergents in

urban water bodies is becoming a
serious issue. Consider the following
with reference to it.
1. Influx of detergent water can result
in an explosion of algal and water
weeds.
2. It may deplete a water body of
oxygen.
3. Sea weeds if introduced gradually,
can act as phytoremediators in
degrading detergents present in a
water body.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 2
5. Which of the following is/are the

reasons for the growing threat to Great
Indian Hornbills?
1. Habitat loss
2. Reduction in wild berries in forests
3. Global warming
4. Poaching
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
6. An automobile company in Germany

has recently come up with synthetic
diesel that can be used as a fuel in cars.
This synthetic diesel will be made up of
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Water
3. Bio-ethanol
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
3 only
7. Consider the following with reference

to the government imposed ban on
marine fishing during breeding period:
1. It does not apply to the Exclusive
Economic Zone (EEZ).
2. Banning fishing within the
territorial waters of India is in the
jurisdiction of the state
governments.
3. No foreign fishing vessel is allowed
in Indian waters.


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
8. Government has taken a number of

steps to protect confidential
information pertaining to Defence
Sector from Cyber-attack. These
include
1. Setting up of Cyber Operation
Centres for threat management and
mitigation
2. Operational networks of the Armed
Forces are air gapped from internet
3. Defence sector uses dedicated
servers connected directly to the
mains internet servers in the USA.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
9. Consider the following:

1. Vienna Convention (1963)
2. Paris Convention (1960)
3. Brussels Supplementary
Convention (1963)
All the three above conventions are related to
a) Eliminating chmeical weapons
b) Combating smuggling of parts of
wild animals
c) Nuclear liability
d) Dealing with illegal immigrants
into Europe
Page 3
10. Adulteration of Milk and Milk

Products has been on the agenda of the
Food Safety and Standards Authority
of India (FSSAI) for the last few years.
As per FSSAI, inclusion of which of the
above have been used in the
adulteration of milk, which are
punishable under the law?
1. Presence of Glucose
2. Sub-standard Fat content
3. Skim milk powder
4. Urea
2. It includes Japan and South Korea

also.
3. It sponsors an exclusive ASEAN
bank dedicated to finance member
nations.
4. The ASEAN region is economically
a single market.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
11. Consider the following pairs:

1. Seshachalam hills Biosphere
Reserve: Himachal Pradesh
2. Lohabarrack Salt Water Crocodile
Sanctuary : Orissa
3. Talley Valley Wildlife Sanctuary :
Arunachal Pradesh
4. Betla National park : Jharkhand
Which of the above pair(s) is/are correctly
matched?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
4 only
2 and 3 only
12. With reference to a grouping of

countries called as ASEAN, Consider
the following:
1. India is not a founding member of
ASEAN.


1. The major part of basins of Bhavani
and Amaravati Rivers, both major
tributaries of River Kaveri, lies in
the state of Karnataka
2. Unlike other rivers of peninsular
India, River Kaveri is perennial
thanks to contribution of rainfall
both from Southwestern and
Northeastern monsoon winds
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
14. The Union Cabinet approved the

flagship Namami Gange Program
which integrates the efforts to clean
and protect the Ganga river in a
comprehensive manner. Consider the
1. The program will be implemented
by the Ministry of Water Resources.
2. The program will be 100% funded
by the Centre.
Page 4
3. Bio-remediation and in-situ

treatment will not be adopted by
the program to clean Ganga as they
may degrade the water quality.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only

terms/hypothesis/theories are
concerned with the evolution of species
on Earth?
1. Lamarckism
2. Pangenesis
3. Incrementalism
4. Genetic hitchhiking
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
17. The Union Cabinet has recently

approved for introduction of the
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Bill,
2015 in Parliament. The bill
1. will be applicable to state owned
forests too.
2. creates National Compensatory
Afforestation Fund (CAF) authority
3. excludes cases of compensatory
afforestation from the purview of
the National Green tribunal (NGT)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
18. The skill of camouflage can be

observed in which of the following
species?
1. Stone flounder
2. Leopards
3. Leaf-tailed gecko
below.
16. The shale gas potential as estimated by

the government lies in which of the
following selected sedimentary basins/
sub basins?
1. Cambay
2. Damodar
3. Cauvery
4. Krishna-Godavari
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
19. A Minister is NOT eligible for election

to which of these Parliamentary
Committees?
1. Committee on Estimates
2. Public Accounts Committee
3. Committee on Public Sector
Undertakings (PSUs)
Page 5

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
20. Which of the following add(s) nitrogen

or help in nitrogen fixation in the
nitrogen cycle on the planet earth?
1. Volcanic action
2. Lightning
3. Precipitation
4. Decomposition of plants and
animals
22. Oxygen in water is vital for aquatic

organisms. The level of oxygen in
water can be depleted by which of the
following?
1. Diffusion to air
2. Heat pollution
3. Photosynthetic activity of aquatic
plants
4. Presence of bio-degradable waste
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4
1 and 3
2, 3 and 4 only

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
21. Scavengers are important in the food

web as they help clean the earth of
organic garbage keeping. Which of the
following are scavengers?
1. Bear
2. Seagulls
3. Racoons
4. Marine eels
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above

23. Ramya, a native of Tamil Nadu, is

moving into Sri Lanka to permanently
reside there and become its citizen in
the future. If she moves and settles in
Sri Lanka, she is a
a) Migrant
b) An immigrant
c) An emigrant
d) Both immigrant and emigrant
24. If you travel across Nilgiri Hills, you

are likely to see which of these native
vegetations?
1. Eucalyptus
2. Sholas
3. Wattle
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 6
25. Which of the following are major

pollutants released by Nuclear power
plants?
1. Strontium
2. Tritium
3. Mercury
4. Sulphur dioxides
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
26. When you dine out at a restaurant,

these two taxes appear on your bill
other than the service charge.
1. Service Tax
2. VAT
Who collects these taxes?
a) Both by State government
b) Both by Central government
c) Service tax by Central government;
and VAT by state governments
d) Service tax by State government;
and VAT by both Central and state
governments
27. An Angle investor gives fund to

a) large industries at their time of
incurring losses
b) renovate and replace damaged
equipments in industries that
suffered from a natural disaster
c) finance budding start-ups usually
in exchange for ownership equity
d) help young companies as a
philanthropic grant
28. Which of the following changes in

India necessitated a shift from
Planning to Policy giving rise to the
NITI Ayog?
1. Expansion in Demography
2. Shift towards market economy
3. Increasing global integration
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
29. Which of these items are counted

under the Net Income from Abroad
(NIA) while calculating Gross National
Product (GNP)?
1. Foreign Institutional Investment
(FII)
2. Private remittances
3. Imports and Exports
4. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
30. The Current Account reflects the

position of the external sector of the
economy. The Current account deficit
includes
1. Foreign direct Investment
2. Foreign portfolio investment
3. Loans taken by the government
4. Grants given to the foreign nations
below:

Page 7
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
None of the above
31. The term Liquidity Adjustment

facility, frequently appearing in news,
is a
a) Monetary policy tool which allows
the central bank to tweak the liquid
money available with the banks
b) Monetary policy tools which allows
the Central bank to control the
issue of government securities in
the market
c) fiscal policy tool used by the
government to control upward
liquidity pressures in the economy
d) fiscal policy tool used by the
government to control credit issued
by the Central bank to the other
banks
32. Business Correspondents (BCs) or

Bank Mitras help in last mile
connectivity to further financial
inclusion. As per the Jan Dhan Yojana,
what is the eligibility criterion to
become a Bank Mitra?
a) The individual should be individual
owners of kirana shops/PCOs etc.
or agents of insurance companies in
India
b) The individual should be a retired
government employee or had
served in the local government
c) Any individual who has completed
18 years of age can become Bank
Mitra.
d) The individual should be above 18
years of age and should have at
least secondary education

33. In the Indian economy, which of these

purposes is/are served by a Reverse
Repo rate?
1. Regulating the money supply in the
economy
2. Controlling inflation in the
economy
3. To prevent the banks from making
excessive profits
4. To help banks maintain a certain
level of cash with them for day to
day operations
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
34. The ISIS crisis, also known as the

Northern Iraq offensive, that has
affected several parts of Iraq began
with the capture of which city?
a) Mosul
b) Tirkit
c) Kirkuk
d) Baghdad

about the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
1. It is an inter-governmental
organization.
2. It works independently of nonprofit and non-governmental
organizations.
3. IUCN is not concerned with social
issues like Gender equality and
poverty alleviation.
4. Its principle tool is to mobilize the
public in support of nature
conservation.
Page 8

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
None of the above
3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
36. The present Yemeni Civil war has been

caused due to the
a) infighting between two groups to
constitute Yemeni government
b) some communal factions trying to
impose religious and legal order in
Yemeni society
c) spill over of the ISIS crisis in
Yemen
d) rebellion caused by the deprived
tribals from Northern Yemen for
civil rights and development
37. Consider the following about Namaste

Russia, a festival of Indian culture,
recently initiated by the Indian
President.
1. It will be a six month long festival.
2. It will be showcased and celebrated
both in India and Russia.
3. The festival is being hosted under
the patronage of Indian Council for
Cultural Relations (ICCR) from
Indias side.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
38. World Health Organization (WHO),

the U.N. health agency, has recently

declared Liberia Ebola-free. What is

the criterion for declaring a nation
Ebola-free?
a) no new Ebola cases or deaths
should be reported for three
months continuously
b) if no active viruses are found in a
special quarantine conducted by
WHO
c) no new Ebola cases should be
reported over two incubation
periods of the virus
d) If all the Ebola patients survive the
attack with no new cases being
reported

1. Lithium chloride is used as a
relative humidity standard in the
calibration of hygrometers
2. Lithium chloride is widely used as
salt substitute to circumvent the
risk of high blood
pressure and cardiovascular
disease associated with a high
intake of sodium chloride
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
40. India and Iran have signed a

Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) for the development of the
strategically important Chabahar Port
in Iran. What will be the benefits for
India being able to use this port?
1. India will get sea-land access route
to Afghanistan bypassing Pakistan.
2. Saving transportation costs in
trading crude oil and urea
Page 9

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
41. With reference to the Chakma

community in India, consider the
following:
1. They live mainly in the state of
Assam.
2. They profess Theravada Buddhism.
3. They have been kept in the category
of scheduled tribes.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
42. Production of bio-diesel is assuming

significance in agricultural
biotechnology. Which of these can be
used to produce Bio-diesel?
1. Microalgae
2. Jatropha
3. Waste plastic
4. Hemp
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
43. Which of the following schedules of the

Constitution have a bearing on the
governance of tribals in India?

1.
2.
3.
4.
Fifth schedule
Sixth Schedule
Seventh Schedule
Tenth Schedule

below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
44. Consider the statement:

Detached, generally dense clouds and
with sharp outlines that develop
vertically in the form of rising mounds,
domes or towers with bulging upper
parts often resembling a cauliflower.
The above description refers to which
of the following types of cloud?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Nimbostratus
Cumulus
Cirrus
Cirrocumulus

about National parks in India.
1. A state government cannot
establish National parks.
2. Human communities are allowed to
live in a National park.
3. Resource use is not allowed in the
buffer zones of the National parks.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above
Page 10
46. Climate change is a change in the

statistical distribution
of weather patterns when that change
lasts for an extended period of time. It
can be caused due to factors like
1. Plate tectonics
2. Volcanic eruptions
3. Extreme variation in solar spots
4. Largescale death of phytoplanktons
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
47. The Directive Principles of State Policy

(DPSP) concern with which of the
following matters?
1. Conservation of environment
2. Protection of National Flag and
honour
3. Labour rights
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
48. The Atal Pension Yojana launched in

the Union Budget 2015-16 is focused
on
a) all citizens in the unorganized
sector
b) all income tax payer citizens of
India who contribute voluntarily
c) all BPL citizens in the unorganized
sector

d) all women citizens and BPL citizens

Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Bima Yojana
launched recently.
1. It is applicable to bank account
holders between the ages of 18-50.
2. The scheme is restricted to rural
areas only.
3. It will cover insurance in case of
any disability arising out of a
natural hazard or accident.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
50. Which of the following bodies are

associated with Economic Planning in
India?
1. NITI Ayog
2. The Parliament
3. Zila Panchayats
4. State Planning departments
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about the Prime Ministers Office
(PMO)?
1. The PMO includes the anticorruption unit and the public wing
dealing with grievances.
Page 11
2. Monitors the actions taken by the

PM in earlier meetings.
3. It generally handles all activities
not assigned to any particular
department.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
52. A welfare state is a state

1. which cannot be run wholly on the
principles of capitalism
2. where public responsibility is for
those who are unable to avail
themselves of the minimal
provisions for a good life
3. which is necessarily democratic.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
53. In appointing Ministers, which of the

following are followed by the President
and the Governor?
1. Constitution of India
2. Laws made by Parliament
3. Conventions
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

54. If rupee starts depreciating too much

in the foreign exchange market, it may
influence
1. Exports from India
2. Inflation in India
3. Foreign Direct Investment in India
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
55. As per the constitution, the Indian

president has the power to
1. Ask for files relating to any matter
from Prime Minister that is in
deliberation in the Council of
Ministers
2. Send the decision of an individual
ministry for re-consideration
3. Suspend the council of ministers if
he feels it is violating constitutional
norms
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
56. In Parliament, the primary object of an

adjournment motion is to
a) suspend the proceedings of the
house for that particular session
b) draw the attention of the House to a
recent matter of urgent public
importance
Page 12
c) censure the government for its lack

of action on sensitive issues
d) adjourn the introduction of a bill
for the next session of the house
57. As per Ayurveda, consuming water

stored in copper vessel for some time
is beneficial for the human body in
which of the following ways?
1. It balances all three doshas vata,
kapha and pitta.
2. It detoxifies the stomach.
3. clears the water of germs
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
58. Observe the following image:
The above picture is of a coral reef, but

of which of the following types?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Atoll
Barrier reef
Fringing reef
Peripheral reef

59. Why do plants generally take oxygen

and not CO2 in night time?
a) Plant respiration is carried out only
in the night.
b) At night no photosynthesis takes
place
c) plants grow during night time and
require the oxygen for their growth
d) plants metabolize food only in the
night time
60. India's national ID program

called Aadhaar is the largest biometric
database in the world. Apart from face
photo, which other biometric features
are captured by it?
1. Fingerprint
2. Iris Scan
3. Voice tone recognition
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
61. Plants can be genetically engineered to

serve which of the following purposes?
1. Phytoremediation
2. Achieving salt tolerance
3. Biofuel research
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
Page 13
62. Which of the following spacecrafts

are/were on trajectories that escape
our solar system for probe or research?
1. Pioneer 10
2. New Horizons
3. Voyager 1
4. Vostok 1
5. Endeavour
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 5 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 5 only
63. Under Article 143 of the Constitution,

the Supreme Court can exercise
advisory jurisdiction to advise
1. President
2. Governors
3. Prime Minister
4. Chief Ministers
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
64. Which of the following terms/practices

are concerned with genetic
modification/engineering in plants?
1. Promoter sequence
2. Gene Gun method
3. Agrobacterium method
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above

65. Consider the following organisms

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Angiosperms
4. Protozoa
Which of these statements is correct about
them?
a) They all belong to different classes,
but same phylum.
b) They all belong to different
Kingdoms.
c) They belong to the same Kingdom,
but different phylum.
d) They belong to the same Kingdom,
but different classes.
66. Changing the number of puisne

(regular) judges in the Supreme Court
or High Court requires legislation by
the Parliament with
a) Ordinary majority
b) Special majority
c) Absolute majority
d) Special majority with consent of
majority of states
67. Which of these places are famous for

producing one or the other traditional
handicrafts of India?
1. Vellore
2. Aligarh
3. Rajgir
4. Nagpur
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 14
68. Which of the following International

environmental agreements that are
either legally binding for nations or
carry legal authority?
1. Convention on the Conservation of
Antarctic Marine Living Resources
2. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety
3. Stockholm Convention on
Persistent Organic Pollutants
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
69. What is the right order for the

following as primary, secondary and
tertiary consumers respectively in the
food web?
a) Algae, Krills, Lobster
b) Krill, Shrimp, Dolphin
c) Shrimp, Seastar, Shark
d) Oysters, Silverside, Humpback
whales
difference between the Hindu calendar
and Gregorian calendar system?
1. Hindu calendar is based on lunar
and solar cycles, while Gregorian is
based only on Solar cycles.
2. Hindu calendar system is rooted in
astronomical calculations and
predictions, while Gregorian
calendar is not.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

71. With reference to El Nino, consider the

1. During El Nino phase, the Western
Pacific will have high pressure
whereas Eastern Pacific will have
low pressure
2. The east coast of South America
receives increased rainfall due to El
Nino
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
72. Which of the following are NOT part(s)

of Indias National Seed Policy?
1. Encouragement to export of seeds
2. Abolition of licensing for seed
dealers
3. Development of new and improved
varieties of plants
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above are parts of India
national seed policy.
73. Performed for the local forest deity

Umang-Lai, and songs on creation and
rituals are sung in which of these
festivals in the North-eastern part of
India?
a) Lai Haraoba
b) Chai Hia
c) Saikuti Zai
d) Bihu
Page 15
74. A marine protected area (MPA) is

essentially a space in the ocean where
human activities are more strictly
regulated than the surrounding waters.
Which of these in India are MPAs?
1. Bhitarkanika
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Pulicat Lake
4. Lothian Island
5. Balukhand Konark
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 5 only
1, 2 and 5 only
All of the above
75. Desertification of land has

consequences that include
1. Increased CO2 levels in the
atmosphere
2. Loss of biodiversity
3. Increased landslides
4. Lowering of Groundwater table
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
76. Ministry of Environment and Forests

has several subordinate and statutory
bodies functioning under it. These are
1. Central Pollution Control Board
2. Animal Welfare board of India
3. National Biodiversity Authority
4. Zoological Survey of India


below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above

Global Competitiveness Report.
1. It is published by World Economic
Forum.
2. It compares competitiveness of
sovereign states as well as top 500
companies in the World.
3. It also ranks those civil society
organizations that have been most
effective in building a vibrant
business climate in a nation.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
78. Free radicals are highly reactive and

have the potential to cause damage to
cells, including damage that may lead
to cancer. Free radicals are formed
naturally in the body due to
a) an oxidation reaction in cells
b) a reduction reaction in cells
c) natural process of replacement of
cells
d) stress in body cells
Page 16
79. Antioxidants are chemicals that block

the activity of other chemicals known
as free radicals. Which of these
Vitamins contain Antioxidants?
1. Vitamin E
2. Vitamin C
3. Vitamin B6
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
80.The escape of nanoparticles into

atmosphere can be harmful for
humans. In which of the following
processed/ways can they escape?
1. Nanoparticles used in soil
regeneration
2. Emission with the exhaust in
automobiles
3. Washing of hydrophobic
nanocoatings (paint)
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 only
All of the above
81. Non-physical savings in the Indian

economy will increase if
1. Inflation levels increase
2. Insurance cover expands
3. More number of bank branches
operate in rural and remote areas
4. Financial literacy is imparted on a
large scale basis


below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only

Samkhya school of Vedic thought.
1. It does not consider the existence of
God as relevant to human life.
2. It believes that only consciousness
exists and matter is illusion.
3. It emphasizes on meditation and
contemplation to realization.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
83. Ajivika, a heterodox school of Indian

philosophy believes that
a) Free will does not exists in human
beings
b) liberation or mukti is irrelevant to
human life
c) our universe is a material one
where humans can exercise free will
d) Both (a) and (b)
84. Samskara, a world classic, written by

U.R. Anathamaurthy portrays the
1. Spiritual struggle of man in terms
of urgency of lifes demands
2. frequent use of mythological
sequences as structural images in
an urban setting
Page 17
3. the dogmas likely to faced by an

over growing cultural loss faced by
urban civilization
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

theatre form Swang, performed in
the northern parts of India.
1. Music is not used in the
performance.
2. Dialogues are based mostly in
forms of poems.
3. Women do not take part in these
performances.
4. The plays contain a rare synthesis
of devotional and romantic
sentiments.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
None of the above
86. Consider the following about the Pala

art.
1. The Pala painting is characterised
by straight lines and bright tones of
colour.
2. Pala style was transmitted chiefly
by means of bronze sculptures and
palm-leaf paintings.
3. It celebrates the human forms of
divinity.
4. The Pala art came to a sudden end
after the destruction of the
Buddhist monasteries at the hands

of Muslim invaders in 13th

century.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
1, 2 and 4 only
87. There are several passes in the Northwestern Mountains of India. From
them, Alexander of Macedon came to
India through
a) Swat valley
b) Bolan pass
c) Khyber pass
d) Karakoram pass
88. In the Mesolithic age or middle stone

age period
1. domestication of animals was not
practiced
2. use of bows and arrows began
3. primitive cultivation was started
4. the practice of burial of human
bodies after death was not known
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
89. With reference to ocean currents,

1. Their knowledge helps in reducing
the cost of shipping
2. Ocean currents helps in dispersal of
many life forms
Page 18
3. Ocean currents affect temperatures

throughout the world
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
All
90. Right faith is the belief in the teachings

and wisdom of Mahavira. As per
Mahavira
1. All objects whether animate or
inanimate have souls and feel pain
when they are injured
2. Asceticism and renunciation are
important in the path of realization
3. Vedas do not have divine authority.
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
91. Which of the following were parts of

the official policy followed by Lord
Wiilliam Bentick towards British
India?
1. Policy of non-intervention and nonaggression with the Indian states
2. welfare of Indian subjects
3. Indian education to be totally in
vernacular languages
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

92. Henry Vivian Derozio was the founder

of the Young Bengal Movement. It was
concerned with
1. attacking old traditions and
decadent customs
2. Promoting womens rights and
education
3. Condition of farmers in the
countryside
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
93. After the perceived failure of the

moderates, the extremists continued
their expansion and attacks on the
British. Main objectives of the
extremists were
1. Self-government with dominion
status for India
2. Provincial autonomy from Central
legislature
3. More power for the local bodies
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
94. The Swadeshi movement 1905 in

response to the division of Bengal
involved which of the following?
1. boycott of government service,
courts, schools and colleges
Page 19
2. Promotion of National Education

through the establishment of
national schools and colleges
3. reviving age old local governments
and empowering them with legal
authority
4. formation of a volunteer armed
front that would fight against the
British
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
95. The Lucknow pact of 1916 was

a) an agreement between the British
and Indian leaders about reforms
in Indian legislative council
b) an agreement between Muslim
League and Congress to merge as
one political body
c) an agreement where Congress
accepted the demand of separate
electorates for Muslims by the
Muslim league
d) an understanding reached between
British government and Indian
National Congress for selfgovernment, and separation of
electorates for communities
c) Indian resources will be drained

which has to paid by the Indian
public
d) The war will result in large scale
causalities of Indian soldiers who
were mostly peasants and poor
landless labourers
97. The chief cause(s)/event(s) leading to

the Khilafat Movement was/were?
1. defeat of Turkey in the First World
War.
2. partitioning of the ottoman empire
3. imposition of secularism on Turkey
by the British
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
98. Consider the following pairs:

1. Gramin Bhandaran Yojana Ministry of Food Processing
2. Mid-day meal scheme - Ministry of
Women and Child development
3. Bachat Lamp Yojana - Ministry of
Rural Development
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched?
96. The Indian National Congress

vehemently opposed the Britishers
involving India in the Second World
war because
a) Indian were involved without their
consent and any consultation
b) British were fighting for a injust
cause

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
None of the above
Page 20

Sustainable Agriculture Initiative
(SAI).
initiative targeted at developing
countries.
2. It receives funding from the World
Bank
3. The initiative gathers and develops
knowledge on sustainable
agriculture
4. It does not include the horticulture
and dairy sector.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
understanding the origin and onset of

monsoon over the Indian
subcontinent, consider the following
statements:
1. The shift of the subtropical easterly
jet stream northwards from over
the plains of India towards the
Tibetan Plateau is said to trigger
the onset of Southwestern
Monsoon over India
2. The heating of Tibetan Plateau is
the reason why the jet stream
located on northern India shifts
towards the Plateau
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
100.
With reference to Jet Stream
theory and its importnace to

Page 21


GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
(i)
question.
(iii)
for that question.
http://www.insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS

Page 1

1. The PSLV programme of the ISRO

launches satellites for which of the
following purposes?
1. Earth observation
2. Navigation
3. Studying space sciences
4. Disaster management
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
2. The government has recently taken a

decision to revive some Urea factories.
Consider the following about Urea.
1. Urea is naturally produced in
humans and animals.
2. CO2 is used in the manufacturing of
Urea.
3. It also contains NPK (nitrogenphosphorus-potassium).
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
3. Investments made by which of the

following are considered as domestic
investment in India?
1. A foreign company investing in
India which also has a subsidiary in
India.
2. Investments made by NRIs and

Persons of Indian origin (PIOs) in
India.
3. Profits earned on investments
made by an Indian firm abroad
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
4. What are non-repatriable investments,

in the context of NRIs?
a) It refers to the investment wherein
NRI cannot convert invested money
back to his home country.
b) It refers to the investments where a
foreign currency can be converted
back into the currency of the home
country by an NRI.
c) The investments that come in the
form of remittances where no
return is earned by the NRI.
d) Investment made in government
bonds of home country.
5. A new species of fish called Pethia

striata was discovered by ecologists in
Tunga River in the Kudremukh
National Park, Karnataka. Consider
the following in regard to it.
1. The fish is native to Western Ghats.
2. The fish has been put under the
category of vulnerable as per
IUCN.

Page 2

3. The fish is useful for purposes of

phyto-remediation in the local
rivers.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
6. The ancient city of Palmyra was

recently in news because of
a) excavation of man made rocks
dating back even the pre-stone age
period
b) its take over by the militant group
ISIS
c) its impending inclusion in the
Chinese One road One Belt
initiative
d) it being the first UNESCO world
heritage site that has been brought
to ruins
1. The Vernacular Press Act was
passed in 1878 under the Governor
Generalship and Viceroyalty
of Lord Ripon
2. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878
was directed only against Indian
language newspapers
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
8. Recently released UN World Economic

Situation and Prospects (WESP)
Report for Mid update -2015 has
projected that Indias economic growth
will surpass Chinas growth in 2016. As

per the report this will be made
possible by
1. Strong double digit growth in
agriculture
2. Increase in Indian exports
3. Stronger domestic consumption
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
9. Which of these states have achieved

100% financial inclusion as per the PM
Jan Dhan Yojana?
1. Meghlaya
2. Kerala
3. Assam
4. Goa
5. Punjab
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 5 only
10. Researchers have recently discovered

the driest location on Earth which is as
dry as the Martian surface. The
location is
a) Yungay in Atacama Desert, Chile
b) Maria Elena south in Atacama
Desert, Chile
c) Erg Chebbi in Sahara Desert
d) Sahel in Sahara desert

Page 3

11. Electrostatic precipitators can solve

the urban pollution in India with
regard to
1. Particulate matter
2. NO2
3. Hydrocarbons
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
12. Catalytic converters, having expensive

metals namely platinum-palladium
and rhodium as the catalysts, are fitted
into automobiles for
a) enhancing their energy efficiency
b) reducing their fuel consumption
c) reducing emission of poisonous
gases
d) improving their transmission
system and speed
13. Genetic modification of plants can be

helpful in
1. increased efficiency of mineral
usage by plants
2. enhanced nutritional value of food
3. making tailor-made plants to
supply alternative resources to
industries
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
All of the above
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
14. The Bt protein in the Bt Cotton is a

toxin. When a cotton plant is made
into Bt Cotton, why isnt it harmed by
this toxin?
a) The toxin is harmful only to insects
not plants
b) The toxin is present in an inactive
form in the plant
c) The genetic modification is done in
a way that the plant is made
immune to such toxins
d) Both (a) and (c)
15. Tropics are known for greater

biological diversity than temperate
regions. Which of the following can
NOT be reason(s) for the same?
1. With the geological stability in
tropics, it had more time for species
evolution and diversification.
2. There is greater solar energy
available at the tropics.
Choose the right option from the code below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Both can be the correct reasons.
16. Consider the following differences

between active and passive euthanasia.
1. Active euthanasia is illegal but
passive euthanasia is legal in India.
2. Unlike Active euthanasia, passive
euthanasia is done by withdrawing
life support.
3. In active euthanasia, instant death
occurs for the patient, unlike
passive euthanasia.

Page 4


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
All of the above
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
17. India and Mongolia recently decided to

elevate their ties to the level of
Strategic partnership. What does the
term strategic partnership mean?
a) Strategic partnership between two
nations is equivalent of joining an
alliance and becoming allies in
international affairs.
b) Its a long-term
interaction/committment between
two countries based on political,
economic, social and historical
factors.
c) Strategic partners are obstructed
with least restrictions in the
economic sphere like tarrifs,
investments and duties.
d) Its a long term mutual agreement
between two nations to support
each other militarily in the
outbreak of a war or aggression.
18. Balance of Payments (BoP) does NOT

include which of the following?
1. Foreign portfolio Investment
2. External commercial borrowing
3. Foreign Direct Investment
4. Trade in invisibles
5. Private remittances
Choose the correct answer using the following
codes:
a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4
d) All are included in BoP.
19. The book Economic History of India

which examined in minute detail the
entire economic record of colonial rule
since 1757, was written by?
a) Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) Romesh Chandra Dutta
d) M. N. Roy
20. The Triffin dilemma or paradox is the

conflict of economic interests that
arises between short-term domestic
and long-term international objectives
when
a) a national currency also serves as a
world reserve currency
b) a nation is forced to go for trade
deficit even though it wants trade
surplus
c) a nations monetary policy is largely
in conflict with that of the global
monetary policy
d) free trade agreements clash with
the objective of reviving domestic
industries
21. In his recent speeches, the RBI

governor has pointed out that growth
should not be diverted from other
markets due to quantitative easing.
What does it imply?
1. In periods of slump growth
economies are often resorting to
lose monetary policy to boost
growth in short-run
2. Fiscal stimulus and tax sops by
governments are being used to
attract investment without under

Page 5

taking structural reforms and

policy correction
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

about the Controller general of
Accounts (CGA) in India.
1. He is appointed by the President of
India.
2. He is the principal accounts adviser
to the Union government.
3. Union finance account prepared by
him is presented to the Parliament.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
All of the above
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only

1. The Shell gas and oil compnay is
headquartered in London
2. The Netherlands government is the
largest shareholder in the Shell
company
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
24. Worlds first fully warm-blooded fish

named Opah or moonfish was
discovered recently. Beinf a fully
warm-blooded fish means that
a) ability to generate heat
independent of the environment
and circulate heated blood
throughout its body
b) ability to live in all seasons in warm
water irrespective of the
surrounding temperature
c) ability to survive in chilly cold
waters by solely internal body
mechanisms
d) ability to generate heat in the body
without any use of external body
parts independent of the
surrounding environment
25. State Bank of India (SBI) has launched

contact-less credit and debit cards
sbiINTOUCH using Near Field
technology (NFC). Consider the
following about NFC technology.
1. Its a short range low powered
Bluetooth based link technology.
2. A pairing code is needed every time
a device connected via NFC.
3. It operates on radio frequency.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
All of the above
2 and 3 only
3 only
Page 6

26. The scheme USTAAD launched by

Union Ministry of Minority affairs is
concerned with
a) upgrading Skills and Training of
minority communities by
preservation of traditional ancestral
arts and crafts
b) skill development of minority
population to make them more
employable in small scale
industries
c) providing financial and technical
support to the traditional craft
based businesses run by minority
for reviving Indian culture
d) providing scholarships to the
talented child artists from the
minority community and showcase
their talent to the whole of India
27. As per Jainism, to attain purity of soul,

one must fight against
1. Worldly passions
2. Bodily senses
3. Ones own soul
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

about the Civil Disobedience
movement (CDM).
1. The movement officially was not
approved by the congress before its
launch.
2. 26th January as Independence Day
all over the country was decided
during CDM.
3. All the round table conferences

between the British government
and Indian leaders
followed
only after this movement.
4. The movement was withdrawn
because of violence.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
29. The Moro people or Bangsamoro are a

population of indigenous Muslims
living in which of the following
countries?
a) Malaysia
b) Indonesia
c) Philippines
d) Myanmar
30. Capillary action is the ability of a

liquid to flow in narrow spaces without
the assistance of
1. Gravity
2. Inter-molecular forces
3. Surface tension of water
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
Page 7

31. Mangroves grow best in Inter-tidal

zones due to
1. shallowness of water there
2. high nutrient content in inter-tidal
zones
3. lesser sediment load
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
32. Global strategic petroleum

reserves (GSPR) refer to
a) untapped petroleum reserves that
lie in the global commons like
Antarctica
b) untapped petroleum reserve in the
ocean basins of international
waters
c) crude oil inventories held by
governments to tackle an
emergency of energy crisis.
d) petroleum reserves that lie in zones
of international territorial disputes
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
34. Which of the following are sources of

methane emission?
1. Wetland rice cultivation
2. Livestock rearing
3. Oceans
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
35. As per a recent ruling of Supreme

Court regulating public
advertisements, whose images can
feature in a government
advertisement?
1. Chief Minister
2. Prime Minister
3. President and Vice-President
4. Late Prime Ministers
below.
33. Thickness of atmosphere is greatest at

the equator due to
1. Air being less dense at equator
2. High insolation and strong
convectional currents in
troposphere over equator
3. At equator gravitational pull on
gases is more
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
3 and 4 only
36. Which of the following come under the

concept of Ecological Engineering?
1. pest management through
biocontrol agents
2. using geo-engineering to stall
climate change

Page 8

3. conservation of non-renewable
energy
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
37. Why does milk overflow when it starts

boiling in a vessel, and water does not?
a) Milks boiling point is lower than
that of water.
b) Milk is denser than water, so more
heat makes it lighter for it to
overflow easily.
c) When milk is heated, its denser
contents like fat start depositing on
the top layer stoping the vapour
from exiting
d) milk is heavier than water, so
escaping of vapour takes place at
much grater force pushing milk out
of the container

1. An individual on the path to
becoming a buddha is known as
Bodhisattva
2. Avalokiteshvara is an embodiment
of Buddha and Shiva worshipped
by converts from Buddhism to
Hinduism during the reign of
Gupta empire
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
39. With reference to permaculture,

consider the following stattements
1. It is a systems approach to
agriculture which encompasses
elements and processes aimed to
making agriculture sustainable and
efficient
2. Agroforestry and rainwater
harvesting are some of the
elements of permaculture
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
40. NASAs Messenger spacecraft crashed

into Mercury recently. This crash was
due to
a) excessive gravitation pull of the Sun
b) Change in Messengers orbital
positions with respect to Mercurys
c) Messenger running out of fuel
d) it being hit by an asteroid orbiting
Mercury
41. Internet.org, a partnership between a

Social networking company and some
mobile companies, aims at
a) providing seamless wireless
internet connectivity to every
person in developing countries
b) providing free web access in less
developed countries
c) providing affordable or free access
to select internet services in less
developed countries
d) providing basic digital literacy
about internet to every person in
the less developed countries

Page 9


regarding the administrator of UTs in
India.
1. An administrator of a union
territory is an agent of the
President and not head of state like
a governor.
2. The administrator of a UT has
absolute veto power over the laws
enacted by the legislative assembly
of that UT.
3. In a UT having an elected
government, administrator is
appointed after consultation with
the CM of the UT.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
43. In the case of difference of opinion

between the Lt. governor (LG) of Delhi
and his ministers
a) the matter is to be referred to the
Central government for resolution
and its decision will prevail
b) the matter is referred to the
President and the LG will act
accordingly.
c) the matter is referred to the Delhi
assembly which decides the issues
on the basis of special majority
d) the matter is referred a bench of
SC, the decision of which is binding
on the LG and ministers
44. Which of the following participate in

the electing the President of India?
1. Elected Members of Legislative
Councils
2. Nominated members of both
houses of Parliament
3. Elected members of the legislative
assembly of the UTs
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1 and 3 only
45. If Parliament has repeatedly failed to

perform its duty, in the opinion of the
President, then as per his
constitutional mandate he can
1. Dissolve the Lok Sabha
2. Dismiss the Council of Ministers
3. Promulgate ordinance to keep the
legislative business on track
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above
46. Consider the following statement

This school drew upon the
anthropomorphic traditions of
Roman religion and represented
the Buddha with a youthful Apollolike face, dressed in garments
resembling those seen on Roman
imperial statues.

Page 10

The above statement refers to which of the

following schools of art?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Mathura school of art

Gandhara school of art
Taxila School of art
Both a and b
47. Which of the following bodies do NOT

find a mention in the constitution of
India?
1. Cabinet
2. Parliamentary Committees
3. NITI Ayog
4. Prime Ministers Office (PMO)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
All of the above
48. Which of the following announcements

were made at the Delhi durbar, 1911?
1. Capital to be Delhi
2. Annulment of partition of Bengal
3. Provision of separate electorates for
minorities
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
49. The Government of India Act 1919 led

to the adoption of an important
tradition into India. This is
a) the finance minister presenting the
whole budget by reading
b) Presidents address to both houses
of Parliament
c) Use of English language in
legislatures
d) All of the above
50. With reference to spacewalks, consider

1. Before going out for spacewalk,
astronauts breathe pure oxygen for
a few hours to get rid of all the
nitrogen in an their body
2. Astronauts practice spacewalks
underwater in a large swimming
pool which is called as the Neutral
Buoyancy Laboratory, or NBL
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
51. Laterite soils found in India are

rendered infertile because of
1. excessive iron in the soil
2. lack of organic matter
3. little nitrogen content in the soil
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
None of the above
Page 11

52. Which of the following factors

contribute to the formation of the
Indian Monsoon?
1. Land-sea frontier of India and its
differential heating
2. High temperature and shifting of
the Sun in summer
3. Trade winds
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
53. Consider the following regions.

1. Slopes of the Western Ghats
2. North-eastern regions of Arunachal
Pradesh, Meghalaya, Assam
3. Tarai areas of the Himalayas
4. Andaman groups of Islands
What kind of vegetation are you most likely to
find common in all these areas?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Tropical Deciduous forests

Tropical evergreen forests
Monsoon type of Forests
Mountain vegetation
54. The Badami cave temples are a

complex of temples located at Badami,
a town in the Bagalkot District in the
north part of Karnataka, India. Which
of the following dynasties does Badami
cave architecture belong to?
a) Chalukya
b) Rashtrakuta
c) Hoysala
d) Pallava
55. With reference to Rohingya People

1. They are Indo-Aryan peoples living
in northern Rakhine State,
Myanmar, who predominantly
speak Urdu mixed Bengali language
2. Next to Myanmar, significant
population of Rohingya people live
in Saudi Arabia
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
56. Choosing people for constitutional

positions in legislative bodies in India
can NOT happen by which of the
following systems?
1. First past the post (FPTP) election
system
2. Proportional Representation
election System
3. Nomination
4. Competitive Examinations
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
4 only
57. With reference to Deep Space Climate

Observatory, consider the following
statements:
1. It was launched by NASA for the
purpose of Earth observation
2. Its functions include observing
phenomena on Earth including

Page 12

changes in ozone, aerosols, dust

and volcanic ash, cloud height,
vegetation cover and climate
Which of the above stateents is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
1. Constitutionally, he is under the

control and subordinate to the
Central government.
2. Consultation with the CM of the
state is a must before appointing
Governor of that state.
3. Domicile residents of a state are not
eligible for being the Governor of
that state.
below.
58. The proceedings in Lok Sabha always

starts with X, move to Y and then Z.
X, Y and Z here are
a) Zero hour, Business hour and
Agenda of the house
b) Zero hour, Question hour and
Agenda of the house
c) Question hour, Zero hour and
Agenda of the house
d) Business hour, Zero hour and
Question hour
59. Any withdrawal of money from the

consolidated fund of India by the
government has to go through the
same procedure as that of a
a) Regular government budget
b) Regular government budget only in
case of major expenditures that
exceed the annual budget
c) Ordinary withdrawal from the
Public Account of India
d) A withdrawal from the Public
Account of India in emergency
cases
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
3 only
None of the above
61. If the Legislative assembly (LA) of a

state passes a bill, which is then
rejected by the legislative council (LC),
which of the following may follow?
1. The bill will stand repealed.
2. The bill will be referred to a joint
sitting of both the houses.
3. The bill will be referred to the
Governor for a final view.
4. The bill can be again passed by the
LA and re-sent to the LC.
5. The LA can directly reject the view
of the LC, and go ahead with
enacting the bill.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
4 or 5 only
1 or 2 or 3 only
2 or 5 only
4 only
60. As per the Constitution, which of these

statements regarding the Office of
Governor is/are true?

Page 13

62. With reference to natural rubber,

1. It consists of polymers of the
organic compound isoprene, with
minor impurities of other organic
compounds plus water
2. Rubberwood plants requires welldrained, weathered soil consisting
of laterite, lateritic types,
sedimentary types, nonlateritic red,
or alluvial soils
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
63. With reference to child labour problem

in India, consider the following
statements
1. At present there is complete ban on
child labour under the age of 14 in
all types of occupation except farm
and domestic work after school
hours
2. The Child Labour (Prohibition &
Regulation) Act is being
Women and Child Welfare
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
1. Transfer of judges of the high

courts is the sole prerogative of the
Chief Justice of India (CJI).
2. The state government can take
disciplinary action against erring
judges of the High Court
in
that respective state.
3. The CM of the state is consulted
before appointing the judges of the
concerned High Court.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
3 only
None of the above
65. Union Cabinet has given its approval

to Benami Transactions (Prohibition)
(Amendment) Bill, 2015. The bill aims
to
a) tackle black money generation in
India
b) regulate unauthorized transactions
in the security markets
c) regulate all private institutions
where the owners identity has not
been officially verified
d) regulate money laundering
activities on cyber networks
66. Minimal Alternate Tax has been in

news for some time. It is basically
a) a minimum amount of tax that
companies have to pay for
diversifying their business portfolio
b) the minimum tax that companies
have to pay even if their book
profits are zero

Page 14

c) the minimum tax that companies

need to pay even if their net income
is shown to be zero
d) the minimum tax that companies
need to pay to start doing business
outside India
67. The ultimate goal of Buddhism is the

attainment of the sublime state of
Nirvana, which as per it can be
attained by
a) following the eightfold path taught
by the Buddha
b) realizing directly the four noble
truths taught by the Buddha
c) contemplating on existence,
meditation and Buddhist spiritual
processes
d) doing good to all selflessly

reference to a River in India
1. This river rises on the western
slopes of the Aravalli Range near
Ajmer
2. This river is known as Sagarmati
near its origin place
3. This river dissipates into the wastes
of the northeastern part of the
marsh called the Rann of Kachchh
(Kutch) in Gujarat state
69. With reference to Varishtha Pension

Bima Yojana (VPBY), consider the
1) The scheme will be operated by all
the nationalized banks
2) This scheme aims to provide
monthly pension ranging from Rs
500/ to Rs 5,000/ per month to
senior citizens of the country
3) Citizens aged 60 years and above
can avail the benefits of this
scheme
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
70. Which of the following were the factors

behind the decline of the Gupta
empire?
1. Foreign invasion
2. Rise of the feudatories in the
kingdom
3. Immense economic loss due to
lowered revenue from trade and
commerce
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Identify the river from above clues:

a)
b)
c)
d)
River Banas
River Luni
River Kali Sindh
River Gomti
71. Din-e Illahi, started by Mughal

emperor Akbar was
a) a system of governance in the
provinces to keep the subedars
under check

Page 15

b) a system of tax collection that was

based on concessions for poor and
equity for landless farmers
c) a religion where the soul is
encouraged to purify itself by
yearning for God.
d) a set of moral precepts propounded
by Akbar that carried the force of
law
72. During autumn and spring seasons,
there is a bloom of phytoplankton
growth in lakes. This is because in
these seasons
a) The biotic and nutrient load of lake
water is at its peal
b) Lake waters are least disturbed by
rain and surface run-offs that could
have harmed phytoplanktons
c) Temperature is optimal for the
growth of phytoplanktons
d) Lake water churns and
redistributes water and oxygen
which are vital for the growth of
phytoplanktons
73. Which of the following committees
is/are NOT related to Panchayat Raj
institutions?
1. Ashok Mehta committee
2. Balwant Rai Mehta committee
3. Dr.L.M.Singhvi Committee
4. G.V.K Rao committee
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 Only
4 Only
Both 3 and 4
All are related
74. Your friend tells you that you can

increase your weight without
increasing your mass. Which of these

factors is your friend referring to, that
can do so?
1. Change in the rotation period of the
earth
2. Change in the revolution time of
the earth around the sun
3. Change in thickness (radius) of the
earth
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
75. Micro-propagation is a technique of

a) Producing a large number of plants
through tissue culture
b) Large scale genetic modification in
the micro components of plant
c) Growing plants on a large scale in
nutrient medium which has only
micro-nutrients
76. With reference to Magna Carta,

1. It promised the protection of
church rights and other rights to
rebelling barons
2. It was a charter agreed and
enacted by the Pope of Vatican in
1215
correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
Page 16

77. Which of the following diseases in

India can be tackled by improving
sanitation?
1. Anaemia
2. Cholera
3. Japanese encephalitis (JE)
4. Hepatitis
3. Reducing debt to GDP ratio of the

country
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only

below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
3 only
All of the above
78. Consider the following statement:

Its purpose is to contribute to peace and
security by promoting international
collaboration through education, science, and
culture in order to further universal respect
for justice, the rule of law, and human rights
along with fundamental freedom proclaimed
in the United Nations Charter.
Which of the following United Nations body
has the above statement as its main purpose?
a)
b)
c)
d)
UNICEF
UNHCR
UNESCO
UNDP
79. In budget documents, the term fiscal

prudence is often mentioned. What
does it imply?
1. Not taking any new government
initiative to lower government costs
2. Harmonization of monetary and
fiscal targets
80.With reference to LED lamp, consider

1. LEDs are not affected by high
temperature unlike fluorescent
lamps
2. LED chips need controlled direct
current (DC) electrical power in
order to function smoothly
3. Unlike other lamps, most LEDs do
not emit light in all directions
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
81. Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio

(CRR) and interest rates in the
economy will lead to
a) greater money supply and higher
investments in the economy
b) lesser money supply and lower
c) constant money supply but lower
d) lesser money supply but higher
investment in the economy

Page 17

82. The main items of capital receipts of

the Government of India are
1. Market borrowings
2. Borrowings from the RBI
3. Borrowings by sale of treasury bills
4. Sale of share in PSUs
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
All of the above
1, 3 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
83. Consider the phenomenon of

casualization of workforce.
1. It is the movement of labour from
formal sector to the self-employed
and informal sectors
2. Casualization has only increased
after the 1991 economic reforms.
3. Casualization leads to lower
economic growth of a country.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only

1. It is a national park located in West
Garo Hills district of Meghalaya
2. UNESCO added this National park
to its list of Biosphere Reserves in
May 2009
3. This biosphere reserve has a
remnant population of the Red
panda
To which of the following national

parks/biosphere reserves does the above
description apply?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Manas
Nokrek
Dihang-Dibang
Dibru Saikhowa
85. A reduction in Per capita income of

India can happen by
1. High rates of depreciation in the
economy
2. Negative net income from abroad
3. Lowering of Indias GDP
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
86. The upstream industries in the

petroleum sector are largely concerned
with
1. Marketing of crude oil
2. Production of crude oil
3. Exploration of crude oil
4. Refining of crude oil
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 18

87. With reference to the steel sector in

India, consider the following
statements:
1. In 2014, India was the second
largest steel producer in the
world, next only to China
2. India is the worlds largest
producer of sponge iron with a
host of coal based units
3. India is a net importer of steel
from other countries
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
All
88. Ocean currents are at the surface as

well as in the deeper ocean. Surface
and deep ocean currents are driven
respectively by which of the following
factors?
a) Wind and density differences in the
ocean
b) Wind and temperature differences
in the ocean layers
c) Gravity and temperature
differences in the ocean layers
d) Coriolis force and density
differences in the ocean
89. Little or no ocean tides occur at the

equator due to
1. the regular heating of the equators
2. the peculiar orbital plane of the
moon
3. presence of heavy surface water
currents
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
90. Subduction of the earth can lead to

1. Cyclones
2. Tsunami
3. Volcanism
4. Earthquakes
5. Orogeny
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3, 4 and 5 only
91. In which of the following ways, the

earths atmosphere is heated?
1. Directly by solar radiation
2. Indirectly by radiation reflected
from earth
3. Transfer of heat across earth by
advection
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
92. Mimansa, a school of Vedanta

Philosophy, recognizes which of the
following as the means of valid
knowledge?
1. Perception

Page 19

2. Postulation
3. Inference
4. Comparison and analogy
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
93. With reference to tropical cyclones,

4. They are characterized by a lowpressure center and numerous
thunderstorms that produce
strong winds and flooding rain
5. Tropical cyclones help to maintain
equilibrium in the Earth's
troposphere
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
94. Which of the following could be

verified for the Indus Valley
Civilization?
1. They had uniform measure of
weights and measures.
2. They had monarchial style of
governance.
3. Gold jewelry was popular in the
civilization.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
95. Which of the following play a role in

the formation of tropical cyclones?
1. Westerlies
2. Tropical jet streams
3. Roaring forties
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
None of the above
96. The Indigo movement, 1860, was

initiated by the peasants because
a) european planters forced peasants
to grow indigo
b) peasants were not being given
market price for indigo produced
by the government
c) the British government imposed
heavy tax on the production of
Indigo
d) farmers growing Indigo were not
allowed to grow any other crop

about Bardoli Satyagraha.
1. It was started after Gandhi joined
the cause of national freedom
movement.
2. It was centred around increased
land revenue by the British
government.
3. The movement was led by
Vallabhbhai Patel.

Page 20

4. It was restricted to Gujarat.

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
and West Antarctica become

unstable and melt at an
unstoppable rate
2. According to the latest consensus
science reported in September by
the Intergovernmental Panel on
Climate Change (IPCC), the Earth
has already warmed 2C from 1880
(preindustrial times) to 2012

1. A Rubiks Cube is a combination
puzzle toy
2. A normal (3x3x3) Rubiks Cube
consists of 21 pieces
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
99. The de facto assumption of climate

change policy is that the world must
limit the increase in global
temperatures to 2 degrees Celsius
above pre-Industrial levels. With
reference to this, consider the
1. It is assumed that if the limit is
crossed, ice sheets in Greenland
100.
Which of the following does
NOT find mention in the Preamble to
Indias Constitution?
1. Social justice
2. Liberty of worship
3. Equality of status
4. Liberty of religion
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)

2 Only
3 Only
2 and 4 Only
4 Only
Page 21

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
question.
(iii)
for that question.
INSIGHTS
Page 1
1. The President recently gave his assent

to re-promulgate the Land Acquisition
ordinance as per provisions of Article
123 of Indian Constitution. When can
the President re-promulgate an
ordinance?
a) when it is in public interest and any
of the houses fail to pass the bill
b) when any of the houses has not
reassembled before the expiry of
the ordinance
c) when in an emergency, it is
required in public interest
d) when the bill is rejected by both the
houses despite the government
pushing for the bill
2. The WHO Framework Convention on

Tobacco Control (WHO
FCTC) provides for
1. Banning of tobacco products in all
countries party to the convention
2. Eliminating illicit trade of tobacco
products
3. Alternative livelihoods to tobacco
farmers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
3. Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is

added artificially to packaged food to
enhance flavour, also found in the
popular product Maggi. Consider the
following about it.
1. It occurs naturally in many
agricultural products.
2. Large doses of MSG can cause
headaches.
3. It is a major factor in causing
obesity

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
4. Consider the following about OPCW

(Organisation for the Prohibition of
Chemical Weapons).
organization headquartered in
Hague.
2. One of its mandates is to destroy
the global chemical weapons
stockpile.
3. It operates directly under the aegis
of United Nations Security Council
(UNSC).
4. India is not a signatory to the
Convention on Chemical weapons

below.
INSIGHTS
Page 2
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
5. Tripura government has recently

decided to withdraw the Armed
Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA),
1958 entirely from the state. Consider
the following about AFSPA.
1. Only the Governor of a state can
declare an area to come under
AFSPA.
2. The Act makes local civilian
administration accountable to the
military.
3. It can be withdrawn from an area
only after the consent of the Central
government and Indian armed
forces.
4. AFSPA cannot be applicable in a
state during emergency.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 only
1 only
1 and 4 only
6. A new study has warned that Glaciers

in the Everest region of the Himalayas
could shrink drastically due to global
warming. What consequences can this
have?
1. It will affect snowfall and rain in
the Himalayan region.
2. It will greatly affect the farming

and hydropower generation
downstream of the Himalayan
peaks.
3. It can lead to avalanches in this
region.
4. It will reduce the albedo of the
earth.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above

Foreign Investment Promotion
Board (FIPB), India.
1. It approves all FDIs under the
automatic route.
2. It is headed by the Union Minister
of Finance.
3. It is a sub-committee of the Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
3 only
1 only
None of the above
Page 3

1. A double layer Blu-Ray disc can
hold upto 50 GB of data
2. Unlike DVDs, which use a red laser
to read and write data, Blu-ray uses
a blue laser
3. Unlike DVDs, where data is stored
between layers of two
polycarbonate layers, in Blu-ray
data is stored on top of a 1.1-mmthick polycarbonate layer
4. Blu-ray discs are far thinner than
DVDs
incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
3 Only
4 Only
9. With reference to Poona Pact, consider

1. Mahatma Gandhi objected to the
provision of separate electorates for
the Scheduled (formerly
untouchable) Castes
2. The Pact was the result of the
communal award of Aug. 4, 1932,
made by the British government
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
10. Consider the following about cabinet

committees.
1. They are set up by the Prime
Minister.
2. All committees are ad hoc in
nature.
3. They cannot take a final decision
on matters referred to them by
cabinet.
4. Cabinet committees are also known
as Empowered Group of Ministers
(EGoM).
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 only
3 only
11. Triticale, a high yield and rich protein

content cereal is a
a) Wheat and Rye hybrid
b) Wheat and Maize hybrid
c) Maize and Rye Hybrid
d) Rice and Rye Hybrid

1. The Lion Capital represents four
roaring lions back to back facing
the four cardinal directions
2. The round abacus in the Lion
Capital is decorated with four
dharmachakras or wheels of law,
alternating with an elephant, a bull,
a horse and a tiger
INSIGHTS
Page 4
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
13. Primary sector of the economy

includes activities
a) That are based on natural resources
b) Where a good is produced by
exploiting natural resources
c) That do not require skilled
manpower
d) That produce only intermediary
goods
14. Game theory concerns itself with the

a) Study of conflict and cooperation
between intelligent rational
decision-makers
b) Study of irrational behaviour of
human beings
c) Study of computer simulation
models of military strategy
d) Defence strategy of nations in
maritime zones
15. Ministry of Earth Sciences has

developed a SMS-based alert system
for which of the following disasters?
1. Heavy rains
2. Cyclones
3. Storms
4. Earthquakes
5. Avalanche
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above

1. Gandhara art was a product of the
combination of Hellenistic, West
Asiatic and native elements
2. In Gandhara Art, most of the
images represent Buddha as seated
in the typically Indian Yogic
posture
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
17. Urban lake pollution has become a

major problem in metro cities. Which
of the following biological measures
can be used to counter urban lake
pollution?
1. Spraying enzymes
2. Using bacteria that consume the
biological load in water
3. Introducing exotic fishes in the lake
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 5
18. Periodically, banks have to submit

information to the RBI on
1. How much they are lending
2. Who are they lending to
3. What interest rate are they lending
at
4. How much deposits do they have
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
19. With reference to Jainism and its

principles, consider the following
statements:
1. Samyak Darshana means seeing
(hearing, feeling, etc.) things
properly, and avoiding
preconceptions and superstitions
that get in the way of seeing clearly
2. Samyak jnana means having an
accurate and sufficient knowledge
of the real universe
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
20. Honeybees are critical to food

production because
a) They are responsible for pollinating
a large number of crops
b) They act as bio-pesticides killing
harmful bacteria in the fields
c) Their secretion acts as bio-fertilizer

for the crops
d) Beehives can be used to ward off
unwanted insects from the fields
21. Pankhida and Lotia are two song

traditions sung by peasants and
women respectively in which of the
following states?
a) Maharashtra
b) Punjab
c) Rajasthan
d) Bihar
22. The ozone hole over the Arctic would

have been 40 per cent bigger today if
ozone-depleting chemicals had not
been banned in the 1980s, suggests a
new research. Ozone depletion can
affect
1. Plant development and growth
2. Amount of phytoplankton in the
oceans
3. The natural balance of greenhouse
gases in the atmosphere
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
23. Urban heat island effect that

increases the effective temperature of
cities is caused due to
1. Paved ground
2. Lack of tree cover
INSIGHTS
Page 6
3. Air pollution
4. Tall buildings
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
24. Money is accepted as a medium of

exchange for goods and services in
India because
1. It carries intrinsic value.
2. It is used by banks.
3. It carries legal authority.
4. It is the most abundant resource.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
25. The unseasonal rain and hailstorm in

India this year damaged rabi crops,
wheat especially. This is speculated to
increase international wheat prices.
How?
1. Better quality wheat is available
internationally at prices that are
cheaper than in India.
2. India contributes substantially to
global wheat exports.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
1. She helped to establish the
Women's Indian Association (WIA)
in 1917
2. In 1925, she presided over the
annual session of Indian National
Congress at Cawnpore (now
Kanpur)
3. In 1931, she participated in the
Round table conference with
Gandhi and Madan Mohan
Malaviya
In the above statements, She refers to which
of the following freedom fighters?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Annie Besant
Kamala Nehru
Sarojini Naidu
Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
27. In the context of environment

conservation, what is rebound effect?
a) Supposedly environment friendly
techniques causing damage to the
environment
b) Reduction in expected gains from
new technologies that increase the
efficiency of resource use
c) Lack of adaptation of ecological
systems to the changes introduced
by human beings
Which of the above is/are correct reason(s)?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
INSIGHTS
Page 7
28. With reference to the Third Battle of

Panipath, consider the following
statements:
1. It was fought between Marathas
and force of Ahmad Shah Abdali
2. The outcome of the War resulted in
restoration of Mughal Empire to
Shah Alam II
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
29. The recent recovery in Indias growth

rate can be attributed to which of the
following factors?
1. Revision in the methodology of
GDP calculation
2. Substantial increase in gross capital
formation
3. Increase in manufacturing growth
rate
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
30. The incidence of cancer has grown

over the last decade in India. The
following regions lead in a particular
type of cancer. Match these regions
with the possible major causes of
cancer in them.
1. Punjab Pollution and use of

pesticides
2. West Bengal High use of tobacco
products
3. North-eastern region Household
burning of firewood
4. Coastal India diet rich in spice
and salt
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
31. The Union government will be

implementing the recommendations
made by the Kasturirangan panel on
conservation of Western Ghats soon.
Which of the following important
recommendations were made by the
panel?
1. Polluting industries should be
banned in entire Western Ghats
region.
2. All projects under Ecologically
Sensitive Areas (ESA) will require
prior-informed consent and noobjection from the Gram Sabha.
3. Establishment of an over-arching
authority to regulate development
in the region.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
None of the above
Page 8
32. In banking terminology, what does

collateral mean?
a) the person who takes the guarantee
for the lenders repayment ability
b) amount of loan that goes in
purchasing physical assets
c) an asset against which the lender
obtains the loan
d) credit history of the lender
33. Hatha Yoga is a popular system in

Indian Yogic practices. In this Hatha
refers to
a) The two symmetrical sides of the
human body
b) Concentration of the mind in the
kundalini
c) The two opposite currents that
regulate all processes in our body
d) The essence of all physical postures
that lead to greater human health
34. Car provides protection during a

thunderstorm and lightning because of
a) The elevation of the car from the
ground soil
b) Its rubber tyres that insulate the car
from ground
c) The metallic body of car
d) The insulating material present in
seats, handles and window
35. Which of the following are examples

of a physical process, denaturation?
1. Boiling of egg
2. Curdling of milk
3. Formation of tea
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
36. The National Highway 3 rund

through which of the following states?
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Chhattisgarh
5. Rajasthan
given below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2,3 and 4 Only

1,2 and 3 Only
1,2,3 and 4 Only
All
37. Consider the following about the role

and powers of the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
1. He is the head and representative
of the Lok Sabha.
2. His decision in all Parliamentary
matters is final.
3. He is the final interpreter of the
provisions of the Constitution of
India within the house.
4. He appoints the chairman of all the
parliamentary committees of the
Lok Sabha and supervises their
functioning.
INSIGHTS
Page 9

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
38. If too much of organic matter is added

to a water body, it may lead to
1. Reduction of dissolved oxygen
2. Algal boom
3. Greenhouse emission from the
water body
4. Loss of aquatic life in the water
body
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
39. Recently inflation is at a five year low

in the Indian economy. This can be
attributed to
1. Good rainfall
2. Fall in price rise rate of food items
3. Cheaper manufactured goods
4. Fall in prices of fuel and power
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
40. Which of the following is/are forms of

dance-drama or folk theatre performed
in various parts of India?
1. Yakshagana of Karnataka
2. Theyyam of Kerala
3. Tamasha of Maharashtra
4. The Bengali Jatra
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 3 Only

2,3 and 4 Only
1, 3 and 4 Only
All
41. The new way of calculating headline

GDP growth rate in India is based on
a) GDP at factor price at market prices
b) GDP at market prices
c) GDP at constant prices
d) GDP at factor price at constant
prices
42. You are suffering with acidity in the

stomach. Which of the following
is/are most likely to cure your acidity?
1. Antacid
2. Amla
3. Curd
4. Spinach
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1 only
Page 10

1. He is widely regarded as a key
figure in literary renaissance of
Bengal as well as India
2. From 1858, until his retirement in
1891, he served as a deputy
magistrate and deputy collector in
the Government of British India
To whom do the above descriptions refer to?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Rabindranath Tagore
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Ram Mohan Roy
44. With reference to Non-Cooperation

movement, consider the following
statements:
1. The movement was successful in
attaining its main objective
2. The main trigger for the launch of
this movement was the massacre at
Amritsar in April 1919
3. The movement marked the
transition of Indian nationalism
from a middle-class to a mass basis
2. Committee consisting of the PM,

Lok Sabha speaker and Leader of
Opposition
3. Former CAG of India
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
46. The Central Information Commission

of India performs which of the
following kind of tasks?
1. Quasi-judicial
2. Delegated legislation
3. Administrative
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
45. The Comptroller and Auditor General

of India is appointed by the President
of India based on the advice by
47. Resignation or dissolution of which of

the following may bring a collapse of
the Council of Ministers at the state
level?
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. State Legislative assembly
4. State Legislative Council
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 11
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 only
48. With reference to Satyagraha as

preached and practised by Gandhiji,
1. The satyagrahi asserts that truth by
refusing to submit to the wrong or
to cooperate with it in any way
2. Satyagraha forbids any tactic
suggesting the use of secrecy to
ones advantage
50. If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is

necessary in the national interest that
Parliament should make laws on a
matter in the State List, then the
Parliament becomes competent to
make laws on that matter. Such a
resolution must be supported by
a) two-third of members present and
voting
b) two-third of members present and
voting, and majority of the
membership of the house
c) simple majority of the house
d) majority of the membership of the
house

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
49. Fundamental rights in the constitution

are available against the arbitrary
action of
1. The State
2. Private individuals in some cases
3. Societies and associations
4. International agencies
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
51. In 1904 Gandhiji set up a farm at

Phoenix near Durban where he and his
friends could live in austerity and hard
work. Which of the following books
had an immediate influence on
Gandhiji to set up this farm?
a) War and Peace by Leo Tolstoy
b) Walden by Henry David Thoreau
c) Unto The Last by John Ruskin
d) The Bible
52. Average income a country can be a

good measure of economic progress,
but not economic development. Why?
1. It does not capture income
disparities.
2. It does not capture situation of
unemployment in the country.
3. It cannot capture the efficiency of
resource use of the country.
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 12
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
53. One way to find out if adults are

undernourished is to calculate what
nutrition scientists call Body Mass
Index (BMI). It is the
a) ratio of body weight and body
height
b) ratio of square of body weight; and
body height
c) ratio of body height; and square of
body weight
d) ratio of body height and body
weight
54. With reference to Round Table
Conferences that were held in London
during Indias struggle for its
independence from the British,
1. The first session had 73
representatives, from all Indian
states and all parties except the
Indian National Congress
2. The second session was attended
by Mahatma Gandhi as the
Congress representative
3. The Government of India Act -1935
was the result of deliberations held
at these Round Table Conferences.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
All
55. In India, the growth of the services

sector can be attributed to
1. Rising income of people
2. Urbanization
3. Developments in Science and
Technology
4. Development of agriculture and
industry sectors
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
56. Disguised unemployment is caused

essentially by
a) Under-employment
b) Unemployment
c) Casual employment
d) Over-Employment
57. A constitutional amendment bill may

need the consent of
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. President of India
4. State Legislative assemblies
5. State legislative councils
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
4 and 5 only
All of the above
Page 13
58. In 2014, the Nobel Prize in Physics was

awarded to scientists who invented
Efficient Blue Light-Emitting Diodes.
With reference to these Blue LEDs,
1. High-quality gallium phosphide is
used to create Blue LED
2. Invention of Blue LED was
essential to create a White LED
3. A modern white LED lightblub
converts more than 50 percent of
the electricity it uses into light
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 3 Only
All
59. The rivers Indravati River, Manjira

River, Bindusara River and Sabari
River are the tributaries of which of
the following river?
a) Krishna River
b) Godavari River
c) Narmada River
d) Damodar River
60. For rural households, arrange the

following sources of credit in
descending order with respect to their
credit volume?
1. Moneylenders
2. Cooperative banks
3. Government
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
123
231
213
132
61. As per the 73rd Constitutional

amendment, the power to expand the
responsibilities of the panchayati raj
bodies rests with
a) State legislatures
b) Governor
c) President of India
d) Parliament
62. With reference to the Lucknow Pact,

1. The pact dealt both with the
structure of the government of
India and with the relation of the
Hindu and Muslim communities.
2. This pact paved the way for
Hindu-Muslim cooperation in the
Khilafat movement and Gandhijis
non-cooperation movement from
1920
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
63. Consider the following about the areas

under the Sixth schedule of the
Constitution.
1. The governor is empowered to
organise and re-organise the
INSIGHTS
Page 14
autonomous districts under these

areas.
2. The district and regional councils
can make laws on certain specified
matters.
3. The acts of Parliament or the state
legislature necessarily do not apply
to autonomous districts.
4. The village councils can do trial of
suits and cases between the tribes.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
64. Consumers in India have the legal

right to information about the goods
being sold to them. For a medical
commodity, displaying which of the
following information is mandatory
for the producers?
1. Ingredients used
2. Information relating to side effects
and risks
3. Address of the manufacturer
4. Directions for proper use
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
65. With reference to the World Food

Prize, consider the following
statements:
1. It was created by Norman E
Borlaug
2. It was created to honour
individuals who have contributed
to improving the availability and
quality of food worldwide
3. It is given by the United Nations
World Food Programme
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 Only
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
66. Which of the following are included in

the non-tax revenue receipts of the
government of India?
1. Profits and dividends which the
government gets from its public
sector undertakings
2. External grants received by the
government
3. Interests received by the
government out of all loans
forwarded by it
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 15
67. To secure for all citizens a uniform

civil code throughout the country is
one of the Directive Principles of state
policy in our constitution. If this is
implemented, it will lead to
1. common laws for all religious
communities in India
2. common laws for both men and
women
3. centralization of justice delivery
system in courts rather than local
bodies
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
68. With reference to a National Park

located in Jammu and Kashmir,
1. It is located 22 kilometers from
Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir
2. This National park is located in the
Zabarwan Range of the western
Himalayas
3. The main animal species that this
National Park is most famous for is
the hangul, or the Kashmir stag
To which National Parks given below does
above descriptions refer ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Hemis National Park

Kazinag National Park
Kishtwar National Park
Dachigam National Park
69. Which of the following processes lead

to loss of vitamins/nutrients from
vegetables?
1. mixing with other vegetables
2. if excess water used in the cooking
is thrown away
3. continuous heating
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Assertion (A): Farmers do not need to add
nitrogen fertiliser to the soil in
which
leguminous plants are grown.
Reason (R): Rhizobium bacteria that can take
atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into a
soluble form lives in the roots of leguminous
plants.
of these is true?
INSIGHTS
Page 16
71. Which of the following is/are the same

for both the Supreme Court and High
Courts?
1. Appointment procedure of Judges
2. Extent of writ issuing authority
3. Power to interpret the constitution
4. Power of Judicial review of Central
laws
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
72. With reference to the Khilafat

Movement, consider the following
statements:
1. One of the causes of this movement
was the Treaty of Svres (August
1920), which gave parts of the
Turkish homeland to Greece and
other non-Muslim powers
2. The movement collapsed when
Mustafa Kemal Atatrk abolished
the caliphate altogether in 1924
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
73. Due to temperature differences, warm

air at equator rises up and cold wind
from the Northern and Southern Polar
Regions rush in, to take its place. But,
the wind movement is not exactly in

the North-South Direction because of
a) Rotation of earth
b) Revolution of earth around the Sun
c) Direction change by ocean currents
and obstruction by clouds
d) Obstruction by landscapes
74. Design of the Vermi-processing toilets

has been tested in India. Consider the
following about it.
1. Excreta are treated by earthworms.
2. It is a totally dry technology.
3. Processed material is suitable for
use as herbicide in farms.
4. Pilot projects in trains have been
implemented with this toilet.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 only
2, 3 and 4 only
75. Turning and loosening of soil is very

important for cultivation of crops.
Why?
1. Brings the nutrient-rich soil to the
top
2. Helps in the growth of earthworms
and microbes present in the soil
3. Reduces the harm caused by
pesticides
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 17
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
76. Which of the following affects the

propagation of electromagnetic
waves?
1. Composition of the earths
atmosphere
2. Shape of earth
3. Amount of humidity present in the
surrounding environment
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
77. Hair washed with hard water looks

dull because of a sticky precipitate
which also makes
1. Clothe fibres hard
2. Human intestines more prone to
blockages
3. Foams in polluted urban lakes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
None of the above
a) Rate of production of organic

matter during photosynthesis
b) Rate of diversification of the
species base every year
c) Rate of gathering of organic matter
by all possible natural processes
d) Rate of nutrient cycling to and fro
from soil
79. With reference to the Parliamentary
seats, the Constitution ensures that
there is uniformity of representation
1. between the states
2. between the different
constituencies of the state
Which of the above correctly complete the
above statement?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
80. Which of the following species found

in India has been kept in the critically
endangered in the IUCN red list?
1. Himalayan Quail
2. Indian Vulture
3. Siberian Crane
4. Namdapha Flying Squirrel
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
78. Gross primary productivity of an

ecosystem is
INSIGHTS
Page 18

1. A given species may occupy more
than one trophic level in the same
ecosystem at the same time.
2. In most ecosystems, pyramids of
energy and biomass are upright.
Which of these is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
82. Panch Mahal, located in Agra, Uttar

Pradesh is an example of
a) Indo-Islamic Architecture
b) Indo Roman Architecture
c) Indo Saracenic Architecture
83. In ecological terminology, what are

seres?
a) Edge species that show greater
diversity in the centre of an
ecosystem
b) Entire sequence of communities
that successively change in a given
area
c) A sequence of communities that
remains constant despite the
change in the type of ecosystem in
surrounding areas
84. Which are the major differences

between carbon and phosphorus
cycles in the atmosphere?
1. Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus

through rainfall are much smaller
than carbon inputs.
2. Gaseous exchanges of phosphorus
between organism and
environment are negligible.
Which of these is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
85. Which of the following are ecosystem

services that are hard and exorbitantly
costly to replicate technologically?
1. Mitigating droughts
2. Pollinating crops
3. Providing carbon sinks
4. Nutrient cycling
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
86. Bio-magnification occurs when

1. The substance can't be broken
down by environmental processes
2. The substance concentration
increases progressively as it moves
up a food chain
3. Low or non-existent rate of internal
degradation or excretion of the
substance by living organisms
INSIGHTS
Page 19

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
87. Purchasing power parity between two

currencies means that
a) both currencies have equal
exchange rate
b) same goods in both currencies will
effectively cost the same
c) both currencies can be replaced
without buying and selling in the
Forex market
d) All of the above
88. Which of the following can be the uses
of DNA fingerprinting?
1. To determine paternity of an
individual.
2. To identify the dead bodies in any
accident by comparing the DNAs
of parents or children
3. To identify racial groups to rewrite
biological evolution
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
89. Atmospheric pollution is generally

studied at
1. Stratospheric levels
2. Tropospheric levels
3. Ionospheric levels
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
90. In a greenhouse, visible light passes

through the transparent glass and
heats up the soil and the plants. Apart
from the sun rays, greenhouse is also
heated by
a) Infrared emissions from warm Soil
b) Infrared emissions from warm
plants
c) Infrared emissions from both warm
Soil and plants
d) Infrared emissions from humidity
present in the greenhouse
91. Acid rain can be controlled by
1. Using low sulphur content diesel in
vehicles
2. Switching over to natural gas as
fuels instead of coal or oil
3. Encouraging use of firewood rather
than Kerosene
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
Page 20
92. Photochemical smog, a growing

problem in urban areas is most likely
to happen in
a) Warm, sunny and dry climates
b) Hot and humid climates
c) Cold and dry climates
d) Cold and humid climates
93. Certain plants can metabolize nitrogen

oxide and help control urban
pollution. These plants are
1. Pinus
2. Quercus
3. Vitis
4. Juniparus
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
94. A patent is a set of exclusive rights

granted by a sovereign state to an
inventor or assignee for a limited
period of time in exchange for
a) detailed public disclosure of an
invention
b) royalty from the state
c) monetary incentives from the users
d) commercial availability of the
invention
1. State governments are subservient

to the Union government
2. State governments derive their
power from the Union government
3. Union government is primarily
responsible for the administration
in the states
4. All major decision concerning
states are taken by the Union
government
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
96. In the process of transpiration, the

evaporation of water from leaves also
helps in
1. Transportation of water to great
heights in the plant
2. Regulating the temperature of the
plant
3. Absorbing more nutrients from the
roots
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
95. The Indian constitution is said to have

a Federal System with Unitary Bias. It
means that
INSIGHTS
Page 21

recently launched National
Supercomputing Mission of India.
1. Under this, national academic and
R&D institutions will get super
computing grids.
2. It provides for development of
professional High Performance
Computing (HPC) aware human
resource.
3. Supercomputing centres will be
opened in every state in India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
100.
The Dhamekh stupa is an
imposing cylindrical structure of the
Gupta age, partly built of stone and
partly of brick. This site is looked upon
with, greatest sanctity and became a
flourishing Buddhist establishment
with numerous temples, stupas and
monasteries. Where is this stupa
located?
a) Bodh Gaya
b) Sarnath
c) Kushinagar
d) Rajgir
1 and 2 only
3 only
1 only
All of the above
98. What was common between Ghosha,

Lopamudra, Apala and Romasha
Brahmavadini
a) They were ancient Indian women
authors
b) They were ancient Indian women
painters
c) They were ancient Indian women
dancers
99. The apex court of India, Supreme

Court, was established under the
a) Regulating Act of 1773
b) Pitts India Act 1784
c) Charter Act 1833
d) Queens Durbar Proclamation 1911
INSIGHTS
Page 22

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
question.
(iii)
for that question.
INSIGHTS
Page 1
1. Consider the following about the Food

Safety and Standards Authority of
India (FSSAI).
2. Union Ministry of Health & Family
Welfare is the Administrative
Ministry for the implementation of
FSSAI.
3. It provides scientific and technical
advice to Central and state
governments on food safety.
4. Only FSSAI can ban an unsafe food
from market.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
2. India has recently slapped antidumping duty on imports of certain

steel products from China, Malaysia
and South Korea. Anti-dumping duty
is applied when
a) Imports are much cheaper than
their actual market price
b) Imports are much costlier than
their actual market price
c) Imports exceed the allowed quota
by the government
d) Countries collude to reduce the
quantity of imports to a particular
nation

benefits to India by ratifying the IndiaBangladesh Land Boundary
agreement?
1. It will allow Indian security forces

seamless access to both sides of the
land border.
2. It will settle the question of
citizenship for various people in the
disputed enclaves around the land
boundary.
3. It would improve access to the
north-eastern states.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
4. Members of which of the following

security forces in India are known as
Black Cats?
a) National Security Guard
b) Central Reserve Police Force
c) Rapid Action Force
5. In recorded human history, which of

the following human organs have been
transplanted?
1. Heart
2. Skull and scalp partially
3. Intestine
4. Brain
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
Page 2
6. Recently, the Union Government has

launched nationwide Jal Kranti
Abhiyan. It aims at
a) Providing all villages with piped
drinking water facility
b) Turning one water scared village in
each district of the country into
water surplus village
c) Rejuvenating the natural water
sources in all Indian villages to
reduce water deficit and tackle
drought
d) Water saving in all the Indian
villages through awareness
generation and financial incentives
7. Kitab-ul-Hind which recorded various

aspects of India among other things as
seen by a traveller, was written by
a) Ibn Battuta
b) Al Biruni
c) Ibn Juzayy
d) Shaikh Ali Hazin
8. Under WTO rules, a nation can ban

imports of a particular commodity
from a nation in which of the following
cases?
1. To protect domestic industries
2. On grounds that the imported
commodity does not comply with
international standards
3. On ground of public health
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
9. In banking, the difference between real

and nominal interest rates reflects
a) Cost of loan to the banks
b) Rate of Inflation
c) Profit to banks
d) Difference between repo and
reverse repo rate
10. Corporate farming refers to a practice

where
1. Land is owned by the corporate
2. Farmer undertakes a contract
based on a payment to grow crops
on his land
3. Corporate involve themselves in
front end agricultural marketing
activities
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 only
11. With reference to Franois Bernier,

1. He extensively travelled in India
during the rule of Aurangzeb and
Dara Shikoh
2. One of his books is considered the
first published post-Classical
classification of humans into
distinct races
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
Page 3
12. The Tripartite Free Trade Area (TFTA)

has been signed between
a) African Nations
b) Asia-Pacific rim nations USA,
Japan, South Korea
c) West European nations France,
Germany and Greece
d) South-east Asian nations, Russia
and Australia
13. The Constitution confers which of the

following rights and privileges on the
citizens of India, and denies the same
to aliens?
1. Cultural and educational rights
2. Right to freedom
3. Right against exploitation
4. Right to equality of opportunity
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only

1. Climate refers to the sum total of
weather conditions and variations
over a large area for a long period
of time (more than thirty years)
2. The elements of weather and
climate are the same
3. Weather refers to the state of the
atmosphere over an area at any
point of time
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
3 and 1 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
15. The Government of India Act of 1919,

also known as Montagu-Chelmsford
Reforms provided for the system of
diarchy. This meant that
a) The legislative sphere of central and
provincial government was clearly
demarcated
b) Instead of a single legislative
chamber, two councils
(bicameralism) will take decisions
c) A part of provincial legislation will
be handled by the Governor and the
rest by the legislative council
16. During Presidents rule in a state

1. State council of ministers is
dissolved
2. Central government takes over the
executive machinery of the state
3. The President becomes empowered
to make laws with respect to any
matter in state list
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
17. With reference to Permanent

Settlement system of land revenue,
1. It was an agreement between the
East India Company and Bengali
landlords to fix revenues to be
raised from land
2. The British officials hopes to
encourage investment in
agriculture through this initiative
INSIGHTS
Page 4
3. By introducing this system, the

British hoped to establish a class of
yeomen farmers and rich
landowners who would be loyal to
the Company
INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
18. Consider the following about IAP

HealthPhone programme recently
launched by Union government.
1. It is a digital mass education
programme.
2. It will address malnutrition in
women and children.
3. It is supported by UNICEF.
4. It is a Public-Private Partnership
(PPP) initiative.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
19. Under which of the following writs a

court issue command to a public
official asking him to perform his
official duties that he has failed or
refused to perform?
a) Certiorari
b) Mandamus
c) Prohibition
d) Quo-Warranto
20. The Gross National Product (GDP) of a

nation is NOT affected in the short-run
by
1. Growing trade deficit
2. Growing flow of remittances
3. Cutting down on interest rates in
the economy
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
It is affected by all of the above.
21. Concerning the Central government,

which of the following are
constitutional mandates/duties?
1. To devolve a share of income
proceeds to states
2. To protect states from
constitutional breakdown
3. To protect states from external and
internal aggression
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
22. To whom does the below description

refer to?
1. He oversaw the consolidation of
British control over much of
peninsular India, setting the stage
for the British Raj
2. He was instrumental in enacting
administrative and legal reforms
that fundamentally altered civil
INSIGHTS
Page 5
administration and land

management practices in India
3. He introduced a system of circuit
courts with a superior court that
met in Calcutta and had the power
of review over circuit court
decisions
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Lord Dalhousie
Lord Cornwallis
Lord William Bentinck
Lord Ripon
23. Under the system of Scientific

Forestry in colonial times
a) New trees are added to a region as
per its ecology
b) Old trees are cut and new monovariety of trees are grown in its
place
c) Biodiversity of a forest is enhanced
by adding exotic and native species
24. With reference to Nader Shahs

invasion of Mughal India and the
subsequent plunder, consider the
1. At the time of Nader Shahs
invasion, Aurangzeb was old and
facing succession wars from his
sons
2. He defeated Mughal army at the
Battle of Karnal
3. Mughals defeat paved the way for
the British to fill the power vacuum
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
25. The Ashobaa cyclonic depression over
the Arabian Sea has shortly disrupted
the normal flow of the southwest
monsoon winds because
1. Southwest monsoon winds have
now turned towards the north and
the west after entering the
Southern Peninsula
2. The cyclonic depression has
delayed the heating, condensation
and precipitation in the Indian
ocean
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
26. Consider the following about the role

and functions of the RBI.
1. It is the custodian of the stipulated
cash reserves of the Commercial
Banks.
2. It manages the banking needs of
the government.
3. It controls the money supply in the
economy.
4. It manages the Foreign Exchange
Management Act.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above

a) 2 and 3 Only
INSIGHTS
Page 6
27. If the Ministry of Environment and

Forests (MoEF) declares some wild
animals as vermin it would
1. Allow their liberal hunting in the
forests
2. Allow their movement from one
forest to other
3. Declare them as no beneficial to
humans
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
28. With reference to Manikkavachakar,

1. He was a Sangam poet and wrote
Vaishnav hymns in Tamil
2. His work is a poetic expression of
the joy of God-experience, the
anguish of being separated from
God
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None

1. India lies in the region of north
easterly winds
2. North-easterly winds originate
from the subtropical high-pressure
belt of the northern hemisphere
3. North-easterly winds are known as
doldrums
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 1 Only
2 and 1 Only
3 and 2 Only
All
30. If the tax expenditure of the

government increases, it implies that
1. Government is giving greater tax
exemptions
2. Revenue expenditure of the
government is increasing
3. Government is spending more tax
money in non-plan sector of the
economy
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
31. In India, which of these might lead to

inflationary pressures in the shortrun?
1. Printing more money
2. Rupee Depreciation
3. High tax rebates to Indian citizens
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

INSIGHTS
Page 7
32. The Greek depression refers to the

phenomenon which started with
a) Greece nearly defaulting on
sovereign debt
b) Greece suffering very low economic
growth rates immediately after the
2008 recession
c) Greece being pushed out of the
European Monetary union because
of debt default
d) The massive austerity programs in
Greece leading to high debt levels
and unemployment
33. With reference to Subsidiary Alliance,

1. Subsidiary Alliance was a system
devised by Lord Dalhousie in 1798.
2. According to this, the British would
be responsible for protecting their
ally from external and internal
threats to their power
3. According to this, the ally could
enter into agreements with other
rulers or engage in warfare only
with the permission of the British
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 Only
2 and 3 Only
All
34. Which of these activities are legally

permitted for banks, but NOT for NonBanking Financial Institutions
(NBFIs)?
1. Offering loans
2. Offering deposits
3. Offering cheque withdrawal facility

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
35. Which of the following may force

marine life to poles from the equator?
1. Rising sea levels
2. Rising sea temperatures
3. Increased mineralization of sea
water
4. Increased population of
phytoplanktons in the ocean
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only

1. The western cyclonic disturbances
experienced in the north and northwestern parts of India are brought
in by this westerly flow
2. Western disturbances are
subtropical storms
3. Western Disturbances are
important to the development of
the Kharif crop in the northern
subcontinent
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
3 and 1 Only
All
Page 8
37. Which one of the following bioreserves of India is not included in the
world network of bioreserve?
a) Manas
b) Gulf of Mannar
c) Nokrek
d) Nanda devi
38. Which of these statements is/are true

about Endemic species?
1. They are naturally found only in an
exclusive area.
2. They cannot be introduced in areas
other than where they are found.
3. Exotic species and endemic species
cannot coexist.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

scientific technique of growing testtube babies.
1. It is done when the female is totally
incapable of giving birth.
2. Baby is fertilized and grown under
laboratory conditions.
3. It also leads to genetic
modifications in the baby.

1. In Mahayana and Vajrayana
Buddhism, she is a deva or
bodhisattva associated with light
and the sun
2. She has been depicted with one,
three, five or six faces and two, six,
eight, ten or twelve arms; three
eyes; in her many-faced
manifestations one of her faces is
that of a sow
To which God/Goddess does above
description refer to?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Vajravrh
Varahi
Marichi
Vajrayogini
41. An increase in the carbon dioxide

content in the atmosphere would cause
1. More heat to be retained in the
atmosphere
2. Less moisture to be retained in the
air
3. Erosion of the ozone in the
atmosphere
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
None of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
INSIGHTS
Page 9
42. As per recent study, a bird species

Yellow-breasted buntings is near to
extinction. Consider the following
about it.
1. It is a songbird.
2. It is a migratory bird wintering in
India.
3. The main reason for the decline of
the species is habitat destruction.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
43. In the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War,

which combined forces defeated Tipu
Sultan?
a) The British East India Company
and the Nizam of Hyderabad
b) The British East India and the
French
c) The British East India and the
Marathas
d) The British East India and the
Dutch
44. The Central Vigilance Commissioner
and other Vigilance commissioners are
appointed by the President on the
recommendation of a select committee
including
1. Prime Minister
2. Union Home Minister
3. Leader of Opposition, Lok Sabha
4. Lok Sabha speaker
5. Chief Justice of India
below.
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
45. In the regional music Pandavani of
Chattisgarh
a) Tales from Mahabharata are sung
as a ballad
b) Farm songs are recited in unison by
peasants in harvest season
c) War gods are celebrated by
powerful group singing and
dancing in temples
d) A local poetic version of Bhagwat
Gita is recited on auspicious
religious occasions
46. To which of the following forest types

does Bamboos, sal, shisham,
sandalwood tree species
predominantly belong to?
a) Tropical evergreen
b) Tropical dry deciduous
c) Tropical moist deciduous
d) Tropical semi-evergreen
47. In the mid-oceanic ridges, sea floor

spreading leads to
1. Increases in age of rocks as one
moves away from the crest.
2. Thin layers of sediments on the
ocean floor
3. Occurrence of lava near the ridges
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
a) 2, 4 and 5 only
INSIGHTS
Page 10
48. Elite Panel of International Cricket

Council (ICC) Umpires is chosen by
a) The respective national cricket
boards
b) The respective international cricket
clubs to which the empires belong
c) The ICC Umpires Selection Panel
d) A committee consisting of the elite
panel of empires of ICC

1. The name Pakistan or Pak-stan was
coined by Urdu poet Mohammad
Iqbal
2. The Urdu poet Mohammad Iqbal
apoke of the need for a NorthWest Indian Muslim state as an
autonomous unit within a single,
loose Indian federation
49. Hydrogen is an important nutrient for

plant growth and development. Plants
obtain hydrogen from
a) Air
b) Water
c) Soil
d) Manures
50. With reference to a particular school of

painting that originated in India,
1. The paintings, usually 17 by 11
inches (43 by 28 centimetres), were
done on blank sheets, with no
attempt made to fill in the
backgrounds
2. It was a watercolour painting
produced in the 19th century in
India by artists in the Calcutta
marketplace for sale to pilgrims
3. Most usually depicted were the
popular Hindu deities, but scenes
of contemporary life are also found
Identify the school of painting from below
options:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Pahari School of Painting

Bengal School of Painting
Kalighat School of Painting
None of the above
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
52. The Khoya Paya web platform lauched

by Union government is for people to
a) Report, track and upload
information on missing children
b) Report, track and upload
information on
missing/stolen/mishandled goods
c) Report and track missing women in
local regions
d) Report and track women who are
victims of trafficking and
prostitution
53. Recent lowering of Repo rate by the

RBI may
1. Immediately reduce money supply
in the economy
2. Make lending difficult for banks
3. Lead to immediate reduction in
deposit interest rates for people
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 11
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above
54. Environmental impact

assessment (EIA) is NOT concerned
with
1. Mitigating the developmental
effects of a project
2. Public participation in evaluating
projects
3. Social impact of a project
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1 and 3 only

1. Defence was one of the many
reasons why the British took upon
themselves the task of town
planning from the early years of
their rule in Bengal
2. The Fort William was Calcuttas
first significant town planning
measure
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
56. Which of the following differentiate an

ordinary committee from a
Parliamentary committee?
1. It is appointed or elected by the
House or nominated by the
Speaker/Chairman
2. It works under the direction of the
Speaker/Chairman.
3. It presents its report directly to the
President of India.
4. It is assisted by the Central
Secretariat.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
57. Consider the following about Green

Climate Fund (GCF).
1. It was established under United
Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP).
2. It is aimed at achieving the goal set
out by United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC).
3. It is a mechanism to redistribute
money from the developed to the
developing world.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 12
58. Which one of the following lakes is a

salt water lake?
a) Sambhar
b) Wular
c) Dal
d) Loktak
59. As per the Constitution, which of the

following is/are NOT a part of the
Union Executive?
1. Vice-President
3. Non-cabinet Ministers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
4 only

eligibility criteria for the office of the
Prime Minister?
1. He should not have been a former
President of India.
2. He should have been directly
elected by the people of India.
3. He should be the leader of a
political party.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above

1. Fiscal deficit always leads to
inflation in the economy.
2. Supply side bottlenecks in the
economy are caused by low fiscal
deficit.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
62. Gene therapy is a collection of methods

that allows correction of a gene defect.
It can NOT be administered in
1. Children
2. Old age people
3. Human embryos
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
It can be administered in all.

Middle East Respiratory Syndrome
(MERS) recently in news.
1. The virus causing it comes from
bats.
2. People can be infected after close
contact with victims via a
respiratory route.
3. The disease vector has not been
firmly established.
4. Till date there is no vaccine
available to prevent it.
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 13
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
64. Which one of the following was/were

prominent among the Kannada
Vachana Sahitya movement?
1. Basavanna
2. Akka Mahadevi
3. Allama Prabhu
4. Kannappa Nayanar
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 4 Only

1 and 3 Only
1,2 and 3 Only
All

effects of Fluoride in water.
1. Its deficiency in drinking water can
cause tooth decay.
2. Excess Fluoride concentration in
water causes brown mottling of
teeth and damage to bones.
3. Fluoride concentration in water is
also related to blue-baby
syndrome.
the energy of sunlight that falls on

their leaves and convert it into food
energy. When the plants are consumed
at the higher trophic levels, plants
stored energy is lost in
1. Heat to environment
2. Digestion of the food
3. Growth and development of the
organism
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
67. The government can stabilize or boost

the economy by which of the following
measures?
1. Tweaking monetary policy
2. Providing fiscal stimulus
3. Welfare transfers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
66. The green plants in a terrestrial

ecosystem capture a little fraction of
68. The legitimacy of Special Drawing

Rights (SDR) being used for
international transactions comes from
1. IMF authorising its use
2. Nations willing to use it
3. Nearly constant value of the SDR
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 14
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

1. Growth in the fraction of those who
can work and are looking for it
2. Growth in the fraction of those who
find work
3. Growth in the fraction of those
employed in organized sector
Which of the above correspond correctly with
Labour Force Participation rate and
Employment Rate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 respectively
70. The system of progressive taxation in

the country is in accordance with the
a) Directive principles of State Policy
b) Fundamental Rights
c) Preamble
d) All of the above

1. Jinnah called for a Direct Action
Day to press the Leagues demand
for Pakistan after the failure of
Cabinet Mission talks
2. The Cabinet Mission plan
envisaged creation of Muslimmajority provinces grouped as Sind, Punjab and North-West
Frontier Province into one group,
and Bengal and Assam into another

INCORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
72. Crop rotation can be done by

1. Growing different crops in different
seasons
2. Growing different crops in different
fields
3. Growing alternate crops in
alternate rows in the same field
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
73. To protect grains from degradation

and pests like rats and insects, grains
may be stored in
1. Jute bags
2. Metallic bins
3. Clay pots
4. Grass baskets
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 15
74. The Indian model of government is

also called as the Westminster model
of government because
a) Indian constitution was made with
the assistance of the British
b) Indian constitution was modelled
very closely on the lines of the
British constitution
c) India follows parliamentary form of
government
d) The popular parliamentary house is
elected
75. Which of the following provisions

ensure the independence and
impartiality of the office of the Lok
Sabha Speaker?
1. He can be removed only by a
resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
by a special majority.
2. His work and conduct cannot be
discussed and criticised in the Lok
Sabha except on a substantive
motion.
3. His salary and allowances are not
subject to the annual vote of
Parliament.
4. He cannot vote in the first instance.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
None of the above
All of the above
76. The High court has original

jurisdiction with respect to which of
these matters?
1. Dispute between two adjoining
states
2. Selective cases involving

Constitutional Interpretation
3. Disputes relating to the election of
MPs and MLAs
4. Enforcement of fundamental rights
of citizens
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
All of the above
77. In 1946, Mahatma Gandhi visited

Noakhali and other riot-torn areas to
stop communal violence. Today
Noakhali is located in which of the
following states?
a) Bihar
b) West Bengal
c) Assam
78. The Nubra, the Shyok and the Hunza

are the tributaries of which of the
following rivers?
a) Brahmaputra
b) Indus
c) Jhelum
d) Chenab
79. The Finance Commission is required to

make recommendations to the
president of India in which of the
following matters?
1. Augmenting the resources of the
PSUs
2. Augmenting the resources of the
states to support local bodies
INSIGHTS
Page 16
3. Principles that should govern the

grants-in-aid to the states by the
Centre
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
80. Consider the following about Manipuri

Dances.
1. It is a classical dance of India.
2. In this, there are references to the
dances of gods and goddesses who
created the universe.
3. It was introduced by a Vaishnava
saint and reformer of Manipur.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

travellers/scholars was/were
associated with the Vijayanagar
Empire and Hampi?
1. Colin Mackenzie
2. John Marshall
3. Alexander Greenlaw
4. J.F. Fleet
below:
d) All

adjournment and prorogation of the
house.
1. Unlike Adjournment, Prorogation
of the house not only terminates
not only the sitting but also the
session of the House.
2. Adjournment and prorogation both
are done by the Speaker.
3. Both do not affect the bills or any
other business pending before the
House.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Union Public Service Commission.
1. It is an advisory body to the
2. It presents its annual report
directly to the Parliament.
3. An individual ministry or
department has no power to reject
the advice of the UPSC.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 1,3 and 4 Only
INSIGHTS
Page 17
84. Which of the following factors affect

the amount of insolation received by
the Earth at different latitudes?
1. Tilt of Earths axis
3. Atmospheric circulation
4. Cloudiness
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above

1. In general, as we proceed from the
equator towards the poles, rainfall
goes on decreasing steadily.
2. The coastal areas of the world
receive greater amounts of rainfall
than the interior of the continents.
3. The rainfall is more over the oceans
than on the landmasses of the
world.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

1. A species with a high genetic
diversity has greater chance to
survive climate change.
2. An ecosystem with high
biodiversity has a greater chance of
adapting to environmental change.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
87. The process in Eutrophication that is

central to reducing biodiversity in a
lake is?
a) Decomposition of organic matter
into inorganic matter by algae
b) Breakdown of organic matter that
consumes oxygen from water
c) Reduction of organic matter that is
the feedstock of aquatic animals
d) Abundance of flora in the lake
leading to habitat fragmentation
and reduced food and space
88. Over half of the e-wastes generated in

the developed world are exported to
developing countries where some of
the important metals can be obtained
in the recycling process. These are
1. Copper
2. Iron
3. Silicon
4. Nickel
5. Gold
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
All except 3 and 4

All except 1 and 2
All except 5
All of the above

INSIGHTS
Page 18
89. Snow-blindness can be caused by

exposure to
1. Ultra-violet rays
2. High intensity gamma rays
3. High frequency X-rays
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
3 only

Petroleum.
1. It is formed in absence of oxygen.
2. While extracting from rocks, it is
found above water.
3. Petroleum deposits usually contain
natural gas deposits too.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
91. Consider the following about reserved

and protected forests.
1. Human activities like hunting and
grazing are permitted here.
2. Reserved forests have more
stringent environmental
regulations that protected forests.
3. These areas are declared by the
state governments.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
92. Which of the following rights have

been granted to the Attorney General
of India?
1. Right to take part in the
proceedings in any of the houses of
Parliament
2. Right to be a member of a
Parliamentary Committee
3. Right to all the privileges and
immunities granted to the MPs
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
93. Waterlogging is a major problem in

agriculture because
1. It draws salt to the surface of the
soil.
2. It leads to salt being collected
around the roots of the plants.
3. It reduces the biological activity of
microorganisms in the soil.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

below.
a) 1 and 2 only
INSIGHTS
Page 19
94. Which of the following would

constitute a case of bio-piracy?
1. MNCs using the bio-resources of a
nation without proper
authorization
2. Individuals and companies
patenting indigenous traditional
community knowledge
3. Poaching and hunting of animals to
extract economically expensive
parts
3. Bi-annual Parliamentary financial

review
4. Motions and resolutions in the Lok
Sabha
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
95. Tadoba National Park which is known

as Maharashtra's oldest and largest
National Park is famous for
a) Tiger Reserve
b) Elephant Reserve
c) Chinkara Reserve
d) Crocodile Reserve
96. The Caral civilization was recently in

news due to discovery of ancient
statues. The civilization was present in
a) Columbia
b) Mexico
c) Peru
d) Argentina
97. Fiscal accountability of the executive to

the legislature is ensured by which of
these?
1. FRBM Act, 2003
2. Annual Budgets
98. The government will have to

compulsorily borrow not only to
finance its plan expenditure but also
its non-plan expenditure
(consumption requirements) in cases
of
1. Fiscal deficit
2. Revenue deficit
3. Primary deficit
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
3 only
99. Consider the following about carrier

INS Vikrant.
1. It has been made in India after
importing Russian technology.
2. It is Indias largest aircraft carrier.
3. It will be positioned in the South
China Sea region.
4. It is capable of being used as a
stealth submarine also.
below.
INSIGHTS
Page 20
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
100.
Adipurana, a 10th-century
Kannada text written in Champu style,
a mix of prose and verse, dealing with

the ten lives of the first tirthankara,
Adinatha, was written by
a) Ranna
b) Janna
c) Pampa
d) Ponna
INSIGHTS
Page 21
TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
(i)
question.
(iii)
for that question.

Page 1


benefits/applications may be derived from
the national project, India-based Neutrino
Observatory (INO)?
1. Remote monitoring of nuclear
reactors
2. Detecting mineral and oil deposits
deep in the earth
3. Finding out early geological defects in
earth
4. Understanding dark matter
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
2. Consider the following about Neutrinos.

1. They are one of the fundamental
particles.
2. They can be harmful when exposed to
bare human body.
3. They can be weaponised for mass
destruction (WMD).
4. They are the information bearers of
the universe.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
3. C N R Rao, became the first Indian to

reach the h-index of 100. The h-index is a
measure of
a) level of Scientific productivity

b) level of International presence of a
scientist
c) number of awards won at International
level
d) number of patents in the name of the
scientist
4. Consider the following about GPS Aided

Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN)
system.
1. It is Indias first indigenous
navigational guide system.
2. It is being used only for military
purposes in India.
3. It is supported by Polar satellites.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
5. The Union Government has recently

launched NOWCAST weather alert
system. It will serve
a) flood and drought sensitive rural areas
in India for mitigation and
rehabilitation purposes
b) farmers giving alerts on extreme
weather conditions
c) Indian shipping industry by providing
details on tides, wave height, tsunami
and cyclones
d) coastal areas in the high risk zones of
tsunamis, cyclones and hailstorms

Page 2

6. In view of the farmer suicides in the

country, the government has been running
some insurance schemes. Which of the
following crop insurance schemes are
running till date?
1. Modified National Insurance Scheme
(MNAIS)
2. Farm Income Insurance Scheme
(FIIS)
3. Weather based Crop Insurance
Scheme (WBCIS)
4. Comprehensive Crop Insurance
Scheme (CCIS)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
7. By government support, farmers in India

can be insured against
1. Shortfall in crop yield
2. Crop loss due to adverse events
3. Crop loss due to pest attacks
4. Post-harvest crop losses within a
specified period
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
8. A state political party can be derecognized by the Election Commission of

India when
1. It fails to submit its poll expenses
2. It does not reveal information under

the RTI Act
3. It fails to win any seat in state
elections.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
9. Researchers have recently created the

worlds thinnest light bulb using graphene
as filament. Graphene is
a) a crystalline form of carbon allotrope
b) a condensed form of silicon that is
used in making thin sheets
c) an alloy of tungsten popularly used as
high melting points metals
d) a mixed form of glass and carbon that
has greater agility and durability
10. Charles Correa played a pivotal role in the

creation of architecture for postIndependence India. He was also
1. the first Chairman of the National
Commission on Urbanization
2. known for his use of traditional
methods and materials for
construction
3. Indias first architect to have designed
structures for other sovereign nations.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Page 3

11. The Battle of Waterloo was a pivotal

moment in modern History of Europe. In
this battle
a) Napolean was defeated by Angloallied and Prussian army
b) Prussia was defeated in Belgium by an
army led by Napolean Bonaparte
c) British army took control of several
major provinces of Belgium and ruled
thereafter alongwith Prussia
d) France became divided in several
smaller provinces which then came to
be ruled by imperial powers from
Netherlands and Prussia
12. Haryana Government has recently

launched a Village Mentoring Project
(VMP) in a bid to improve healthcare and
education of the villagers with a special
emphasis on girl child. Under VMP,
villages will be mentored by
1. MLAs
2. Corporate houses
3. Educational institutions
4. Eminent individuals
14. Jharkhand government has recently

banned the sale of thermocol plates in the
state because
a) food consumption in thermocol plates
was found hazardous for human
health
b) thermocol plate producing industries
came under the Red zone industries
c) it will promote leaf plates made by
tribals in the state so as to uplift them
economically
d) All of the above
15. The famous historical Magna Carta had

laid the first steps towards
1. Parliamentary Democracy
2. Rule of Law
3. Liberty and rights
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
13. Lake Victoria pipeline project was recently

in news because of an agreement between
a) India and Kenya
b) India and Tanzania
c) USA and Russia
d) USA and India
16. Liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) is one of

the criteria in the Basel III regulations. If
it is high for a bank it means that
a) the bank is lending less than its
potential assets
b) the bank has a large amount of liquid
assets
c) the bank has kept a large amount of
deposit with RBI
d) the bank is unable of pay its debts

Page 4

17. The Indian Nuclear Insurance Pool

(INIP) as per the mandatory provision
under the Civil Liability for Nuclear
Damage Act (CLND), 2010 setup by the
Union government will insure
a) only operators of nuclear reactors
b) both operators and suppliers related
to nuclear projects
c) people living nearby the nuclear
reactor in case of a nuclear accident
d) operators, suppliers and people who
are affected in case of a nuclear
accident
18. Bibek Debroy Committee has recently

submitted its report on the restructuring
of Indian Railways to the Union
Government. Which of the following
is/are major recommendations suggested
by the committee?
1. Establishing an independent rail
regulator
2. Privatization of Indian railways
3. Scrapping of the Railways Board
4. State governments to have financial
equity in Railways
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
19. One Rank One Pension (OROP) is one of

the widely debated issues in the country
presently. It essentially means that
a) all ex-servicemen with similar lengths
of service will get the same pension
and similar ranks irrespective of their
retirement rank
b) all ex-servicemen who held the same
rank and similar lengths of service will
get the same pension irrespective of

their retirement year
c) all ex-servicemen belonging to a
particular rank will have their
pensions revised upwards irrespective
of their retirement year
d) all ex-servicemen who held the same
rank will get the same pension
irrespective of their retirement year
and length of service
20. Which of the following is/are NOT forms

of Yoga?
1. Laya Yoga
2. Raja Yoga
3. Jnana Yoga
4. Mantra Yoga
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All are forms of Yoga.

2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
21. Union Government has launched an

Augmented Reality technology based
mobile application. Consider the following
about augmented reality technology.
1. Artificial information about the
environment and its objects can be
overlaid on the real world.
2. It makes information about the
surrounding real world of the user
interactive and digitally manipulable.
Which of the above is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

Page 5

22. Consider the following about Advertising

Standards Council of India (ASCI).
2. It is not under the control of
3. Advertising industries and media are
also included as its members.
4. It submits an annual report to the
Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 only
3 and 4 only
23. The Source of authority of the Indian

Constitution can be found in
a) Directive Principles of State Policy
b) Preamble of the Constitution
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Fundamental Duties
24. In case of a disagreement between the two

Houses regarding a constitutional
amendment bill, which of the following
can be recourse(s) to resolve the
deadlock?
1. A joint sitting of both the houses
2. Vote by majority of state legislatures
3. If the bill is passed again by the Lok
Sabha alone with a higher majority
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
25. The Constitution establishes the

parliamentary system not only at the
Centre but also in the states. This is
evident by
1. Membership of the ministers in the
legislature
2. Collective responsibility of the
executive to the legislature
3. The provision of dissolution of the
lower House
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

provisions for Citizenship in India.
1. Any person born in India will be
automatically deemed to be a citizen
of India.
2. An illegal migrant cannot be accepted
as Indian citizen only by virtue of him
living in India for long.
3. Acquiring the citizenship of a foreign
nation will terminate Indian
citizenship.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above

Page 6

27. Which of these constitutional provisions

under 73rd amendment is/are compulsory
for every Indian state to follow?
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a
village or group of villages
2. Direct elections to all seats in
panchayats at the village, intermediate
and district levels
3. Granting financial powers to the
panchayats
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
28. A federal government means a

government in which
a) all the powers are vested in the
national government and the regional
governments derive their authority
from the national government.
b) powers are divided between the
national government and the regional
governments by the Constitution and
both operate in their respective
jurisdictions independently
c) there is division of powers between
the Central and state governments;
and also between the federal and state
judiciaries
d) a large number of powers are vested in
the national government and the
regional governments, with some
independent powers, derive their
authority from the national
government
29. The Indian constitution is a written one

unlike in some of the other democracies.
What does it imply?
1. The form of government in India has
been codified in the constitution to
reduce political and administrative
conflicts.
2. All the laws made by Parliament are to
be written down as a part of the
constitution.
3. Only because of a written constitution,
citizens are able to enjoy fundamental
rights.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
30. Elections to the Rajya Sabha from the

State legislative assemblies are done on
the basis of proportional representation.
This means
a) every district in the state is given due
representation in Rajya Sabha from
that state
b) all the states are given representation
in Rajya Sabha
c) that all the states irrespective of their
size and population get due
representation in Rajya Sabha

Page 7

31. Consider the following about Speaker Pro

Tem.
1. The President can appoint anyone as
the Speaker Pro Tem of Lok Sabha.
2. The Speaker Pro Tem has all the
powers of the Speaker.
3. Office of the Speaker Pro Tem is
temporary in nature.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. Tax cannot be levied or collected
except by authority of law.
2. A new tax cannot be imposed unless
asked for by the executive
government.
3. No expenditure can be sanctioned
unless asked for by the executive
government.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
33. The principle of the rule of lapse leads to

rush of expenditure towards the end of a
financial year because
a) unspent money will be accounted as
insufficient and inefficient funding by
the auditor
b) unspent voted expenditure would
lapse by the end of the financial year
c) unspent money will be allocated to the

next years financial budget
d) unspent money will increase the fiscal
burden of the government
34. Which of the following limits the

legislative sphere and authority of the
State Legislatures?
1. A written constitution
2. Division of powers in the Seventh
Schedule
3. Judicial review of State enactments by
the High courts
4. Veto powers of the Governor and
President over state legislations
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
35. Without the prior approval of the

President of India, which of the following
can NOT be done?
1. Abolition of a certain tax by the
Parliament
2. Introduction of State reorganization
bill in the Parliament
3. Introduction of money bill in the
Parliament.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Page 8

36. Consider the following about Western

cyclonic disturbances in India.
1. They usually occur in winter months.
2. They are brought by westerly flow
from Central Asian region.
3. They influence the weather of the
north and north-western regions of
India.

below.

below.
39. Which of the following factors influence

the evolution of landforms on earth?
1. Stability of sea level
2. Tectonic stability of landmasses
3. Climate
4. Groundwater
5. Volcanism
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
37. The stars are localised lumps of gas within

a nebula. Which of the following is/are
considered as some of the stages in the
development of a planet from stars?
1. A dust cloud develops around the core
gas particles.
2. Collision of large gas clouds
3. Bursting of condensed gas clouds
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
38. Which of the following correctly show the

significance of weathering in rocks?
1. Helps in enrichment of minerals in
rocks
2. Leads to mass wasting and reduction
of relief
3. Aids the formation of soil and thus
biodiversity
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 5 only
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
All of the above
40. Hari is dependent on a pendulum based

clock for timing kept in a room much
above ordinary summer temperatures. He
is invited for a meeting by his friend (who
stays at a relatively cooler place) at sharp
2o clock. Considering Haris total
dependence on the pendulum clock for
time, it is likely that
a) Hari will be late for the meeting
b) Hari will on time for the meeting
c) Hari will be arrive early for the
meeting
d) The pendulum clock will show a
highly incorrect time and Hari will
never arrive for the meeting

Page 9

41. When a TV signal is broadcasted, why is

its range confined to a limited distance?
a) TV signal transmission uses long
waves which cannot be transmitted for
long distances.
b) TV signal transmission uses short
waves which are absorbed by the
atmosphere
c) TV signal waves carry limited energy
waves which get dissipated is short
period of time
d) The spherical shape of earth does not
allow for very long transmissions
42. When the soil is subjected to Mulching a process which of these is done?
1. Some loose material is laid on the
ground to prevent excessive
evaporation or erosion of the soil
2. The field is irrigated at regular
intervals
3. Seedlings are transplanted
4. Big pieces of soil are broken down into
smaller pieces
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
43. Why do tropical deciduous trees shed

their leaves in summer?
a) Because rainfall is inadequate to cover
up evaporation in summers
b) So that they can prevent excessive loss
of water through evaporation
c) So as to prevent excessive loss of
water through transpiration
d) Because tree leaves generally get dried

up due to the excessive heat
44. Comets orbiting the Sun have glowing

tails because?
1. A comet tail and coma having dust
particles are illuminated by the Sun
2. Gases in the comets tail glow
from ionization.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
45. In the practice of out-breeding, which of

the following is/are possible?
1. Different breed of animals can be bred
together
2. Different species of animals can be
bred
3. Superior male of one breed is mated
with superior female from another
breed
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
46. Bio-fortification leads to increase in the

nutritional value of crops. This can be
done through
1. Conventional breeding of crops
2. Genetic Engineering
3. Injecting crops with nutritive
components

Page 10

4. Grafting crops with each other

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only

Chandrayaan 2, Indias second lunar
exploration mission.
1. The missions primary objective is to
find possible sources of water and
useful minerals on moon.
2. Exploration will not be done on the
lunar surface and instead the lunar
orbit will be used.
3. The mission is being undertaken in
collaboration with Germany and
Russia.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
48. Which of these is the most appropriate

evidence that shows Harappan civilization
believed in evil forces?
a) They worshipped Pasupati, which was
considered a powerful deity
b) They used metal objects as seals and
in house entrances
c) They used amulets as protection
against evil forces
d) Animals were sacrificed at regular
intervals in Harappa
49. In the Early Vedic period, who was known

as Vishayapati?
a) One who had great knowledge of all
Vedas and was proficient in teaching
them
b) Head of a group of villages
c) local ruler who patronised vedic
worship and sacrifices
d) The one who headed the military unit
in case of major incidents
50. As per Gautam Buddha

1. No entity in the Universe is as
omnipotent as soul.
2. Human suffering is caused because of
past karmas and there is a way to
transcend it.
3. Transmigration of soul is affected by
the consciousness a person carries in
this birth.
4. God can be attained by living a
balanced life.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
51. Which of the following can said to be the

immediate effects of the invasion of
Alexander in India?
1. Stopped political unification of North
India under the Mauryas
2. Direct contact between India and
Greece
3. Annexation of North-western India by
Greece
below.

Page 11

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
52. Horizontal distribution of pressure is

studied by drawing isobars which are lines
connecting places having equal pressure.
How is the effect of altitude in a region
eliminated while studying isobars?
a) by reducing the place being studied to
sea level for comparison
b) by ignoring the nearby high grounds
and mountains and considering the
ground level pressures
c) by measuring the sea level
temperature and pressure of the
nearby regions
53. RBI uses the tool of sterilization to protect

the economy when
1. Foreign funds and investments pump
in large amounts of money in the
economy
2. Domestic investors lose confidence in
the economy due to falling investment
rate
3. There is a shortage of foreign
exchange reserves of India
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
54. Consider the following examples related to

the opportunity costs between two
options in each of the statements below.
1. An entrepreneur is making zero
profits on both production and nonproduction of goods
2. A labourer earns as much money in a
given time as much he values leisure
In which of the above case(s) is the
opportunity cost between the two options
non-zero?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
55. Which of the following is/are

redistributive tools of the government?
1. Progressive taxation
2. Welfare spending
3. Public employment programmes
4. Subsidies
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above

1. High public debt is always bad for an
economy.
2. Inflation can never be good for a
growing economy.
3. Only a nation that has a positive trade
balance can become a developed
country.
Choose the INCORRECT statements using
the codes below.

Page 12

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
57. The issue of Black money has been in

news frequently. Black money can be
generated from which of the following
activities?
1. Tax evasion
2. Tax avoidance
3. Illegal economic activities
4. Foreign investment
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
58. Consider that a government has been

struggling with high fiscal deficits and
high inflation in the economy. Which of
the following borrowing sources is the
most favourable for it to stabilize the
economy?
a) Borrowing from the public via
treasuries
b) Printing fresh currency by RBI
c) Grants from foreign nations
d) Borrowing from sovereign nations
59. Some of the species below have been in

news. Which of these species is/are
endemic to India?
1. Blue Mormon
2. Yellow-footed green pigeon

3. Indian darter
4. Southern birdwing
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
60. The Nathu la pass was recently in news.

1. It is a mountain pass in the Northern
Himalayas.
2. It is one of the open trading border
posts between China and India.
3. It was sealed by India after the
1962 Sino-Indian War.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
61. The District and sessions Judge in a state

works directly under the control of which
of the following authorities?
1. District Collector
2. State Governor
3. State Law Minister
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above

Page 13

62. Which of the following is NOT a teaching

in Sufism?
1. Turning away heart from all else but
God
2. Purify ones inner self
3. Practicing asceticism
4. Repeating the name of God
3. Mahayana Buddhism believes in idol

worship.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All are teachings in Sufism.
63. Destruction of Ozone layer can be caused

by
1. All greenhouse gases
2. Supersonic jets
3. Missile launches
4. Heating of the stratosphere
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above

idols and idol worship in India.
1. Worship of idols in India started
during the Gupta period.
2. The sculpture with the three faces of
Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh known
as Trimurti is found in Elephanta
caves.
65. You will observe that in cloudy nights less

dew is formed. Why?
a) when there are more clouds there is
less of particulate matter in the
atmosphere
b) clouds allow the heat in the
atmosphere to pass through and
radiation takes place quickly
c) dew is not formed when the
conditions in the environment are that
of precipitation
d) clouds retain the heat in the
atmosphere and radiation takes place
slowly
66. Who among the following is/are the

member(s) of NITI Ayog?
1. Chief Ministers of all States
2. Chief Minister of UTs (with
legislature)
3. Nominated Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Union Secretary of Defence, Finance,
Planning and Home
5. State Finance Ministers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 5 only
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3 only

Page 14

67. Under the Panchayats (Extension to

Scheduled areas) - PESA, 1996 Act, Gram
Sabhas are given the authority to stop land
alienation by
a) State Legislatures
b) District Collector
c) State Forest department
d) Central government
68. It is possible for two different branches of

a plant to yield two different fruits by
1. Hybridization
2. Grafting
3. Tissue Culture
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
None of the above
69. If light is entering through a small hole in

a closed room through a closed door, the
image of the opposite house appears as
inverted on the opposite wall of the hole.
This can be explained on the basis of
a) the rectilinear propagation of light
b) the shortest path of light property
c) the hole acts as a lens and magnifies
the object in front of it
d) the light taking turns at the hole and
splitting in N number of different rays
70. In Indian literature, Mucchangam is

a) Buddhist literature patronized under
Satvahanas that emerged after the
Buddhist councils
b) Three Sangams of Tamil poets in

ancient Tamil Nadu
c) Compilation of all the work of the poet
Kalidasa that describes the character
of man
d) a collection of mantras and rituals
(part of Vedas) that are to be
performed on special occasions

the early Medieval period.
1. The first Muslim kingdom in India
was established at Ajmer.
2. The Battles of Tarain and Chandawar
contributed to the establishment of
Turkish rule in India.
3. In the first century of the early
medieval period, Rajputs and Mughals
ruled India together.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
72. Population III stars were recently in

news because of the discovery of COSMOS
Redshift 7. These Population III stars are
the
a) third generation of stars which are the
youngest and brightest in the Universe
b) first generation of stars which are
born out of the primordial material of
the Big Bang
c) third generation stars which are the
brightest and nearest to the Solar
system
d) stars belonging to the brightest distant
galaxy known to mankind which were

Page 15

born right after the formation of the

gaseous universe
73. Tropical wet and dry climates are those

where
1. There is abundance of Monsoon rain
showers
2. Temperature is high throughout the
year
3. Diurnal range of temperature is
almost nil.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
2 and 3 only

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
76. Prarthana Samaj founded by Keshub

Chandra Sen in Bombay worked on which
of the following socio-religious reforms?
1. Disapproval of the caste system
2. Raising the age of marriage in both
males and females
3. Land reforms for poor landless
peasants
4. Revival of ancient Vedic practices to
educate the India society
below.
74. The idea of Satyagraha as propounded by

Gandhi includes Satyagraha as
1. A passive resistance
2. Battle with a distance
3. Non-violence which is supreme
Dharma
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
75. The first Round table conference was

announced by Lord Irwin to discuss
1. Dominion status for India
2. Future constitution of India
3. Rights of Princely states in India
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
77. The partition of Bengal was annulled in

1911 by the British because
1. They wanted to curb revolutionary
terrorism
2. Muslim leaders had protested sharply
against a division of Bengal.
3. A divided Bengal was becoming
difficult to administer.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

Page 16

78. Which of the following most appropriately

shows the impact of the Russian
revolution in India?
a) Indian masses understood that
Imperials can be challenged with
unity.
b) Indian leaders understood the
exploitative nature of
authoritarianism
c) Indian soldiers grasped how the
British were able to use their vast
military influence to rule India
d) Indian leaders understood that to
start a political revolution, an
economic revolution is a must
79. Consider the following about the Eka

movement that surfaced in the Northern
provinces at the end of 1921.
1. It was centred on tenant security and
high land rents.
2. The grassroot leadership of the
movement came from the middle class
intellectuals also leading the Indian
national movement.
3. Severe repression by British
authorities brought an end to this
movement.
codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
3. Rate of Humus formation

4. Colour and texture
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
81. You are on a visit to a mining site. Out of a

small heap of rocks, you can easily identify
those rocks that contain copper because
a) those rocks will be more lustrous than
the other non-copper containing rocks
b) those rocks will appear blue in colour
c) those rocks are very fine in texture
and have a glassy appearance
d) those rocks will be highly reddish in
colour and can be scratched even with
a nail
82. Consider the following geographical

regions.
1. Western Cordilleras
2. Appalachians
3. Guiana Highlands
4. Kanin Peninsula
Which of the above belong to the North
American region?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
80.The parent rock of soil controls which of

the following properties of soils?
1. Mineral content
2. Permeability

Page 17

83. Millets and Maize are high nutrition crops

and can be cultivated on a large scale.
Which of these conditions are common for
their cultivation?
1. Moderate temperature
2. Sandy soils
3. Low rainfall
4. Prolonged periods of sunshine
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
84. Kumaon Himalayas is that region of

Himalayas that lies between
a) Satlaj and Kali rivers
b) the base of Shiwaliks and bangar
deposits
c) Pir panjal and Zaskar Himalayas
d) Brahmaputra river basin and Garo
mountains
85. Consider the following about Indian

climate.
1. There is decrease in rainfall generally
from east to west in the Northern
Plains.
2. In general, coastal areas experience
less contrasts in temperature
conditions.
3. Seasonal contrasts are more in the
interior of the country.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
86. The Union Cabinet has recently approved

the launch of the Housing for All by
2022 programme. It aims at
1. Rehabilitation of slum-dwellers
2. Promotion of affordable housing for
the urban poor
3. Improving existing housing
infrastructure in the country
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
87. Consider the following about regulation in

medical industry.
1. Government presently does not
regulate online sale of medicines.
2. Government regulates the price of all
drugs sold or imported in India.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
88. During the 1st millennium BCE,

the Vaisheshika School of atomism was
founded. As per the school of philosophy
1. All objects in the physical universe are
reducible to atoms.
2. Atoms are indivisible and eternal.
3. Each atom possesses its own distinct
individuality.

Page 18

4. Knowledge and liberation is

achievable by complete understanding
of the world of experience.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
All of the above

Assertion (A): The Coriolis force is maximum
at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Reason (R): Coriolis force is directly
proportional to the angle of latitude.
of these is true?
90. If the value of rupee starts depreciating in

International market, it will benefit
1. Indian exporters
2. Foreign Institutional Investors (FII)
3. Domestic borrowers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
91. Indian government has been attempting

to diversify its oil imports portfolio. How
will this benefit India?
1. It is a guard against oil related geopolitical risks.
2. It may reduce shipping time and cost
of crude oil.
3. India will be in a better bargaining
position with oil exporting nations.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
92. National Disposable Income includes

1. Net National Product at market prices
2. Current transfers from the rest of the
world
3. Current transfers from government
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

government bonds in the economy.
1. If the interest rates are high, people
would like to keep more money in the
form of government bonds.
2. If there is reduced money supply in
the economy, central bank issues
more government bonds in the
market.

Page 19

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
94. Shilpa Shastras is an umbrella term for

numerous Hindu texts that describe arts,
crafts, and their design rules, principles
and standards. They did NOT deal with
1. Painting
2. Metallurgy
3. Architecture
4. Medicine
a) It is a type of monetary policy used by

central banks to stimulate the
economy when standard monetary
policy has become ineffective.
b) It is a type of fiscal stimulus given by
federal/central government when the
economy is going through stagflation
c) It is a type of monetary policy when
government securities are sold
extensively in the market by the
Central bank
d) It is a type of fiscal policy where
growth is diverted from other nations
by providing several sops and
incentives to foreign investors

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
4 only
1 and 3 only
They dealt with all of the above
95. Take-out finance in India is being used

for
1. Providing funding for long duration
projects
2. Providing bailout funds to sick and
underperforming companies
3. Reducing the Non-performing assets
of banks
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
96. Quantitative easing has been in news for

some time. What does it mean?
97. A nation which is rich in natural resources

and skilled labourers is not economically
very poor with a low GDP per capita.
Which of these can be the most
appropriate explanations for the same?
a) the flow of production in the economy
is very weak
b) the nation is not relying on
sustainable growth models
c) the governments intervention in the
economy is hampering the
development of competitive markets
d) the nation has to rely on imports
excessively for production process
98. Capital goods are those goods that are

1. Used for the production of
intermediate goods
2. Used for the production of consumer
goods
3. Used for generation of capital
4. a part of the nations fixed capital
formation
below.

Page 20

a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 only
99. One of the ways of measuring the income

of a nation is to add all the factor
payments made in the economy. Here
factor payments mean
a) payments made to resources used in
the production process
b) payments used for deploying human
capital in the industries
c) payments made to the fixed asset and

capital used in the production process
in the economy
d) the collective income of all the firms in
the economy
100. What is called Directive Principles in

the present Indian constitution is merely
another name for the instrument of
instructions issued in
a) Indian Independence Act, 1947
b) Government of India Act, 1935
c) 1858 Charter Act
d) Morley-Minto reforms Act, 1919

Page 21

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

Page 1
1. RBI has recently raised concerns about

Algorithmic trading or High frequency
trading in stock markets disturbing
their stability. What is algorithmic
trading?
a) using a computer program to trade
in the stock market based on a
certain set of instructions
b) using random electronic equity
purchases in the stock market to
make them more volatile
c) done by a big cartel of the stock
market that buy or sell stocks based
on previously agreed set of
instructions
d) purchasing and selling stocks at a
very high frequency
2. The Supreme Court has recently given a

ruling against using Mediation in rape
cases. Consider the following about
mediation an alternative dispute
resolution mechanism.
1. Consent of all parties is required to
start mediation.
2. Decision arrived after mediation
can be enforced in a court of law.
3. Only a court of law can appoint the
mediator.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

3. The BCIM corridor is one of the major

joint economic initiatives of India and
China. The BCIM corridor will pass
through
1. Kunming
2. Mandalay
3. Xinjiang
4. Dhaka
5. Kolkata
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
4 and 5 only
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
4. The issue of IIM autonomy has been in

news lately. Consider the following
about the governance of IIMs presently.
1. It has been established by executive
order.
2. The MHRD has no say in the
appointments of Directors of the
IIMs.
3. No changes in the educational
curriculum of IIMs can be made
without approval
from the
government.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
Page 2
5. Which of the following benefits are

being given to Pradhan Mantri Awas
Yojana.
1. Grant for each house constructed
under the scheme
2. Subsidy on the interest rates for
housing loans
3. Scheme is applicable to lower income
groups only
4. Transgender and widows will be
given preference in the allocation of
benefits.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
6. What is meant by Competitive

monetary easing policy?
a) Nations competing to attract
investment by lowering interest
rates in the economy
b) Nations competing to liberalize
banking rules in order to attract
greater investment in the financial
sector
c) Competition between states of the
same federation to increase money
supply in the economy
d) Nations competing to attract
investment by giving grater sops to
investors

7. Premiers/PMs/Presidents from which of

these countries have visited India in the
past one year?
1. USA
2. Japan
3. China
4. Russia
5. France
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
8. Mobile number portability will be

available nationally now. How would the
consumers benefit from this move by
TRAI and the government?
1. Consumers can keep their existing
mobile phone numbers while shifting
between States and circles.
2. Consumers can keep existing mobile
phone numbers while changing
between operators.
3. Consumers can keep existing mobile
phone numbers while changing
between operators, states and
circles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 3
9. In a court proceeding, DNA tests are

allowed to be used as evidence in which
of the following cases?
1. Minor Civil maintenance cases
2. Paternity and maternity disputes
3. Certain criminal cases
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
10. Green climate fund would be made

available to which of the following
bodies/ organizations/ agencies in India
for mitigating climate change?
1. Governmental development agencies
like NABARD
2. Rural development centred NGOs
3. Private organizations with a high
investment in corporate social
responsibility
4. Grass root agencies affiliated with
local government
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
11. Mercury poisoning in humans can

happen in which of the following ways?
1. Consumption of fish
2. Breathing contaminated air
3. Improper disposal of fluorescent
lamps
4. Emission from coal based power
plants
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
12. To generate awareness about a digital

India across India, the Digital India
week was to be organized at
1. Gram Panchayats
2. Post Offices
3. Community Service Centres
4. Schools
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 only

Page 4
13. The Russian city of Ufa was recently in

news because
a) a new Palaeolithic age monument
has been found that shed greater
light on human evolution
b) abundant reserves of shale gas
have been discovered that are very
near to the surface
c) the Shanghai Corporation
Organization (SCO) meeting
where India is attending as a
member
d) the SCO and BRICS summits were
recently hosted here
14. The term troika has been widely used

in the negotiations concerning the
Greece crisis. The troika consists of
1. International Monetary Fund
2. World Bank
3. European Union
4. European Commission
5. European Central Bank
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 5
2, 4 and 5
1, 4 and 5
15. How does the newly established Asian

Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
differ from the IMF and World Bank
(WB)?
1. No nation holds veto power in the
AIIB, unlike in IMF and WB.

2. All member nations will have equal

decision-making power in AIIB,
whereas in IMF and WB its rests on
their economic size and global
economic contributions.
3. Membership of the AIIB is open only
to Asian nations, unlike in IMF and
WB.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
None of the above
16. In a recent World Bank report, the

context of poverty has been said to
deplete a persons thinking bandwidth
to make rational decisions. This finding
is rooted in
a) Anthropological studies
b) Genetic studies
c) Behavioural economics
d) Psychological economics
17. Consider the following about the Board

of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
1. It is an autonomous society not
controlled by the Government of
India.
2. It is subordinate to International
Cricket Council.
3. It comes under the purview of the
RTI Act.
below.
Page 5
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only

institution of Lokayukta.
1. A state is not legally obliged to create
the institution of Lokayukta.
2. Powers of Lokayukta vary from state
to state.
3. Only a serving or retired Supreme
Court judge can be appointed as a
Lokayukta.
4. A Lokayukta can also investigate
cases pertaining to Central civil
servants.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
19. Which of the following correctly

understate the difference(s) between the
Indian and American (USA) Supreme
Court?
1. While the Indian SCs jurisdiction
extends to constitutional, civil and
criminal cases; the American SCs
jurisdiction is confined to
constitutional cases only.
2. The American SC does not defend
the fundamental rights of citizens,
unlike the
Indian SC.

3. The American SC does not have any

powers of judicial review, unlike with
the
Indian SC.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
20. The Saraswati River is often called as

antarvahini or gupt. Why?
a) The river does not flow any longer
in India.
b) The river flows underground
invisible to human eyes and does
not come to surface at all.
c) The river surfaces only at one
location and flows underground in
the rest of the territory.
d) The river has been lost since
ancient times and not recovered till
date.
21. Consider the following about Atal

Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban
Transformation (AMRUT) mission.
1. The mission supports cities to
become smart cities.
2. Centre will allocate finances to states
based on a central plan to which
every state should confirm.
3. Urban local bodies implementing the
mission will get funding directly
from the Centre.
Page 6
4. The mission has been merged with

JNNURM, a previous mission for
urban cities.
2. It will allow students movement

from one degree programme to
another.
3. Students can take courses of their
choice, and even acquire more
than the
required credits.
4. Students can choose
interdisciplinary courses.

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Assertion (A): A national emergency converts
the federal structure into a unitary one without
a formal amendment of the Constitution.
Reason (R): During an Emergency, the Central
government becomes all powerful and the
states go into the total control of the Centre.
of these is true?
23. UGC has recently issued guidelines to

implement the choice based credit
system across the country. What
benefits will a student derive from it?
1. It will allow students to transfer
credits earned in one institution
to another.

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
24. Consider the following about Centrally

sponsored schemes and Central sector
schemes?
1. Both are formulated by Central
government.
2. Centrally sponsored schemes are
framed from Union list, whereas
Central sector schemes from state
list.
3. Both are implemented by state
governments.
4. Centre provides funding to the states
only in the case of Central sector
schemes.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 7
25. The Credit Information Companies

(Regulation) Act, 2005 (Cicra) deals
with which of the following?
1. Banks that default on their loans
2. Companies that analyze credit
history of individuals and companies
3. Foreign institutional investors that
provide credit to Indian companies
b) scholarships to meritorious
students in pursuing higher
education
c) compulsory leadership
development courses in all higher
educational universities
d) growth opportunities for children
from BPL families by way of
Central assistance and mentor
support

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
26. High lead exposure in human beings has

been associated with
1. Learning disabilities
2. Breakdown of nervous system
3. Attention deficit disorder
4. Fertility problems in both men and
women
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
27. The scheme called Swayam provides for

a) a mass-scale online open
educational course platform

28. The government of Greece will be

conducting a referendum concerning the
Greece crisis. What would people of
Greece vote for?
a) Whether to be in the Eurozone or
not
b) Whether to accept the harsh
austerity conditions imposed on
Greece or not
c) Whether to revert back to Greeces
old currency drachma or not
d) All of the above
29. The Union government has come up

with a special scheme called Udaan for
girl students. Consider the following
about it.
1. It is a mentoring and scholarship
scheme.
2. It is aimed at enabling meritorious
girl students to transit from
schools to technical education.
3. The scheme also provides for the
use of free online resources to
enhance teaching
and learning
in senior secondary schools.
Page 8

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
30. Situated in Antarctica, the Ross Sea is

often called as the last ocean of the
World. Why?
a) It is in a pristine condition
b) It harbours the marine biodiversity that is the last to form on
earth.
c) It is the oldest undivided ocean on
earth which was not lost after its
formation and exists till date.
d) As per Scientific predictions, it
was formed out of the first
molecules of vapour formed on
earth.
31. The U.N. has described Sabar

Shouchagar (Toilets for All) as a unique
model for improved sanitation because
1. The model achieved the first
defecation free district in India.
2. The model involved the community
and faith based organization on
board.
3. The model relied completely on
private support and donations.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above
32. Some time ago, the RBI withdrew pre2005 notes from circulation. This was
done because
1. Pre-2005 notes had lesser security
features.
2. Fake currency from circulation
could be removed this way.
3. Black money could be flushed out
of the economy.
4. It would reduce cash hoarding.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
33. In South Asia, arrange the following

countries in decreasing order of the
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) that
they receive.
1. India
2. Iran
3. Bangladesh
4. Pakistan
5. Sri Lanka
Choose the correct order from the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
12345
14325
51234
12435
Page 9
34. Consider the following about Essential

Services Maintenance Act (ESMA).
1. It is a central law.
2. Each state has a separate ESMA.
3. Both Central and State
governments can enforce ESMA.
4. The government cannot order
private operators to restore
essential services.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
35. The scheme GIAN Global Initiative for

Academic Network is concerned with
a) forming a network of highly
acclaimed Indian researchers
working abroad
b) intensive collaboration between
the best Indian and foreign
universities for research and
academic exchange
c) bringing world class educators
from across the globe to teach in
India
36. A European mission Rosetta was

recently in news. Rosetta is
1. The first spacecraft that landed
on a comet
2. The first spacecraft to orbit a
comet

3. The first human mission to have

transmitted information from an
asteroid orbiting
the Sun
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
37. Jayprakash Narayan was associated with

which of the following movements in
India?
1. Nav Nirman Andolan, Gujarat
2. Bihar Movement
3. Non-cooperation Movement
4. Civil Disobedience Movement
5. Champaran Movement
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 5 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
38. The Nabakalebar festival was in news

recently because
a) It is to be promoted through
Incredible India campaign
b) The festival attracted largest
number of devotees from all over
India
c) It is being observed after a period
of almost two decades in Odisha
d) Both (a) and (c)
Page 10
39. Consider the following about Pradhan

Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
(PMKSY) or PMs Agriculture Irrigation
Scheme.
1. It aims at providing irrigation
facilities to every village in the
country.
2. The scheme will be directly
implemented by the Centre.
3. The scheme will de-incentivize
groundwater irrigation through
financial incentives.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
40. Consider the following about Euro zone

and European Union
1. Euro zone is an Economic entity,
and EU is a Politico-economic
entity.
2. Euro zone has a common currency,
EU doesnt.
3. Euro zone follows a common
monetary policy, EU doesnt.
4. Both the EU and Euro zone have a
single market.
5. EU has a supra-national
Parliament, Euro zone doesnt.
below.
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
41. The 44th constitutional amendment

brought some changes in the powers of
PM in declaring emergency. What was
the change brought?
a) A national emergency can be
declared by the President only on
the concurrence of the cabinet and
not merely on the advice of the
prime minister
b) The President can declare national
emergency only after the
concurrence of the cabinet and
Parliament
c) If a house was not in session, only
then the President could declare
national emergency on the advice
of the Prime Minister
d) The PM could only advice
declaring internal emergency to
the President; for external
emergency the concurrence of the
Parliament was needed
42. World Bank has recently approved an

additional loan of 650 million dollars for
Indias Eastern Dedicated Freight
Corridor (DFC) Project. It passes
through the states of
1. UP
2. Punjab
3. Haryana
4. Bihar
5. Jharkhand
6. West Bengal
a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 3 and 4 only

Page 11

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 4 and 6 only
1, 4, 5 and 6 only
5 and 6 only
All of the above
43. Union Cabinet has recently approved

setting up of an Online National
Agriculture Market. How will this
benefit farmers in the country?
1. Farmers will be able to sell their
produce in mandis as well as
online.
2. Farmers can buy agricultural
produce online.
3. Creation of godowns and facilitate
transportation of the farm produce
after the
online trade
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
44. A campaign called `Pade Bharat, Badhe

Bharat has been launched by the
Government of India to ensure better
learning levels
a) in primary education
b) in secondary and adult education
c) in adult primary education with
special focus on women
d) in higher secondary school with
special focus on adolescent girl
students


1. Insulting the Indian National Flag
entails disqualification for
contesting elections to
Parliament and State
Legislatures.
2. A candidate cannot stand for
election from more than one
Parliamentary constituency.
3. All cases of disqualification of MPs
are dealt by the speaker.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
46. A member of the House in Parliament

can be asked by the speaker to stop
speaking and let another member speak.
This is known as
a) crossing the floor by the MP
b) maintaining the decorum by the
speaker
c) yielding the floor
d) speech adjournment
47. You are a student in a local university

and have filed a nomination paper for
contesting Panchayat elections. The
State Election Commission would deem
your nomination valid only if
1. You have obtained an approval
letter from your university
2. You have a voter ID card
Page 12
3. You have already held some

leadership position in the
college/university.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only

regarding the advisory jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court are correct?
1. It is binding on the Supreme Court
to give advice to the President
every time it is
referred to.
2. The opinion tendered by the
Supreme Court is binding on the
President.

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
3 and 4 only
50. The ban on pre-censorship of

newspapers by the country in the
country is based on
a) special provisions made under
Article 19 of the constitution
b) the rule of law in the constitution
of India
c) explicit freedom given to media or
any peoples forum in the
constitution
d) a ruling of Supreme Court which
interpreted Article 19 of the
constitution in a wider sense

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
49. Which of the following come under the

jurisdiction of both the Supreme Court
and High courts?
1. Disputes between the Centre and
the States
2. Disputes between the States
3. Issuing writs to enforce
fundamental rights
4. Judicial review of administrative
acts

51. Who among the following is/are

appointed by the Vice-President of
India?
1. Vice-chairperson, NITI Ayog
2. Chief Minister of a Union Territory
3. Members, Finance Commission
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
None of the above
Page 13
52. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the

Supreme Court came out with the basic
structure doctrine. What are the
implications of this doctrine for the
constitution and the powers of the
Parliament?
1. Not every provision of the
constitution can be amended by the
Parliament.
2. No constitutional body established
immediately after the
commencement of the
constitution can be scrapped.
3. The powers of Parliament and
courts can neither be expanded nor
contracted.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
53. Consider the following with reference to

election outcomes in India.
1. Majority of votes by a political
party necessarily mean majority of
seats.
2. Majority of seats garnered by a
political party necessarily mean
majority of votes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

54. Who among the following can vote in

the elections to Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
as well as State Legislative Council?
a) Registered voters of the country
b) Elected members of State
Legislative Assembly
c) President and Attorney-general
d) Chief Minister of a state
55. Which of the following constitutional

offices cannot be held by the same
individual for successive terms or more
than one term?
1. Office of the President of India
2. Office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India
3. Office of the Chairman, Rajya
Sabha
4. Office of the Governor
5. Office of the Chief Election
Commissioner
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 5 only
2 and 5 only
2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1. The British sovereign appointed
the last Governor General of free
India.
2. The constituent assembly was
composed on a British given
formula.
3. India joining commonwealth
nations after independence meant
Page 14
that India
continued to be a
dominion state of the British.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
57. Consider the following about Elections

in India.
1. The recommendation for elections
is made by the Government of
India.
2. The announcement of elections is
done by the Election Commission
of India.
3. The model code of conduct is
enforced by the Government of
India.
4. The election conducting machinery
is not controlled by the
government.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 only
1, 2 and 4 only
58. If the Central bank, RBI, reduces the

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) as a policy
measure, it means
a) it is trying to counter the growing
fiscal deficit

b) it is trying to bring down inflation

in the country
c) it is expanding the money supply
in the economy
d) it is trying to push up the interest
rates in the economy
59. What does the term money multiplier

in banking terminology connote?
a) money injected in the economy
increases with time
b) money injected in the economy
helps in credit creation more than
the amount of money
c) money becomes more and more
liquid with time as it changes
hands in the long-run
d) money coming from foreign
sources has a greater multiplier
effect on the economy than
domestic sources
60. What is known as the Gandhian way of

economic planning or Gandhian
economic philosophy relies on
1. Self-sufficient villages
2. Labour intensive activities
3. Swaraj or Self-rule
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 15
61. A firm in the economy faces diminishing

marginal product of labour as it tries to
increase output in the short-run. What
does it mean?
a) With fixed set of machines,
employing any additional labour
in the firm is unproductive.
b) The productivity of labour
decreases due to additional
workload
c) The output produced by each
additional worker reduces as the
output is expanded with fixed set
of factors of production
62. Recently some International firms have

been found to breach anti-trust laws
existing in several countries. What is the
equivalent of an anti-trust law in India?
a) Foreign Exchange Management
Act
b) Foreign Contribution Regulation
Act
c) Competition Act
d) Companies Act

understates the difference between a
Consumer Price Index (CPI) and
Wholesale Price Index (WPI)?
1. CPI does not includes all the goods
that WPI includes
2. WPI does not include inflation in
the services sector, CPI does.

3. WPI is calculated by RBI, whereas

CPI is calculated by Department of
Statistics.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
64. Gross Domestic Product of India will

NOT increase in the short-run if
1. the government continues to have
a high fiscal deficit
2. there is inflation in the economy
3. the monetary policy is loose
4. the government liberalises the
external sector
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
None of the above
65. The Vedas in India were used for which

of the following purposes?
1. In religious rituals and sacrifices
2. For seeking answers to mythical
questions
3. For deciding appropriate
governance structures in local
kingdoms
below.
Page 16
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
66. Bhakti trend during the medieval ages

did NOT believe in
1. Worship of humanity
2. Caste system
3. Conceptual erudition
4. Ascetic approach to poetry
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
67. Suppose you have a barometer and you

are moving in a vechile to a nearby
region. You notice that the reading of
the barometer is going down. What all it
can possible indicate?
1. Storm
2. Rainfall
3. Cyclone
4. Increasing temperature
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only

68. Which of the following phenomenon can

lead to thunderstorms?
1. When warm moist air collides with
cooler air
2. Heavy orographic rain
3. Rapid upwards movement of
warm, moist air
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
69. The phenomenon of mirage occurs when

1. when the ground is very hot and
the air is cool
2. when the ground and air both are
very hot
3. When there is refraction of
sunlight
4. When there is presence of a water
body near the mirage
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
Page 17
70. Consider the following about sunspots.

1. They are temporary dark spots
appearing on the Sun.
2. They correspond to regions of
strong magnetic field intensity.
3. Sunspots are cooler than the
surrounding regions of the Sun.
4. Sunspots can result in change in
weather and climate on earth.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Mimansa
Gnana
Samkhya
Carvaka

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
3 only

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
71. The antigens in the human body serve

which of the following purposes?
1. They trigger the immune system
in the body.
2. They act as anti-toxicants in case
you ingest a poison.
3. They kill free radicals in the body
keeping you healthy.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
72. Karma as a means of liberation has

been depicted in which of these
philosophies?

73. Consider the following about Anuvrata

movement.
1. The movement was started by
Buddhist monks after Buddha left
his body.
2. The movement emphasized on
idol worship.
3. The movement propagated the
practice of dharma.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
74. Consider the following about Gamma

and X-rays.
1. Both are electromagnetic
radiation.
2. They differ only in the amount of
energy they carry.
3. While X-ray can penetrate matter,
Gamma ray cannot.
Page 18
4. Radioactive materials that emit

gamma radiation and X-rays
constitute both an external and
internal hazard to humans.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
75. Consider the following about the use of

musical instruments in Indian music.
1. Sitar is the main instrument of
Carnatic music.
2. Veena is used in Hindustani
music.
3. Flutes are used both in Carnatic
and Hindustani music.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above
76. Which of the following were the

consequences of the Non-cooperation
movement?
1. The British were forced to
negotiate on the power of the
Indian members in the
Central legislative
assembly.
2. It organized Indian struggle for
freedom.

3. This movement gave birth to the

mantra of Purna Swaraj.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
77. A European company was recently fined

heavily for 2010 Mexico oil spill. Which
of the following can be the adverse
consequences of oil spill in oceans?
1. Large scale death of sea birds
2. Dead sea corals
3. Unbalanced food web
4. Decline in the population of
dolphins
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
78. USA and Cuba have renewed diplomatic

ties recently after almost five decades of
vacuum in relationships. Why were the
ties between US and Cuba severed after
1960s?
1. Cuba was a communist regime.
2. Cuban revolution deteriorated the
ties between USA and Cuba.
3. Cuba did not agree to join the US
led cold war alliance.
Page 19

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
79. Presently India is a lower middle

income category country as per the
World Bank. The World Bank defines
such economic categories based on
a) Gross National Income in US
Dollars
b) Per capita Gross National Income
in US Dollars
c) Poverty rate, Index of Inequality
and Overall National Income
d) Economic size, Economic
potential and population of a
country
80.The General Services Establishment Act

intensified the discontent already
present in the sepoys which then
became a factor leading to the 1857
mutiny. The Act
a) ordered all recruits of Bengal army
to be ready for service both within
and outside India and even
overseas
b) mandated a solider to be recruited
from every peasant family in the
villages
c) provided for a salary cut for the
sepoys and increased the taxes on
the Indian peasants

d) provided for special status to the

Euopean recruits and downgraded
the position of Indian sepoys

Swami Dayanand Saraswati.
1. He was a scholar of Sanskrit.
2. He was the first Indian who
preached the gospel of Swadeshi.
3. He started the Suddhi
Movement.
4. As per him, Vedas contained all
truth humanity needed to know.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
82. Which of the following factors did NOT

help fuel the nationalist movement in
pre-independent India?
1. Indian press and literature
2. Indian contact with the European
Countries
3. Modern methods of transport and
communication
4. Racial discrimination by the
British
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All factors contributed.
Page 20
83. Which of the following is/are related

with the relationship between the
faction of moderates and extremists as
far as the Indian national movement is
concerned?
1. Surat Split 1907
2. Lucknow Pact 1916
3. August declaration 1917
4. Lahore Session Congress 1929
2. Dandi March
3. Poona Pact
4. Official demand for Pakistan by
Muslim league
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
1, 3 and 4 only

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
84. Which of the following statements with

reference to the Jalianwala Bagh tragedy
1919 is INCORRECT?
a) People gathered at Jalianwala
Bagh to peacefully protest against
the arrest of their leaders.
b) The area was under curfew at that
time.
c) Rabindranath tagore renounced
his knighthood in protest of this
incident.
d) Shooting of the masses without
prior warning by Militay
commanders was permissible
under the law at that time.
85. Chronologically, which of these events

transpired after the First Round Table
Conference?
1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

86. Cripps Mission was sent to India by the

British because
a) they wanted Indian support to
defeat Japan in the Second World
War.
b) after the failure of Third round
table conference, British PM
promised Indian leaders so
c) British wanted to negotiate the
two-nation theory with Indian
leaders
d) British wanted the support of the
Princely state armies to defeat
Burma
87. The system of Mansabdari in medieval

India was concerned with
1. Improving administration in
remote areas
2. Increasing revenue collection for
the Mughals
3. Recruitment to the army
below.
Page 21
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
3 only
88. Buddhism was patronized more than

Hinduism by some of the Greek rulers in
India because
a) Greeks did not want to conquer
any Indian territories with war
and violence
b) Greeks did not believe in idol
worship, the concepts of penance
and renunciation
c) Greeks did not believe in the
concept of castes and rituals in
Hinduism
d) Greeks found embracing
Buddhism as a simple tool to
assimilate and access the Indian
culture and society prevailing at
that time
89. Which of the following types of microorganisms can NOT be used in Indian
industries?
1. Fungi
2. Yeast
3. Bacteria
4. Micro-algae
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
3 only
2 and 4 only
All can be used.

90. Which of the following statements is/are

correct concerning the population of
Asian elephants found in India?
1. They can be found in dry thorn
forests as well as swamps and
grasslands.
2. They are found only in Southern
and Western India.
3. They are an endangered species in
India.
4. They cannot survive in moist and
rainy places.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
91. In Industrial terminology, Sunrise

industries are those which
1. are emerging in nature
2. work for the conservation of
environment
3. focus on technologies related to
solar power generation
4. are heavily subsidized by the
government
5. are populated with people from the
most neglected sections of the
society
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1, 3 and 4 only
3, 4 and 5 only
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Page 22
92. The first successful modern textile mill

was established in Mumbai in 1854.
Which of the following geographical and
industrial factors were responsible for
it?
1. Warm climate
2. Abundance of Moisture in
atmosphere
3. Availability of raw material nearby
4. Availability of skilled labour in the
region
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
93. With reference to the human

population, the natural growth rate of a
country means
a) population growth without
positive or negative intervention
by the government
b) difference between birth and
death rate barring cases of
unnatural deaths
c) population growth that would
have been possible without the use
of family planning devices
d) difference between birth and
death rate of a country

94. Why are the oceanic trenches very

helpful in the study of plate movement?
1. They are the deepest part of the
ocean.
2. They are associated with active
volcanoes.
3. Strong earthquakes are more
common in this region than the
surrounding ocean floor.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
95. The Tundra region supports only low

growing plants because
1. the growing season is short in
Tundra
2. the regions are mostly water logged
3. duration of day light is little in
some seasons
4. sub soil is permanently frozen
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 23
96. Mizo hills in the eastern part of India are

a) a northern extension of Arakan
ranges of Myanmar
b) an eastward extension of
Chotanagpur plateau
c) a northward projection of Eastern
Himalays
d) a northward projection of
Bangladeshi mountain ranges
99. Change in which of the following factors

may lead to change in the amount of
insolation received on earth from the
Sun?
1. High increase in cloud cover
2. Wobbling of earth
3. Decrease in land cover on earth
below.
97. When you enter a car or a bus, during

summers, where windows are closed,
you feel more heat than outside. This is
because of
a) Heating effect of the
electromagnetic portion of Suns
rays
b) Trapping of infrared radiation
inside the Car
c) Increase in ultraviolet radiation
inside the car
d) Concentration of Suns rays
passing from the glass
98. Which of the following factors affect the

spatial and vertical temperature
distribution in ocean waters?
1. Latitude
2. Continentality
3. Direction of Wind
4. Ocean currents
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
100.
One striking feature of these
paintings is the verdant greenery it
depicts. The style is naturalistic, and
great attention is paid to detail. The
foliage depicted is vast and varied. This
is made noticeable by using multiple
shades of green. These paintings feature
flowering plants and creepers, leafless
trees, rivulets and brooks.
To which of the following paintings does above
description refer?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Kangra School of Painting

Kerala School of Painting
Rajput School of Painting
None of the above
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above

Page 24
INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 30


GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
(i)
question.
(iii)
for that question.

Page 1

1. Jayaprakash Narayans Concept of Total

Revolution was aimed at
a) Exposing the totalitarian nature of
the incumbent government
b) Removing landlessness from rural
areas completely by Bhoodan and
forced acquisitions
c) Bringing a change in the existing
society in tune with the ideals of the
Sarvodaya
d) Strengthening the local selfgoverning institutions on Gandhian
lines enabling them to counter
increasing centralization in
governance
2. In India the term Buddhist circuit can

be used to refer to
1. Racing track in Noida
2. Sarnath-Gaya-Varansi region
3. Old Mahayana scriptures found in
Veshali
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
3. Consider the following lines.

Thou hast made me endless, such is thy
pleasure. This frail vessel thou emptiest again
and again, and fillest it ever with fresh life.

This little flute of a reed thou hast carried over

hills and dales, and hast breathed through it
melodies eternally new........
Thy infinite gifts come to me only on these
very small hands of mine. Ages pass, and still
thou pourest, and still there is room to fill.
These are from the poems written in
a. Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol - by
Sri Aurbindo
b. Mappings by Vikram Seth
c. Gitanjali - by Rabindranath Tagore
d. The Golden Threshold by Sarojini
Naidu

recently released Socio-economic Caste
Census (SECC).
1. Majority of households in India are
deprived as per SECC.
2. Majority of households are maleheaded.
3. Over one-third of population living
in rural areas is illiterate.
4. Landlessness is now rare in rural
India.

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
Page 2

5. There has been a proposal to utilize the

Foreign Exchange reserves for financing
infrastructure projects. Why is there
concern about using Forex for such
projects?
1. Infrastructure projects are long-term
and risky in nature.
2. Enough Forex reserves are needed to
avert a Balance of Payment crisis
situation.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
6. The Scheduled Tribes and Other

Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006, also called as the Forest Rights
Act (FRA), 2006 confers which of the
following rights on tribals?
1. Rights over forest land patches
2. Rights over minor produce from
forests
3. Rights over timber produce from
forest
4. Rights over the wildlife in the forests
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above

7. Consider the following about the state of

malnourishment in India as per recently
released data by UNICEF.
1. Underweight Children
2. Underweight adolescent girls
3. Stunted Children
Majority of children (girls where applicable) in
India fall under which of the above categories?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
8. When we refer to the stabilizing market

forces we generally refer to
a) Forces of Supply and demand
b) Perfect competition in the market
c) Optimizing behaviour of individuals
d) All of the above
Rakhigarhi.
1. The site is the largest known city of
the Indus civilization.
2. It is older than Harappa and
Mohenjodaro sites.
3. It is situated on the dry bed of the
Sarasvati river.
4. The site does not have urban
features like standards, coins,
drainage system.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
Page 3

10. In the recent visit of Prime Minister to

the Central Asia republics, concerns
were raised on terrorist activities from
these republics as
a) Many from the security agencies of
the Central Asian republics are
joining terrorist outfits
b) There is an apprehension of State
sponsored terrorism
c) There is an apprehension of
Military sponsored terrorism
d) The Central Asian republics are the
main base for all the terrorist
activities being run in West Asia
11. Which of these authorities is responsible
for GDP data calculation & which
authority is responsible for revising GDP
calculation methodology?
1. Central government
2. Economic Adviser to Finance
Ministry
3. RBI
4. Central Statistical Office
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3 and 1
3 and 2
4 and 1
4 does both.
12. The Indian constitution protects the

rights of minorities because
1. In an electoral democracy, the will
of the majority prevails over the
minority.
2. All minority classes are socioeconomically vulnerable India.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
13. The recent Chinese stock market crash

was due to
a. Poor state of economic reforms in
China
b. Slack regulation of stock markets by
the Chinese government
c. The contagion of the Greece crisis
d. None of the above

1. Linfa
2. Chan-Hom
3. Nangka
How the above are related to China?
a. These are recently erupted volcanoes
in China.
b. These are typhoons that have
recently either hit China or are
nearing around it.
c. These are parts of the remote
Southern Province of China that
borders Aksai China that were
recently in news due to heightened
cross-border infiltrations.


Page 4

15. Why is the Akash missile highly useful

for the Indian army that has recently
inducted it?
1. It is a surface-to-air missile, so it can
hit targets from land.
2. It can cruise at supersonic speeds.
3. It is capable to neutralise aerial
targets like cruise missiles, fighter
jets and air-to- surface missiles.
4. It can engage multiple targets
simultaneously and can travel in
multiple directions.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
16. Uttarakhand has become the first Indian

state to install a system to detect
earthquakes and disseminate warnings.
It is able to give advance warning for
earthquakes because
1. The system is capable of detecting
harmless P waves that arrive earlier
than
destructive S waves.
2. It has been deployed at the possible
focuses of past earthquake regions in
Uttarakhand.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

17. India and United States have signed

inter-governmental agreement to
implement the Foreign Account Tax
Compliance Act (FATCA). It will help
both countries to
1. Promote transparency on tax matters
2. Curb offshore tax evasions
3. Avoid problems related to double
taxation of firms
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
18. India should be economically interested

in Kazakhastan because
1. It is the Worlds largest producer of
Uranium.
2. It can benefit fertilizer sector in
India due to its abundance of
natural gas.
3. Its hydrocarbon reserves can
supplement the oil economy of
India.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
19. Union Government has decided to

develop all villages located within 10
kilometres vicinity of the international
border on a priority basis with the help
of
1. Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan
Page 5

2. Promotion of sports activities in

border areas
3. Promotion of border tourism
4. Protection of heritage sites
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
20. Japans Meiji-era sites historically

contributed in
a. Japans evolution from feudalism to
an industrialised modern economy
b. Development of fishing industry in
Japan
c. Tourism growth led by heritage
conservation in Japan
d. Sparking the technological
innovation in Japan
21. In the Phillips curve what is the

relationship between rate of
unemployment and inflation in the
short-run?
a. Unemployment and inflation are not
related to each other.
b. Decreasing Unemployment rate
leads to lower inflation in the
economy.
c. Decreasing Unemployment rate
requires higher inflation in the
economy.
d. Inflation can grow even at constant
levels of unemployment in the
economy.

22. The Reserve Bank of India exercises

which of the following types of control
over banks?
1. RBI sets the interest rates offered
by all domestic banks in India.
2. RBI can supersede strategic
decisions of the Board of Governors
of Public Sector
Banks in
India.
3. RBI regulates mergers and
acquisition of banks.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
23. With regard to the Currency system in

India, which of the following practices is
followed?
a. Level of currency volume is pegged at
the amount of Gold reserves in the
country
b. Level of currency circulation is
delinked from the level of metallic
gold in the country
c. Fresh currency cannot be printed if it
is not backed by a metallic form of
wealth
d. Fresh currency cannot be printed if it
is not backed by foreign exchange
reserves
Page 6

24. The calculation of national income

covers which of the following?
1. Government consumption
expenditure
2. Net exports
3. Gross capital formation
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
25. Why are subsidies given to general

public by the government inflationary in
nature?
1. It increases the disposable income of
people.
2. It does not tackle the supply side of
goods.
3. It inflates the fiscal deficit of the
government leading to greater
money supply.
4. It distorts market mechanisms of
pricing.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
3. NRI deposits
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
27. What are transfer payments given to

the public by the government?
a. Payment for services rendered in
present times
b. Payment that is not linked to the
services in the present, and is a
reward for services rendered in the
past
c. Payment that is not linked to any
service provided to government
d. Both (b) and (c)
28. The success of the Gold monetization

scheme will depend on
1. The public perception of gold as an
asset
2. Inflation in the economy
3. Ease of conversion of Gold into more
liquid assets
4. Level of financial inclusion in the
economy
below.
26. The difference between interest rates

between India and other countries can
affect which of the following in India?
1. Currency exchange rate
2. Investment in the country

a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 7

29. How does the state government exercise

control over the local self-governing
bodies?
1. By enacting laws, rules and
regulations
2. By providing for provisions for
regular elections
3. By releasing finances for
development projects
4. By appointing the chairman and
members of Panchayats and Ward
councils
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
30. The constituent assembly of India

1. Was elected based on universal adult
franchise
2. Elected and appointed the Prime
Minister and other ministers in the
first government
3. Enacted laws until the first official
Parliament was elected
4. Was restricted in its powers by an
order of the British government
5. Supervised the functioning of the
Supreme Court and other
subordinate courts
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 5 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above


1. Government resigns if it fails to
enact a public bill in Parliament.
2. Prime Minister is a member of Lok
Sabha.
3. The council of Ministers reflects the
socio-economic diversity of India.
Which of these conventions has/have been
codified into
rules/regulations/laws/provisions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
32. Abolition of the legislative council in a

state requires
a. the consent of the President and
Governor concerned
b. the consent of the Parliament and
the state legislature concerned
c. the consent of the State government
and State legislature
d. the consent of Parliament, Governor
and State legislature concerned
33. Which of the following can NOT be

forced on Indian citizens?
1. Singing national anthem
2. Showing allegiance to all national
sports teams
3. Healthy habits like regulated diets,
exercise and Yoga
below.
Page 8

a.
b.
c.
d.
1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above

Assertion (A): The Constitution of India derives
its authority from the Parliament of India.
Reason (R): It was enacted by the constituent
assembly of India which had legal and
democratic authority.
of these is true?
d) A is incorrect, R is correct.
35. Consider the following about Public

Interest litigation (PIL).
1. PIL is a legal instrument.
2. It can be entertained by both
administrative and judicial bodies.
3. Representatives of victims can also
file a PIL.
4. PIL can be filed only in social and
environmental cases.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
36. Providing for reservation of women in

which of the following bodies will NOT
require a constitutional amendment?
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislative Assembly
4. State Legislative Council
5. Political parties
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
All of the above

3 and 4 only
5 only
None of the above
37. Match these schedules of Constitution to

what they contain.
1. First Schedule List of names of All
States and Union Territories
2. Second Schedule Powers of
President, Governor and Judges
3. Fourth Schedule Allocation of seats
in Rajya Sabha
4. Seventh Schedule Division of
powers between Legislative,
Executive and Judiciary
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
3 and 4 only

Page 9

38. Parliament exercises control over the

administration because
a. the executive is collectively
responsible to the legislature
b. it is the constitutional mandate of the
representatives to command and
control administrative affairs
c. executive branch of the government
is subordinate to the legislative
branch of the government
d. administration is not directly
controlled by the executive

the term of Lok Sabha.
1. The President of India can reduce the
term of Lok Sabha.
2. The speaker of Lok Sabha by himself
cannot shorten or extend the term of
a Lok
Sabha.
3. Term of Lok Sabha can be extended
during emergency.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
40. Arrange the ranks of the following

functionaries from higher to lower in the
order of precedence.
1. Governor of a state within the state
2. Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. Former President
4. Chief Minister of a State outside a
state

Choose the correct order using the codes below.

a.
b.
c.
d.
3124
1324
2134
3241
41. Article 355 of the Indian Constitution

provides that It shall be the duty of the
Union to protect every State against
external aggression and internal
disturbance. This shows the
a. Federal character of the Indian
constitution
b. Quasi-federal Character of Indian
polity
c. Democratic character of Indian
polity
d. Unity and territorial integrity of
India
42. Lok Adalats are a useful to instrument to
reduce the burden on Judiciary in India.
Which of the following types of cases can
be handled by Lok Adalat?
1. Consumer grievance against food
standards in rural processed
products
2. Cases involving property disputes
3. Cases in involving Pension and other
transfer payment rights
4. Cases involving road accidents
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 10

43. Consider the following about Service

tax.
1. It is an indirect tax.
2. It is levied by the Central
government.
3. It is applicable to manufacturing as
well as services sector in India.
amendments, but the bill is not

passed in case of disagreement
b. it is sent to the President for reconsideration and then transferred to
Lok Sabha for consideration
c. it is sent to a joint select committee
of the Parliament for re-examination
and re-introduction in Lok Sabha

below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
44. Which of the following is fixed by the

Constitution of India?
1. Allowances of the President and
Governor
2. Maximum Size of Council of
Ministers
3. Manner of election of the Sarpanch
of the Gram Panchayat.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
45. If the Rajya Sabha does not agree to the

provisions of the Annual Budget then
a. it returns the bill to the Lok Sabha
with proposed amendments, which
then passes it or rejects the proposed

46. USA has recently granted Tunisia a

major Non-NATO Ally (MNNA) status.
This would allow both countries to
a. improve economic ties, reinforce
trade and reinvigorate mutual
investment
b. enhance military cooperation
c. negotiate security contracts and
exchange confidential information
d. improve mutual governance related
matters
1. She holds the record for the most
spacewalks by a woman.
2. She holds the world record for the
most spacewalk time by a woman
astronaut.
3. She is the first Indian woman
astronaut to serve NASA.
Which of the above is/are true about Sunita
Williams?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 11

48. Full Shanghai Corporation Organization

(SCO) membership to India will have
significant benefits in
1. Combating terrorism
2. Opening up trade, energy sector and
strategic transit routes
3. Resolving strictly bilateral land
border disputes
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Regional Anti-terrorist Structure
(RATS) of the Shanghai Corporation
Organization (SCO).
1. It is headquartered in Beijing, China.
2. It is a permanent organ of the
Shanghai Cooperation Organization.
3. It deals with extremism and
separatism too.
4. All member-states contribute to
intelligence gathering in RATS.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above

50. Which of the following crops do NOT

need rich soil for its production?
1. Barley
2. Millets
3. Rice
4. Tea
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
51. Pillars erected under the regime of

Ashok bear which of the following
characteristics?
1. They contain lessons in Dharma.
2. They are monolithic.
3. All pillars have been made by heavy
metals.
4. They have been erected outside India
too.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only

1. Asia has the highest mean elevation
among all continents.
2. The distance of the deepest point in
the Ocean from mean sea level is
greater than that of the highest point
on land.
Page 12

3. All the open oceans of the world have

the same mean sea level.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
53. After the Arab Spring, which of the

following West Asian or Middle-eastern
countries turned democratic?
1. Tunisia
2. Libya
3. Egypt
4. Turkey
5. Lebanon
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
4 and 5 only
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
54. Consider the following objectives.

1. Protection of Intellectual property
rights.
2. Promotion of resource flow between
nations.
3. Ensuring technological
modernization of nations to
specialize world trade.
Which of the above come under the mandate of
the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 only
55. In a conference recently, the PM talked

about technologies being highly
developed in ancient India. Which of
these technologies was the first to be
implemented in ancient India?
a. Technology of mass flight
b. Technology of plastic surgery
c. Technology of surgery without the
use of hands and instruments
d. Transplantation of organs between
members of the same family
56. Consider the following about China type

of climate.
1. High rainfall throughout the year
2. Low temperature variation in
summer and winter
3. Distinct dry period
4. Very cold winters
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
57. Consider the following about Coke.

1. It is used in coal as well as nuclear
power plants.
2. It can be used to remove silica
content of the iron ore.
a. 1 and 2 only

Page 13

3. Coke contains higher percentage of

carbon by weight that coal.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
58. Which of the following factors

contribute to formation of Roaring
Forties?
1. Air being displaced from
the Equator towards the South Pole
2. Earth's rotation
3. Easterlies
4. Ocean currents
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
59. Why was Tripura involved in the Indian

freedom struggle?
1. The Tripura tribals were forced to
pay high land rent by the British.
2. Many tribals of Tripura were part of
the Indian British army that were
involved in 1857 mutiny.
3. The princely state of Tripura was
occupied by the British.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
60. Methane found in mines is dangerous

for the workers because
1. When mixed with air it can become
explosive.
2. It can be poisonous even in open
mines.
3. Methane mixed with mine water can
become toxic for human
consumption.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
61. Boiler industries do not use hard water

for their operations. Why?
a. Hard water can result in scaling and
cracking of boilers.
b. Hard water blocks boiler operation.
c. Minerals in hard water react with
boiler metal and replace it.
d. It erodes boiler metals at a very fast
pace.

below.

Page 14

62. Keystone species are important in an

ecosystem because
a. They determine the genetic diversity
of an ecological community.
b. They are important in determining
the ability of a large number of other
species to persist in the community.
c. They are found at the edge of an
ecosystem and signal the shift in
ecosystems.
d. They are rare in the ecosystem and
stand at the top of the food web.
63. Anti-cyclonic conditions can be formed
when
1. Atmospheric pressure is high.
2. Temperature is low.
3. Rainfall is high and persistent.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
64. The principal gases dissolved in Magma

is/are
1. Water vapour
2. Methane
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Sulphur dioxide
5. Ozone
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
3, 4 and 5 only

65. A rectangular drainage pattern develops

where
a. strongly jointed rock terrain is found
b. soft and hard rocks exist parallel to
each other
c. river channels follow the slope of the
terrain
d. streams flow in two parallel
directions from a central peak
66. The Brahmaputra River carries a large

volume of water and silt in India, but
carries a smaller amount of both water
and silt while coming from Tibet. Why?
1. Tibet is a cold and dry area.
2. Brahmputra forms many riverine
islands in Tibet.
3. In India it passes from the Northeastern region which is a region of
high rainfall.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

rivers in Peninsular India.
1. The main water divide in Peninsular
India is formed by the Western
Ghats.
2. The drainage basin of Peninsular
Rivers is smaller than Himalayan
Rivers.
3. Peninsular rivers also flow in rift
valleys and form estuaries.
Page 15


below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
68. Pressure and wind system of an area

depends on which of the following
factors?
1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Distance from sea
4. Ocean currents
5. Relief features
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 5 only
All of the above
69. A characteristic feature of the cold

weather season over the northern plains
is the inflow of cyclonic disturbances
from the west and the northwest.
1. These are low-pressure systems
which originate over the
Mediterranean Sea and western Asia.
2. They cause winter rains over the
plains and snowfall in the
Mountains.
3. They help in the cultivation of rabi
crops.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
70. Why are the western slopes of the

Western Ghats covered with thick
forests and not the eastern slopes?
a. Eastern slopes are regions of high
pressure that repel clouds which
results in lesser rainfall
b. Soil in Eastern slopes is less fertile
than that of western slopes
c. Lesser number of rivers are found on
the eastern side which results in
lesser evaporation and precipitation
d. Eastern slope falls in the rain shadow
area
71. Which of these Indian plants have antimicrobial and anti-biotic properties?
1. Neem
2. Tulsi
3. Arjun
4. Jamun
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

below.

Page 16

72. In Geographical terms a Fault is

1. A linear break in rocks of the earths
crust in Horizontal or vertical
direction
2. A break in rocks in Oblique direction
3. Bend in the rock strata
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
73. Consider the following about the oceanic

resources that lie beyond the Exclusive
Economic Zone (EEZ)
1. It can be exploited only by the
countries that border the EEZ.
2. No individual country can utilize these
resources without the concurrence of
international institutions.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
74. The Sundarban Delta derives its name

from
a. it being the worlds largest delta
b. a local sundari tree which grows in
marshy areas
c. its magnificent beauty that is localy
called sundar
d. it being a large forest nearing a gulf

75. Which of the following are examples of

stock resources?
1. Extracting hydrogen from water to
produce energy
2. Extracting shale gas for diversifying
energy basket
3. Employing natural gas to produce
electrical energy
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
76. As the District Agriculture Advisor you

have visited a dry area and find the soil
to be sub-standard for production of
crops. You will recommend which of the
following to improve the productivity of
the soil?
1. Make the soil more acidic
2. Use mulching for improving soil
nutrients
3. Tighten the soil
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
Page 17

77. Developing countries face the problem

of environmental degradation even
more starkly than the developed
countries because of
1. Over-population
2. High incidence of Poverty
3. High consumption per capita
4. Capacity deficit in controlling factors
like forest fires, invasion of unwanted
ecological elements
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
78. Forests and wastelands belonging to

both government and private
individuals and communities are known
as
a. Reserved Forests
b. Protected Forests
c. National classed reserves
d. Unclassed forests
79. Under Gramdan movement spread by

Vinoba Bhave
1. Any land greater than the legal
ceiling was forfeited by Zamindars to
the
government.
2. Villages were distributed to landless
poor people.
3. Villages were instructed to abandon
living spaces demarcated on the basis
of caste.


below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
80.Ashokas concept of Dhamma included

1. Prohibition of animal sacrifices
2. Efficient organization of
administration for social welfare
3. Avoiding expensive and meaningless
ceremonies
4. Service to father and mother
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
81. Which of the following distinguish

Mathura school art from Gandhara art?
1. Mathura art developed completely on
indigenous lines unlike Gandhara
art.
2. The Buddha images under Mathura
art exhibited spiritual expressions
which was
largely absent in the
Gandhara school.
3. Mathura school also carved the
images of other deities unlike
Gandhara school.
below.
Page 18

a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

administration in Sangam age.
1. Hereditary monarchy was the form
of government.
2. There was no separate military wing
in the administration.
3. The state did not involve itself in
foreign trade.
4. The state did not rely on land
revenue for income.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
1 only
83. The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fahien

visited India during the reign of
Chandragupta II. The main purpose of
his visit was to
a. Understand the functioning of
monarchical government in Gupta
empire
b. Experience the culture and heritage
of India and write a literary piece on
it
c. See the land of the Buddha and to
collect Buddhist manuscripts from
India

84. Champaran movement was started in

1917 in Bihar due to
a. High land rent demanded by the
Britishers from the tenants
b. Lack of security of tenure for tenants
working in British plantations
c. farmers of that region being forced to
grow indigo on their land
d. farmers not being paid rent for using
their land for plantation crops
85. In Hindu temples architecture, Vahana

is that part of the temple which is
a. the mount or vehicle of the temples
main deity
b. portico or colonnaded hall at the
entrance of the temple
c. a mountain-like spire at the front of
the temple
d. rhythmically projecting symmetrical
walls near the Garbhgriha of the
temple
86. Persian invasions by Cyrus and others
had which of the following implications
for India?
1. Boost in Indo-Iranian commerce
2. Kharoshti, an Iranian writing became
popular in north-western India.
3. It helped temporarily avert invasion
by Alexander.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 19


1. Samudragupta annexed all his
conquered territories of South India.
2. The North Indian conquests of
Samudragupta did not result in the
expansion of the Gupta Empire.
3. Feats of the Gupta Empire are only
recorded in the writings of foreign
visitors to India.
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
88. Grant of pattas by zamindars to farmers

was a main feature of the Permanent
Settlement system. This grant was
widely not successful because
a. British government later opposed the
move of granting pattas to farmers
b. A very large number of farmers did
not register themselves for the grant
c. There was a nexus between British
officials and Zamindars who allotted
land amongst themselves
d. The zamindars were not officially
accountable to the British
government for grant of pattas
89. The Chalukyan administration was

characterized by
1. High centralization in administration
2. Absence of Village autonomy
3. Maritime power and small standing
army


below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
90. The English East India Company wanted

their first trading centre to be set-up at
Surat. The permission was however
refused by the Mughal emperor there
because
a. The Mughal Emperor was against the
trade practices of the British
b. There was portugese pressure on the
Emperor
c. He was not interested in foreign
trade and investment
d. The British did not promise adequate
revenue from the trading centre to
the Emperor
91. In the British-French rivalry to take

control of Indian trade resulted in
French failure. Which of the following
can be the possible causes of the failure
of the French?
1. Commercial and naval superiority of
the British
2. Englands victory in the European
wars
3. Lack of support of French from any
Mughal emperor
below.
Page 20

a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
92. The Poona pact of 1932

1. Was a formal outcome of the Third
Round Table Conference
2. Ensured reservation for depressed
classes in all public institutions
3. Provided for the British government
to take welfare measures for the
depressed classes
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
None of the above
93. In 1854, Sir Charles Wood sent a

comprehensive dispatch as a grand plan
on education. The plan laid emphasis on
1. Education in vernacular languages
2. Provision of education only by public
institutions
3. Westernization of Indian education
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
94. The Vernacular Press Act passed in 1878

ensured that
a. nothing would be published by the
English government in any
vernacular newspaper
b. nothing seditious could be published
that affects the territorial integrity of
British India
c. the vernacular newspapers were not
exposed to pre-censorship by the
British government
d. no Indian national freedom fighter
could establish a vernacular press
company in India

Assertion (A): Local self-government bodies
were not recognized officially till Indian
Independence.
Reason (R): The British did not enact any
special legislation for the governance of local
bodies.
of these is true?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only

Page 21

96. In the Parliament of Religions held in

Chicago (USA) in 1893, Swami
Vivekananda gave the message of
a. Essential unity of all religions
b. Superiority of Indian culture over all
other cultures in the world
c. A classless society guided by core
human values
d. All of the above
97. Even though the moderates were not

very popular among the extremists, they
succeeded on a number of fronts. They
were successful at
1. popularizing the ideas of democracy,
civil liberties and representative
institutions
2. explained British exploitation of the
Indian economy
3. getting the legislative councils
expanded for Indian benefit
below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
98. The Home Rule Movement of 1916 did

NOT emphasize
1. Revival of Swadeshi
2. Participation of Indians in selfgoverning institutions for India
3. Complete erosion of British
sovereignty over India
4. Separate electorates for all
communities of India


below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
99. When Warren Hastings assumed the

administration of Bengal in 1772, he
found it in utter chaos and thus
abolished the dual system. After the
abolition of the dual system
a. The East India Company acted both
as Diwan and collector of revenue by
its own agents
b. The British handed over financial
powers to Mughal administration
and focussed only on revenue
collection
c. The British handed financial
administration to the Mughals and
fixed a share from revenue for every
year
100.
On what grounds do the National
and State government have control over
religious education imparted in minority
institutions?
a) On grounds of protecting the
culture of minorities
b) On grounds of promoting
scientific temper in society
c) On grounds of national unity and
integrity
d) The government cannot control
religious education imparted in
minority institutions.
Page 22


Page 23


GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
(i)
question.
(iii)
for that question.

Page 1

1. What is/are the similarities between

phytoplankton in a pond ecosystem; and
lichens in a terrestrial ecosystem?
1. They both can prepare their own
food.
2. They both are the pioneer species
forming the pioneer community.
3. They both are in a symbiotic
relationship with some species in
their respective ecosystem.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
2. Consider the following about Sickle Cell

Anaemia.
1. It is a hereditary disease
2. It spreads via air and water
3. It leads to leads to jaundice and
frequent ailments in children
4. It can be prevented by increasing
iron intake since childhood
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only

3. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

recently signed a currency swap
agreement with the Central Bank of Sri
Lanka. This would help both the
countries in avoiding
a) Balance of payment and liquidity
crisis
b) Low Inflation in the economies
c) Adverse trade balance between both
nations
d) Low cross-border capital inflows
4. Which of these are methods of ex-site

conservation?
1. Cryopreservation
2. Seed banks
3. Field Gene banks
4. Home gardens
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
5. A tiger reserve is generally zoned into

core, buffer and transition areas. In the
Core area, which of these activities are
NOT permitted in India?
1. Tourism
2. Mining
3. Human habitation
4. Industries
Page 2


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
6. Susceptibility to extinction will be

highest in species which
1. have fixed migratory routes in fixed
seasons
2. have a narrow range of habitat
3. feed at lowest levels in the food web
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
7. Consider the following minerals and

their uses.
1. Mercury is used in making electric
switches.
2. Phosphorous is used in making
medicines.
3. Potassium and Silver can be used in
photography.
4. Manganese can be used in making
disinfectants.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above

8. Marine algae have been used as manure

in many countries because
a) they contain very high biomass as
compared to their weight
b) they are rich in nutrients
c) they help in decomposing the
detritus present in the farms
d) they produce agar that is highly
fertile and keeps the soil moisture
intact
9. How is social forestry different from

agro-forestry?
1. In agro-forestry, trees are grown
instead of crops on farms.
2. In social forestry, NGOs take
responsibility for afforestation of
arid and fallow lands.
3. While the community owns the
resources in social forestry, agroforestry produce is privately owned.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
3 only

the water cycle.
Assertion (A): While evaporation is greater
over the oceans, rainfall is greater over the
land.
Reason (R): Trade winds carry moisture laden
winds from the oceans to land.
Page 3


of these is true?
11. Consider the following functions of

forests.
1. Absorption of atmospheric gases
2. Storage of minerals and water
3. Storage and release of radiant energy
These functions fall under which of the
a)
b)
c)
d)
Protective functions
Regulative functions
Productive Functions
Reproductive Functions
12. Which of these processes may lead to a

loss of nutrients from the soil?
1. Nutrient Immobilization
2. Mineralization
3. Leaching
4. Nitrification
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3, and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only

13. Which of the following is/are free-living

nitrogen fixing bacteria present in the
soil?
1. Rhizobium
2. Clostridium
3. Azotobacter
4. Pseduomonas
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3, and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only

Mycorrhizae.
1. It is a symbiotic relation of fungi
with plant roots.
2. It helps in better absorption of
minerals from soil.
3. It can form mutualistic relation with
blue-green algae to improve water
absorption in plants.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
3 only
15. Certain plants use C4 pathway of

photosynthesis instead of C3 generally
used by plants. What difference does a
C4 pathway make to the plants?
1. It is a more efficient way of
photosynthesis.
Page 4

2. Plants can survive in low moisture

conditions.
3. Nutrient need from soil is lowered.
4. They can survive in high temperature
conditions.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
16. Main inputs of phosphorous as a

nutrient in soil come from
1. Rainfall
2. Phosphorous fixing bacteria
3. Weathering of soil
4. Atmospheric gas exchanges with soil
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
17. Only 50 per cent of the energy of the

total incident solar radiation is available
to producers for absorption. Why is the
other 50 per cent unavailable?
1. It is lost in respiration and
assimilation by first level organisms.
2. It is absorbed by gases or reflected by
clouds in the atmosphere.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None

critical link species in a forest
ecosystem.
1. A forest ecosystem has only a few
critical link species.
2. Loss of critical link species has
disproportionate impact on the
ecosystem.
3. Critical link species are always found
at the edge of ecosystems.
4. Critical link species are also known
as Keystone species.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
2 only
19. During PMs recent visit to Seoul, it was

announced that India and Korea will
strengthen their historic connection by
enhancing linkages of Korean people
with Ayodhya. What explains the
linkages?
a) Queen Suriratna, a princess from
Ayodhya had travelled to South
Korea to marry King Kim Suro
b) The land of Ayodhya was donated to
the then King of South Korea as a
goodwill gesture who later returned
the favour by gifting the land back
a) 1 only

Page 5

c) King Suro of South Korea helped the

Ayodhyan army to deal with invaders
from the North-western mountains
d) All of the above

Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh.
1. It was ruled by Satavahanas.
2. Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism
have all flourished in the region.
3. All major rock-cut architectural
schools were born in this region.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
21. Consider the following about Ken and

Betwa rivers.
1. Both are tributaries of Yamuna.
2. Both are major rivers of
Bundelkhand region.
3. Both will be interlinked together as
per a government decision.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
22. Which of the functions relating to the

Parliament are performed by the
President?
1. Summoning the Houses

2.
3.
4.
5.
Proroguing the Houses

Adjournment Sine dine
Dissolving lower house
Addressing both houses

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 4 and 5 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
All of the above
23. The representative of each Union

territory in the Rajya Sabha are
indirectly elected by
a) Members of an electoral college
specially constituted for this purpose
b) Members of Legislative assemblies
c) Members of Local constitutional
bodies
d) MPs, MLAs and ward councillors
jointly from a Union Territory
24. A Member of Parliament ceases to hold
his seat if
1. He owns and runs a private
commercial firm
2. He holds any office of Profit under
the Union or State government
3. He is removed from the political
party on whose ticket he was elected
4. He is expelled from the house.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 6

25. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be

removed on
1. A resolution passed by majority of
the membership of Lok Sabha
2. A resolution passed by special
majority in Lok Sabha
3. An enquiry by the Supreme Court
4. An order of the President
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
26. Apart from the Supreme Court of India,

which of the following is/are authorities
empowered to interpret the
constitution?
1. Chief Justice, High Court
2. Speaker, Lok Sabha
3. Chairman, Rajya Sabha
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
c) Montague Chelmsford Act, 1919

d) Independence of India Act, 1947
28. Rule of law in Article 14 of the

Constitution implies that
1. The state cannot treat citizens
differently with respect to the same
law.
2. The state cannot punish citizens
except for violating the law.
3. The state cannot confer any special
socio-economic privilege on any
individual.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1 only
29. Consider the following about Estimates

Committee.
1. It is exclusively a committee of the
lower house.
2. Chairman of this committee is
invariably from the ruling party.
3. The committee is guided by
Comptroller and Auditor General of
India.
below.
27. The Institution of Speaker and Deputy

Speaker in India originated under the
provisions of
a) Charter Act 1891
b) Morley-Minto Act, 1909

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1 only
Page 7

30. Administration is held accountable to

the legislature by which of the following
devices?
1. Financial Committees of the
Parliament
2. Committee on delegated legislation
3. Committee on Business advisory
4. Question hour and zero hour in the
Parliament
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
31. For a no-confidence motion to be

admitted in Lok Sabha
1. Speaker must give consent to it.
2. Support of at least 50 members is
necessary.
3. Leader of Opposition must lead the
motion.
4. Both houses of Parliament must be
in session.
5. Prior permission from the President
must be obtained.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 5 only
2, 3 and 4 only
2 only

32. What is the meaning of popular

sovereignty?
a) Views and preferences of the
majority (popular) are considered
sovereign.
b) A nation is sovereign in all respects
by virtue of the sovereignty of its
resident citizens.
c) An area can be declared sovereign by
the wish of the people.
d) People are the ultimate source of the
authority of their government.
33. The Source of power of judicial review

in the constitution flows from
a) The doctrine of separation of power
between legislature and judiciary
b) The authority of the Supreme Court
and High courts to issue writs
(Article 32 and 226)
c) Article 13 of the Constitution
d) The Basic structure of the
Constitution
34. Consider the following about All-India

services.
1. Service conditions are determined by
the President.
2. Services can be abolished only by a
constitutional amendment.
3. UPSC is responsible for
appointments to the posts in AllIndia services.
4. Members of All-India services cannot
be removed from services by Prime
Minister alone.
Page 8


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
35. In the Budgetary process, arrange the

following in correct order.
1. Vote on account
2. Bill sent to Upper House.
3. General Discussion on the Bill.
4. Bill referred to select committee.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3142
1423
3412
3421

Economic Survey.
1. It is published by the Ministry of
Finance.
2. It is presented along with the budget
to the Lok Sabha.
3. It is not presented to Rajya Sabha.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only

37. Consider a situation where the

incumbent executive has been found
guilty of financial irregularities based on
a CAG report as examined by the Public
Accounts Committee. The ultimate
responsibility to take appropriate action
on this report lies on?
a) Prime Minister of India
b) President of India
c) Parliament
d) Supreme Court
38. The International NorthSouth

Transport Corridor will directly connect
India with which of these countries?
1. Russia
2. Europe
3. Central Asia
4. Iran
5. Azerbaijan
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 5 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above
39. Consider the following about the project

SETI being led by Stephen Hawking?
1. It will be a human space mission to
search for extra terrestrial
intelligence.
2. The project will rely on sending
decrypted electromagnetic messages
in space.
3. The project has been undertaken in
joint collaboration with NASA.
Page 9

4. It is financial backed by the UK

Government.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
None of the above
40. After the death of Aurangzeb in 1707,

Delhi could no longer function as an
effective centre. What can be the
reason(s)?
1. Mughal governors (subedars)
asserted their authority over Mughal
Kingdoms.
2. Zamindars started establishing
regional kingdoms.
3. After his Death, British immediately
adopted the policy of Paramountcy.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
41. The reason(s) behind Battle of Plassey

between the Nawab of Bengal and the
British was/were
1. British denied stopping trade
relations with India
2. Bengal Nawab did not accept
subsidiary alliance enforced by the
British.

3. East India Company had started

interfering in the political matters of
Bengal.
4. British did not pay appropriate
revenue to Bengal Nawab.
5. East India Company did not stop
fortification in Bengal even after the
farman of Bengal Nawab.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
4 and 5 only
3, 4 and 5 only
All of the above
42. Consider the following about Gandhian

ideology?
1. Gandhi was opposed to the existing
state because it was forced and based
on centralization of authority.
2. As Per Gandhi, an all powerful state
impeded the progress of an
individual in society.
3. Gandhi held that State represents
violence in organized and
concentrated form.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 10

43. Which of these is/are NOT principle(s)

of United Nations?
1. Some sovereigns are more equal than
others.
2. Member nations have rights but no
obligations.
3. All members shall settle their
international disputes by peaceful
means.
4. All members shall settle their
national disputes by peaceful means.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
44. Which of the following concerning

Wodeyar Dynasty is incorrect?
a) After Tipu Sultan was killed in the
Battle of Seringapatam, Mysore was
placed under Wodeyars the former
ruling dynasty.
b) The kingdom was incorporated into
the Dominion of India after its
independence from British rule.
c) Under British rule, Wodeyar Dynasty
was exempted from Subsidiary
Alliance.
Reason (R): Suffering is caused by Ignorance

which is due to attachment, greed and
delusion.
of these is true?
46. In Jainism, Abhayadana was related

with
a) Feeding the poor and homeless
b) Imparting knowledge to the ignorant
c) Giving protection to someone under
threat
d) Selfless service given by the student
to the teacher
47. In the later Vedic period, Bhagadudha

was
a) a local priest who performed
sacrifices for Brahmin households
b) an officer responsible for collection
of taxes
c) the village guard appointed by the
monarchy
d) a jurist who settled civil disputes in
the village

the teachings of Buddha.
Assertion (A): Every living being is in the state
of suffering and none is exception to this.

Page 11

48. Gandhi suspended which of these

movements calling it a Himalayan
Blunder?
a) Non-cooperation movement
b) Satyagraha movement against
Rowlatt Act
c) Quit India movement
d) Civil Disobedience Movement

Vaishnavism.
Assertion (A): Its spread contributed to the
growth of regional literature.
Reason (R): It was adopted and followed by all
then contemporary regional poets and prose
writers.
of these is true?
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT
50. The book 'One Part Woman' or

Madhurobhagan was recently in news.
Why?
a) Its writer has won the SAARC
Literary Award recently.
b) The book was appreciated recently by
the President of India for its depth
on the issues afflicting transgender in
India.

c) It is the first Indian book written on

the plight of transgender in ancient
India.
51. NASAs New Horizons spacecraft was in

news recently because
a) It is the first spacecraft to
successfully fly by Pluto.
b) It is first spacecraft to land safely on
an asteroid orbiting the Sun.
c) It recently escaped the solar system
to reach Kuiper belt.
d) It spotted an extremely dwarf black
hole in the solar system.
52. The rarest of the rare principle in

handing out the death penalty was given
by the Supreme Court in which case?
a) Shatrughan Chauhan vs Union of
India
b) Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab
c) Mithu vs State of Punjab
d) Ladani vs Union of India
53. Consider the following about the BRICS

New Development Bank.
1. Agreement for establishing NDB was
made at Fortaleza.
2. Bank will be headquartered in
Shanghai.
3. Banks first President will be
Kundapur Vaman Kamath from
India.
4. All member nations will have an
equal say in Banks management.
5. All member nations will contribute
equally to Banks start-up capital.
Page 12


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 , 4 and 5 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
54. According to a survey of trust in national

governments for 2014 conducted by the
Organisation for Economic Cooperation
and Development (OECD), India has
secured second position amongst 40
countries. According to the survey
change in trust levels can be affected by?
1. Economic outlook
2. Disasters
3. Major scandals
4. Election results
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
55. You are a District Magistrate. You

denied allotting a huge tender to an
influential local businessman. To seek
revenge, he is posting defamatory and
offensive speeches against you on the
internet. Which legal recourse can you
take against him?
a) Approach the State high court
accusing the businessman of abusing
freedom of speech given under
Article 19

b) File a case in local police station

under Section 66A of the
Information Technology Act
c) File a case with the local police
station under the IPC Section
499/500
d) Both (b) and (c)
56. The 12th International Symposium on

Antarctic Earth Sciences (ISAES) was
recently inaugurated at a function in
Goa. The theme(s) of the symposium
is/are
1. Conservation strategies for
Antarctica
2. Plate movements in Antarctica
3. Human habitation in Antarctica
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
57. As per the terms arrived at in the Iran

Nuclear Deal
1. Iran will not enrich any Uranium.
2. Iran will be subject to oversight from
US Nuclear authorities.
3. All previous nuclear installations will
be shutdown in a period of time.
4. Iran will not be able to share nuclear
technology with any nation.
below.
a) 1 and 4 only
Page 13

b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
58. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)

that approves major defence related
projects consist of
1. Minister of State for Defence
3. Chiefs of Army, Navy and Air Staff
4. Defence Secretary
5. Director, Intelligence Bureau
6. Director, RAW
7. National Security Advisor
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 5, 6 and 7 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3, 4 and 7 only
All of the above
59. While driving in an urban area, you find

out that the Air Quality Index (AQI) for
the area is X coloured. Air of this
quality may cause respiratory impact
even on healthy people, and serious
health impacts on people with
lung/heart disease. Which colour is X
most likely to be?
a) Light Pink
b) Yellow
c) Maroon
d) Blue

60. The government has decided to set up a

trade facilitation council. Consider the
following with reference to it.
1. The council will be chaired by the
Union Commerce and Industry
Minister.
2. It will be made a sub-organ of
SAARC.
3. It will provide a single window
mechanism for clearance of major
exports and imports.
4. It will include Ministers from states
also.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
None of the above
61. Ottapayam situated in Kerala was

recently in news. Why?
a) Indias first defence industrial park
will be situated here.
b) Indias biggest disabled friendly IT
Park will be constructed here
supported entirely by World Bank.
c) The first NIMZ in South India will be
built here.
d) It will host the biggest International
Environmental Conservation
Conference held in India till date.
Page 14


the National Pharmaceutical Pricing
Policy (NPPP).
1. Pharmaceutical companies cannot
revise the cost of drugs under the
policy without permission from the
National Pharmaceutical Pricing
Authority.
2. It is applicable to all drugs on the
national list on life-saving medicines.
3. Drug pricing in the policy is fixed
based on a formula.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
63. A geographical indication (GI) is a name

or sign used on certain products which
corresponds to a specific geographical
location or origin. Which of these are
GIs in India?
1. Mysore Silk
2. Darjeeling Tea
3. Kancheepuram Saree
4. Thanjavur Paintings
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only

64. Jansankhya Sthirata Kosh (JSK) or the

National Population Stabilisation Fund
is under
a) Ministry of Planning
b) Ministry of Health and Family
welfare
c) Ministry of Statistics and Program
implementation
65. As per the Antarctica treaty

1. No commercial activity is allowed in
Antarctica.
2. Each member nation will adopt one
of Antarcticas endangered species.
3. All claims to the Antarctica territory
are void.
4. Any scientific study needs the
approval of Scientific Committee on
Antarctic Research (SCAR).
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
66. As compared to the unamended

principal land Acquisition act passed in
2013, the Right to Fair Compensation
and Transparency in Land Acquisition,
Rehabilitation and Resettlement
(Amendment) Ordinance, 2015 relaxes
provisions relating to which of the
1. Social Impact assessment
Page 15

2. Restrictions on acquisition of multicropped land

3. Consent for public private
partnerships (PPPs) projects
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
67. Consider the following about the Stone

chariot at Vittala Temple, Hampi.
1. It is made of granite.
2. An image of Garuda was originally
enshrined within its sanctum.
3. It is a monolithic structure.
4. Its base platform is carved with
mythical battle scenes.
5. Two horses are positioned before the
chariot as if they are pulling it.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 5 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 5 only
68. Consider the following about Sun

Temple, Konark.
1. It is an example of Kalinga
architecture.
2. Temple was designed as a gigantic
chariot of Sun God.
3. The alignment of the Sun Temple is
on the east-west direction.

4. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

5. The temple was originally built at the
mouth of the river Chandrabhaga.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 5 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1, 4 and 5 only
All of the above
69. The Basilica of Bom Jesus located in

Goa, India is an important cultural
heritage because
a) It is the oldest church in World.
b) It contains the mortal remains of St.
Francis.
c) It was constructed jointly by all
colonial powers that came to India.
d) While the exterior is baroque
architecture, interior is highly
contrastingly Hindu and Mughal
architecture which is nowhere found
in the world.
70. The famous Padmapani painting in the
Ajanta Caves depicts
a) a bodhisattva with a blue lotus flower
sitting among a crowd of devotees
b) a feminine Buddhist Sangha being
ordained by Gautama Buddha
c) Buddhas Mahaparinirvana being
witnessed by his very close disciples
d) Buddha conquering Mara of all
worldly passions
71. Cloudbursts can be caused by
1. Excess of electrostatic induction in
the clouds
2. High jet stream velocity in the upper
atmosphere
Page 16

3. Mixing of warm air parcel with

cooler air resulting in sudden
condensation
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
72. The Karnataka High Court has asked the

Karnataka Forest department to
consider banning eucalyptus plantations
across the state. Why?
a) It is not natural to the Karnataka
region and is affecting the
biodiversity of the region.
b) Tall eucalyptus trees do not allow
sufficient sunlight and nutrition to
other forest trees.
c) Large area of forest was already
replaced with monoculture
eucalyptus and planting more trees
would affect the species diversity of
the region.
d) The eucalyptus tree consumes a lot of
water for its growth depleting
groundwater levels.
73. Consider the following about GSLV
Mark III developed by ISRO.
1. It features an Indian cryogenic
technology.
2. It can launch communication
satellites in space.
3. It is presently being used for
commercial satellite launches by
ISRO.


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
74. Presently space activities in India are

guided by
1. Satellite Communications Policy,
2000
2. International Agreements
3. Revised Remote Sensing Policy 2011
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
75. What is/are the benefit(s) of having a

separate and unified National
Renewable Energy Act (NERA)?
1. The Ministry of New and renewable
energy need not depend on other
ministries for necessary clearances.
2. The law will clarify institutional
mechanisms related with financing,
monitoring, planning and support
for renewable energy generation.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Page 17

76. The collective self-defence doctrine

presently being pushed by the Japanese
government means
a) Japan is not in favour of independent
armies for all nations
b) Japan may wish to send troops
abroad to rescue allies under attack
c) Japan will intervene constructively in
all international negotiations that
have significant geo-strategic
implications
d) Japan will make military
conscription compulsory for its
citizens in larger national interest
77. Why fossils are generally found in lowlying areas?
a) Faulting and folding of earths crust
puts low-lying areas under very high
temperature and pressure
b) Low-lying areas are at a higher
temperature than areas of higher
altitude, hence more organic matter
is converted to fossil fuels
c) Deposition of sediments is carried by
rivers that also carry organic matter
d) Volcanic magma spreads only on
low-lying areas which is a significant
source of fossils
78. Consider two geo-morphological cases.
1. A continental plate colliding with an
oceanic plate and the latter subsiding
below the former.
2. Two continental plates colliding.
Which of these outcomes is possible in both the
cases?
a) Volcanic mountains may be created
in both the cases.

b) Fold Mountains will be created in

both the cases.
c) Fold Mountains may be created in
case 1 and volcanic mountains in
case 2.
d) Volcanic Mountains may be created
in case 1 and Fold Mountains in case
2.
79. Most of the rivers in Africa cannot be
navigated fully. Why?
a) They follow highly tortuous and
narrow beds.
b) A large number of rivers flow
through narrow rift valleys.
c) They form waterfalls.
d) River flow in most of the rivers is too
less to become navigable.
80.Atmosphere is heated mainly from

1. Solar insolation reflected back to
upper troposphere by clouds
2. Convection from heated surface of
the earth
3. Direct solar radiation
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
81. Consider the following about Katabatic

winds.
1. They are generally experienced
during winter.
2. They blow adjacent to Highlands.
Page 18

3. These winds may increase the

temperature and pressure of an area.
4. The winds are very dry.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. All the nine planets (including Pluto)
of the solar system revolve around
the Sun in counter-clockwise
direction.
2. All planets in the solar system rotate
in the same direction in which they
revolve.
82. How are tides a great aid in shipping

and navigation?
1. High tide increases the depth of
water near the coasts.
2. They take away the mud brought by
rivers preventing silting of harbours.
3. They make the coastline indented
which supports natural harbours.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
83. Some ports of even Polar Regions

remain ice-free during winter. This is
because of the
a) Influence of Warm currents across
the coasts
b) Global warming and its effect on
albedo of earth
c) High salt content in these oceans
that prevent freezing and thawing
d) Dense fog and mist in these regions
that trap solar heat

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
85. Why is it that we always see one side of

the moon while the other side always
remains away from us?
a) Relative positions of Moon in Earths
orbit around the Sun form a circle.
b) Moon takes the same time to revolve
around the earth and rotate on its
own axis.
c) Frequent eclipsing of the Moon by
the Sun and other planets
86. Consider the following about latitudes

and longitudes.
1. Equator and Prime meridian are the
largest circles that can be drawn on
earth.
2. All meridians are of equal length.
3. Time zone of a place is determined
both by longitude and latitude.
Page 19


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
87. Vertical sun rays have a greater heating

effect as compared to oblique rays
because
1. They cover shorter distance in
atmosphere to reach earth.
2. They are spread over a larger area on
earth.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
88. Who decides what images appear in the

currency notes that are printed by
Reserve Bank of India for money supply
in the economy?
a) Union Minister of Finance
b) RBI Governor
c) Director-General of Archaeological
Survey of India
89. Giffen goods are those goods that

a) may show an inverse relationship of
quantity consumed with rising
consumer income

b) may show an unclear relationship of

quantity consumed with rising
consumer income
c) are consumed in more quantity
because they are in greater demand
in public
d) are in greater demand because they
are in scarcity
90. In Economic theory and policy making,

Consumer Welfare is deemed to be
maximized when
a) every individual is able to purchase
goods at the exact market price they
were willing to pay
b) a large number of individuals are
able to purchase goods at a much
lower market price that what they
were willing to pay
c) all individuals attain an ideal state of
having no demand for any more
goods and services
d) they are able to purchase goods
beyond their means of earning
91. Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a

country will rise if
1. There is high inflation in the
economy but no growth in
production
2. There is high growth in production
but no inflation in the economy
3. There is very little growth in
production but heavy deflation in the
economy
4. There is very little deflation in the
economy but no growth in
production
Page 20


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
92. How are employment and interest rates

related in an economy?
a) Generally higher interest rates
impede a higher growth in
employment numbers.
b) Generally lower interest rates impede
a higher growth in employment
numbers.
c) There is no relationship of interest
rate and employment in an economy.
d) Depending on the type of economy,
any of the statements (a), (b) or (c)
can be true.
93. The Reserve Bank of India draws its
authority from
1. Constitution of India
2. Parliamentary Law
3. Conventions and Customs
4. Executive Council of Ministers
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
94. Sterilization operation is undertaken by

the Central bank of a country to prevent
a shock mainly to the
a) Money supply in the economy

b) Foreign Exchange reserves

c) Bank deposits of Public
d) Revenues of Government
95. The situation of liquidity trap occurs in
the economy
1. When foreign exchange reserves dry
up.
2. When Bank deposits are low so as to
cause a Bank default on its
customers
3. When interest rates are very low so
that everyone anticipates a rise in
interest rates
4. When people dont wish to hold any
bonds
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
96. The main objective(s) of the Public

Distribution System (PDS) was/were to
1. Ensure optimum export of
agricultural commodities
2. To prevent any import of agricultural
produce
3. To ensure food security
4. To ensure healthy meals are taken by
each and every family in India
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
3 and 4 only
Page 21

b) GDP structure is changing to favour

the Services sector more than the
industrial sector
c) Foreign capital inflows in the
economy are not as strong as
domestic investment
d) Financial sector in the country is
becoming increasingly globalized and
risky

Assertion (A): Devaluation of currency may
lead to improvement in trade balance.
Reason (R): Devaluation of currency leads to
more competitive export prices.
of these is true?
98. In which of the following situations an

expansion in the money supply may not
lead to inflation?
1. When economy is operating at a
much lower level of production than
its capacity
2. When supply of goods meets the
demands posed by the extra money
supply
100.
With reference to The Energy and
Resources Institute, consider the
1. It was formerly known as Tata
Energy Research Institute
2. It is an autonomous research
institution which works under the
Ministry of Renewable and NonRenewable Energy Sources,
Gvernment of India
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
99. A country will NOT develop

economically if
a) Increasingly larger share of the GDP
is coming from the Primary sector

Page 22

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each
item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark
on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

Page 1
1. The day of the Civil Services Preliminary

Examination, 23rd August, 2015 is the
first day of which month as per the Saka
calendar system?
a) Shravana
b) Bhadra
c) Vaishakha
d) Asvina
2. The recent lowering of the International

Gold prices can be attributed to
1. Rise in interest rates in US
2. Heavy restriction on gold imports in
several nations
3. Highly volatile global exchange rates
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
3. Which of these is/are the objectives of

the Minimum Retail Price (MRP) Act?
1. Prevent tax evasion
2. Protect revenue of firms from
fluctuating raw material prices
3. Protect consumers from profiteering
by retailers
below.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
4. The Consumer Protection Bill, 2015

recently approved by the Cabinet
intends to
1. Establish consume courts at the
Taluk level
2. Resolve all consumer disputes by
arbitration and mediation
3. Ban all tele-marketing and multilevel marketing in India
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
None of the above
5. Mercy petition decided by the President

Article 72 of the Constitution of India
are disposed on the advice of the
a) Prime Minister
b) Ministry of Home affairs
c) Parliamentary Committee on Legal
affairs
d) Vice-President
6. A foreign investment in an Indian

company qualifies as Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) if
a) 1 and 2 only

Page 2
a) the investing institution/investor

buys more than 10 per cent stake in
the company
b) the investment stays for a period of
more than two years with native
company irrespective of the level of
investment
c) the investing institution/investor
seek approval via the government
route
d) None of the above is correct.

environment based grouping Conference
of Parties (COP).
1. The parties in COP refers to nations
signatory to UNFCCC.
2. Kyoto Protocol was signed by COP.
3. COP has been successful in
establishing a binding emission
target for all nations.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
8. Which of the following government

schemes is/are targeted at Tribals?
1. Development of Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
2. Investment in TRIFED
3. Tribal Protection Scheme
4. Higher Education Revival Scheme
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
9. Which of the statements regarding

cricket governance in India is
INCORRECT?
a) State Cricket associations in India
allow people without a background
in national/international cricket to
get membership.
b) Government does not own any State
or National cricket association in
India.
c) A political (peoples) representative
cannot be a member of a Private
State Cricket association.
10. The International Tribunal for the Law

of the Sea (ITLOS) can settle disputes
relating to
1. Use of resources in International
waters
2. Accident involving two national
vessels in International waters
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

below.

Page 3

International Astronomical Union
(IAU).
1. It is an Intergovernmental
organization.
2. It is an organ of United Nations.
3. It approves all space missions that
extend beyond the orbit of Earth
around the Sun.
4. It is the internationally recognized
authority for assigning designations
to celestial bodies.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
12. World Student Day as declared by

United Nations is celebrated on the
birthday of
a) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
b) Pandit JN Nehru
c) Rabindranath Tagore
d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
13. Coronary stents recently in news is

related to
a) Treatment of a heart related disease
b) Harmful strains that can be used to
make biological weapons
c) Organ transplant in disabled people
d) a mechanism to reverse the flow of
blood in the body causing death

14. Representatives from most of the

princely states joined the Constituent
assembly (CA)
a) immediately after the formation of
the CA
b) after Cabinet Mission Plan was
accepted by Indian National
Congress
c) after the acceptance of Mountbatten
Plan of 1947
d) after the constitution was adopted by
the CA
15. The Constitution of India establishes an

independent judiciary to serve which of
these purposes?
1. To protect the supremacy of the
Constitution
2. To settle any disputes between
Centre and states
3. For the judiciary to be able to
exercise the power of Judicial review
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
16. In the Table of Precedence

1. Members of Parliament (MPs) are
placed higher than Chief Ministers of
States.
2. Governors (inside their respective
states) are placed higher than former
Presidents.
Page 4
3. Chief Justice of India is placed

higher than Union Cabinet
Ministers.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
17. The Foreign policy of India advocates

a) Stopping the arms race leading to
disarmament in both conventional
and nuclear weapons
b) Stopping the arms race in
conventional weapons but retaining
nuclear weapons
c) No particular stand on disarmament
and nuclear weapons stockpile
d) Development of the arms and
nuclear weapons industry only to an
extent of generating gainful
employment
18. Which of the following is/are correct

concerning the elections to Rajya
Sabha?
1. The nominee must be a domicile of
the state from which he wishes to be
elected.
2. Voting is by secret ballot system.
3. The elections are organized by the
Election Commission of India.
below.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
19. A political party will be recognized as a

National Party if
a) it is registered with the Election
Commission of India (ECI)
b) it is registered with the ECI and is
recognized as a state party in at least
four states
c) if it has consecutively won at least 2
seats in the Parliament for at least
two general election
d) if the donation collected by the party
registered with ECI exceeds a certain
amount as decided by ECI
20. Clear constitutional recognition to the

existence of political parties in India for
the first time was given by
a) The establishment of Election
Commission of India
b) The Anti-defection provisions in the
Tenth schedule of the Constitution
c) The establishment of the Inter-State
Council of India
d) The 73rd and 74th amendment to the
Constitution of India

INCORRECT concerning tribunals in
India?
a) Only the Central government is
authorized by the Constitution to
establish tribunals.
a) 1 and 2 only

Page 5
b) Tribunals can be established for

settling disputes other than
administrative disputes.
c) Appeal from the tribunals lie to both
the High Courts and Supreme Court.
d) Central Administrative Tribunal in
India exercises original jurisdiction
in relation to service matters of
Central government employees.
22. What is the objective(s) behind the

specification of regional languages in the
Eighth schedule?
1. These languages are to be used for
enriching Hindi Language
2. Members of these languages are
represented in the Official Languages
Commission.
3. Restricting the choice of state
governments official language
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
23. The National Human Rights

Commission is authorized to
1. Enquire suo moto in cases of human
rights violation
2. Intervene in a proceeding involving
allegation of human rights pending
before a court of India
3. Take action against those guilty of
human rights violation

4. Tender constitutional interpretations

of human rights provisions in the
Constitution when requested by
President
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
24. Which of these statements regarding the

office of Attorney General of India is
INCORRECT?
a) He has the right to take part in the
proceedings of both houses of
Parliament.
b) Advocate General of India is
subordinate to Attorney General of
India.
c) Attorney General of India forms part
of the Union Executive.
d) His office does not come under the
Union Law ministry.
25. The Comptroller General of India is

responsible to
a) The Parliament
b) The Constitution of India
c) The President of India
d) Public Accounts Committee of Lok
Sabha
Page 6
Assertion (A): The Chief Election

Commissioner and other election
commissioners enjoy security of tenure.
Reason (R): Their terms are specified and fixed
by the Constitution of India.
of these is true?
d) A is incorrect, R is correct
27. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory

is appointed by
a) The Administrator of the UT on the
recommendation of the Central
government
b) The President of India on the
recommendation of the
Administrator of the UT
municipality and the administrative

structure of which resembles that of
a Municipality
b) an area in transition from a rural
area to an urban area
c) a conglomeration of all panchayats
that comes under a common
Metropolitan Planning Committee
d) a panchayat that is temporarily being
governed by a Municipality or
Municipal corporation
29. State Bills relating to which of the

following categories can be reserved for
Presidential assent by the Governor?
1. Bills that impinge on the
fundamental rights of citizens
2. Bills that prima facie appear ultra
vires the constitution
3. Bills that contravene Central laws
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
c) The President of India based on the

recommendation of the Cabinet
d) The Administrator of the UT based
on his personal discretion
28. As per the 74th Constitutional

Amendment Act, a Nagar Panchayat is
a term used for
a) a village panchayat that has been
recently given the status of a

30. Biofertilizers improves the productivity

of crops because
a) it increase the nutrient content of the
soil
b) it makes greater amount of nutrients
available to the plant from the same
soil
c) it inflates the root hairs increasing
their mineral absorption capacity
d) All of the above
Page 7
31. The Coalition Support Fund (CSF)

programme to Pakistan given by the US
is provided for
a) Developing tribal and backward
areas in Pakistan
b) Combating insurgency in
neighbouring Afghanistan
c) Improving defence bases of Pakistani
Army
d) Implementing several socioeconomic programs of USA running
in Pakistan
32. Coastal erosion can be caused by
1. Wave action
2. Tidal currents
3. High Winds
34. 35. Consider the following about Ramon

Magsaysay Award .
1. It is given for exemplary political and
economic work.
2. It is only awarded within Asia.
3. It is awarded by the Noble Prize
committee.
4. It can be awarded to organizations
too.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
33. Maritime domain awareness recently in

news is related to
1. Safety and security of the maritime
domain
2. Environment of Oceans
3. Navigable waterways
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
35. The Competition Commission of India

(CCI) is
a) an executive body that regulates
mergers and acquisitions between
private bodies
b) a statutory body which monitors
monopolistic and unfair trade
practices in Indian markets
c) an executive body that settles
disputes between firms relating to
mergers and acquisitions
d) a statutory body that ensures that all
budding start-ups in India have
enough competence and resources to
compete with multi-national
companies
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
None of the above
All of the above

Page 8
36. The newest member of the World Trade

Organization (WTO) is
a) China
b) Russia
c) Kazakhstan
d) Ukraine
37. As per a study conducted by conducted

by Bangladesh-India Joint Tiger Census
Project, what are the reasons for the
declining population of Bengal tiger?
1. Lack of proper forest management
2. Animal-human conflict
3. Loss of habitat
4. Unchecked poaching
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
38. Tour de France is an annual multiple

stage bicycle race primarily held in
France. The race route passes through
which of these mountain chains?
a) High Atlas
b) Alps
c) Cordillera Central
d) Beaufort Range
39. What does a regional navigational

satellite mean?
a) A satellite which helps other
satellites and space station to
navigate in space

b) A satellite which helps provide

accurate earth coordinates for
navigation purposes
c) A satellite that guides rocket
launches till the upper space
d) A satellite that monitors the
navigational activities on earth
40. Union Government recently launched

Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti
Yojana (DUGJY). The scheme aims to
provide
a) Uninterrupted electricity supply to
each rural household across the
country
b) Electricity to all Village panchayats
and Public buildings
c) Financial support to all visually
impaired people that need an eye
operation
d) Scholarships to meritorious visually
impaired children from every village
in India

a species found in India.
1. It is a critically endangered bird
species as per IUCN.
2. It can be found in Gujarat,
Maharashtra and Rajasthan.
3. An artificial breeding programme for
the species was recently announced
by the government.
4. Greater population of the species is
found in grasslands.
The statements above are related to which of
these species?
Page 9
a)
b)
c)
d)
Spoon Billed Sandpiper

White-bellied heron
Great Indian Bustard
Forest owlet
42. Which of these can be the closest Indian

counterpart to the recently tested Long
March-5 belonging to Chinas space
programme?
a) Indian manned space mission
b) Mars Orbiter Mission
c) Geo-synchronous Satellite Launch
Vehicle
d) GAGAN and IRNSS
43. Consider the following about the All

India Council of Sports constituted
recently by the government.
1. President of India will be its exofficio chairman.
2. It will financially support all states to
establish a council of sports.
3. Its recommendations will not be
binding on the government.
4. It will adjudicate all complaints,
disputes and malpractices associated
with sports.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above

44. Surakshit Khadya Abhiyan launched

recently by the Union government aims
at
a) Creating awareness about food
hygiene and food safety
b) Safeguarding all food storage
warehouses and cold storages from
pests and damage
c) Minimizing post harvest losses of
food grains, fruits and vegetables
d) Organizing periodical makeshift food
testing camps in all villages of India
45. Deep Space Climate Observatory

(DSCOVR) is used for
a) purposes of earth observation
b) studying the cosmic rays, particles
and waves in deep space
c) studying cyclical movements of
distant celestial bodies
d) helping satellites launched from
earth to navigate in space and
communicate with earth
46. Estuaries and recesses in coastlines that

form bays can tackle heavy storms,
cyclones and tsunamis. These bays are
formed by
a) Turtle shells
b) Coral reefs
c) Sea grass
d) Mangroves
Page 10
47. Ocean acidification can affect marine life

by
1. Inhibiting shell growth in marine
animals
2. Affecting the growth of
phytoplanktons
3. Reducing the amount of coral reefs
formed
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
48. Which of the following e-wastes can

NOT be recycled?
1. Lead
2. Copper
3. Gold
4. Silver
5. Platinum
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 5 only
All of these can be recycled.
c) Bringing back all leading Indian

researchers working abroad
50. Monetary policy decision is presently

made by
a) Solely by the RBI governor
b) A Monetary policy committee
constituted by the government in
RBI
c) A committee of RBI headed by RBI
governor holding veto power over
decisions
d) The RBI Governor and Deputy
Governors after taking concurrence
from government
51. The GST Bill seeks to establish a GST

Council. It will consist of
1. Union Finance Minister
2. Finance Secretary
3. Ministry of Planning
4. Minister of Finance from each state
government
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
49. Atal Innovation Mission concerns with

a) Deploying additional funding to
institutes of higher education,
learning and research
b) Providing a platform to academics,
entrepreneurs and researchers to
foster culture of innovation

Page 11
52. In India the provision of double

citizenship
a) is provided to a select class of foreign
investors on strategic grounds
b) applies to all Indian diplomats
serving outside India
c) applies to minors of Indian
diplomats born outside India
d) does not exist as Indian laws and
constitution provides for only single
citizenship
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only

Assertion (A): Chalk used in blackboards is
highly soluble in water.
Reason (R): Minerals are generally highly
soluble in water.
of these is true?
53. It is difficult to get Vitamin C in our

daily cooked meals because
a) Food containing Vitamin C cannot be
cooked
b) Vitamin C gets destroyed by heat
during cooking
c) If food containing Vitamin C is
heated, then its absorption is the
body is negligible
d) Heating Vitamin C with water makes
it toxic.
54. Consider the following about Jute fibre.

1. It is extracted from the leaves of the
Jute plant.
2. It is cultivated during the rainy
season.
3. It is grown mainly in the Southern
Indian region.
4. Jute is also made from the outer
covering of coconut.

d) Both A and R are incorrect.
56. Lemonade is prepared by mixing lemon

juice and sugar in water. You wish to
add ice to cool it. In which case would it
be possible to dissolve more sugar in the
water more quickly?
a) Adding ice cubes before mixing sugar
and lemon
b) Adding ice cubes after adding sugar
and lemon
c) Solubility will remain same
irrespective of the order of adding ice
to the water
d) Dissolving half the sugar before
adding ice cubes and half later

below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only

Page 12
57. The synthesis of food in plants generally

occurs
a) in between leaves and stems
b) in roots and from there it is carried
to leaves which absorb it
c) in the upper part of the brown stems
away from the root
d) in the leaves of the plant
58. Fungi depend on which mode of

nutrition?
1. Autotrophic
2. Heterotrophic
3. Saprotrophic
4. Parasitic
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
59. Sorters disease, an occupational hazard,

is related to the
a) Wool industry
b) Silk Industry
c) Cotton Industry
d) Plastic and Polymer Industry
60. Stainless steel vessels used for cooking

are generally provided with copper at
the bottom. What can be a possible
reason behind it?
a) It is easier to clean copper than the
stainless steel.

b) Copper is cheaper than stainless steel

thus reducing the price of the vessel.
c) Copper can conduct heat better than
the stainless steel.
d) It increases the toughness and
durability of the stainless steel vessel
this way.
61. Special type of substances, indicator, is

used to test whether a substance is
acidic or basic. Which of these is/are
natural indicators?
1. Turmeric
2. Lichens
3. Tulsi leaves
4. Skin of Papaya
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
62. Acid rain can be harmful for

1. Buildings
2. Monuments
3. Plants
4. Animals
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 13
63. Organic matter can be added to the soil

to
1. Improve Nutrient base of soil
2. Reduce the acidity of soil
3. Increase the activity of
microorganisms in the soil

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above

below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
64. Migratory birds flying for long distances

generally fly high in the sky. What can
be the possible reason(s)?
1. They can escape thunder and rain.
2. Wind flow is helpful at such heights.
3. Conditions are cold which allow
them to disperse heat generated by
flight muscles.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
65. While going through a tropical

rainforest, you are likely to find which of
these species?
1. Red-eyed frog
2. New World Monkey
3. Toucan
4. Lion Tailed Macaque

66. If you are stuck in a storm that is

accompanied by lightning, what should
you NOT do?
1. Take shelter under an isolated tree
2. Sit near a widow
3. Take cover under a bus
4. Go in an open garage
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only

1. The Eastern coast of India has
greater frequency of cyclones than
the Western coast.
2. The Western coast of India has
greater intensity of cyclones than the
Eastern coast.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Page 14
Assertion (A): Loamy soil is not suitable for

growing crops.
Reason (R): It cannot hold water which is
essential for plant growth.
of these is true?
d) Both A and R is incorrect.
b) Country X has necessarily an

increasing population.
c) Country X is necessarily facing a
decline in population.
d) Country X has both high death rates
and birth rates.
71. Cooperative sector industries can be

1. Owned by workers
2. Owned by raw material suppliers
3. Owned by producers of raw materials
4. Operated by raw material suppliers
5. Operated by producers of raw
material
below.
69. Why do we get muscle cramps after

heavy exercise?
a) Bones and muscles are at different
temperatures.
b) The gel like liquid in muscle cell
becomes hard due to high body
temperature.
c) Muscle cells respire anaerobically to
produce lactic acid due to unfulfilled
heavy demand for oxygen.
d) High blood circulation expands
muscle cells due to heavy demand for
oxygen which stretches the muscles
too much.
70. A country X has an age pyramid which is

broad at its base and keeps narrowing
till it reaches the top. What does it imply
about the population of the country?
a) Country X has a highly unstable
population growth rate.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 4 and 5 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
72. Which of these factors have helped the

cotton industries to spread
geographically?
1. Humidity, one of the key
requirements of the industry, can be
created artificially
2. Raw cotton is a weight losing raw
material
3. Wide availability of labour
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 15
73. The conditions for growing rice and

wheat are not same because
1. Rice requires bright sunshine
whereas wheat does not.
2. Wheat requires well drained soil
whereas rice requires soil which can
retain water.
3. Rice requires heavy rainfall whereas
wheat requires moderate rainfall.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
74. In India, natural gas can be extracted

from which of these regions?
1. Jaisalmer
2. Tripura
3. Krishna Godavari delta
4. Andhra Pradesh
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
75. What is the difference between contour

ploughing and terrace farming?
1. Contour ploughing alters the shape
of the slope.

2. Terrace farming retains the shape of

the slope.
3. In terrace farming hills are ploughed
up and down unlike contour
ploughing.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
76. If International trade is allowed freely

then eventually it will lead to which of
the following?
a) A handful of nations will accumulate
all the wealth of the global economy.
b) Production and distribution of all
commodities will become
concentrated at one geographical
location.
c) Some nations will become
specialized in production of certain
goods and services.
d) All global labour will concentrate at
the nation which has the highest
exports.
77. The difference between Broad money

and Narrow money is based on
a) RBIs authority to issue them freely
in security markets
b) Liquidity of money supply
c) Their use by either government or
household sector
d) The ease with which bonds can be
issued on each of them
Page 16
78. If the currency of India appreciates in

the foreign exchange market, it will
1. Increase Indias foreign exchange
reserves
2. Make imports costly in India
3. Increase the fiscal deficit of India
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
79. Income tax in India is

a) Levied, collected and appropriated
by Central government
b) Levied, collected by Central
government; and shared with state
governments
c) Levied by Central government, but
collected and appropriated by state
governments
d) Levied, collected and appropriated
by state governments
80.Capital receipts of the Government of

India includes
1. Grants by foreign government
2. Earnings from interest rates on loans
previously forwarded
3. Borrowing from market
below.
a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
81. The atmosphere is held around the earth

by
a) Primordial heat from inside the earth
b) Magnetic force around the earth that
attracts all charged dust particles
c) Coriolis force and adhesive frictional
force between the earth and
atmosphere
d) Gravitational force of the Earth
82. Arrange these layers of earth in

increasing order of their thickness.
1. Crust
2. Mantle
3. Core
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
132
231
123
321
83. Which of the following are responsible

for changing landform on the earth?
1. Volcanoes
2. Sea-waves
3. Glaciers
4. Rivers
5. Wind
below.
Page 17
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 5 only
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
84. Loess found in desert areas is

a) an accumulation of fine and light
sand spread over large distances
b) a collection of mushroom rocks
narrow at bottom and wide at top
c) a high sand dune that is formed as a
result of heavy desert storms
d) a land near oasis that is rich in
humus and minerals
85. Veblen goods in economic terms are

those goods whose
a) price is directly proportional to their
supply in the market
b) price is directly proportional to their
demand in the market
c) price does not relate to their demand
in the market
d) price and demand are inversely
related
86. The atmospheric layer that helps in

radio transmission is
a) Troposphere
b) Thermosphere
c) Stratosphere
d) Mesosphere
87. Marginal efficiency of capital means

1. Expected rate of return from
additional Investment

2. Efficiency of production process as

each factor is increased
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
88. Consider the following about Nyaya

school of Vedic philosophy.
1. It holds that human suffering results
from mistakes produced by activity
under wrong knowledge.
2. Liberation can be gained through
right knowledge.
3. The school has contributed to the
development of theory of logic.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
89. Buddhists teach that suffering can be

ended by direct understanding and
perception of dependent origination.
This points out to
a) The vagueness of the idea of a cause
and effect
b) Interdependence of events in
existence
c) Independence of the existence of the
Self
d) God being the origin of all beings in
existence.
Page 18
90. Subash Chandra Bose resigned from the

congress presidentship and organised
forward Bloc for a more vigorous
national struggle in 1939. This was
because
a) He came to believe that Gandhi's
Non-violent Movement might not
bring independence
b) He did not trust that the Indian
National Congress is fighting for
Indian freedom
c) He was pressurized by the British to
resign from the Congress
d) He wanted to support the activities of
the Congress from outside
c) It was annulled after the First World

War ended.
d) Program of Swadeshi was adopted to
protest against the division.

the Indian freedom struggle during the
First World War.
1. Mainstream political leadership lent
support to the British in the war.
2. No anti-colonial activities were
witnessed during the entire period in
India.
3. The Surat Pact was signed during
this period.
below.
91. Consider the following about the 1857

mutiny.
1. It was during the reign of Governor
General Canning.
2. Mangal Pandey led the Mutiny.
3. It started from Delhi.
4. The mutiny did not spread to South
India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
92. Which of the following about Partition

of Bengal is INCORRECT?
a) It was ordered by Curzon.
b) All India Muslim League supported
the division of Bengal.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
94. In the Government of India Act, 1919

1. Principle of diarchy was introduced
2. Local bodies and provincial
legislatures were given autonomy.
3. Franchise base of Central as well as
provincial legislatures was increased.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 19
95. Kuka movement in Punjab, 1872, aimed

at
a) Purifying the Sikh religion by
removing all the abuses,
superstitions and ill-practices
b) Making Sikh land independent from
British control
c) Secure lower land rent and lower
taxes from British officials
d) Achieve justice for the martyrs of the
1857 mutiny
96. Consider the following about C.

Rajagopalachari.
1. He was the last Governor-general of
India.
2. He founded the Swatantra party.
3. He pioneered several temple entry
movements in India.
4. He was described by Gandhi as the
keeper of my conscience.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
97. The Karachi session, 1931, of the

Congress was important because
a) The goal of complete independence,
Swaraj, was declared here.
b) Congress spelt the true meaning of
Swaraj in this session.
c) Congress decided to participate in
the Second Round Table Conference.

d) Congress launched the second phase

of Civil Disobedience movement in
the session.
98. Which of these statements concerning

Jugantar party formed in 1906 is
correct?
a) The party involved itself in grass root
work of education and uplifting rural
dalits.
b) It was based on a socialistic ideology
and believed in negotiation with the
government.
c) Aurobindo Ghosh was one of the
founder members.
d) All of the above
99. The most significant event between the

7th and 11th century was the Tripartite
struggle centered on Kannauj that lasted
for more than two centuries between the
1. Pala Empire
2. Rashtrakuta Empire
3. Chalukya Empire
4. Chola dynasty
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
Page 20
100.
Which of the following can be the
possible reason(s) behind the
disintegration of the Gupta Empire?
1. Death of Emperor Harsha
2. Invasion of the Huns
3. Complete drain of economic
resources towards the end of
Harshas tenure
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

Page 21


GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
the Answer Sheet.
(i)
question.
(iii)
for that question.

Page 1

1. Unnat Bharat Abhiyaan programme

relates to
a) improving the Indian urban
economic growth rate
b) skill development of workers in the
unorganized sector
c) establishment of centres of
excellence throughout the country
d) upliftment of rural India

differentiates between Aesthenosphere
and Lithosphere?
1. Aesthenosphere is more solid than
Lithosphere.
2. The Mid-oceanic ridges occur in
Aesthenosphere and not lithosphere.
3. Lithosphere lies above
Aesthenosphere.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
3. Diastrophism includes all those

processes that involve
1. Uplifting or warping of the large
parts of earths crust
2. Folding of earths crust
3. Generation of earths crust
below.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
4. Who among the following can appear in

the proceedings of the Parliament but
without a right to vote?
1. President of India
2. CAG
4. Chairman of Finance Commission
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
5. Nalayira Divyaprabandhanam is known

as
a) a major composition of the Alvar
saints
b) the rulebook of Lingayats guiding
their social and economic conduct
c) the most famous Tamil translation of
Kabirs work
d) the code of conduct of the
Vaishanavas in TamilNadu
6. Some laws made on general matters by

the Autonomous District Councils
established under Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution need the approval of
a) State Legislature
b) Parliament
Page 2

c) Governor of the State

d) Home Minister of the State

regarding the governance in Union
Territories is INCORRECT?
a) Lt. Governor cannot promulgate an
ordinance in the recess of the
assembly without the prior
permission of the President.
b) Parliament can enact laws for Union
Territories even where an elected
Assembly exists.
c) Governor of a state can be given
additional responsibility of a Union
territory, which he governs without
the aid and advice of the State
Council of Ministers.

financial powers of the Governor of a
State.
1. No demand for a grant can be made
except on his recommendation.
2. Money bills can be introduced in the
state legislature only with his prior
recommendation.
3. He can make advances out of the
Contingency Fund of the state to
meet any unforeseen expenditure.
4. He sees that the Annual Financial
Statement (state budget) is laid
before the state legislature.
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
9. To uphold the Sovereignty and integrity

of India is a part of the Oath of the
a) Judges of the Supreme Court
b) Members of the Parliament
c) President of India
d) Both (a) and (b)
10. The Committee on Petitions in the

Parliament pertains to
a) Privilege matters of the Members of
the Parliament
b) Entertaining complaints regarding
political defections
c) Entertaining representation from
public on matters relating to the
Union List
d) Enforcing the code of conduct of the
Members of the Parliament
11. Which of the following statements about

Cabinet Committees is INCORRECT?
a) Non-cabinet ministers are barred
from its membership.
b) They are setup by the Prime
Minister.
c) They are not mentioned in the
constitution.
d) There are both ad hoc and
permanent cabinet committees.

below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only


Page 3

1. No ground has been mentioned in

the constitution for the removal of
the Vice President.
2. He can be elected for any number of
terms.
3. He can act as a President for a
maximum period of six months.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
13. The Constitution of Jammu and

Kashmir (J&K) declares
a) The state of J&K to be an integral
part of India.
b) The state of J&K to be a temporary
part of India.
c) The State of J&K to be an
autonomous state supported and
guarded by the Government of
India.
d) J&K to be a sovereign state in
alliance with the Government of
India.
14. Presidents Rule under Article 356 can

be imposed on a state if
1. The state government is pursing
anti-secular politics.
2. The State government has been
accused of corruption and
maladministration.

3. The State government disregards

constitutional directions given by the
Central government.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
15. The Zonal Councils have been

established by
a) The Constitution of India
b) States Reorganization Act 1956
c) A resolution of the Central Cabinet
16. Full Faith and Credit Clause laid down

by the Constitution means that
a) The Council of Ministers is able to
govern because it carries the
credibility of a universal adult
franchise.
b) All records and acts of the
Government of India or the states are
to given full faith and credit
throughout the territory of India.
c) Lok Sabha passes the Vote on
Account motion based on the
credibility of the executive even
before the annual budget is
examined thoroughly.
Page 4

17. The Ajivika sect believes that

a) Everything is pre-determined.
b) The world is a random chaos.
c) The world is a play of four elements
and temporary.
d) Human will is supreme.
18. As per the teachings of Mahavira Jain

1. Monastic existence is necessary for
salvation.
2. Salvation cannot be attained by
women and non-brahmin castes.
3. Observing celibacy is a very
important condition for attaining
salvation.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
19. Khanqahs are related to the

a) places where Mughal rulers met their
subjects for grievance redressal
b) places of rest where Sufi mystics met
and discussed spiritual matters with
the visitors
c) art galleries where artists performed
for the general public in Mughal
courts
d) a style of decorative wall embroidery
found mostly on the centre of arches
erected by Mughal rulers

20. Earliest sites found to the East or South

of the Indus river system include
1. Kalibangan
2. Lothal
3. Dholavira
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
21. Instead of spreading paddy seeds on the

field, saplings are sown. Why?
a) It increases survival chances of the
crop.
b) It reduces attack from pests.
c) It allows more use of fertilizers in the
field.
d) If seeds are thrown directly on the
ground, roots may not penetrate
deep.
22. Under Gana or Sangha system of

governance during the period of the
Magadha Kingdom
a) People ruled through their directly
elected representatives
b) Several Rajas ruled together and
took collective decisions.
c) Only one king governed a very large
area.
d) Village assemblies were selfgoverned by popular representation
Page 5

23. As per Buddhist teachings constant

craving could be removed by
a) Renouncing everything
b) Joining the Buddhist sangha
c) Becoming a celibate and doing
penance
d) Following moderation in everything
24. Arthashashtra by Kautilya was written

during the rule of
a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Bindusara
c) Ashoka
d) Harshavardhana
25. According to Swami Dayanand

Saraswati
1. World is an illusion and one must get
rid of it.
2. Salvation can be attained by
performing the right rituals with the
learned and pious.
3. Worshipping idols is one way of
attaining to the formless ultimate
reality.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
26. Consider the following about the Oudh

Kisan Sabha setup in 1920.
1. It was established by Jawaharlal
Nehru.

2. It was setup to address the subdued

participation from Awadh in mass
movements.
3. The Sabha adopted strictly
constitutional and legal methods for
achieving its objectives.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

INCORRECT concerning the Civil
Disobedience Movement?
a) Dalit participation in Civil
Disobedience movement was limited.
b) It was launched in response to
Montague statement that did not
satisfy Indian leaders.
c) Gandhi-Irwin pact came amidst the
movement.
28. Kheda Satyagraha was organized by

Gandhiji in response to
a) British forcing the Kheda peasants to
grow only particular crops on their
farms
b) Exploitative land ownership
structure in rural areas that resulted
in farmer suicides
c) Lack of security of tenure for Kheda
peasants
d) British authorities refusing to grant
remission of revenue for farmers that
suffered crop losses
Page 6

3. Kal
29. The aim of the Home Rule League
Movement launched by Tilak was
a) Demanding purna swaraj from the
British by using both constitutional
and extra-constitutional methods
b) Overthrowing the British
government with support from
Burma
c) Gradual reform of the administration
to introduce self-government by
Indians
d) Organizing mass movements to in
India and abroad to expose the
exploitative character of the British
rule
30. Which of the following statements with

regard to the Zimmerman Plan is
correct?
1. It was formed in Europe.
2. It aimed to mobilize Indian settlers
abroad to help invade British India.
3. It was behind organizing the RIN
mutiny in India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
31. Which of the following newspapers and

journals advocated revolutionary
terrorism in British India?
1. Yugantar
2. Sandhya


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
32. Bande Matram, for the first time, was

the theme song of which movement?
a) Non-cooperation Movement
b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
c) Swadeshi Movement
d) Civil Disobedience Movement
33. Consider the following about the Poona

Sarvajanik Sabha.
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. Its objective was to serve as a bridge
between the government and people.
3. It was the first organization to
propose the concept of Swaraj for
India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
34. Moral policing with reference to the

Government may refer to
a) State intruding in the cultural liberty
of the individual
Page 7

b) State trying to regulate any area of a

citizens political or social life
c) State using excessive use of police
force even for small illegal activities
d) State mandating moral education to
be compulsory in schools and
colleges
35. 10th August was celebrated recently as

a) World Ecology Day
b) World Bio-Fuel Day
c) Global Commons Day
d) World Conservation Day

the recently launched scheme Nayi
manzil.
1. It intends to cover people in 17-35
age groups.
2. It will cover all minority
communities.
3. It will intervene in education and
skill development for improving the
welfare of minorities.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
37. ISRO has recently started commercial

production at the first indigenous
Titanium Sponge Plant. Titanium
sponge can be useful in applicable in
aerospace and defence areas due to its

1. High strength to weight ratio

2. Excellent corrosion resistance
3. Use in Liquid propellant tanks
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
38. A new mobile app Disha has been

launched by the Union Telecom
Minister recently. The app is concerned
with
a) Promoting awareness of government
schemes in rural areas
b) Tracking individuals who are joining
Naxalite cadres and help bring them
back
c) Aiding digital literacy in the State of
Bihar
39. Aadhar enrolment can be done for

1. Non-resident Indians (NRIs)
2. Overseas Indian Citizens
3. Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
Page 8

40. Consider the following about Lakshya

developed by DRDO.
1. It is a pilotless target aircraft.
2. Its flight path can be preprogrammed based upon the type of
mission.
3. It is equipped with cruise missile.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
41. Suez Canal links the

a) Red Sea with Caspian Sea
b) Arabian Sea with Caspian Sea
c) Mediterranean Sea with Red Sea
d) Caspian Sea with Arabian Sea
42. 193 member states of United Nations

have reached an agreement on the
outcome document New Sustainable
Development Agenda for the next 15
years. The new agenda draft document
is called
a) Towards New Development: The
2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Development
b) A Brave New World: The 2030
Agenda for Sustainable Development
c) Transforming our World: The 2030
d) People, Planet and Peace: The 2030

43. Maitri and Dakshin Gangotri are

a) Indian research stations in
Antarctica
b) Indo-Chinese research base in upper
Himlayas near Siachin
c) Indo-Russian observatory in Arctic
to track climate change
d) Indo-Denmark research observatory
Arctic Ocean
44. Which of these nations do NOT have any

known mineral deposit?
a) Uganda
b) Switzerland
c) Georgia
45. Which of these crops/plants is/are NOT

native to India and have been brought
here from abroad for cultivation?
1. Lotus
2. Jasmine
3. Mango
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
All are native to India.
46. Consider the following about Deccan

traps.
1. They are formed from lava flows.
2. They are a flood basalt province.
3. They cover most of Northern
plateaus of India.
Page 9


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
47. Earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a

bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to
a) The revolution of earth around the
Sun
b) The rotation of Earth on its axis
c) Dynamic action of Primordial heat of
earth
d) Lower gravitation force at equator as
compared to the poles
48. Which one of the following is NOT an

evidence to prove Sea floor spreading?
a) The age of rocks from the ocean floor
b) Synchronic reversing of magnetic
field in rocks of ocean floor.
c) The way fossils are distributed across
different continents.
d) Volcanic activity along the midoceanic ridges
49. Lithification is a process by which

a) Aesthenosphere has been formed
b) Lithosphere has been formed
c) Sedimentary rocks are formed
d) Igneous rocks are formed
50. Depth of weathering mantle is more in

tropical forests than in Tundra regions.
The factors contributing to this are
1. Higher moisture and water
availability
2. Higher temperature
3. More active biological weathering
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
51. In a meandering large river, there is

active deposition over convex banks
whereas undercutting dominates over
the concave bank. This is because of
a) Difference in the rush velocity of
water on the convex and concave side
of the bank
b) Formation of ox-bow lakes in the
course of meandering
c) Change in Coriolis force as the river
meanders
d) Low velocity of the river
52. Troposphere is responsible for which of

the following?
1. Temperature variation on earth
2. Pressure variation on surface of
earth
3. Humidity, clouds and precipitation
below.
a) 1 and 2 only

Page 10

b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

Assertion (A): Generally at the same latitude
rainfall is more over the oceans than on the
continents.
Reason (R): Generally at the same latitude
solar insolation received over the oceans is
more than that on continents.
of these is true?
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT
54. The conditions that support dew

formation are
1. High speed winds in the night
2. Clear sky
3. High relative humidity
4. Cold nights
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
55. The Central parts of tropical land

generally receive lesser rainfall than the
coastal parts because
a) Westerlies are present at low lying
coastal areas in tropical areas
b) Moisture carried by winds reduces as
they travel inward in a continent
c) Central parts receive higher solar
insolation than the coastal areas
d) Jet streams cannot reach inner
continental areas
56. The Mediterranean climate is

characterised by hot, dry summer and
mild, rainy winter due to the influence
of
1. Influence of sub-tropical high in
summer
2. Westerly wind in winter
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
57. Surface salinity of ocean water is

influenced in
1. Coastal regions by the fresh water
flow
2. Polar regions by the processes of
freezing and thawing of ice
3. Movement of ocean currents
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only

Page 11

c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
58. Apart from Winds, movement of ocean

water is influenced by
1. Temperature differences
2. Density differences
3. External force of Sun
4. External force of Moon
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
59. Zenkeria Sebastinei is

a) a critically endangered grass in
Agasthiyamalai peak
b) a newly found frog species in
Western Ghats
c) an antidote to cancer found in
Caribbean islands discovered
recently
d) an endemic grass species of Sri
Lanka that has been introduced in
India to improve pastoral lands
60. Which of the following continents does

NOT have any Mega diversity centres
(ecological hotspots as characterized by
IUCN)?
a) Europe
b) North America
c) Australia
d) Africa

61. Which of the following factors affect the

recharge or availability of potable
groundwater?
1. Vegetation cover
2. Diversion of water for high water
demanding crops
3. Pollution from industrial effluents
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
62. The Chipko Andolan (Hug the Trees

movement) was concerned with
a) Local communities losing control in
official management of forest
resources
b) Governments legitimate right to cut
trees in a hilly area
c) Global warming caused due to
deforestation
d) Stopping alienation of people from
their forests
63. Coliform group of bacteria, found in

human intestine, if also present in water
indicates
a) Contamination of water by diseasecausing organisms
b) Cultutal eutrophication of water
c) High pH of water that is unsuitable
for drinking
d) Presence of radiation in water
Page 12

64. What kind of Mirror would be best

suited for use in a solar cooker?
a) Concave mirror
b) Convex mirror
c) Plain mirror
d) A combination of convex and plain
mirror
65. Electricity generation from Ocean

thermal energy is based on the
a) Heat generated from volcanic
eruptions at the bottom of the ocean
b) Hot springs found in the ocean
c) Difference in the temperature of high
and low tides
d) Temperature differential between
surface and Deep Ocean
66. Which of the following gases are

generated in the decomposition process
of slurry in a bio-gas plant?
1. Methane
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Hydrogen
4. Hydrogen Sulphide
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All the above

Assertion (A): Many thermal power plants are

set up near coal or oil fields.
Reason (R): The transmission of electricity is
more efficient than transporting coal or
petroleum over the same distance.
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is a
possible correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R can
NOT be a correct explanation for A.
68. Most power stations constructed these

days produce Alternating Current (AC)
instead of Direct Current (DC). What is
the advantage of producing AC over DC?
1. In AC power can be transmitted
across long distances without much
loss of energy.
2. DC power generation is much
costlier than AC generation.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
69. Which of the two organs of human body

produce a significant magnetic field?
1. Heart
2. Brain
3. Lungs
4. Legs
Page 13


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
2 and 4
1 and 2
3 and 4
70. Sky appears dark to passengers flying at

very high altitudes because
a) Scattering of light is not prominent
at such heights
b) Clouds are absent at such heights
c) The absence of polluting particles at
such heights
d) The low atmospheric pressure
outside the aeroplane
71. In the formation of rainbow, which of
the following phenomenon occurs?
1. Refraction of light
2. Dispersion of light
3. Internal reflection of light
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
72. When growing plants detect light, a

hormone X, synthesises at the shoot
tip, helps the cells to grow longer in that
direction. The hormone X is
a) Cytokinin
b) Auxin
c) Melanin
d) Abscicic acid

73. Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms

is much faster than that seen in
terrestrial organisms. This may be
because
a) Water is a denser medium than air.
b) Aquatic organisms lie at a lower trophic
level than terrestrial organisms.
c) Amount of oxygen dissolved in water is
fairly low as compared to that in air.
d) Aquatic organisms are not biologically
as evolved as the terrestrial organisms.
74. If you observe the bottom of a cooking

vessels getting blackened on a gas stove,
it means that
a) The gas fuel contains very high
amounts of carbon
b) The gas fuel contains lead
c) The air holes of the stove are blocked
and the fuel is getting wasted
d) The gas fuel contains blue carbon

Assertion (A): Carbon plays a very important
role in sustaining life on earth.
Reason (R): Carbon is the most abundant
element in the earths crust.
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is a
possible correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R can
NOT be a correct explanation for A.
Page 14

76. Under the River boards Act, a River

board is established
a) by Central government on the
request of the state governments
concerned to advise them
b) by Supreme Court on a petition by
the state governments concerned to
advise them
c) by the Parliament based on the
exigencies of the situation
d) by the State governments jointly
after seeking permission from the
President
77. Apart from Central government, the

Comptroller and Auditor general of
India presently is authorized to audit the
accounts of
1. State governments
2. Local governments
3. National political parties
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
78. The Preamble to the Indian constitution

is based on
a) Nehru Report 1928
b) Objectives Resolution drafted by
Pandit Nehru
c) Government of India Act, 1935

d) The Constitution of the Indian

National Congress in British India
79. Balance of Payments deficit can be

reduced through
1. Export promotion
2. Import control
3. Increasing foreign exchange reserves
4. Devaluation of currency
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
80.Fiscal policy of the government is

related with
1. Taxation
2. Government spending
3. Government borrowing
4. Public debt
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
All of the above
81. As per Keynes, speculative demand for

money arises due to the
a) Predictions in the market about
future bond interest rates
b) Needs for transaction in a market
economy
Page 15

c) Uncertainty of a household
expenditure
d) The fluctuations in the external
sector of the economy
82. Marginal productivity of labour in

agricultural sector of India is zero. This
points to
a) Disguised unemployment in Indian
agriculture
b) Potential for employment in Indian
agriculture
c) Unemployment in Indian agriculture
d) Growing labour demand in the
agricultural sector
83. Liquidity trap is a situation where

a) All potential investors expect the
interest rates to move up in future
b) Interest rates in the market fluctuate
so much that bonds become nonliquid
c) People put all their money in buying
bonds
d) All of the above
84. Since the 1991 economic reforms, Indian

agriculture has been experiencing
slowdown in growth rates. This may be
because of
1. Stagnation in green revolution
technology
2. Falling public investment in
agriculture
3. Low market price of agricultural
produce


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
85. The main objectives of food

management in India is/are
1. Maintenance of buffer stock for
ensuring food security
2. Procurement of food grains from
farmers at remunerative prices
3. Distribution of food grains at
affordable prices
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
86. Which of these methods can be used in

India to solve Industrial disputes?
1. Decision by labor Unions
2. Collective bargaining
3. Workers participation in
management
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 16

87. Securities and Exchange Board of India

(SEBI) regulates
1. Money market
2. Capital market
3. Commodity market
4. Futures market
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3 only
88. Price rigging in stock market refers to

a) Insider trading of stocks in securities
markets
b) Manipulation of securities prices so
as to inflate or depress their market
price
c) Speculative and high frequency
trading
89. Which of the following banking services
are provided to the government by RBI?
1. Maintaining and operating of deposit
accounts of the Central and State
Governments
2. Receipts and collection of payments
to the Central and State
Governments.
3. Making payments on behalf of the
Central and State Governments.
4. Transfer of funds and remittance
facilities to the Central and State
Governments


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
90. Inflation in the country can be managed

by
1. Fiscal policy
2. Monetary policy
3. Supply management through
imports
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
91. The practice of purchasing a currency in

one market and selling it in another
market is called as
a) Spot trading
b) Futures Trading
c) Arbitrage
d) Speculative trading
92. The free radical theory of aging (FRTA)

states that organisms age because cells
accumulate free radical damage over
time. Free radicals can be tackled by
1. Taking food rich in antioxidants
2. Taking high calories food to remain
energetic throughout the day
Page 17

3. Reducing the intake of watery and

fibrous food
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
93. When a transgene is introduced into the

genome of an organism it can
1. Prevent the expression of an existing
native gene
2. Enhance the expression of a native
gene
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
94. Bio-pesticides can be used for the

control of
1. Weeds
2. Insects
3. Pathogens
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
a) Using different genetic material to

preserve different traits of organisms
b) Changing culture vessels containing
fresh media from time to time to
preserve tissues
c) Growing genetically modified plants
in laboratory
96. When a plant is introduced from an

outside country Quarantine is
necessary because
1. There is a risk of entry of disease in
the country via plants.
2. Exotic species may come with the
plants that can disrupt ecosystems.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
97. Viruses can spread from host plant to

other plants through
1. Seeds
2. Pollens
3. Insect vectors
4. Fungi
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
95. Sub-culturing is a process of


Page 18

98. Ozone layer is thicker at poles as

compared to tropics. A possible reason
is
a) Lower solar insolation received at
poles to break ozone down
b) Lower breakdown of ozone layer due
to free radicals
c) Greater albedo coming from the ice
sheets at poles
99. Sea-level rise is projected to have
negative impacts on
1. Human settlements
2. Tourism
3. Freshwater supplies
4. Fisheries
5. Wetlands
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 5 only
All of the above
100.
Which of the following can help
reduce global warming and its effects?
1. Reducing the use of nitrogenous
fertilizers in agriculture
2. Increasing the vegetation cover
3. Reducing urban heat islands
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Page 19

Q14-33 Insights 2015 Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Q14-33 Insights 2015 Questions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Q14-33 Insights 2015 Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

http://www.insightsonindia.

Test (Test Series 2015) INSIGHTS

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

Maximum Marks: 200

[INSIGHTS MOCK TEST 2015, EXTRA TEST]

1. Consider the following statements with

1. Agent Orange is a chemical

4. Consider the following statements.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

Choose the correct answer using the codes

2. Consider the following statements.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Choose the correct answer using the codes

1. Biomining and Bioleaching

6. Consider the following statements

Choose the correct answer using the codes

5. Which of the following is/are true

3. Consider the following statements :-

Test (Test Series 2015) INSIGHTS

2. They restrict the photosynthetic

d) All of the above

9. Consider the following statements

Choose the correct answer using the codes

Choose the correct answer using the codes

Which of the following is true

Choose the correct answer using the codes

10. Which of the following is true

Choose the correct answer using the codes

11. Consider the following statements:1. Unconventional sources of natural

[INSIGHTS MOCK TEST 2015, EXTRA TEST]

3. China holds the highest reserve of

Choose the correct answer using the codes

15. With regard to biodiesel ,pick up from

Choose the correct answer using the codes

a) Ministry of Defence and Ministry of

16. Consider the following statements with

13. Which of the following agencies

Choose the correct answer using the codes

14. Consider the following statements

Choose the correct answer using the codes

17. Which of the following are regarded as

Choose the correct answer using the codes

Test (Test Series 2015) INSIGHTS

18. Coral Bleaching is a result of which of

as crystals. These crystals are removed and

Choose the correct answer using the codes

19. An oligotropic lake has which of the

22. Consider the following statements with

20. Consider the following statements

23. With reference to the glaciers, consider

Which of the above statements is/are

Which among the above statements is / are

21. Consider the following statements

Assertion (A): Countrys knitwear hub,

24. Which among the following statements

[INSIGHTS MOCK TEST 2015, EXTRA TEST]

Ministry of Science and

3. Kaziranga National Park has the