Harvard Technology Middle East API 510 Pre-Course Material 1 El BO. Box: 26506, Abu Dhabl, Uniied Arab Eravalas, Tel 977-2-6277881, Fax: *971-2-6277883 info@harvard.te hitpy/www.harvard.toINSTRUCTIONS FOR API 510 PRE-COURSE STUDIES CONTENTS: 1. API 510 Study Questions and Answers 2. ASME Section IX Welding Exercise 3. ASME Section V NDT Exercise 4, API Study Questions and Answers Audio CD(s) Please begin by reading all API materials including the Body of Knowledge sent with your package from the API. If you do not have the Body of Knowledge you may download it at the API website www.api.org. Continue by reading the API Study Questions and listening to the Audio, follow this by completing the enclosed exercises over ASME IX and V. Please bring to the class the following items. Effective Publications for this Revision: June 4" 2003 Exam * API510 Eighth Ed. June, 1997 with Addendums. 1(Dec. 98) & 2 (Dec. 2000) & 3 (Dec.2001) API RP 572 Second Edition Feb. 2001 API RP 576 Second Edition (Dec. 2000) AP] Guide to Inspection of Refinery Equipment Chapter 2 ASME Section VIll Div.1. 2000 Edition with 01 addenda ASME Section IX 2000 Euition with 01 addenda ASME Section V 2000 Edition with 01 addenda A simple calculator (needs to have the square root function) Highlighters and Tabs The first day of class a short test will be given over the pre-course API 510 Study Questions! THIS PRE-STUDY MATERIAL IS VERY IMPORTANT PLEASE DO NOT NEGLECT THIS WORK. StaRT Now FAST TRACK TECHINICAL TRAINING ~ LICENSED TO BASE LINE DATAAPI510 STUDY QUESTIONS HOW TO USE THESE QUESTIONS The following questions and answers on the API material are for memorization. The API questions will be open book on the first part of the exam and closed book during the second half. Practice remembering the key words as opposed to learning the entire answer.API 510 EIGHTH ED., JUNE, 1997 ADDENDA # 1 DEC, 1998, #2 DEC. 2000, #3 Dec. 2001 REVIEW QUESTIONS Section 1 - General Application 1. The primary code for the inspection of pressure vessels after they enter service is? ay + The API510 Code 2, Relative to pressure vessels, when does API 510 apply? aay + Only applicable to vessels after they have been placed in service. 3. What does the APT inspection code cover? aay ‘+ Maintenance inspection, repair, alteration, and re-rating procedures for pressure vessels used by petroleum and chemical process industries. 4, What type of pressure vessel is exempt ftom periodic inspection requirements? (1.22) «Pressure vessels on movable structures covered by other jurisdictional requirements. + All-classes listed for exemption from the inspection scope of the ASME Code Section VIII, Division. + Pressure vessels that do not exceed specified volumes & pressures. Section 3 - Definitions 5. Whatis an alteration? Ga) ‘+A physical change in any component or are-rating which has design implications which affect ressure-containing capability beyond the scope of existing data reports. 6. What three situations should nat be considered alterations? @1 ‘* Comparable or duplicate replacement i + Addition of reinforced nozzle less than or equal to existing reinforced nozzles © Addition of nozzles not requiring reinforcement 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO TTAC7. In what situation would the term “applicable requirements af ASME Code” be used? (32) ‘+ When the ASME Code cannot be followed because of its new construction orientation (new or 35) revised material specifications, inspection requirements, certain heat treatments and pressure test, and stamping and inspection requisements), the engineer or inspector shall coform to this inspection code rather than to the ASME Code. If an item is covered by requirements in the ASME Code and this inspection code or if there is a conffict between the two codes, for vessels that have been placed in service, the requirements of this inspection code shall take precedence ‘over the ASME Code. As an example of the intent of this inspection code, the phrase "applicable requirements of the ASME Code" has been used in this inspection code instead of the phrase "in accordance with the ASME Code.” 8. What is an Authorized Inspector or Inspector? «© Anemployee of an Authorized Inspection Agency who is qualified and certified to perform inspection under this inspection code, 9. List 4 examples of an Authorized Inspection Agency. 4) Inspection organization of the jurisdiction in which the pressure vessel is used or; Inspection organization of insurance company which is licensed or registered to write and actually writes pressure vessel insurance. ‘+ Anowmer or user of pressure vessels who maintains an inspection organization for activities relating only to his equipment and not for vessels intended for sale or resale. + Amindependent organization or individual licensed or recognized by the jurisdiction in which the pressure vessel is used and employed by or acting under the direction of the owner or user. 10. Define “construction code". ‘©The code or standard to which a vessel was originally built, such as APUASME, API, ot State Special/non-ASME. 11, What does the term “inspection code" refer to in API $10? + Shortened title for API 510 used in this publication. 12, Define Jurisdictions. + A legally constituted government administration, which may adopt rules relating to pressure vessels 13, Define Maximum Allowable Working Pressure (MAWP) as it relates to API 510. (3.9) and (Sect VII UG-98) * The maximum gage pressure permitted atthe top of a pressure vessel in its operating position for 8 designated temperature that is based on calculations using the minimum (or average pitted) {hickness for all critical vessel elements, not including corrosion allowance or loading other than pressure, 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC14, (3.10) 15, Gan) 16. Gal) 17, ‘When determining Minimum Allowable Shell Thickness, what must be considered when making caleulations? ‘Temperature, pressure, and all loading, ‘What type of inspection uses nondestructive examination procedures to establish the suitability of pressure vessels for continued operation? On-stream Inspection ‘What is the key element of an On-stream inspection? Because the vessel may be in operation while an on-stream inspections being carried out, the vessel is not entered for internal inspection. What is a Pressure Vessel? (3.12) and (Sect VIII'U-1 (@) } 18. (ag) 19. B14) 20, us) A container designed to withstand internal or external pressure, which can be imposed by an ‘extemal source, by the application of heat from a direst or indirect source, or by any combination thereof. This definition includes unfized steam generators end other vapor generating vessels, ‘which use heat from the operation of a processing system or other indirect heat source. (Specific limits and exemptions of equipment covered by this inspection code are given in Section I and Appendix A.) ‘Who shall be a pressure vessel engineer? Shall be one or more persons or organizations acceptable to the owner-user who are Imowledgeable and experienced in the engineering disciplines associated with evaluating mechanical and material characteristics which affect the integrity and reliability of pressure vessels. The pressure vessel engineer, by consulting with appropriate specialists, should be regarded as a composite of all entities needed to properly assess the technical requirements, ‘What is the definition of quality assurance as given in API 510? Al planned, systematic, and preventative actions required to determine if materials, equipment, or services will meet specified requirements so that equipment will perform satisfactorily in service. ‘The contents of e quality assurance inspection manual are outlined in 4.3. What is a Repair? ‘The work necessary to restore a vessel to a condition suitable for safe operations at the design conditions. "TF" design temperature ot pressure changes due to restoration, then re-rating requirements shall also be satisfied, 08/02 Rev 6 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO TTAC21. List the four examples of « Repair Organization. G.16) + The holder of a valid ASME Certificate of Authorization for the use of an appropriate ASME Code symbol stamp ‘© Anowner or user of pressure vessels who repairs his own equipment in accordance with the API 510 code. ‘+ Acontractor whose qualifications are acceptable to the owner or user of pressure vessels and makes repairs in accordance with this inspection code. A repair concern that is authorized by the legal jurisdiction 22, What is re-rating? G17) © A change in either the temperature ratings or the maximum allowable working pressure rating of @ ( vessel, or a change in both, The maximum allowable working temperature and pressure of @ vessel may be increased or decreased because of a re-rating, and sometimes a re-rating requies a combination of changes. De-rating below original design conditions is a permissible way to provide for corrosion, When a re-rating is conducted in which the maximum allowable working pressure or temperature is increased or the minimum temperature is decreased so that additional ‘mechanical tests are required, it shall be considered an alteration. 23, What isa permissible way to provide for corrosion? G17) ‘+ De-sating below original design conditions. 24, What distinguishes an examiner from and inspector? G.18) ‘+A person who assists the API authorized pressure vessel inspector by performing specific NDE on pressure vessels but does not evaluate the results of those examinations in accordance with API 510, unless specifically trained and authorized to do so by the owner or user. 'The examiner need i not be certified in accordance with API 510 or be an employee of the owner or user but shall be ‘rained and competent in the applicable procedures in which the examiner is involved, 25. Define Controlled-Deposition Welding G.1.9) ‘© Any welding technique used to obtain controlled grain refinement and tempering of the underlying heat affected zone (HAZ)in the base metal, Various controlled-ceposition techniques, such as temper-bead (tempering of the layer below the current bead being deposited) and half-bead (requiring removal of one-half ofthe first layer), are included. Controlied-deposition welding requires control of the entire welding procedure including the joint detail, preheating and post heating, welding technique, and welding parameters. 08/02 Rev @ FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITACSection 4 - Owner-User Inspection Organization 26. What are the education and experience requirements for becoming an inspector? (4.2 go to Appendix B) ‘© Degree in engineering & 1 year experience in the design, construction, repair, operation, o: inspection of boilers or pressure vessels. ‘+ 2 year certificate in engineering or technology froma technical college & 2 years of experience in the design, construction, repair, operation, or inspection of boilers or pressure vessels. ‘+ Equivalent of a high school education plus 3 years of experience. (and). + Five years experience in the inspection of boilers or pressure vessels. 27. Who will be responsible to the owner-user when alterations, inspections, or repairs are performed? * The API authorized pressure vessel inspector. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO TTACSection 5-Inspection Practices 28. Why are safety precautions important in pressure-vessel inspections? 6.1) = Because of the limited access to and the confined spaces of pressure vessels. 29. What guidelines must an inspector follow to enter a vessel thit has been in service? (1) ‘+ OSHA Regulations regarding Confined Space Entry. 30. Explain the safety precautions and procedures thet should be taken when performing an internal inspection. (1) Isolate vessel from all sources of liquids, gas or vapors, Drain, purge, clean and ventilate. Gas test. Wear protective equipment as required. ‘Wam all persons working around the vessel that inspection personnel are inside. ‘War all inside the vessel of work that is done outside the vessel. Check all tools and safety equipment needed before inspection. 31. When developing an inspection plan for vessels that operate at elevated temperatures (750 0 1000 ©) what things should be considered when assessing the remaining life of the vessel? © Creep deformation and stress rupture. + Creep crack growth. + Effect of hydrogen on creep. + Interaction of ereep and fatigue. © Possible metallurgical effects, including a reduction in ductility 32. Locations where metals of different thermal coefficients of expansion are welded together are susceptible to what? ‘© Thermal Fatigue. 33. The actual or estimated levels of what four items must be considered in any evaluation of Creep? (52) Time ‘Temperature Stress Material Creep Strength 34, At ambient temperatures, carbon, low alloy, and other ferric stoels may be susceptible to what? (3.2) © Brite Failure 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED 10 ITAC35, (52) 36. (5.2) ” (53) 39, (54) 40 5) Define Temper Embrittlement. A loss of ductility and notch toughness due to PHT or high temperature service above 700 degrees F. (370 degrees C) ‘What kind of steel is prone to Temper Embrittlement? Low alloy steels, especially 2 1/4-Cr-1 Mo What three methods may be used to determine the probable rate of corrosion? Calculate rate from data collected from same or similar service. Estimate rate from owner-user experience or from published data on comparable service. On-stream determination after 1000 hours of service using # suitable corrosion monitoring device or NDE thickness measurements (UT), subsequent inspections shall be made until the corrosion rate has been established. |. How should the MAWP for the continued use of a pressure vessel be established? ‘By using the Code to which the vessel was fabricated or by using the appropriate formulas and requirements of the latest edition of the ASME Code to establish the design temperature and pressure. In corrosive service, the wall thickness used in the MAWP calculations shall be the actual thickness obtained by inspection minus ‘Twice the estimated corrosion loss before the date of the next inspection, except as modified in section 6.4 What is the most important and the most universelly accepted method of inspection? Careful visual examination What determines the parts of a vessel that should be inspected? ‘The type of vessel and its operating conditions. For proper visual examination, what surface preparation is required? ‘The type of surface preparation depends on individual circumstances, but surface preperation such as wire brushing, blasting, chipping, grinding, or a combination of these may be required. 08/02 Rev € FAST TRACK TECHNICAL ~ LICENSED 70 TPAC43, If distortion is suspected during the inspection ofa pressure vessel what is the proper course of t action? (55) ‘+ Ifany distortion of vessel is suspected or observed, the overall dimensions of the vessel shall be checked to confirm whether or not the vessel is distorted and, ifit is distorted, to determine the extent and seriousness of the distortion. The parts ofthe vesse! that should be inspected most carefully depend on the type of vessel and its operating conditions 44, What type of examiners shall the when the owner/user requires inspection for detection of interior surface breaking planar laws? 65) « Industry-qualified UT Shear Wave examiners. 45, List the inspections, which include the features that are common to most vessels and that are most important. (66) ‘© Examine the surfaces of shells and heads carefully for possible cracks, blisters, bulges, and other signs of deterioration + Examine welded joints and the adjacent heat-affected zones for service-induced cracks or other defects. «Examine the surfaces of all man ways, nozzles, and other openings for distortion, cracks, and other defects 46, Name two reasons why itis necessary for the API 510 inspector to examine flange faces, (5.6) To look for distortion To determine the condition of gasket-seating surfaces 47. Corrosion may cause what two forms of loss? (5.7) Uniform loss -a general, relatively even wastage ofa surface arce Pitted appearance - an obvious, irregular surface wastage 48, Name three ways the minimurn thickness of a pressure vessel can be determined, 67 + Any suitable nondestructive examination Measurements taken through drilled test holes Gauging from un-corroded surfaces in the vicinity ofthe corroded area. 49, For a corroded area of considerable size in which the circumferential stresses govern, the least thickness along the most critical element of the area may be averaged over a length not exceeding what? 6.7) ‘© For vessels with inside diameters less than or equal to 60 inches (150 centimeters), one half the vessel diameter or 20 inches (50 centimeters), whichever is less, ‘For vessels with inside diameters greater than 60 inches, one third the vesse] diameter or 40 inches (100 centimeters), whichever is less. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC50, G7) st 67 52. (61.8) 10 ‘When can widely scattered pits be ignored? ‘No pit depth is more than 1/2 the vessel wall thickness exclusive of corrosion allowance. ‘Total area of pits does not exceed 7 sq. inches in any 8 inch diameter circle. Sum of pit dimensions along any straight line within the circle does not exceed 2 inches. ‘When should the design by analysis methods of Section VIII, Division 2, Appendix 4, of the ASME Code be used? To determine if components with thinning walls, which are below the minimum requited wall thicknesses, are adequate for continued service ‘To evaluate blend ground areas where defects have been removed. ‘What do you use to determine if the thickness at the weld or remote from the weld governs the allowable working pressure when the surface at the weld has a joint factor other than 1.07 For this calculation, the surface at # weld includes 1 inch (2.5 centimeters) on either side of the weld, or twice the minimum thickness on either side of the weld, whichever is greater. 08/02 Rev € FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED 70 TTAC33. (.7.b) 34 (5.7) (5.7.8) 56. (87h) 57, (8) 35. 1 Describe the governing thickness when measuring the corroded thickness of ellipsoidal and torispherical heads. ‘The thickness of the knuckle region with the head rating calculated by the appropriate head formula, ‘The thickness of the central portion of the dished region, in which case the dished region may be considered a spherical segment whose allowable pressure is calculated by the code formula for spherical shells, ‘What is the spherical segment of both ellipsoidal and torispherical heads? ‘That area located entirely within a circle whose center coincides with the center of the head and whose diameter is equal to 80% of the shell diameter. (On torispherical heads, what is used as the radius of the spherical segment? Radius of the dish, ‘The radius of the spherical segment of ellipsofdal heads shall be considered to be what? ‘The equivalent spherical radius K,D, where D is the shell diameter (equal to the major axis) and XK; is given in Table 1. ‘When evaluating metal loss in excess of a vessel’s corrosion allowance what API document should be consulted? API RP 579 Sections 4.5 and 6 Section 6 ~ Inspection and Testing of Pressure Vessels and Pressure-Relieving Devices 58. (1) 59, (6.1) 60, (62) ‘When is an intemal field inspection of now vessels not required? ‘When the manufactures’ data report (U1) assuring that the vessels are satisfactory for their intended service is available. ‘Name two factors to be considered when inspection intervals are being determined. ‘The risk associated with operational shutdown and start-up and the possibility of increased corrosion due to exposure of vessel surfaces to air and moisture, ‘What are the essential elements of a risk based assessment inspection? ‘The combination of likelihood of failure and the consequences of failure. 08/02 Rev 8 FAS’ TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC61 (6.2) (63) (63) 66. (63) 7. (6a) 12 ‘What other factors should be considered in a RBI program? Appropriateness of the materials, vessel design conditions relative to operating conditions, appropriateness of the design codes and standards utilized, effectiveness of corrosion monitoring programs; and the quality of inspection / quality assurance and maintenance programs What action should be taken after an effective RBI assessment has been finished? Choose the most appropriate inspection tools and methods based on the degradation expected. Set the appropriate frequency for internal and extemal and on-stream inspections. Determine if pressure testing will be required based on damage or afer repairs, Decide on prevention end mitigation steps to reduce the likelihood of a vessel failure, How often should cach above ground vessel be given a visusl external inspection? Each vessel aboveground shall be given a visual external inspection, preferably while in operation, at least every 5 years or at the same interval as the required internal or on-stream inspection, whichever is less. ‘When making an external inspection, what shall the inspection include? Condition of the exterior insulation Condition of the supports Allowance for expansion General alignment of the vessel on its supports Buried vessels shall be periodically monitored to determine their external environmental condition. What shall the inspection intervals be based on? Corrosion rate information obtained during maintenance on adjacent connecting piping of similar material, Information from the interval examination of similarly buried corrosion test coupons of similar material Information from representative portions of the actual vessel Information from a vessel in similar circumstances. ‘What is the minimum interval for checking the insulating system or outer jacketing of vessels that are known to have a remaining life of over 10 years or that are protected against external corrosion? Every 5 years and repaired as needed. What is the maximum period between internal or on-stream inspection? ‘The maximum period shall not exceed one half the estimated remaining corrosion-rate life or 10 years, whichever is less. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO TTAC13 68, Ifthe remaining safe operating life of a vessel is less than 4 years, what is inspection interval? (4) ‘© Interval may be the full remaining safe operating life up to a maximum of 2 years. 69. Under what conditions would a vessel with a corrosion rate less than 0.005 inch (0,125 millimeter) per year and an estimated remaining life greater than 10 years be exempt from an intomnal inspection and inspected externally instead? (4) ‘+ When size, configuration, or lack of access makes vessel entry for intemal inspection physically impossible, ‘+ When the general corrosion rate of a vessel is known to be less then 0.005 inch (0. 125 millimeter) ‘per year and the estimated remaining life is greater than 10 years, and all of the following conditions are met: The comosive character of the contents, including, the effect of trace components, has been. established by at least 5 years of the same or comparable service expericace with the type of contents being handled. ‘No questionable condition is disclosed by the external inspection specified in 6.2. ‘The operating temperature of the stec! vessel shell does not exceed the lower temperature limits for the creep-rupture range of the vessel material. «The vessel is not considered to be subject fo environmental cracking or hydrogen damage from the fluid being handled. ‘+ The vessel is not strip-lined or plate-lined, 70. Write the corrosion rate formula to be used when determining the safe remaining life of a vessel. (6.4) tactual —tmin. Rem. Life Ys. = corrosion rate '* Whore: tactual = the thickness, in inches millimeters), measured at the time of inspection for the limiting section used to determine the minimum allowable thickness. tminimum = the minimum allowable thickness, in inches (millimeters), for the limiting section or zone. 71. There are two kinds of corrosion rates to be considered when calculating the remaining life of a vessel, What are these types? (6.4) ‘© Short'Term and Long Term rates. 72. ‘When conducting a pressure test as part of a periodic inspection, what sball the shell temperature be during the test? (6.3) ‘+ Tominimize the risk of brittle fracture during the test, the metal temperature should be maintained at least 30° F (-1 °C) above the minimum design metal temperature for vessels that are more than 2 inches thick, or 10° F (-12 °C) above for vessels that have a thickness of 2 inches or less. The ‘est temperature need not exceed 120 °F (50 °C) unless there is information oa the brittle characteristics of the vessel material indicating that a lower test temperature is acceptable or 2 [higher test temperature is needed. . 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC14 73, When should pneumatic testing be done and what are some of the considerations to be taken into account? (65) ‘+ Pneumatic testing may be used when hydrostatic testing is impracticable because of temperature, foundation or process reasons, however, the potential personnel and property risks should be considered, 74, Should safety relief valves ever be removed from a vessel during pressure testing? (6.5) + Yes, if'a pressure testis being conducted in which the test pressure will exceed the set pressure of the Safety relief valve with the lowest setting, 75, When a pressure relief valve requires repair, who shall make this repair? (6.6) ‘Testing and repairs shall be made by a repair organization experienced in valve maintenance. The nization shall have a writtep oval15 79. Who shell approve all specified repair and alteration work? (7.1.2) ‘= The API authorized pressure vessel inspector, after the work has been proven to be satisfactory ‘and any required pressure test has been witnessed. 80. What must be removed from base material prior to welding? (7.13) ‘+ Surface iregularities and contamination. 81. All repair and alteration welding shall be in accordance with what code? 72) * ASME Code, except as permitted in 7.2.11 82. What must be done before Preheat or Controlled Deposition Welding is used in lea of PWHT? (723) © Prior to using any alternative method a metallurgical review must be conducted to determine if the proposed! alternative is suitable for the application, 83. Name the materials allowed when using the alternative preheating method when notch toughness testing is not required. (7.23.1) ‘© ‘The materials shall be limited to P-Nos. P-No. 1 Group 1,2 and 3 and P-No, 3, Group 1 and 2 (excluding Mn-Mo steels in Group 2), 84. Name the materials allowed for use with the Controlled-Deposition Welding Method. (7.23.2) «© The materials shall be limited to P-No. 1, P-No. 3 and P-No. 4. 85. Can local post weld heat treatment (PWHT) be substituted for 360 degree banding? (72.5) ‘+ YES provided the following conditions are met: ‘© Application is reviewed and procedure developed by engineer experienced in pressure vessel design & PWHT requirements. ‘© In evaluating the suitability ofa procedure, all applicable faciors (base metal thickness, material properties, etc.) are considered. + Preheat of 300 degree or higher per WPS is maintained. © PWHT temperature is maintained for distance not less than 2 times base metal thickness measured from weld, A minimum of 2 thermocouples is used. Heat is applied to any nozzle or other sttachment in PWHT area. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC16 86. What considerations must be given to the repair of stainless steel overlay and claddings? (7.2.6) ‘* Consideration shall be given to factors which may augment tke repair sequence such as stress level, P number of base material, service environment, possible previously dissolved hydrogen, type of lining, deterioration of base metal properties (by temper embrittlement of chromium molybdenum alloys), minimum pressurization temperatures, and « need for future periodic examination, 87, Per API 510, state the design requirements for Butt Joints, Replacement Parts, New Connections, Fillet Weld Patches, Overlay Patches, Flush patches 2.7 BUTT JOINTS - shall have complete penetration and fusion. REPLACEMENT PARTS - shell be fobricated in accordance with the applicable requirements of the appropriate code. «NEW CONNECTIONS - design, location, and method of attachment shall be in accordance with the applicable requirements of the appropriate code. «FILLET WELDED PATCHES - require special design considerations, they are temporary repairs. Also it must be true that; (a) The fillet-welded patches provide design safety equivalent to reinforced openings designed according to the applicable section of the ASME Code. (b) ‘The fillet-welded patches are designed to absorb the membrane strain of the parts so that in accordance with the rules of the applicable section of the ASME Code, the following result: * The allowable membrane stress is not exceeded in the vessel parts o the patches. ‘© The strain in the patches does not result in fillet-weld stresses that exceed allowable stresses for such welds. © OVERLAY PATCHES - shall have rounded comers, + FLUSH (insert) PATCHES shall have rounded comers and be installed with full penetration butt joints 08/02 Rev 8 EAST TRACK TECHNICAL ~ LICENSED TO ITAC17 88, Summarize the rules for the use of full encirclement lap band on a pressure vessel. 7.2.7) © A full encirclement lap band repair may be considered a Tong term repair ifthe design is approved, ‘and documented by the pressure vessel engineer and the authorized API pressure vessel inspector ‘and the following requirements are met: ‘The repair is not being made to a crack in the vessel shell. ‘The band alone is designed to contain the full design pressure. ‘© All longitudinal seams in the repair band are full penetration butt welds with the design joint efficiency and inspection consistent with the appropriate code. ‘+ The circumferential fillet welds attaching the band to the vessel shell are designed to transfer the fall longitudinal load in the vessel shell, using a joint efficiency of 0.45, without counting on the integrity of the original shell material covered by the band. ‘+ Fatigue of the attachment welds, such as fatigue resulting from differential expansion of the band relative to the vessel shell, should be considered if applicable, ‘© The band materiel and weld metal are suitable for contact with the contained fluid at the design conditions and an appropriate corrosion allowance is provided in the band. ‘+ The degradation mechanism leading to the need for repair shell be considered in determining the need for any additional monitoring and future inspection of the repair. Non-penetrating nozzles (including pipe caps attached as nozzles) may be used as Jong term repairs for other than cracks ‘when the design and method of attachment comply with the applicable requirements of the appropriate code. The design and reinforcement of such nozzles shall consider the loss of the original shell material enclosed by the nozzle, The nozzle material shall be suitable for contact with the contained fluid at the design conditions and an apprapriate corrosion allowance shall be provided. 89, Describe the material suitable for making repairs or alterations. (7.2.8) ‘« Shall conform to the applicable section of the ASME Code, be of known weldable quality and be ‘compatible with the original material. Carbon or allow steel with a carbon content over 0.35 percent shall not be welded. 90. When making a repair or alteration, what should the acceptance criteria include? (7.2.9) «NDE techniques that are in accordance with the applicable sections of the ASME Code or another applicable vessel rating code. 91. Affer repairs or alterations, is a pressure test required? 10) © Repairs - pressure test only applied if inspector believes ones necessary. © Alterations - pressure test are normally required. Subject tothe approval of the Jurisdiction (where the jurisdiction's approval is required), appropriate nondestructive examinations shall be required where a pressure testis not performed. Substituting nondestructive examination procedures for a pressure test after an alteration may be done only after pressure vessel engineer experienced in pressure vessel design and the authorized pressure vessel inspector have been consulted. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC18 92, List the minimum tensile strength requirements for filler metals used on vessels weld repairs and the details of this method of repair. (72.11) +The filler metal used for weld repairs should have minimum specified tensile strength equal to or greater than the minimum specified tensile strength of the base metal, Ifa filler metal is used that has a minimum specified tensile strength lower than the minimam specified tensile strength of the base metal, the compatibility of the filer metal chemistry with the base metal chemistry shall be considered regarding weld ability and service degradation. In addition, the following shall be met: «The repair thickness shall not be more than 50 percent of the required base metal thickness, excluding corrosion allowance. ‘©The thickness of the repair weld shall be increased by a ratio of minimum specified tensile strength of the base metal and minimum specified tensile of the filler metal used for the repair. ‘+ The increased thickness of the repair shall have rounded comers and shall be blended into the base ‘metal using a 3 to 1 taper. ‘©The repair shall be made with a minimum of two passes. 93, (73) {st the requirements associated with re-rating a pressure vessel. ‘+ Calculations from cither the manufacturer or an owner-user pressure vessel engineer (or his designated representative) experienced in pressure vessel design, fabrication, or inspection shall Justify re-rating. ‘+ Are-rating shall be established in accordance with the requirements of the constructiox code t0 which the pressure vessel was built or by computations that are determined using the appropriate formulas in the latest edition of the ASME Code if al ofthe essential details comply with the applicable requirements of the code being used. If the vessel was designed to an edition or addendum of the ASME Code earlier than the 1999 Addenda and was not designed to Code Case 2290 or 2278, it may be re-rated to the latest editiow/addendum of the ASME Code if' permitted by Figure 7- ‘+ Current inspection records verify that the pressure vessel is satisfactory for the proposed service conditions and that the corrosion allowance provided is appropriate. An increase in allowable working pressure or temperature shall be based on thickness data obtained from a recent internal or on-stream inspection. ‘+The pressure vessel has at some time been pressure tested in accordance with the new service conditions, or the vessel integrity is maintained by special nondestructive evaluation inspection techniques in lieu of testing ‘+The pressure vessel inspection and re-rating is acceptable to the authorized pressure vessel inspector. 94, When is the re-rating of a pressure vessel considered complete? (73) ‘+ When the API authorized pressure vessel inspector oversees the attachment of an additional nameplate or additional stamping that carries the following information: Rerated by: Maximum Allowable Working Pressure pst at degrees F. Date 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO T7AC19 API RECOMMENDED PRACTICE 576 SECOND EDITION, DECEMBER 2000 REVIEW QUESTIONS, Section 1 - General 1. What is the general scope of API RPS76? o © Todescribe inspection and repair practices for automatie pressure-relieving devices commonly used in the oil and petrochemical industries, Section 2—References 2. What document should be referenced to determine the appropriate size for a pressure relief device? Q) «© RP 520 Sizing, Selection, and Installation of Pressure-Relieving Devices in Refineries Section 3 Definitions 3. Describe a pin-actuated device. (3.13) + A non-reclosing pressure relief device actuated by static pressure and designed to function by buckling or breaking a pin, which holds a piston or plug in place. 4, What is a huddling chamber? (3.22) ‘+ An annular pressure chamber locaicd downstream of the seat of a pressure relief valve for the purpose of assisting the vaive in lifting. 5. Describe “rated relieving capacity”. (33.6) ‘©The relieving capacity used as the basis for the application of a pressure vessel relief device determined using the applicable code or regulation. Section 4 — Pressure-Relieving Devices 6. What is the function of pressure-relieving devices? @1) * To protect refinery equipment and personnel by automatically opening at predetermined pressures. 7. Name common examples of pressure relieving devices. @) Direct spring loaded Pilot PRV Rupture disks Weight loaded devices Pressure/Vacuum vent valves 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC20 8, Name the five types of pressure relief valves. (4.2, 4.3, 44, 4.6, 4.7) Safety valve Relief valve Safety relief valve Balanced Safety Relief Valve Pilot-operated safety relief valve 9. Describe a safety valve. (4.2)(Section VIII UG-126 foot notes) ‘+ Actuated by static pressure upstream of a valve. ‘+ Spring fully exposed outside casing to protect from escaping steam. ‘+ Normally not pressure tight on their downstream side. 10. Safety valves should not be used in what situations? (4.2.2) Corrosive refinery services. Any back pressure service. ‘Where discharge is piped to remote locations. Where escape of lading fluid around blowing valves is not desirable In liquid service As pressure control or bypass valves, 11, Describe a relief valve. (4.3)(Section VILL UG-126 foot notes) Actuated by static pressure upstream of a valve. Lifts in proportion to the increase in pressure. ‘+ Usually reaches full lift at either 10% or 25% overpressure. 12, Why do relief valves have closed bonnets? ‘+ Toprevent the release of corrosive, toxic, flammable or expensive fluids. 13, Relief valves should not be used in what situations? ‘© Insteam, air, gas, or vapor service. + _Inservices piped to an enclosed header unless the effects of sny constant or variable backpressure have been accounted for. ‘© Aspressure control or bypass valves. 14, ‘There are two types of safety relief valves. What are these two types? (45,46) © Conventional & Balanced 08/02 Rev 8 FAST’ TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED 70 TAC15. (45) 16, @S.1) 17, (4.52) 18. (4.6) 19. (4.6.1) 20. 21 Describe a conventional safety relief valve. ‘Opening pressure, closing pressure and relieving capacity are affected by back pressure. Has a closed bonnet The bomnet cavity is vented to the downstream side. ‘Where are conventional safety relief valves used? Refinery process industries that handle flammable, hot, or toxic materials. May a conventional safety relief valve be used on boiler steam drums or super heaters? No Describe a balanced safety relief valve. Balanced safety relief valves are direct spring loaded and incorporate « bellows or other means to minimize the effects of backpressure. ‘What are the proper applications for these pressure balanced safety relief devices: Balance safety relief valves are normally used in applications with flammable, hot or toxic ‘materials, where high pressures are present atthe discharge of the valve. ‘What is a pilot-operated safety relief valve? (4.7)(Section VII UG-126 foot notes) au. 4.7.) ‘A pressure-relief valve in which the major relieving device is combined with and is controlled by @ self-actuated pressure relief valve (called a pilot valve). ‘What are some applications of pilot-operated safety relief valves? ‘Where a large relief area and/or a high pressure is required. ‘Where a low differential exists between normal vessel pressure and set pressure of valves. On large low-pressure storage tanks (See API Std 620}. Where very short blow down required, ‘Where back pressure is very high and a balanced design is required ‘Where the process requires the sensing of pressure at one location and the relief of fluid at another. ‘Where inlet and outlet ftictional losses are high, Where in-situ, in-service, set pressure verification is desired. ‘Name some limitations on the use of pilot-operated safety relief valves. Where fluids are dirty. ‘Thick or viscous fluid service. ‘With vapors which polymerize in the valve. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC22 23, What are the three basic categories of pressure and/or vacuum vent valves? (48) ‘+ Weight-loaded pallet vent valve Pilot operated vent valve Spring and weight-loaded vent valve 24, What are the applications and limitations of pressure and/or vacuum vent valves? (48.1 and.2 + They are designed to protect atmospheric and low pressure storage tanks and are not generally used in applications requiring sct pressures sbove 15 Ibffin 25, Describe the parts of Rupture Disk Device. (49) ‘+The combination of a rupture disk and rupture disk holder is known as a rupture disk device. 26, Name the types of rupture disks. (49) + Conventional Rupture Disk. + Scored Tension-Loaded Rupture Disk. + Composite Rupture disk. + Reverse-Acting Rupture Disk. + Graphite Ruptare Disk. 27. What is one advantage of the graphite disk over metal disks? (49.1.5) + High corrosion resistance 28. What is usually the service life of pre-bulged metal rupture disks installed so that pressure acts against the concave side? * One yeer- Ifnot replaced periodically they can rupture under normal pressures without warning, 29, Normally the operating pressure ofa system protecied by a pre-bulged rupture disk is from 65% to 85% of the disk's predetermined bursting pressure. What determines this pressure range? + The exact percentage depends on the disk’s type, 30. What precaution should be taken when a rupture disk is used in combination with another relict device and removed for any reason and will be reused? (493) © They should be handled with care to avoid damage which might cause premature rupture. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ZAC23 Section 5 — Causes of improper Performance 31, What is the basic cause of many the difficulties encountered with pressure relief devices? 6.) © Corrosion 32. What effect can the severe over sizing of a relief valve have? (62) () ‘Damaged valve seats. 33. List the major causes of improper performance in pressure-reieving devices. Corrosion Damaged seating surfaces Failed springs Improper seating & adjustments Plugging and sticking Misapplication of materials Improper location, history, or identification Rough handling Improper differential between operating and set pressures Improper piping test procedures 34, To prevent leakage of the lading fluid, what must be maintained in the flatness of seating surfaces on pressure relief valves? (62) ‘© An optical precision on the order of 3 light beads'bands. 35, What are some reasons for damaged valve seats? (5.2) Corrosion Foreign particles getting into valve Improper or lengthy piping to the valve inlet or obstructions in the line. Careless handling during maintenance, Leakage past the seating surfaces of a valve afierit has been installed. Improper blow down ring settings. Severe over sizing. 36. What almost always causes broken springs in pressure relief valves? 63) * Corrosion (Note: two types - surface & stress) 37, What chemical frequently causes stress-corrosion spring failure in petrochemical plants? 63) ‘© Hydrogen sulfide (12S) 08/02 Rev @ FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC38. (53) 39. (4) (55) 4B (5.8.2) 44, (583) 4s. (5.10) 24 What may be done to prevent spring failure due to corrosion? Spring material which can resist the action of the corrosive agent. Spring isolated by a bellows Spring coated by a coating that can withstand the operating temperature and environment. What medium should be used to ser the following pressure relief devices? Safety relief valve - air or other gas. Vapor service valve~ air or inert gas. Steam service valves — steam but air may be used if suitable corrections are applied. Liquid service valves — water |. What is recommended for lubricating sliding parts and threads on valves to prevent fouling? Valve parts should be lubricated with a material that is compatible with the service and temperature. In general, what should be considered in determining the material to be used for pressure-relieving devices? ‘Temperature Pressure Corrosion resistance requirements ‘Atmospheric conditions .. Why should relief valves be shipped in an upright position? When relief valves are laid on their sides, the springs may not exert the same force all around the seating surface. ‘What is one important aspect of the work done to PRDs in the maintenance shop? Rough handling should be avoided such as the application of excessive backpressure to bellows type valves, IFRY inlets and outlets are not covered during shipment what provisions should be made? Provision should be made for such covering during all future shipments, ‘What risks are incurred when a hydrostatic test of discherge piping for a PRD is performed? ‘The disk, spring and body area on the discharge side of valve can be fouled, ‘The bellows of a balanced relief valve can be damaged by excessive back pressure. ‘The dome area and/or the pilot assembly of a pilot-operated pressure RV are fouled and damaged by the back flow of the fui. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL, - LICENSED TO TTAC25 Section 6 — Inspection and Testing 46, Name two types of inspections (6a) '* Shop inspections! overhauls and visual on-stream inspections. 47. When a relief valve is removed for inspection or overhauls what additional inspection should be made? (62) Inlet and outlet piping should be inspected for internal deposits and records made of their conditions, 48, After a PRV has been reinstalled what should be checked? 62.) ‘+ After reinstalling the related piping should be checked to ensure that itis not imposing loads that ‘would cause problems with the pressure relief valve’s body such as distortion leading to in-service leakage. 49, A complete operating history of each pressure relief valve should be maintained and should include what? (6.2.3) Information on upsets end their effects on the valve. ‘The extent of any leakage that has occurred in operstion. ‘+ Any other evidence of malfunctioning, 50, When a relief device is removed from a system that is in operation, name a necessary step to prevent an unexpected pressure release. (624) ‘= The space between the relief valve and the adjacent block vaive should be vented to release all pressure. 51, What must be done to valves in hydrofluoric acid service as soon as they are removed? 625 «They must be correctly neutralized immediately after removal 52, Since inspection of RV piping cannot be done when removing the valve while the system is in service what alternative inspection can be done to check for line any major blockage or fouling? (62.6) © Radiographic Inspection, 53. What can visual inspection of the piping after the removal ofa PRD indicate? (6.2.6) + The condition of the process piping whose interior is not visible, 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC26 54. Why should caution be used with the rigging to remove a large PRD for maintenance? © Prevent auxiliary piping and pilot assemblies from being damaged. 55. Prior to performing the as received pop test on a PRD what should be inspected and checked? * Check that the seals are intact on the pressure set screw and the blow down ring screw cover. 56, When may the as received pop pressure test be waived by the owner/user? © When the valve is extremely fouled and the test may damage the valve, 57. When unusual corrosion, deposits, or conditions are noted upon receipt of a PRD at the shop what should be done? (62.9) ‘+ The inspector should participate in the shop inspection of the PRD. 58. When is it not necessary to disassemble at PRD at the shop? (62.10) ‘+ Ifthe valve has been tested at the appropriate API 510 interval and the as received pop test shows the valve to be operating properly disassembly is not mandatory. 59, List at least four of the steps in the inspection of a relief valve upon disassembly. (6.2.11) Measure each part's dimensions. ‘Check components for wear or corrosion. ‘Seating surfaces should be checked for roughness or damage. Springs should be checked for cracking. 60, During re-assembly of a pressure relief valve what should never be done? (62.12) + The nozzle and seating surfaces should never be oiled. 61. After re-assembly of relief device how should any blow down rings be set? (62.13) * Inaccordance with the manufécturer’s recommendations 62, Why do some manufactures recommend at least three pop tests before releasing a relief device for installation? (6.2.14) + Itis believed that the first pop test helps to align all of the components and that the successive tests verify the actual set pressure, 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL ~ LICENSED TO TTAC27 63. Once the valve is set to pop at its CDP (cold differential test pressure) it should be checked for a (6.2.15) * Leakage and seat tightness by increasing the pressure on the fest block ta 90% of the CDTP. 64, When applying the hydraulic test method to ASME Section VIII pressure relief valves while on equipment, what precautions should be taken? (62.17) ‘The potential for failure of the rupture disk in disk/relief valve combinations. Possible introduction of foreign material into the valve seat are from popping. Possible release of process material to the atmosphere. 65. May a pilot operated pressure relief valve be tested in place if no block valve exists beneath it? (6.2.19) «No, itmay be inspected and repaired only while the vessel is out of service. 66. Where is a weight loaded pressure and/or a vacuum vent used? (62.20) + Onpressure storage tanks. 67. What type of failure are pressure and/or vacuum vent valves prone to? (6.2.20) © Sticking. 68, Is it permissible to reinstall a rupture disk once it has been unbolted and removed from its holder? (6.2.21) * No, it may not be possible to get. tight seal and unreliable performance is probsble. 69. What are the objectives of a visual on-stream inspection of relief devices? (63) © Make sure the correct device is installed, thatthe correct pressure can be determined, that there are not any blinds or gags installed, thatthe seals are intact and thatthe valve is not eaking. Also ‘bellows ifso equipped are connected and clear and vent piping is routed to a safe location. Any upstream or downstream block valves are sealed or chained ia the proper position, That discharge piping is supported, valve body drains and vent stacks are open, any required lifting lever is present and properly positioned. Any heat tracing or insulation required is in good condition and ‘operational and if a rupture disk is installed it is properly oriented, 70. API.S10 establishes the maximum interval between device inspections or tests of 10 years, what else should be considered when setting the frequency of inspection and testing? (64) + The performance of the device in a particular service. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC28 71. How is the frequency of shop inspection or overhaul normally determined? (64.1.1) + By the operating experience in the valve's present service, corrosion service would be more frequent for example. Section 7- Records and Reports 72. What is the principal objective in keeping records on pressure-relieving devices? ) + Tomaice available the information nesded to ensure the performance of the devices meets the requirements of their various installations, 73, What should the record for a pressure-reliving device include? (72) + Its specification data and a continuously accumulating record ofits tests and inspections results, 74, Which of the following per API 576 might be expected to initiate a work request ona PRD? The APT inspector or the Process Unit Operator? (7.3) * Process Unit Operator 08/02 Rev @ FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC29 API RECOMMENDED PRACTICE 572 SECOND EDITION, FEBRUARY 2001 REVIEW QUESTIONS Section 1 - General 1, ‘What are the main points covered in API RP 572? aay Descriptions of the various types of pressure vessels. Standards for construction. Reasons for inspection. Causes of deterioration. Frequency & methods of inspection. Methods of repair. Preparation of records and repors. Scetions 3, 4, 5 and 6 contain duplicate information to that found in the API 510. You should still read these sections however, at least once, Section 7 - Reasons for Inspection 2. What are the basic reasons for inspection? (7) To determine the physical condition of the vessel. Determine the type, rate and causes of deterioration. 3, _List at least four additional reasons for inspections. (7.1.7.2) * Safety maintained » Periods of operation without shutdown extended - well planned maintenance program © Rate of deterioration often reduced © Future repair and replacement requirements estimated Section 8 - Causes of Deterioration 4, List the 4 general forms of deterioration. (8.1) © Electrochemical © Chemical © Mechanical © Combination of all three 08/02 Rev @ FAST TRACK TECHNICAL ~ LICENSED 70 ITAC(8.1) (8.1) 10. (82.2) 30 List the 4 general classifications of things that cause deterioration upon coming into contact with = vessel surface. Organic & inorganic compounds ‘Contaminated or fresh water Steam Atmosphere ‘Name 6 factors, which accelerate the rate of deterioration. ‘Temperature Stress Fatigue Impingement High velocity Irregularity of flow ‘What isthe prime cause of deterioration in a pressure vessel? Corrosion ‘What are the most common intemal corrodents in refineries? Sulfur Salt/Chloriée compounds Define erosion, ‘The removal of surface material caused by numerous individual impacts of solid or liquid particles or cavitation, Erosion is typically found where in a vessel? Downstream of control valves Downstream of orifices Downstream of pump discharges At any point of flow direction change, such as impingement baffles. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC31 11, Problems with environmental cracking have been experienced of high hardness, areas of high stress or both. Examples of this include (8.23) Chloride stress corrosion cracking of austenitic stainless steels due to moisture under insulation. Polythionic acid stress corrosion cracking (PSCC} ‘Caustic stress corrosion also know as caustic embrittlement Amine stress corrosion cracking in non-stress relieved vessels. Carbonate stress corrosion cracking in alkaline systems. Wet hydrogen sulfide stress cracking, hydrogen induced cracking, and hydrogen blistering. 12. Corrosion beneath refractory linings can cause what? © Bulging of the refractory 13, What does fatigue cracking in a vessel result from? ‘© Excessive cyclic stresses the are often below the yield strength of the material such as; Pressure stresses = Mechanical stresses ‘Thermal stresses 14, Creep damage may be difficult to detect until ‘© Significant damage has occured 15. What factor increases susceptibility to high temperature hydrogen attack in a vessel's material? ‘© Increasing carbon content of the materials, 16. In the absence of. , sulfide corrosion rates of are relatively low at metal temperatures below (8.2.8) Water 450°F 17, When buried vessels are equipped with adequate cathodic protection when will excavation be required for inspection? (8.2.9) © When evidence of coating or wrapping damage is revealed 18, What are the most important microorganisms that directly influences the rate of metallic corrosion? (8.2.10) © Sulfate reducing bacteria found in may soils 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO 2TAC19, (63.7) 20. (85) a (85.1) 22, (85.2) 32 ‘What causes titanium alloys to lose ductility? Absorption of hydrogen ‘Many of the problems that may develop in pressure vessels are traceable to what? Faulty material or fabrication Poor welding, improper heat treatment, fabrication with dimensions outside tolerances allowed by ASME Code, improper installation of internal equipment, and assembly of flanged or threaded joints are examples of what problem? Faulty fabrication List several consequences of improper welding techniques. Incomplete penetration Lack of fission Cracking ‘Undercutting Slag inclusion Porous welds . High residual stresses near welds affecting the physical properties and corrosion resistance of the metal is caused by what? Improper heat treatment Dimensional intolerance can lead to what? Suess concentrations and subsequent failures ‘What are the consequences of improper installation of internal equipment? Inefficient operation Blockage of passages Displacement of internal equipment with pressure surges 05/02 Rey 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC33 26, Improper fitting or tightening of flanges or threaded joints may lead to what? (85.6) Leaks and possible failure Section 9 ~ Frequency and Time of Inspection 27. What are the important factors when determining the frequency with which a pressure vessel should be inspected? © The rate of deterioration ©The remaining corrosion allowance 28, What event can provide and opportunity for an inspection? 02) © Anunscheduled shutdown 29. What occasional check may locate the cause of functional deterioration? 0.2) © Acheck of a vessel's operating record 30. What are the most important issues when scheduling a unit for inspections? 3) © Safety and reliability Section 10 Inspection Methods and Limitations 31. Before starting inspection of a pressure vessel, what are some basic things the inspector should do? 0.1) ‘© Determine pressure and temperature conditions under which the vessel has operated since last inspection ‘+ Ascertain the character of the vessel contents and the function the vessel serves in the process 32, Name at least 8 types of tools requized by an inspector to inspect a pressure vessel. 10.22) Portable lights ‘Thin bladed life Broad chisel or scraper Mirrors Calipers Steel tape measure(50 feet) Hammer Notebooks and pencils 33, Where should the external inspection start? (103.2) ‘+ _Extemal inspection should start with ladders, stairways, platforms, or walkways connected to or bearing on the vessel. The condition of most parts can be determined by hammering, 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC34 34. What are most foundations constructed of? (10.3.3) + Foundations for vessels are almost always constructed of steel-reinforced concrete structural stee] fireproofed with concrete 35. Cracks in concrete or fireproofing may be caused by what? (10.3.3) Excessive heat Mechanical shock Corrosion of reinforcing steel Freezing of entrapped moisture 36. What types of vessels are most likely to experience uneven settling of their foundations? (10.3.3) ‘+ Vessels supported on long concrete slabs or on two or more separate foundations. 37. What isthe proper way to check an anchor bolt on a piece of equipment for deterioration below the base plate? (10.3.4) + Assideways blow with a hammer 38. Often corrosion of structural elements can be virtually eliminated by a simple procedure, which is? (103.6) «Proper painting 39. A bulge in fireproofing is noted on steel structural member, what does that indicate? 003.6) + Corrosion beneath the fireproofing is present, 40. The inside surface of a skirt is may be subject to corrosion, below what temperature is this likely? (10.3.6) | + 10°F 41, What should you inspect guy wires for? (00.3.7) ‘+ Tightness and correct tension ~ a visual inspection should be sufficient. 42. What type of corrosion are turnbuckles subject to? (103.7) © Crevice corrosion 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED 70 TTAC35 43, If setling ofa vessel has occurred, what should be checked for distortion and cracks? (103.8 © Nozzles. ‘44, What is the recommended resistance for grounding connections? (10.3.9) + Scohms or less, not to exceed 25 obms 45. Unchecked vibrations on auailiary equipment such as gauge connectors can cause what type of (10. a + Fatigue failure 46, What type of inspection is usually sufficient for protective coatings and insulation? (0.3.11) © Visual 47. At what operating temperature does CU become a concern on externally insulated vessels subject to moisture ingress? (0.3.11) + Between 25 to 250°F 48, What are the normally required measurements on external metal surfaces of a vessel? (103.12) ‘+ Under normal conditions, at least one measurement in each shell ring and one on each head, If 20 history exists for a vessel, then get a reading in each quadrant of each shell ring, 49. What types of corrosion are found on external surfaces of vessel? (103.13) © Atmospheric * Caustic Embrittlement + Hydrogen blistering + Soil corrosion 50. Vessels containing acidic corrodents are subject to hydrogen blistering. Where is this normally found in the vessel? (203.13) * Those areas below the liquid level in vessels containing acidic corrodents are more likely than other areas to be subject to hydrogen blistering. Blisters are xormally on the inside, but can occur on the outside surface 2s well. 51, What should a vessel be checked for if a caustic is stored in it? (203.13) ‘© [fa caustic material is stored or used in a vessel, the vessel should be checked for caustic embrittlement, 08/02 Rev @ FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO TTAC36 52, Evidence of white salts seeping through cracks will indicate what type of material? (0.3.13) © Caustic material 53. Unless readily visible, leaks are best found by what means? (103.13) «Pressure or Vacuum testing, 54, Deseribe how you would determine the extent of bulging or buckling on vessel in service. (103.13) + By measuring the changes in circumferences or by making profiles of the vessel wall, Profiles are made by taking measurements from a line parallel to the vessel wall, A surveyor's transit or a 180 degree optical plummet may also be used. 55, The degree of surface preparation needed for internal inspection will vary with several factors. Foremost among these are: (10.4.2) + Type of deterioration expected + Location of any deterioration 56. Cracks in vessels are most likely to occur where? (1043) ‘+ Inplaces where there are sharp changes in shape or size or near welded seams, especially if'a high stress is applied. 57. What may preliminary inspections reveal? (10.4.3) '* Unsafe conditions, such as those due to loose internals that may fall or due to badly corroded or ‘broken internal ladders or platforms. 58. A detailed inspection should start at one end of the vessel and work toward the other end and include what? (0.4.4) + A systematic procedure to avoid overlooking obscure but important items. 59. What should all parts of a vessel be inspected for? (10.4.4) + Corrosion + Erosion + Hydrogen blistering + Cracking * Laminations 60. Some times the depth of s pit can be estimated by using what simple method? (10.44) + Extending the lead of a mechanical pencil 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO TTAC37 61. What types of methods are used for determining the extent of cracks? 04a) Dye penetrant Magnetic-particle (wet or dry) + Ultrasonic shear-weve 62, Explain the difference in appearance between erosion and comosion, (10.44) ‘= Erosion is characterized by a smooth, bright appearance: marked by the absence of the erosion product; and metal loss, is usually confined to a clearly marked local area. © Corroded areas are not often smooth or bright. 63, Sholls and heads of vessels should be inspected for deformation. Which is more likely to suffer eformation? 4.4) © The shell ofa vessel 64. How do you check for (2) small distortions, (b) bulging or buckling (c) out-of-roundness or bulging? (10.4.4) Small distortions - by placing a stright edge against a vessel Bulging/buckling - measuring the changes in circumference or by profile (measuring from a line strung parallel to the vessel) + Out-of round/bulge - by measuring the minimum and maximum internal deviation at the cross sectional area and comparing the two. 65, What is the best method of locating suspected deformations? (00.44) «Direct 2 flashlight beam parallel to the surface to check for shadows in depressions and on the xon-light sides of internal bulges. 66. What is the most sensitive method of locating surface cracking? (10.4.4) + Fluorescent Magnetic Particle Method. 67. Whatis the difference between cracks and laminations? (10.4.4) ‘+ Laminations run at s slant to the plate surface. © Cracks run at right angles to the surface, 68, Name three important factors in the inspection of metallic linings. (10.4.5) + That there is no corrosion. + That the Linings are properly installed. + That no holes or eracks exist 08/02 Rev @ FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED 10 ITAC38 69. Explain how the Corrosive Tab Method is used to determine the metal loss on vessel linings, (10.4.5) ‘+ Small 1 by 2 inch tabs of lining that form a right angle are welded onto the lining with one leg extended into the vessel. During inspections the thickness of the protruding leg is measured, and, since both sides of the leg are exposed to corrosive action, the loss in thickness would be twice that of the lining. 70. What is the principle method used to inspect nonmetallic linings like glass, plastic, rubber, concrete, and carbon block or brick. (10.4.6) + For the most part all of the above will be visually inspected for discontinuities or physical damage. + Specific: + For paint, glass, plastic, & rubber lining the spark tester method is used to locate holidays. For concrete, brick, tile, or refractory lining the hammer testing method is used to locate lack of bond. 71, Name the factors to consider when selecting tools for thickness measurements. (10.5) Accessibility from both sides. Desire for NDE methods. Accuracy desired. Time available. Economy 72. What is the primary means of obtaining thickness measurements? * Ultrasonic instruments. 73. To analyze defects in welded seams that are not visible on the surface of the metal, what two methods are used? + Radiography. * Shear-wave Ultrasonic. 74, How does the Hammer Test function in supplementing visual examination of a vessel for the inspector? (10.8.1) * "Thin" - Locate thin sections in vessel walls, heads, and attachments. | + "Tightness"- Check for tighiness of rivets, bolts, brackets. + "Cracks and Lack of Bond" - Check for cracks in metalic linings and lack of bond in concrete linings. + "Scale" - Remove scale accumulations for spot inspections. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO TPAC39 75, When is use of the Hammer ‘Test not recommended? (0.8.1) ‘© When vessels are under pressure. © Onpiping upstream from a catalyst bed. 76. What is pressure testing? (1082) ‘© Filling a vessel with liquid or gas and building up an internal pressure to a desired level 71. Which is the preferred method, pressure or vacuum testing, and why? (10.8.2) + Pressure testing. Leaks from an internal pressure source are more easily located. With vecuum testing you will know if there are leaks, but the location is not evident, 78. What should an inspector examine before applying test pressure to the shell side of an exchanger? (0.8.3) ‘© He should inspect the tube walls to be sure there is sufficient wall thickness to withstand extemal pressure.Sect qa) ay 40 jon 11 - Methods of Repair 83. When is it required that a repair concern making welded repairs to a vessel have a National Board R stamp? + When the jurisdiction dictates that the these repairs are fo made by only R stamp holders 84. When is a pressure test ofa vessel normally a requirement? © After an alteration Seetion 12 - Records and Reports (a2. (12.2) : 85. A complete record file should contain what three types of information? 1) + Basic data — manufacturer's drawings, data reports and specifications, design information, results of any material tests + Field notes - notes and measurements recorded on site including record of condition of all parts inspected and repairs required + Continuous file - all information on the vessel's operating history, previous inspections, corrosion rate tables, records of repairs and replacements 86, When making reports recommending repairs, who should receive these reports? + All management groups. This would normally include engineering, operation, and maintenance departments. Reports should include the location, extent, and reasons for recommended repair, Appendix A - Exchangers (As. As. (All 87. Why should bundles be checked when they are first pulled from the shells? A) ‘+ The color, type, emount, and location of scales and deposits often help to pinpoint corrosion problems. 88. A distinctive Prussian blue on bundle tubes indicates the presence of what? 2) + Ferriferrocyanide 89, Coils in open condenser boxes and double-pipe exchanger shells should be inspected according to what API Recommended Practice? { 0 ! © RPST4 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC41 CHAPTERIL CONDITIONS CAUSING DETERIORATION OR FAILURES SECOND EDITION, 1973 201 General 1, What are the modes of failure that can be found in refinery equipment? (201.2) © Fatigue Failures - caused by stress reversals, (In machinery these cracks start at the surface and progress with each stress reversal.) «Distortion Failure - occurs when equipment is subjected to temperatures above design temperature. (At high temperatures the metal becomes weaker and distortion occurs which may result in failure.) ‘© Brittle Fracture - carbon steels are susceptible to brittle fracture at ambient temperatures and below. (A number of tank failures have been attributed to the brittle coadition of steel at low ‘temperatures, combined with high loads that have been imposed by thermal stress set up rapid ‘temperature changes.) ‘+ Excessive Metal Loss - may result in failure if remaining wall thickness gets below safety valve settings. This isa rare occurrence. © Wrong Material or Wrong Gaskets - may lead to failure. 202 - Corrosion 2. Corrosion problems in refining operations can be divided into three major groups. What are these ‘eroups? (202.1) * Corrosion from components present in crude oil ‘* Corrosion from chemical used in refinery processes. + Environmental corrosion. 3, Name the corrosion compounds found in crude oil. (202.01) Hydrogen Caloride and organic/inorganie chloride. Hydrogen sulfide, mercapians, &: organic sulfur compounds, Carbon dioxide. Dissolved oxygen and water. Organic acids. Nitrogea compounds. 4, What is hydrogen chloride? When does it become 2 corrosion problem in process streams? (202.022) © Addry hydrochloric acid (normally not corrosive in process streams). It becomes corrosive when ‘water is available to form hydrochloric a 5, What do all crude oils contain? (202.022) = Salt 08/02 Rev @ FAST TRACK TECHNICAL ~ LICENSED TO ITAC42 6. What is the most active of the sulfur compounds in causing corrosion in refinery equipment? (202.023) © Hydrogen Sulfide 7. At what temperature range does accelerated hydrogen sulfide corrosion occur in refinery equipment? (202.023) ‘+ Between 450 and 900 °F 8, What makes carbon dioxide corrosive? (202.024) © When it is combined with water, it becomes carbonic acid, 9. Where is corrosion by carbon dioxide found to be most severe? (202.024) © Inhydrogen plants. 10. Dissolved oxygen and water is a corrosion problem in what equipment? (202.025) + Storage tanks. 11, When are organic acids very comrosive? (202.026) ‘+ Attheir boiling temperatures. ‘The most severe form of corrosion occurs upon condensation. 12, What two forms of corrodents are formed when nitrogen is cracked in a cracking or catalytic cracking Gt202n) * Ammonia & Cyanide 13, What is phenol and what is it used for? (202.033) + Carbolic acid - Used in refinery operations in the manufacture of lubricating oils and aromatics. 14, What is caustic and what is it used for in refinery operations? (202.035) «Sodium Hydroxide - Used for the neutralization of acid components and for grease manufacture. 15, When ammonia is permitted to contact copper base alloys in pH ranges of 8.0 and above, severe corrosion in three form of general metal loss and stress corrosion cracking will occur, How may this attack bbe identified? (202.037) + By the appearance ofa blue salt deposit on the metal’s surface. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED 70 ZTAC43 16. What is the primary use of ammonia in the refining industry? (202.037) © Asa refrigerant. © Forneutralization of acidic components in overhead streams, from pipe stills, and catalytic cracking units. 17. What materials is ammonia harmful to? (202.037) ‘© Copper base alloys. 18, What is chlorine used for in refinery operations and when does it become very corrosive? (202.038) © Used for treating cooling water and for the manufacture of sodium hypochlorite for treating oils. Itbecomes very corrosive in contact with small amounts of moisture 19, Aluminum Chloride - What is it used for? What does it form in the presence of water? How does it affect carbon steel and stainless steels? (202.039) © Used as a catalyst in isomerization units, .It forms hydrochloric acid in the presence of water. Hydrochloric acid causes severe pitting corrosion in carbon steel and intergranular and stress corrosion cracking in stainless. 20, What is the term applied to atmospheric corrosion? (202.041) = Galvanic. 21. What is needed to prevent atmospheric corrosion? (202.041) © Eliminate water from the surface of the metal by means of a protective barrier or coating. 22. At what temperature does hidden corrosion take place under insulation and fireproofing if moisture penetrates through cracks in the insulation? (202.042) © Invessels and piping operating below approximately 250 °F. 23. When does oxygen become destructive? (202.052) ‘© Athigh temperatures oxygen reacts with steel to cause scaling (iron oxide), 24, Why may steam at high temperatures cause scaling? (202.053) «Because the steam may be decomposed to hydrogen and oxyzen, and the free oxygen may cause severe scaling. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC44 25, Vanadium oxide corrosion does not take place below what temperature? (202.054) + 1,100°F 26, The extent corrosive attack by hot sulfur compounds (sulfur dioxide, hydrogen sulfide) depends on what three things? (202.055) + Concentration, temperature, and oxidizing power of the environment, 27. At what temperature does all gray cast iron begin to deteriorate, resulting in extreme brittleness, loss of strength, scaling, and growth? (202.056) = 800 28. Growth of cast iron results from what two things? (202.056) + Graphitization & infiltration of corrosive gases into the structure, 29, What is graphitic corrosion? (202,063) ‘+ Low temperature corrosion of gray cast irons in which metallic iron is converted into corrosion, products, leaving the graphite intact. 30, In what material do you find graphitic corrosion and at what temperature does it occur? (202.063) ‘+ Incast iron at temperatures below the dew point of water. 31. How can you recognize graphitic corrosion? (202.063) © By the soft porous structure that remains in the areas where it occurs. 32, What materials is mercury harmful to ? (202.064) ‘+ Monel and copper based alloys (stress corrosion cracking) © Aluminum alloys. 33. Define Stress Corrosion Cracking. (202.064) +The spontaneous faiture of metals by cracking under the combined action of corrosion and tensile stress. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC45 34, What is dezincification? (202.066) ‘= Atype of corrosion that can occur in copper zinc alloys (brasses) containing less than 85% of copper and used in water service. 35. What are three types of dezincification? (202,066) ‘* Plug - occurs in localized areas + Layer - covers large areas, ‘+ Intererystalline - occurs along grain boundaries. 36. What are inhibited brasses? (202.066) © Brasses which have been alloyed with arsenic, antimony, or phosphorus fo inhibit dezincification. 37. What is galvanic corrosion? (202,067) © An clectrochemical type corrosion that occurs when two different metals are electrically connected, either by direct contact or by an electrical conductor, and are in contact with an electrical solution called an "electrolyte" 38. What is contaet corrosion (crevice corrosion)? (202.068) ‘+ Atype of corrosion that occurs at the point of contact or in a crevice between a metal and nonmetal or between two pieces of metal in the presence of a corrodent. 39. What is biological corrosion? (202.069) ‘© Comosion influenced by primitive organisms 40. What are the most important microorganisms that directly influence the rate of metallic corrosion? (202.069) Sulfate reducing bacteria found in many soils. 203 - Erosion 41, Erosion is frequently a problem in equipment utilizing the fluidized - solids prineiple, What is this principle? (203.02) Ifa gas stream of sufficient velocity is passed through # mass of finely divided solids, such as a powder, the mass of particles will behave very much like a tre liquid, 42 What method of deterioration docs cavitetions induce? (203.022) + Brosion. Cavitations erosion is associated withthe formation and collapse of cavities ina liquid at the metal to liquid interface, 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC46 204 - Effects of High Temperatures 43. Define creep, (204.012) +The flow or plastic deformation of metals held for long periods of time at stress lower than the normal yield strength, 44, A stress rupture is what type of failure? (204.013) ‘+A brittle type failure - stress rupture relates the time to failure with temperature and stress 45, When austenitic stainless steels are heated or cooled in the temperature range of 750 to 1,650 °F, what does this make the material susceptible to? (204,022) Intergranular corrosion. 46, When ferrtic steels are heated above a certain temperature (above 1,100 oF for mild steel), how does this affect the material? (204.022) + Leads to general lowering of the tensile strength, 47. What is incipient melting (burning)? (204.022) + When fersitic steels are heated above approximately 2,600 oF, melting and oxication will begin at the grain boundaries. The stec! is called "burned! and will be very weak and brittle upor cooling. 48, What is Graphitization? (204.022) + A structural change in certain ferritc steels that have operated for along period of time between 825 and 1,400 °F. Carbide is unstable in that temperature range and may decompose into iron (ferrite) and graphite (carbon), 49, What are the two general types of Graphitization? (204.022) + Random Graphitization - graphite distributed uniformly throughout the steel. + Localized Graphitization - graphite highly concentrated in local regions. ‘50. What is Sensitization? What happens to sensitized steel when exposed to corrodents? (204.022) + When Austenitic stainless stecls are exposed to temperatures of 750 to 1650 ‘F, precipitation of complex chromium carbides at the grain boundavies takes place. When the sensitized steel is exposed to comodents, intergranular corrosion takes place 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED To TTACa7 51. What is decarburization? (204.034) ‘+ The loss of carbon from the surface ofa ferrous alloy as a result of heating in a medium that reacts ‘with carbon, This results in lower tensile suength, hardness ,and fatigue strength. It ean only be found by metallurgical examination, 52, At what temperature does hydrogen have a very destructive effect on steels? (204.035) = Above 450 °F '53. What curve shows the different steel/temperature limits for hydrogen service? (204.035) © Nelson Chart 205 -Subnormal and Ambient Temperature Effects 54, Define notch toughness (a property of metals) (205.01) © The amount energy necessary to cause fracture in the presence of a sharp notch or stress concentrator, 55, Brittle fracture can be recognized by several characteristics, Whatare these characteristics? (205.01) Cracks propagate at high speed. ‘There may be a loud report or sharp ending sound. ‘There is almost a complete lack of ductility ‘The fractured surface has a brittle or faceted surface. 206 - Excessive Pressure 56, What is excessive pressure? (206.01) © Those in excess of the MAWP of the equipment under consideration. 57, Name four causes of excessive pressure. (206,021; 206.022; 206.023; 206.024; 206.025) a. Added heat in excess of normal operations b. Blocking off against a pressure source ¢. Thermal expansion of a trapped liquid, 6. Hydraulic hammer or resonant vibration, 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC48 207 - Overloading ‘58, What are some indications of overloading of equipment? (207.02) + Visible distortion + Change of shape. «Change of position Appendix 1 ‘59, Steel (ferrous alloy}is an alloy of iron and carbon, What is the carbon content range? (App 1-4) © 0.01% to 1.7% (Max. carbon content of weld able steels for Code purposes is 0.35%) 60, Usually for refinery construction steels have less than what percent carbon! (App 1A) © Less than 1%. 61, Steels for welding have a maximum of what percent carbon content? (App 1.4) = 035% (62, There are two general types of steels. What are these? (App LA) + Ferritfe Steel - ordinary carbon steel, low and intermediate alloy steels, and high alloy steels.(straight chromium). + Austenitic - chromium - nickel stainless steels 63. Nonferrous metals and alloys contain what percent iron’? (App 1B) Less than 50% 64, What is the only common copper -nickel alloy and what is it used for? (App 1B) ‘+ Monel It is used for relatively low temperature corrosion resistance. 65. What are the major uses of commercially pure copper in refineries? (App 1B) ‘+ Electrical conductors, gaskets, and corrosion resistance. 66, What are the major uses of aluminum and its alloys in refineries? {App 1B) + Corrosion resistance and for structures which lightweight is a necessity 08/02 Rev @ FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITAC49 CORROSIVE MATERIALS ADDED TO CRUDE WHICH CAUSE CORROSION + Sulfuric Acid and Hydrogen Fluoride - used in alkylation’s units as a catalyst. Concentrations of | 85% to 95% for sulfuric acid and above 65% for hydrogen fluoride. ‘Phenol (Carbolic Acid) -used for the manufacture of lubricating oils and aromatic hydrocarbons. ‘= Phosphoric Acid - used for a catalyst in polymerization units © Caustic (Sodium Hydroxide) - used for neutralization of acidic components ' ‘+ Mercury - used in instruments ‘+ Ammonia - used as @ reftigerant and for the neutralization of acidic components. + Chlorine - used to treat cooling tower water and for the manufacture of sodium hypochlorite used to treating oils. Aluminum Chloride - used as a catalyst for isomerization units. 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO TTAC50 THIS PAGE LEFT INTENTIONALLY BLANK 08/02 Rev 8 FAST TRACK TECHNICAL - LICENSED TO ITACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES THE FOLLOWING EXERCISES ARE COMMON TO BOTH THE API 510 AND API 570 EXAMINATIONS. THESE EXERCISES SHOULD BE WORKED AS THE CANDIDATE PROGRESSES THROUGH THE READING OF THE SECTION IX PARAGRAPHS APPLICABLE TO THESE EXAMINATIONS. 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITAGASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #1 Read the following paragraphs then answer the questions. General Requirements QW-100 thru QW-195 4.The cut surfaces of guided-bend test specimens is designated as the: (a) sides. (b) face. (c) root. 2. What is the angular deviation for groove weld tests from the specified inclined plane? (a) None (b) 45° (c) 10° 3. The is intended to provide direction for the welder, while the is what was used in qualifying the and details the test results. (a) WPS-PQR-WPQ (b) WPS-WPQ-WPS (c) WPS-PQR-WPS 4, What Figure Number is used for procedure qualification, reduced-section tension tests specimens, for pipe having an O.D. greater than 3"? (a) OW-462.1 (a) (b) QW462.1 (b) (c) QW462.1 (c) 5, Where are notch-toughness requirements for the specimen, orientation and acceptance criteria found? (a) ASTM E208 (b) SA-370 (c) Construction Code 6. The radiographic acceptance criteria for welders qualified in accordance with QW- 142 is found in: (a) The Construction Code (b) QW-191.2.2 (c) QW-192.2 2 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #1 7. The qualification of a new WPS or the re-qualification of an existing WPS shall be in accordance with the: (a) component contract date. (b) current Edition and Addenda of Section IX. (c) 1962 or later Edition of Section IX. 8. In relation to the surface of the plate or pipe, what is the required test position orientation of a stud during welding? (a) Perpendicular to the surface. (b) +15 °from the specified horizontal plane (c) £15 ° from the specified vertical plane. 9. How is the minimum specimen curvature of guided-bend jig specimens verified’? (a) A 1/8" diameter wire cannot be inserted between the specimen and the die (b) A 1/8" diameter wire cannot be inserted between the specimen and the plunger. (c) The specimen is bottomed ejected. 10. How is the tensile strength of a tension test specimen computed? (a) Dividing the maximum load by the least cross-sectional area of the specimen as measured before the load is applied. (b) Dividing the maximum load by the least cross-sectional area of the specimen as measured after the load is applied. {c) Measuring the percent of outer fiber elongation as required by the construction Code. 41. What pipe fillet weld test positions are not to be rotated during welding? (a) 2F-3F-AF-5F (b) 1F-3F-5F (c) 2F-4F-5F 12. What pipe fillet weld test positions are allowed to be rotated during welding? (a) 1F-2F-2FR (b) 1F-2FR-3F (c) 1F-2FR 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical — Licensed to ITACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #1 13. Procedure and performance macro-examination specimens are etched to give clear definition of: (a) weld metal and heat affected zone. (b) inclusions and porosity. (c) root of the weld. 14, Under what conditions are tension tests considered acceptable if the specimen breaks in the base metal outside the weld or fusion line? (a) If there are no open defects exceeding 4/16" measured in any direction. (b) If the strength is not more than 5% below the specified minimum tensile strength of the base metal. (c) If there are no open defects exceeding 1/8" in the bond line.ASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #2 5. Welding procedures qualified in accordance with the 1974 Edition needs to be amended or revised to the Edition mandated for construction. (a) True (b) False 6. What is the angular deviation in groove weld test positions from the specified horizontal and vertical planes during welding? (a) #5° (b) +10° (c) #15° 7. Tension tests and Guided-Bend tests are two mechanical weld tests which employ type weld joint configurations. {a) stud (b) groove (c) fillet 8. What are the test orientations of pipe groove welds? (a) 1 G-26-56-6G (b) 1 G-3G-5G~66 (c) 1 G-26-36-46 9. What is the purpose of the welding operator's performance qualification? (a) To determine the operator's ability to deposit Sound weld metal. (b) To determine the operator's mechanical ability to operate the welding equipment. (c) To determine the WPS is capable of producing the required mechanical properties. 6 04/02 Revé Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #2 40. What dimensional requirement is there for the guided-bend test jig mandrel being used on specimens wider than 1-1/2"? (a) At least %" wider than the specimen width. (b) At least 1/8" wider than the specimen width. (c) Atleast % “wider than the specimen width. 11. The substitution of radiography for mechanical testing is permitted for welder and welding operator performance qualifications except as restricted by QW-304 & 305. (a) True (b) False 42. At what base metal thickness shall the multiple turned tension specimens be used? The specimens are cut through the full thickness of the weld with their centers parallel to the metal surface and not over 1" apart. (a) 5/8" (b) > 1” (c) <1" 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to [TACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #3 Reading: General Requirements QW-100 thru QW-195 1. The qualifications of welders and welding operators by radiography are documented on Form QW-484 that is only a suggested form. (a) True (b) False 2. What is the minimum tensile strength for tension tests if the base metals have different minimum tensile strengths? (a) The specified minimum tensile strength of the stronger of the two. {b) The specified minimum tensile strength of the weld metal. (c) The specified minimum tensile strength of the weaker of the two. 3. The open defects for guided-bend test specimen of the convex surface of the weld or heat affected zone shall not exceed (a) 1/16". (b) 1/8". (c) 3/16" 4. The PQR qualification test determines the of the, but not the __of the welder or welding operator. (a) properties-weldment-skill (b) skill-welder-qualification (c) qualification-welder-skill 8 04102 Rev6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITAGASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #3 5. What constitutes a "set" of reduced multiple section specimens for plate or pipe tension tests? (a) Strips of equal size that can be tested in the available equipment. (b) All specimens representing the full thickness of the weld at one location. (c) All specimens representing half the thickness of the weld at one location 6. What is the purpose of the welder's performance qualification? (a) To determine the welder's ability to operate the equipment. (b) To determine the mechanical properties of the weldment. (c) To determine the welder's ability to deposit sound weld metal. 7. The WPS must list variables, while the PQR must list (a) essential, nonessential, / essential, supplementary essential (b) essential, nonessential and acceptable ranges, supplementary (when required) - / essential, supplementary (when required) (c) essential, / nonessential, supplementary essential 8. The cut surfaces of guided-bend test specimens are designated of the specimen, while the other two surfaces are called the and surfaces. (a) sides-face-root (b) face-root-side (c) root-side-face 9. Guided-bend tests require that the surface being examined becomes the __ surface of the bent specimen. (a) concave (b) convex (c) transverse 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to TACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #4 Reading: Procedure Qualifications QW-200 thru QW-283 4. Qualification of the WPS using test coupons made of plate also qualifies for pipe and vice versa. (a) True (b) False 2. How does the Manufacturer attest that the information in the POR is a true record of the variables that were used during the welding of the test coupons and that the resulting tensile, bend, or macro-etch test results are in compliance with Section 1X? (a) By having the Manufacturer certify and notarize the PAR. (b) By having the welder certify the PAR (c) By having the Manufacturer certify the POR. 3. ASMAW WPS was qualified with a 3" pipe, the pipe diameter range on the WPS permitted by Code shall be: (2)2 7/8" O.D. or over. (b) All diameters and all thickness. (c) All diameters within the base metal thickness range. 4. In general, what mechanical test is mandated for P-No. 11 quenched and tempered metals, for low temperature applications of other metals as applied to Section VIII? (a) Notch-toughness tests. (b) Guided bend tests. (c) Tension tests. 10 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #4 5. The qualification of the is the welding of test coupons, the testing of specimens, and recording the data and test results in a__ (a) WPS-PQR (b) PQR-WPS (c) WPS-WPQ 6. Under what conditions may changes be made to the PAR? (a) Editorial or Addenda. (b) To suit production requirements. (c) None. 7. A PQR is a record of the welding data used to weld a test coupon and the test results. (a) True. (b) False. 8. When qualifying a separate procedure in SAW process for root deposits only, what is the minimum coupon thickness? (a)#" (b)%" (c) 1%" d)% 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITAC nASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #5 Reading: Section IX Procedure Qualifications QW-200 thru QW-283 1. A Manufacturer may not subcontract the preparation of test materials for welding and subsequent work on preparation of test specimens from the completed weldment, performance of NDE, and mechanical tests. (a) Tue (b) False 2. A shop wishes to combine two existing PR's to write a new composite WPS. PAR No.1 was in GTAW process with a 1/4" coupon, PQR No.2 was in SMAW process with 4/2" coupon. The WPS specifies GTAW process will only be used for the root passes with maximum deposit not to exceed 1/4", The base metal thickness range on the WPS should be; (a) 1/16" min 1" max. (b) 1/16" min, 1/2" max. (c) 3/16" min. 1" max. (4) 3/16" min, 1/2” max. 3. Why should precaution be taken if Form QW-483 is used to document the essential variables that were used during the welding of the test coupons? (a) The Form does not easily lend itself to cover multiple processes or more than one F- No. in one test coupon. (b) Revisions are not permitted except as defined in QW-200.2 (c). (c) Form QW-483 is only a suggested format for procedure qualifications. 4. Why have P-No’s. been assigned for different base metals? {a) They are unique identifiers assigned by Section IX. (b) P-No's. simplify the identification of various ASTM materials. (c) To reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications, dependent on characteristics such as composition, weldability, and mechanical properties. 12 04102 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical — Licensed to TACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #5 5. What limitation is invoked when an all position WPS is qualified by welding in any position? (a) An angular deviation of + 15° from the specified horizontal and vertical planes is permitted during welding, (b) An angular deviation of + 8° from the specified inclined plane is permitted during welding. (c) Welding processes must be compatible, and the welding rods, electrodes, and filler metals must be suitable for their use in specific positions. 6. The identification of the shall be referenced on the A (a) WPS-PQR (b) WPS-WPQ (c) PQR-WPS, 7. For vessels or parts of vessels constructed with P-No. 14 base metals, weld grooves for thickness’ shall be prepared by thermal processes, when used in fabrication. {a) <5/8" (b) >5/8" 8. A butt welded coupon consisted of 1-1/2" carbon stee! and 74" stainless steel base metals, what base metal thickness range does this coupon qualify? (Notch toughness is not a requirement). (a) 4/16" to 8" for both metals, (b) 1/16" to 1/2" for stainless steel 3/16" to 8" for carbon steel, (c) 1/16" to 1/2" for stainless steel 3/16" to unlimited thickness for carbon steel. 9. An organization's operational control of welding procedure qualification for two or more companies of different names shall be defined in their (a) Manufacturing Procedures (b) Quality Control System (c) Qualified Supplier's List 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #5 40. What is the purpose of assigning Group Numbers to base metals? (a) To classify the different base metal Grades. (b) To classify the metals within P-No's. for the purpose of procedure qualification where notch-toughness requirements are specified. (c) To simplify the identification of ASTM materials. 11. In procedure qualification, groove weld qualifications on 1/2" plate qualify fillet welds for. in base metal thicknesses and in diameters on pipe and tube. (a) 1/16" to 1", 2 7/8" O.D. and over (b) All, All (c) All, 2 7/8" 0.D. and over (d) 1/16" to 1", all 12. The is a true record of the variables that were used during the welding of the test coupon and that the resulting tensile, bend or macro-etch (as required) test results are in compliance with Section IX (a) WPS {b) PQR (c) WPQ (d) All of the above 14 04102 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical — Licensed to TACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #6 Reading: Performance Qualifications QW-300 thru QW-383. 1.What are the retest requirements for a welder who has failed his renewal qualification test after he has received additional training or practice? (a) Complete requalification in accordance with QW-301,2 (b) A new test shall be made for each position he failed. (c) Weld a single test coupon of either plate or pipe. 2. What is the length of a welders first production weld that needs to be radiographed for qualification? 3. What is the extent of radiography for a welder who is qualified by radiography? (a) 3' and shall include the weld circumference for pipe. (b) 3" and shall include 1/2” either side of the weld on plate. (c) 6" and shall include the weld circumference for pipe. 4. By what method does a Manufacturer identify the work of a welder or welding operator? (a) By assigning an identification number, letter, or symbol. (b) By having the welder or welding operator initial the traveler or process sheet (c) This is no longer required 5. How are the thickness limits determined for a welder when qualified using multi- process procedure? (a) By the thickness of the weld he deposits with each welding process; in which this thickness shall be considered the test coupon thickness as given in QW - 461. (b) By the thickness of the weld he deposits with each welding process, in which this thickness shall be considered the test coupon thickness as given in QW - 452. 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical — Licensed to ITAC 15ASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #6 6. Using a combination procedure a welder may be qualified with each individual welding process in separate test coupons, or with a combination of welding processes in a single test coupon. (a) True (b) False 7. Welder's and welding operators who pass the tests for groove welds are qualified for what groove and fillet weld positions? (a) The positions of groove and fillet welds shown in QW-461.9. (b) In all thicknesses of material, sizes of fillet welds, and diameters of pipe and tube 2- 7/8" and less. (c) In all thicknesses of material sizes of fillet welds, and diameters of pipe and tube 2- 7/8" and over. 8. The three methods by which a welder or welding operator may be qualified are of initial production weld, radiography of or taken from a test coupon. (a) radiography-test coupon-bend tests (b) bend tests - test coupon-tension tests (c) tension tests-test coupon-bend tesis 9. What welding positions on pipe test coupons omit the specimens in the upper right and lower left quadrants, and replaces the root bend specimen in the upper left quadrant with a face-bend? (a) 2G or 5G (b) 1G or 26 (c) 5G or 6G 10. What are the immediate retests required if a welder fails the mechanical tests of QW-302.1 or radiography examination of QW-302.2? (a) Mechanical tests. (b) Mechanical tests and radiographic examination respectively. (c) Radiographic examination. 16 04102 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to TACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #6 11. With the exception of GTAW, what P-Nos. are prohibited in the qualification of welders by radiography? (a) P-2X, P-4X, and P-5X (b) P-2X, P-3X, and P-5X (c) P-2X, P-5X, and P-6X 12. Machine welding is classified as a category. (a) manual (b) welding operator (c) semi-automatic 13 A welder who welds in only one position for more than six months loses his qualification in other positions for which he is qualified in a given process. (a) True (b) False 04102 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #7 Reading: Performance Qualifications QW-300 thru QW-384 1. Performance qualifications conducted in special orientations are valid for the special position actually tested and the . except that an angular deviation of is permitted in the inclination of the and the rotation of the (a) vertical position +5 ° weld axis production piece (b) fiat position + 5° production piece weld fixture (c) flat position +15 ° weld axis - weld face. 2. What option does a Manufacturer have if a welder fails the production weld alternative of QW-304.1? (a) Radiograph an additional 6” of the same production weld. (b) Radiograph an additional 12” of the same production weld. (c) Radiograph an additional 12” of the same production weld. 3. If the radiograph of the alternative production weld used for qualification does rot meet the radiographic standards: (a) Radiograph an additional 6” of the same production weid. (b) The welder shalll be retested by mechanical tests. (c) The welder has failed the test, requiring RT of all his production weids and repaired by a qualified welder. 4. What is the intent of performance qualification tests? {a) To determine the ability of welders and welding operators to make sound welds. (b) Provide direction to the welder or welding operator. (c) To prove the mechanical properties of the weldment. 5. Why is the Manufacturer responsible for conducting tests to qualify welders and welding operators in accordance with a qualified WPS which his organization employs in construction? (a) The welders performance is not transferable from employer to employer, (b) To assure that they are capable of developing the minimum requirements specified, {c) The responsibility of the qualifying welders can not be delegated to another organization. (d) All of the above. 18 04102 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITAC.ASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #7 6. A welder shall be re-qualified whenever a change is made in one or more of the variables listed for each welding process (a) essential (b) supplemental essential (c) essential and nonessential 7. Awelder may be qualified by radiographic examination in the GMAW process with short-circuiting mode. (a) True (b) False 8. What information shall as a minimum be recorded on the WPQ? (a) Essential and nonessential variables for each welding process. (b) Essential variables, type of tests and test results, and the ranges qualified. (c) Essential and nonessential variables, type of tests and Fig. No.'s, and the ranges qualified. 9. When performance qualification is done in accordance with a WPS that requires preheat or post weld heat treatment, these may be omitted. (a) True (b) False 40. What are the requalification requirements for a welder who has had his qualifications revoked because there was a specific reason to question his ability to make sound welds? (a) Weld a single test coupon of either pipe or plate, of any material, thickness or diameter, in any position. (b) Weld a test coupon appropriate to qualify him for the production work he will do and tested in accordance with QW-301 and QW-302. (c) May be extended when welding with another process. 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical - Licensed to ITAG 19ASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #7 141. What position limitations are placed on the welder if he prepares the WPS. qualification test coupons? (a) Qualification of the WPS in any position qualifies for all positions. (b) Qualified only within the limits for positions specified in QW-303. (c) Qualified only for the position(s) used during the welding of the test coupon. 12. For performance qualification, how are the deposited weld metal thickness limitations determined if a single test coupon is used for a combination welding process? (a) They are considered individually for each welder and each process used. (b) In accordance with QW-451. (c) In accordance with QW-452. 13. Failure of any portion of a combination test in a single test coupon constitutes failure of the entire combination. (a) True (b) False 20 04102 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #8 Welding Data QW-400 thru QW-450 4. A manufacturer is qualifying a WPS in GMAW process in short circuit arc transfer mode. The test coupon is %" thick the maximum thickness qualified for the WPS would be, (2) 0.5" (b) 0.275" (c) 0.25" 2. Under what conditions may a WPS that has been qualified without notch toughness be used for applications where they are applicable? (a) Qualification without notch toughness qualifies the procedure with notch toughness requirements. (b) After the procedure has been requalified to include the notch toughness requirements. (c) After preparing an additional test coupon using the same essential variables, but additionally with all the required supplementary essential variables, in a coupon long enough to provide the necessary specimens. 3. What effect did the 1974 Edition have on material in the 1971 Edition when new P- No.'s, or the assignment to different subgroups within a P-No. were given? (a) Procedure and performance qualifications continued to be valid based on the new P-No. designations. (b) Required re-qualification of those welding procedures. (c) Required re-qualification of welders and welding operators. 4. As a convenience, variables for procedure and performance qualifications are summarized in and respectively. (a) QW-250 - QW-350 (b) QW-451 - QW-452 (c) QW-252 - QW-265 5. A SMAW WPS was written with notch-toughness test. The test coupon on the supporting PQR is 3/8" in thickness. What would be the base metal thickness qualified range for the WPS? (a) 4/46" thru 3/4" (b) 3/8" thru 3/4” (c) 346"thru 3/4" 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical - Licensed to ITAC 24ASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #8 6. A change in a welding condition which will affect the mechanical properties of a weldment or the ability of a welder to deposit sound weld metal is dependent upon which type of variable? (a) Nonessential (b) Essential (c) Supplemental Essential 7. The test coupon for a PQR consisted P5A to P4 materials when notch toughness is not a factor, the base metals qualified would be; (a) P-No.5A to P-No.4 only (b) P-No.SA to P-No.4, P-No.3, and P-No.1 (c) P-No.5A to P-No.5A and P-No.4 to P-No.4 (d) None of the above 8. The grouping of, and by are essentially based on usability characteristics, which fundamentally determine the ability of welders to make satisfactory welds. (a) base metals - filler metals - Group No.'s {b) electrodes - welding rods - F-No.'s (c) P-No.'s - F-No.'s - A-No,'s 9. What production base metals is a welder qualified to weld if a P No.8 base metal was used in his qualification? (a) P-No.1 through P-No.11 P-No.34 and P-No.4x to same. (b) P-No.1 through P-No.8 and P-No.4x to same (c) P-No.1 through P-No.8 to same (d) P-No. 8 to P-No. 8 10. What welding process addresses the essential performance variables for the flux cored arc welding process? (a) SAW (b) PAW (c) GMAW 22 04102 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to [TACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #9 Welding Data QW-451 thru QW-492 4. When qualifying a welder at 6G position using a 6" schedule, 40 (0.280") pipe test coupon, the required type and number of tests are: (a) One face bend test and one root bend test (b) Two side bend tests (c) Either two face and two root bend tests or four side bent tests (d) Two face and two root bend tests 2. A welder has been qualified by a 2” nominal schedule. 40 pipe in the 5G position. Is he qualified to weld a groove weld of a 3/4" nominal, 3000 Ib. coupling in the overhead position in the field? (a) yes (b) no 3. In reviewing the form QW-483 (PQR form) in a Code shop, the Authorized Inspector noticed the thickness of test coupon was documented as 3/4" SA-285C plate. However on the back of the form thickness of the specimen was recorded as 0.725". The difference in thickness is most likely because. (a) A mistake in the testing laboratory, they documented a different set of coupon on this POR. (b) The thickness of the specimen is approximate. (c) The test coupon has been machined down to 0.725" to offset the heat distortion due to welding. 4. Awelder was qualified by a plate at 4G (overhead) position in the lab. He will be qualified to weld pipe 2 7/8" O.D. and over, but under 24" O.D. in the field in the overhead position. (a) True (b) False 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITAC BASME SECTION IX EXERCISES TASK #9 5. The SAW process is commonly classified as a process in and GMAW as a process for welding. {a) Automatic, semi-automatic (b) Semi-automatic, manual (c) Machine; semi-automatic welding 6. A welder is qualified in 6G position on a 2” schedule 160 pipe (2-3/8" O.D.). What is the diameter range and position the welder is qualified to weld? (a) 2.375" O.D. and over, 6G position (b) 2" NPS and over, all positions (c) 1.00", 0.D. and over, all positions 24 04102 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITACASME SECTION IX EXERCISES Section IX Exercises f Task#1 Ref Para. ‘Task #3 Ref Para, ‘Task #5 Ref Para, LA Qw-484 1B QWw201 LA Qw-161 2c QW-153.1 (b) 2.C — QW.2004, 451.1 2B Qw-120 3.B QW-163 3A QW-200. (4) BC QW-100.1 4A QW-100.1 4. — QW-2003 4B Qwisi2 5B QW-151.1(¢) 5.C QW:203 3c QW-171.2,1713 6c QWw-100.2 6.C —— QW-200.1 (6) 6B QW-191.2.2 7B QW-100.1 TA QW213 1B QW-100.3 BA Qw-si 8B QWw-451.1 BA Qwa23.1 2B Qw-l6i 9B QW-201 OA Qw-162.1 10.8 QW-200.3, 10.A QW-152 Task#4 Ref Para, 1B QW-202.2(c) HC QW-132.2, 132.3,1324 12.8 QW-200.2(«) 12,.C — QW-132.1, 132.2 LA Qw2il 13.4 QW-183 26 Qw-201 Task #6 RefPara. 4,B QW-153.1(4) 3.c Qw.203 4a Qw-2003 1B QWw-324 ‘Task#2 Ref Para SA Qw-201 2C — QW-3041 6A QW-200.2(¢) 3.C — Qw-3022 LA Qw-1003 TA QW-200.2 (a) 4A QW-3013 2B Qw-191.1 BA QWw-200.4 (b) 5B QW-306 3B Qwi61s 6A QW-306 4c QW-i51.2 TA QW-461.9 5B QW-1003 8A QW-302, 304 6c Qw-120 9B QW-302.3 1B QW-141.1, 141.2 10.8 BA Qwe122 wc 2B QW-100.2 12.3 QW-361.1 10.C — QW-162.1 13.B QW-3221 LA QW-142, 143 12.B QW-151.3 (b) 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical — Licensed to ITAC 25ASME SECTION IX EXERCISES Section IX Exercises Task#7 Ref Para, Task#9 Ref Para Le QW-303.3 LD QW-452.1 notes 486 2c QW-321.3 (6) 2B Qw-4s2.1 3.c QW-304.2 3c QW-462.1 (@) 4A QW-301.1 AA Qw-461.9 5D Qw-300.2 5.c QW-492 Definitions of Machine and Semi-automatic 6A QW-351 6c QW-452.3 461.9 7B Qw-304 8.B Qw.3014 9A QWw-301.2 10.B QW-322.2 (b) 1B QW.301.2 12.€ QWw-306 B.A QW-306 Task #8 Ref Para. QW-403.10 Qw-401.3 QWw-420.1 Qw-401 QW-451.1 Qw-401.1 QW-424.1 Qw-431 QWw-423.1 10.C —— QW-395 >puED>> >a 26 04/02 Rev 6 Fast Track Technical - Licensed to ITACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK #1 API 510 READ: ARTICLE 1 T-110 THROUGH T-190 1. The requirements for NDE given in Section V are Code requirements: a. Which must always be met. b. Which must be met when specifically referenced in a construction Code. c. Which must be met when specifically referenced and made a requirement by a construction Code. 2. Subsection A of Section V describes: a. The mandatory standards that must be met. b. The methods to be used if referenced in another Code. c. The qualifications of personnel. 3. The responsibility of the is to ensure that the examination equipment being used conforms to the requirement of E . Authorized Inspector / Code of construction. . Manufacturer / Section V. op 4. The recognized documents(s) for the certifying NDE personnel is/are: |. ANSI/ASNT CP-189 and SNT-TC-2A. ANSI/ASNT CP-189 and SNT-TC-1A. oo 5. Ifa Code does not reference Article 1 of Section V for personnel qualifications, qualifications may involve: . Demonstration of abilities in a production setting. . In house written examinations for required skills. c. Qualifications from a previous employer if per Section V requirements. oo 6. When are written procedures required for NDE performed under Section V? . When the ownerluser requires such written procedures. . When required by the referencing Code. c. Atall times, no exceptions are allowed op 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical —_Licensed to ITACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK #1 7. Who shall have the overall responsibility for ensuring that vessels or pressure parts have been inspected in accordance with Section V and the Code of Construction. . The manufacturer's quality control personnel. . The inspector concerned with the fabrication of such components. . The owner's or user's representative. eo 8. When ASTM documents refer to “Inspector” this may describe what the ASME Code calls 7 . Examiner. . Authorized Inspector. . Manufacturer's examination personnel. oop 9. Who is responsible for any or all of the records of inspection required by Section V? The examiner . The Authorized Inspector. . The Manufacturer. oop 2 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical - Licensed to ITACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK # 2 API 510 READ: ARTICLE 2 T-210 THROUGH T-292 4. When contouring welds by grinding in preparation for radiographic examination what are the acceptable surface conditions? . Smooth with no noticeable weld ripple. . Flush to the surface or reasonably uniform crowns. . Flush with the surface. oom 2. How shall densitometers be calibrated? .. By comparison with a calibrated densitometer. . By using a calibrated ladder film cassette. c. By comparison with a calibrated step wedge film, oD 3. When radiographing high nickel of 1.5 “ thickness the recommended gamma radiation source is: . Iridium 192 . Tritium 90 Cobalt 60 |. Uranium 90 B goon . When location markers are to appear as radiographic images on film .. they shall be marked with the lead letter F. . they shall be placed on the film holder. . they shall be placed on the film cassette. . they shall be placed on the part. poop 2 |. What must always be attached to back of a film holder/cassette? a. The lead symbol B with the minimum dimensions of %” in height and 1/16" thick. b. The lead symbol B with the minimum dimensions of %” in height and 1/8" thick. ; A location marker for each individual film cassette. |. The name of the NDE company doing the radiography. ao 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical — Licensed to ITACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK #2 6. When viewing radiographic film, the film viewer must have a: . current calibration sticker. .. vision which meets 20/20 with correction. c. variable light source. oo 7. The diameter of the 2T hole in a #25 penetrameter is: |. 0.025" . 0.050" 0.100" oD 8. How is a radiation source size normally verified? . By actual measurement. . By using a Lackland advanced source meter or its equivalent. s. By manufacturer's publications such as technical manuals. op 9. When choosing a hole type penetrameter, what will the size of the holes be based on? .. The thickness of the part to be radiographed. . Whether the radiography will be a single-wall or double-wall shot. . The side the radiation source is on relative to the film cassette. . All of the above. eoce 10. If more than one film holder is required for a radiographic exposure what shall normally be the required number penetrameters? . Two per holder, one on the top and one on bottom of the holder. . One in the lightest area and one in the darkest area of interest. c. One per holder. oo» 1 -When placing the radiation source on the axis of a cylindrical component for 2 single exposure, what will be the location of the penetrameters? . At least 6, one each 60 degrees around the circumference. . . Three, placed at each 120 degrees around the circumference. c. Atleast three placed at 120 degrees apart. op 4 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical - Licensed to ITACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK #2 42.When performing radiography, geometric unsharpness must always be limited to the values quoted in Article 2 of Section V. a. True b. False 13. If a the light image of the B appears on a darker background of a radiograph protection from backscaiter is considered inadequate. a. True b. False 14. The requirements for a hole type penetrameter shim's dimensions are: . Shims must be smaller than the penetrameter. . Shims must be larger than the penetrameter on at least two sides. Shims must be larger than the penetrameter on at least three sides. |. Shims must be larger than the penetrameter on no more than three sides. aooD 15,Upon inspection a radiograph has a density that varies through the area of interest by minus 20% from the density through the body of the hole penetrameter used. What is the appropriate action? a. Re-radiograph using an additional penetrameter at each exceptional area or areas. b. Develop by technique shots acceptable variations in density. c. Evaluate the need for shims for the penetrameters. 16. The radiography concern must always fill out a which must list which of the following item(s). a. RT Evaluation / a list of radiographic locations b. Technique Documentation / an evaluation and disposition statement. c. Radiographic Review Form / information required by T-291. 17.The single-wall exposure technique is mandatory whenever possible. a. True c. False 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical — Licensed to IACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK # 3 API510 READ: ARTICLE 5 T-510, T 520 Thru T 536, T-544 Thru T-544.3, and T-580 Thru T-594 1. An examination report for an ultrasonic inspection is required. Which of the following information must it contain? a. Arecord of the welds examined. b. The location of each recorded reflector. c, The name of the technician who performed the work. d. All of the above. 2. Article 5 addresses which of the following issues for ultrasonic examination? a. Ultrasonic equipment manufacturing standards. b. All of the basic technical and methodological requirements for ultrasonics. c. Retention and control of scanning eulpment. d. Band C above. 3. When performing thickness measurements which of the following might determine the technique to be used? a. The orientation and surface condition of the part. b. The material of which the part is made. c. The thickness of the part and its surface geometry. 4, The frequency of pulse echo ultrasonic equipment must be over a range of from to . 5 MHz to 10 MHz. . 1 MHz to 10 MHz. 1 MHz to 5 MHz. |. 2 MHz to 15 MHz. aoc g . How is the frequency range determined when performing ultrasonic thickness measurements? . By the equation given in ASTM SE-114 . By using any frequency capable of resolving the thickness range to be measured. c. By calibration on a standard test block, op 6 04/01 Rev4 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to 1TACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK #3 6. Ultrasonics shall be performed by the use of a written procedure. a. True b. False 7. When examining and using DAC any reflector which causes an indication above 20% of the curve shall; . be further investigated. not need further investigation. must be removed and repaired if demanded by the Code requiring the exam. oop 2 . What are the minimum requirements for calibration of ultrasonic equipment? . Annually, unless signs of abuse are present. . Atthe beginning of each shift. When examination personnel are changed. . Band C above. aon © . Examination records are required to list how many different items? 15 13 aeop 9 |. None of the above. 10. For specific requirements about Extent and Retention of records whom or what should be consulted? . The Level Ill in charge. . The Code referencing Article 5 of Section V. . The owner or user of the inspected equipment. . Article 1 of Section V. aoop 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to TACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK #4 API 510 READ: ARTICLE 6 T-610 THROUGH T-690 1. The time interval between penetrant removal and developer application is determined by . the surface condition of the weld being inspected. . the written procedure's specification. . directions given by the penetrant manufacturer. eo 2. Documentation for penetrant exams shall be a, in compliance with the referencing Code. b. discarded after review and completion of any needed repairs. c. kept for one year 3. Standard SE-1220 applies to the process. a. visable water washable b. fluorescent water washable. c. visable solvent removable. 4, Where are precautions about surface conditioning surfaces prior to penetrant examination found in Section V? a. Article 24, SE-165, Annex 1. b. Non-Mandatory ASTM SE-747. c. Article 6. 5. When examining a long run of weld metal (i.e. 30 feet) what steps may be needed to insure proper control over interpretation? a. Article 6 requires that no more than 10 feet of continuous weld metal be examined in a single process application. b. It may be necessary to perform the inspection in increments to stay within the 7 to 60 minutes allowed by Article 6 before interpretation. c. None, the length of the weld has no bearing on interpretation. 8 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to ITACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK #4 6. You are performing a penetrant inspection on a weld in @ material designated by Code to be of P-No. 51. This material is prone to cracking in weld metal. What would be the required dwell time for the penetrant prior to cleaning and application of the developer? |. 7 minutes. . § to 7 minutes. 5 minutes. |. None of the above. aoc N . When applying the Fluorescent Penetrant Method, inspection personnel should observe the following precaution. a. Ensure that adequate lighting is present in the inspection area (50 Foot Candles Minimum). b. Test the luminance of the black light and wear eye protection if it is above 350 angstroms per cm. c. Enter the darkened area for at least one minute prior to starting the inspection. ~ . How soon after application of a dry developer does development time begin? . Not until the developer is dusted off. . Immediately after application. . After drying by heating lamps or gentle heated air. . 1 to 10 minutes depending on the humidity. aon © ). What must be obtained for liquid penetrant to be used on austenitic stainless steel inspections? |. Certification of contaminant content. . Penetrants that have a hydrocarbon content of less than 10 ppm. . Penetrants and developers that have fluorine content by weight of 1 milligram or less. poe 10. When performing penetrant examination at other than standard temperature, what must be the course of action? a. Qualify the procedure using liquid penetrant comparator blocks made of quenched and cracked Type 6010 aluminum. b. Qualify the procedure using liquid penetrant comparator blocks made of quenched and cracked Type 2024 aluminum. 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to TAC 9ASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK #5 API 510 READ: ARTICLE 7 T-710 THROUGH T-773, T-776, T-780, and T-790 1. Each piece of magnetizing equipment with a/an shall be calibrated at least once a |. alarm / shift ammeter / year black light/ shift oD 2. Article 7 of Section V is in conformance with: SE-709 ASTM-1079 c. Section VIII Div. oe 3. Article 7 must always be used in conjunction with . the referencing Code . the SE given in the appendix of V . Article 1 of Section V eon 4, When performing fluorescent particle inspections a black light must be allowed to warm up for at least ; . 10 minutes . 15 minutes . 1 minute |. 5 minutes aocn a Which of the following is prohibited when performing any magnetic particle examination? . Non approved fluorescent particle propellants. . Broad areas of particle accumulations. . Prods, which have not had their lifting power, verified. eo 10 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to 1TACASME SECTION V EXERCISES TASK #5 8. When performing dry particle tests, how many examinations are required at each location of inspection? |. At least 2, which must be approximately perpendicular to each other. . One when performing dry particle testing. c. None, dry particle is considered a volume examination. oD 7. If demagnetization of an inspected part is required due to a process reason, when shall this demagnetization be performed? a. Immediately b. Just before the part moves to the next process. c, Any time after completion of the examination, d. Only as given in the referencing Code. 8. The following is a statement. The magnetic field indicator is only permitted for determining field adequacy of the AC Yoke Method of inspection. a, Tue b. False 9. The maximum spacing for prods is a. 8" b, 3” c. 6" d. not defined in Section V Article 7. 10. If the open circuit voltage of the prod procedure is greater than 25 Volts what should be modified about the technique? a. Prod spacing should be closer. b. Prod tips should changed to another metal than the standard copper. c. Prods should be dressed so as to have a blunt tip. 11. Except for materials %” or less in thickness AC Yokes are superior to direct current yokes of equal lifting power. a. True b. False 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical - Licensed to [TAC uASME SECTION V EXERCISES Solutions Task#1 Task#4 1 Cc T-110 1. B T-675 2. B T-120 2. A T-680 3. B T-130 3. Cc T-610 4. B T-140 4, A T-642 5. A T-140 5. B T-676.1 6. B T-150 6. Cc TAB T-672 7. B T-170 7. Cc T-676.4 8. B T-170 8. B T-675.3 9. Cc T-190 9. A 1-641 10. B T-653.1 Task#2 Task#5 fa B T-222.2 1. B 1-761 2. c T-262 2. A T-710 3. Cc T-272.2 3. Cc T-710 4. D T-275 4. D T-734 5. A T-223 5. Cc T-780 6. Cc T-234 6. A T-774 7 B T-233.1 7, c T-755 8. c T-261.1 8. B T-753 9. D TBL T-276 9. A T-773 10. C T-277.2 10. B T-773.3 11. C T-277.2 11. A T-776 12. B T-285 13. A T-284 14. C T-277.3 165. A T-282.2 16. C T-292 17. A 7-271 Task#3 1. D T-591 2. B T-510 3. Cc T-544.3 4. Cc T-531 5. B T-544.1 6. A T-522 7. A T-584 8. D 7-534, 9. B T-593, 10. B T-510 12 04/01 Rev 4 Fast Track Technical ~ Licensed to [TAC