Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Todos
Todos
7
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
What plane on a network device is accessed using SSH or SNMP?
Correct!
management plane
control plane
forwarding plane
CAM
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
What feature of CEF allows for Layer 3 switches to use multiple paths?
Correct!
load-balancing
route caching
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about the CEF forwarding process?
The adjacency table eliminates the need for the ARP protocol.
Correct!
After an IP prefix match is made, the process determines the associated Layer 2 header
rewrite information from the adjacency table.
Refer to curriculum topic: 4.4.2
Question 4
0 / 1 pts
In terms of design, which layer of the hierarchical model is the most complex?
access Layer
Correct Answer
Refer to Chapter 2.
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
In its network design, a company lists this equipment :
Which two types of devices from the list would be appropriate to use at the access layer
to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Which layer 3 switching method used by Catalyst switches offers the greatest
performance?
process switching
Correct!
CEF
fast switching
TCAM
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
For what is the control plane on a catalyst switch responsible?
the catalyst switch does not have a Control Plane; it has a Management Plane
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
A user needs to access a file server that is located in another department. Which layer of
the Cisco Hierarchical Network Model will process the traffic first?
Correct!
access
core
distribution
control
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture and the hierarchical desgin?
Each element in the hierarchy has a specific set of functions and services that it offers
and specific role.--> Correct Answer
You Answered
It provides services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components
into a single component that is located in the access layer. BAD
It reduces overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server,
corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same layer.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Which two features are unavailable on a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
use of ASICs
QoS marking
Correct!
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
What is true about TCAM lookups that are associated with CEF switching?
TCAM lookup tables are used only for the Layer 3 forwarding operation.
TCAM lookup tables are used only for the rapid processing of ACLs within CEF.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Why does extending layer 3 switching to the access layer improve scalability?
The access and distribution layers would not participate in the routing scheme.
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Which family of Cisco switches is specifically designed for data centers?
Catalyst 6500
Catalyst 2000
Correct!
Nexus 7000
Catalyst 4500
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design that will move an
enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two
features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)
You Answered
Scalability Correct
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
What is the suggested solution for routing when Layer 3 routing is extended to the
access layer?
run an IGP between the distribution and core layers and use static default routes at the
access layer
use static rotue from the access to the distribution layer, use default static routes from
the distribtuion to the core layer and use IGP amongst core layer devices
run an IGP between distribution and core layers and rely on proxy ARP between the
access and distribution layers
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
What type of specialized memory is used to facilitate high performance switching in Cisco
multilayer switches?
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
What are two responsibilities of devices that are located at the core layer of the
hierarchical design model? (Choose two.)
packet manipulation
Correct!
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
At what layer of the hierarchical model are MAC-based security controls implemented?
Correct!
access layer
distribution layer
core layer
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
At what layer of the hierarchical design model would redistribution and
summarization occur?
core layer
backbone layer
access layer
Correct!
distribution layer
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
Which portion of the enterprise network provides access to network communication
services for the end users and devices that are spread over a single geographic location?
enterprise edge
Correct!
campus module
WAN module
Internet edge
data center
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the switch CAT2? (Choose two.)
Six VLANs were either manually configured on the switch or learned via VTP.
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are unable to establish an operational trunk
connection. What is the problem between the connection on Switch1 and Switch2?
encapsulation mismatch
MTU mismatch
VTP mismatch
DTP mismatch
Correct!
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which three effects does the interface command switchport host have when entered
on a switch? (Choose three.)
Correct!
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
When configuring an EtherChannel, given that one end of the link is configured with PAgP
mode desirable, which PAgP modes can be configured on the opposite end of the link in
order to form an active channel? (Choose two.)
off
on
Correct!
desirable
Correct!
auto
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
What is a best practice for VLAN design?
Correct!
VLANs should be designed in a hierarchical fashion with access VLANs at the access layer
and local server VLANs at the core layer.
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.1.3
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Given the configuration information of the CAT1 and CAT2 switches,
which statement is true?
Correct!
Because the port-channel numbers do not match, LACP will not form a channel between
the switches.
Because the channel-group commands on SW2 should be set to "on," LACP will not
form a channel between the switches.
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the function of a switch that is
configured in VTP transparent mode?
option 1
option 2
option 3
Correct!
option 4
option 5
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Given that no VLANs have been deleted, what can be concluded
about interface Fa0/7?
It is not configured.
It is shutdown.
It is a trunk port.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Both SW1 and SW2 are configured with the PAgP desirable mode.
Which statement is true?
Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel.
Correct!
Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will form a channel between them.
Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel
between them.
Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation but will form a channel between them.
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.3.1
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new switches. Which switch or
switches will receive and maintain the list for all VLANs that are configured on the VTP
server?
SW2
Correct!
SW4
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Which two items are benefits of implementing local VLANs within the Enterprise
Architecture? (Choose two.)
A single VLAN can extend further than its associated distribution-layer switch.
Correct!
High availability is made possible because local VLAN traffic on access switches can now
be passed directly to the core switches across an alternate Layer 3 path.
Layer 3 routing between VLANs can now be applied at the access layer.
Correct!
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
In the context of the Enterprise Composite Architecture, which statement is true about
best-practice design of local VLANs?
Local VLAN is a feature that has only local significance to the switch.
Correct!
Local VLANs should be created based upon the job function of the end user.
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Which two VTP parameters must be identical on all switches in the network in order to
participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose two.)
Correct!
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the switch port?
Correct!
The port can carry data from multiple VLANs if pruning is disabled.
The port will be disabled if the current device is unplugged and a second device is
attached.
The port has manually been placed into trunking mode and is using the 802.1Q trunking
protocol.
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What would be the result if a new switch with a default configuration
is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?
The switch will operate as a VTP server and will delete the existing VLAN configuration in
the domain.
Correct!
The switch will operate as a VTP server but will not impact the existing VLAN
configuration in the domain.
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.2.3
Question 16
0 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when switch SW2 is added to the network?
Switch SW2 will delete all existing VLANs and introduce new VLANs in the VTP domain.
Correct Answer
Switch SW2 will drop all VTP advertisements and will not propagate them
through the VTP domain.--> Correct Answer
You Answered
Switch SW2 will include its own VLANs in the total number of VLANs configured in the VTP
domain.--> Bad
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.2.3
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about the 802.1Q trunking protocol? (Choose two.)
Correct!
The native VLAN interface configurations must match at both ends of the link or frames
could be dropped.
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and later inserted into
the production network. Before the trunk link was connected between SW1 and SW2, the
network administrator issued the show vtp status command as displayed in the exhibit.
Immediately after the switches were interconnected, all users lost connectivity to the
network. What could be a possible reason for the problem?
Switch SW2 has the pruning eligible parameter enabled, which causes pruning of all
VLANs.
Correct!
Switch SW2 has a higher VTP revision number, which causes deletion of the VLAN
information in the VTP domain.
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.2.4
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. How should SW2 be configured in order to participate in the same
VTP domain and populate the VLAN information across the domain?
Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
What are three characteristics of a VLAN access port? (Choose three.)
Correct!
A switch port can become an access port through static or dynamic configuration.
Correct!
An access port should have the 802.1q encapsulation associated with it.
An access port created with the switchport mode access command will send DTP
frames by default.
Correct!
An access port is created with the switchport mode access command and then
associated with a VLAN with the switchport access vlan command.
The VLAN that the access port is assigned to will be automatically deleted if it does not
exist in the VLAN database of the switch.
Chapter 4 Exam
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What implementation of spanning tree best describes the spanningtree operational mode of the switch?
Correct!
IEEE 802.1D
IEEE 802.w
IEEE 802.1s
PVRST+
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.2.2
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Which STP timer defines the length of time spent in the listening and learning states?
hello time
forward aging
Correct!
forward delay
max age
max delay
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.1.1
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Users complain that they lost connectivity to all resources in the network. A network
administrator suspects the presence of a bridging loop as a root cause of the problem.
Which two actions will determine the existence of the bridging loop? (Choose two.)
Check the port utilization on devices and look for abnormal values.
Verify that the management VLAN is properly configured on all root bridges.
Correct!
Capture the traffic on the saturated link and verify if duplicate packets are seen.
Ensure that the root guard and loop guard are properly configured on all distribution
links.
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about STP root guard? (Choose two.)
Correct!
Root guard re-enables a switch port once it stops receiving superior BPDUs.
Root guard should be configured on all ports on the desired root bridge to prevent
another bridge from becoming the root.
If a root guard enabled port receives a inferior BPDU from a nonroot switch, the port
transitions to the blocking state to prevent a root bridge election.
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.3.2
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
What effect does the global configuration command spanning-tree portfast
bpdufilter default have when enabled on an access switch?
All switch ports start filtering the superior BPDUs coming from other switches and the
access switch becomes a root bridge.
Correct!
All PortFast enabled ports stop sending BPDUs, but if a BPDU is received on the port, the
port gets out of the PortFast state, thereby disabling the BPDU filtering.
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.3.3
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW1 is receiving traffic from SW2. However, SW2 is not
receiving traffic from SW1. Which STP feature should be implemented to prevent
inadvertent loops in the network?
Correct!
UDLD
PortFast
BPDU guard
BPDU filtering
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.3.6
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. After the sequence of commands is entered, how many VLANs will be
assigned to the default instance?
4094
4064
4062
Correct!
4061
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.2.2
If you add up the VLANs on instance 0, there are 4061.
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration on the switch was changed between Output #1
and Output #2. What was done on the switch?
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Assuming that all switches in a network have the default bridge priority for each MST
instance, what effect does the command spanning-tree mst 10 root primary have
when entered on a single switch?
sets the bridge priority on the switch to 24586 for MST instance 10
Correct!
sets the bridge priority on the switch to 24576 for MST instance 10
sets the bridge priority on the switch to 28672 for MST instance 10
sets the bridge priority on the switch to 24582 for MST instance 10
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.2.4
4096 x 6 = 24576, so the concerns of the reviewer are met.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
What will happen when a BPDU is received on a loop guard port that is in a loopinconsistent state?
The port will be disabled and the administrator must re-enable it manually.
Correct!
The port will transition to the appropriate state as determined by the normal function of
the spanning tree.
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.3.1
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Which protocol extends the IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree (RST) algorithm to multiple
spanning trees?
STP
RSTP+
CST
Correct!
MST
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.1.4
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
What three fields are included in a BPDU? (Choose three.)
Correct!
bridge ID
STP ID
Correct!
port ID
link-state ID
Correct!
cost of path
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.1.1
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
The forward delay timer has been changed from the default value.
Correct!
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions does the output show to be true? (Choose
two.)
Correct!
Interface Fa0/12 will move into the errdisable state if a BPDU is received.
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
What happens when a switch running IEEE 802.1D receives a topology change message
from the root bridge?
Correct!
The switch uses the forward delay timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the hello to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the forward delay and the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC
address table.
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.1.1
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
Each switch determines a designated port that provides the best path to the root switch.
Correct!
The designated port will be on the switch with the best path to the root switch.
With each network change, the STP algorithm is run on all switches that have a root port.
A topology change will cause the switch where the change occurred to send messages
about the change throughout the tree.
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.1.1
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Which interfaces should loop guard be enabled on?
root ports
designated ports
Correct!
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Which three parameters should match all switches within an MST region? (Choose three.)
configuration name
Correct!
revision number
bridge priority
Correct!
VLAN-to-instance mappings
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.2.4
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
Which protocol should an administrator recommend to manage bridged links when the
customer requires a fully redundant network that can utilize load balancing technologies
and reconverge on link failures in less than a second?
Cisco PVST+
IEEE 802.1D(STP)
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.1.3
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about the RSTP negotiations between switches? (Choose
two.)
All ports that are directly connected to end stations must be enabled as designated ports.
Correct!
It greatly improves the restoration times for any VLAN that requires a topology
convergence due to link up.
Refer to curriculum topic: 3.1.3
Chapter 5 Exam
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug ip dhcp server packet output, which
statement is true?
The client sends a DHCPDISCOVER that contains IP address 10.1.10.21 to the DHCP
server.
The client sends a DHCPREQUEST that contains IP address 10.1.10.21 to the DHCP
server.
The client sends the BOOTREPLY broadcast message to inquire for a new IP address.
Correct!
The client accepts the offer from the DHCP server for the 10.1.10.21 IP address.
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. Which
procedure would solve this problem?
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on routers RTA and RTB. All users
can ping their gateways, but users on VLAN 5 and VLAN 10 cannot communicate with the
users on VLAN 20. What should be done to solve the problem?
Correct!
RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces, each
with ISL encapsulation.
RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces, each
with 802.1Q encapsulation.
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What additional configuration is required for host A to receive IP
configuration from the DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on router RTA. Users on VLAN 5
cannot communicate with the users on VLAN 10. What should be done to fix the
problem?
Two static routes should be configured on the router, each pointing to each subnet.
The Fa0/0 interface should be configured with a primary IP address of 10.10.5.1/24 and a
secondary IP address of 10.10.10.1/24.
Correct!
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
What is an advantage to using a trunk link to connect a switch to an external router that
is providing inter-VLAN routing?
Correct!
lowers latency
Question 7
0 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping the IP address 172.16.20.1
from RouterA. What will the router output be?
You Answered
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping the IP address 172.16.20.1
from RouterA. What will the router output be?
Correct Answer
A routed port behaves like a regular router interface and supports VLAN subinterfaces.
To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no
switchport interface configuration command.
The interface vlan global configuration command is used to create a routed port.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been properly configured for the trunking interface.
Which statement is true about the routing table on the router?
It will show a next hop address of the switch for both VLANs.
Because the switch is not configured properly to trunk VLAN 1 and VLAN 2, the routing
table of the router will not show routes to either VLAN .
Because the switch port fa0/1 is in access mode, the routing table of the router will not
show any routes.
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the diagram and show ip
route command output?
Because no routing protocol has been configured, the router will not forward packets
between workstations.
The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0 IP address of the router.
Correct!
The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0.1 IP address of the router.
The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0.2 IP address of the router.
Because their packets are being trunked, hosts on VLAN 10 do not need a default
gateway.
Refer to curriculum topic: 4.1.2
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
A client sends a request for an IP address to a DHCP server. Which DHCP message to the
client will provide the configuration parameters that include an IP address, a domain
name, and a lease for the IP address?
DHCPDISCOVER
Correct!
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Which statement describes what occurs when a DHCP request is forwarded through a
router that has been configured with the ip helper-address command?
The router replaces the source MAC address included in the DHCP request with its own
MAC address.
The router replaces the source IP address of the DHCP request with the IP address that is
specified with the ip helper-address command.
Correct!
The router replaces the broadcast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the
unicast IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command.
The router replaces the unicast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the
unicast IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Which three statements about a routed port are true? (Choose three.)
A routed switch port is a physical device that is associated with several VLANs.
Correct!
A routed switch port is created by entering VLAN interface configuration mode and
assigning an IP address.
A routed switch port is a virtual Layer 3 interface that can be configured for any VLAN
that exists on a Layer 3 switch.
Correct!
A routed switch port provides an interface that may provide a Layer 3 connection to a
next-hop router.
Correct!
Question 15
0 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration should be applied on router R1 in order for host
1 to receive its IP configuration from the DHCP server?
denial message to reject the first offer from the DHCP server
UnansweredQuestion 17
0 / 1 pts
Which message will be sent back to the client by the DHCP server to confirm that the IP
address has been allocated to the client?
DHCPDISCOVER unicast
DHCPDISCOVER broadcast
DHCPOFFER unicast
DHCPOFFER broadcast
DHCPREQUEST unicast
DHCPREQUEST broadcast
Correct Answer
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about switched virtual interfaces (SVI) on a multilayer
switch? (Choose two.)
An SVI behaves like a regular router interface but does not support VLAN subinterfaces.
Correct!
DHCPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
DHCPDISCOVER
UnansweredQuestion 20
0 / 1 pts
How is the Layer 2 functionality restored to a port configured for Layer 3 operation?
no switchport
Correct Answer
Chapter 6 Exam
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
What are two characteristics of Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) operation?
(Choose two.)
GLBP will attempt to balance traffic on a per-router basis by the use of the round-robin
algorithm.
Correct!
GLBP will attempt to balance traffic on a per-host basis by the use of the round-robin
algorithm.
Correct!
The active virtual forwarder (AVF) is assigned a virtual MAC address and forwards packets
sent to that MAC address.
The active virtual gateway (AVG) is the backup for the AVF.
GLBP members communicate with each other through hello messages sent every 3
seconds to the multicast address 224.0.0.104.
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements about VRRP are true? (Choose two.)
A VRRP group has one master router and one or more backup routers.
The virtual IP address for the VRRP group must be different from active and standby IP
addresses.
Correct!
VRRP provides redundancy for the IP address of a router or for a virtual IP address shared
among the VRRP group members.
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
What are two functions of the standby router in an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
Correct!
to physically forward packets that are sent to the MAC address of the virtual router
to reply with the virtual router MAC address in the event an ARP request is received
Correct!
to contend for the active router role with all other routers in the group in the event the
active fails
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Which of the following GLBP load-balancing options is configured if the host is guaranteed
the use of the same virtual MAC address?
Correct!
host-dependent
round-robin
weighted load-balancing
none
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Switch DSw1 is the active virtual gateway (AVG) and DSw2 is an
active virtual forwarder (AVF). Based on this information, which two GLBP statements are
true? (Choose two.)
GLBP is a Cisco proprietary protocol and is supported on all Cisco Catalyst and Cisco
router platforms.
Switch DSw2 has been configured with the glbp 1 priority 95 command.
Correct!
When host A sends an ARP message for the gateway IP address, switch DSw1 returns the
physical MAC address of switch DSw2.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What action does the command standby 1 track Serial0/0/0 on
router R1 perform?
It links the default gateway virtual address 192.168.21.10 to the IP address 192.168.31.1
on interface Serial0/0/0.
It links the default gateway virtual address 192.168.21.10 to the IP address 192.168.42.2
on interface Serial0/0/0.
It tracks the state of the Fa0/0 interface on R1 and brings down the priority of standby
group 1 if the interface goes down.
Correct!
It tracks the state of the Serial0/0/0 interface on R1 and brings down the priority of
standby group 1 if the interface goes down.
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Which one of the following GLBP functions answers ARP requests?
AVF
Correct!
AVG
Active
MVP
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about best practice and the exhibited
network design?
Correct!
The Layer 2 VLAN number should be mapped to the Layer 3 subnet for ease of use and
management.
The HSRP active router for VLAN 55 and VLAN 60 should be the same switch.
The uplink between the access switches and the distribution switches should be trunk
links.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)? (Choose
two.)
A router in the speak state sends periodic hello messages to all routers in the group to
acquire a virtual IP address.
Correct!
A router in the speak state sends periodic hello messages and actively participates in the
election of the active or standby router.
A router in the standby state forwards packets that are sent to the group virtual MAC
address.
Correct!
The router in the standby state is a candidate to become the next active router.
The router that is not the standby or active router will remain in the speak state.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Two routers are configured for an HSRP group. One router uses the default HSRP priority.
What priority should be assigned to the other router to make it more likely to be the
active router?
100
Correct!
200
500
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the output of the show
standby command?
This router is in the HSRP down state because its tracked interfaces are down.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Router RTA has been configured as the active HSRP router. Router
RTB is to be the standby HSRP router. However, once the indicated configuration was
applied to router RTB, the console began to display the message %HSRP-4-DIFFVIP1.
What is the cause of the message?
The command standby preempt should only be applied on the active router.
The ports on the switch must be configured with the spanning-tree PortFast feature.
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about the gateway redundancy protocols ?
GLBP allows multiple routers to participate in a virtual router group that is configured
with a virtual IP address. One member is elected to be the active router for the group and
the other routers are passive until the active router fails.
Correct!
By making use of a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses, GLBP
provides load balancing over multiple routers (gateways) . All routers in the virtual router
group participate in forwarding packets.
By making use of a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses, HSRP
provides load balancing over multiple routers (gateways). All routers in the virtual router
group participate in forwarding packets.
By making use of a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses, VRRP
provides load balancing over multiple routers (gateways). All routers in the virtual router
group participate in forwarding packets.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)?
The priority value of 255 means the router is ineligible to become the master router for
the VRRP group.
The priority value of 255 means the router has stopped participating in the VRRP group.
Correct!
The priority value of 0 means the router has stopped participating in the VRRP group.
The priority value of 0 means the router is ineligible to become the master router for the
VRRP group.
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided configuration, which routers are the master
and the backup virtual routers for the hosts that are connected to the VRRP group 1?
Router R1 is the master for all hosts, and router R2 is the backup for all hosts in the
group.
Correct!
Router R1 is the master for Host1 and Host2. Router R2 is the master for Host3 and
Host4.
Router R1 is the master for Host3 and Host4. Router R2 is the backup for Host3 and
Host4.
Because of incorrect configuration of the default gateway on the hosts, none of the
routers is the master for the VRRP group.
Quiz Score:
15 out of 15
Chapter 7 Exam
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Match the term with the correct definition.
Correct!
Authentication
Correct!
Authorization
Allow s for the control of the level of access that users have
Correct!
Accounting
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
What is the command to configure a device to be an authoritative NTP server?
ntp master
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Network policy dictates that security functions should be
administered using AAA. Which configuration would create a default login authentication
list that uses RADIUS as the first authentication method, the enable password as the
second method, and the local database as the final method?
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Which SNMP message is sent from the manager?
get response
inform request
Correct!
set request
trap
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Which SNMP version provides authentication and encryption for transmission of critical
data between managed devices?
SNMPV2
SNMPv3noAuthnoPriv
Correct!
SNMPv3authPriv
SNMPv3 authNoPriv
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
What are three advantages of implementing the AAA framework model in a network?
(Choose three.)
Faster convergence
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Which three are characteristics of the SNTP protocol? (Choose three.)
SNTP and NTP cannot coexist on the same device because they use the same port
number.
Correct!
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Given the configuration on the ALSwitch, what is the end result?
forces all hosts that are attached to a port to authenticate before being allowed access to
the network
Correct!
disables 802.1x port-based authentication and causes the port to allow normal traffic
without authenticating the client
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
If the host does not receive a response to a start frame, it goes into the shutdown mode.
When a host comes up that is attached to a switch port, the authentication server
queries the host for 802.1x authentication information.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
What SNMP attribute provides the best security?
authNoPriv
Correct!
authPriv
community string
noAuthNoPriv
SNMPv2
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Which three commands are necessary to configure NTP authentication between devices?
(Choose three.)
Correct!
ntp authenticate
Correct!
ntp trusted-key 1
ntp authentication
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. A switch is being configured to support AAA authentication on the
console connection. Given the information in the exhibit, which three statements are
correct? (Choose three.)
The configuration creates an authentication list that uses a named access list called
group as the first authentication method, a TACACS+ server as the second method, the
local username database as the third method, the enable password as the fourth method,
and none as the last method.
Correct!
The configuration creates an authentication list that uses a TACACS+ server as the first
authentication method, the local username database as the second method, the enable
password as the third method, and none as the last method.
Correct!
The none keyword enables any user logging in to successfully authenticate if all other
methods return an error.
The none keyword specifies that a user cannot log in if all other methods have failed.
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about NTP? (Choose two.)
Correct!
Network devices will always synchronize with NTP server with the highest stratum
number.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
In a AAA architecture, what is the name of the role given to the client running 802.1x
software?
AAA peer
authenticator
authentication server
Correct!
supplicant
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which feature does a SNMP manager need in order to set a
parameter on switch ACSW1?
Quiz Score:
15 out of 15
Chapter 8 Exam
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about UDLD?
It is automatically enabled.
It allows a switch to detect a unidirectional link and shut down the affected interface.
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the VSPAN configuration on switch
SW1?
The VSPAN session that is configured on port Fa3/4 can monitor only the ingress traffic for
any of the VLANs.
The VSPAN session that is configured on port Fa3/4 can monitor only the egress traffic for
any of the VLANs.
Port Fa3/4 must be associated with VLAN 10 or VLAN 20 in order to monitor the traffic for
any of the VLANs.
Correct!
The VSPAN session transmits a copy of the ingress traffic for VLAN 10 and the egress
traffic for VLAN 20 out interface Fa3/4.
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the local SPAN configuration on switch
SW1?
Correct!
The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is
monitored on port Fa3/1.
The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is
monitored on port Fa3/1, but only if port Fa3/1 is configured in VLAN 10.
The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is
monitored on port Fa3/1, but only if port Fa3/1 is configured as trunk.
The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 only a copy of unicast traffic that
is monitored on port Fa3/1. All multicast and BPDU frames will be excluded from the
monitoring process.
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to resolve an execution problem with
an IP SLA. What is the problem?
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
What are the two modes of UDLD operation? (Choose two.)
full
Correct!
normal
bidirectional
Correct!
aggressive
active
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
What is the command to view the SDM template settings?
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
What is a requirement for configuring an IP SLA to measure network performance?
At least one IP SLA responder and one IP SLA monitor must be configured.
The communication protocol that is used for SLA communications must be configured.
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
What are three characteristics of LLDP? (Choose three.)
LLDP supports enabling or disabling either transmitting or receiving capabilities per port
LLDP allows network management applications to automatically discover and learn about
network devices.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about the PoE negotiation process?
The PoE switch keeps the power on a disabled port up, just in case a device that needs
PoE will be connected.
Correct!
With 802.3af and 802.3at, the switch tries to detect the powered device by supplying a
small voltage across the Ethernet cable.
Cisco Inline Power has the same method of negotiating power as both of the IEEE
standards.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about SDM templates? (Choose two.)
The show SDM version command is used to display the current SDM template.
Correct!
Modifying the SDM template requires a reload on the switch before the settings take
effect.
The current template can be viewed using the show platform tcam
utilization command.
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about this SLA monitor?
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about a local SPAN configuration?
A port can act as the destination port for all SPAN sessions configured on the switch.
A port can be configured to act as a source and destination port for a single SPAN
session.
Correct!
Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 switched ports can be configured as source or destination ports
for a single SPAN session.
Port channel interfaces (EtherChannel) can be configured as source and destination ports
for a single SPAN session.
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
IP SLA operation 99 had 211 successful replies from the target device.
IP SLA operation 100 had 211 successful replies from the target device.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Which SDM template should be enabled if you have a large number of VLANs to support?
Quiz Score:
15 out of 15
Chapter 9 exam sw
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
What is the expected failover time for SSO mode for Layer 2 switching on the Catalyst
4500 family of switches?
Subsecond
1 to 2 minutes
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
What are three characteristics of the VSS technology? (Choose three.)
Correct!
Once the VSS is formed, only the control plan of one of the member's is active.
VSS is a network system virutalization technology that combine a pair of Catalyst 3500,
4500 or 6500 series switches into one virtual switch.
Correct!
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which three redundancy modes are supported by Catalyst 6500 Series switches? (Choose
three.)
Correct!
Manual Switchover
Correct!
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
A network administrator is designing a network with redundancy features such SSO with
NSF. What protocol is should the administrator avoid while designing the routing
topology?
BGP
Correct!
RIP
OSPF
EIGRP
ISIS
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
What are three benefits of implementing VSS in a network? (Choose three.)
Correct!
VSS is implemented in the access layer which supports a more simplistic design.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Which one is NOT a valid supervisor redundancy mode?
RPR
SSO
RPR+
Correct!
NSF
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Which supervisor redundancy mode offers the fastest failover time?
Correct!
SSO
RPR
RPR+
NSF
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Which two technologies can be used to reduce the number of logical network devices and
simplify Layer 2 and Layer 3 network toplogies? (Choose two.)
Correct!
VSS
TCAM
NSF
VRRP
Correct!
StackWise
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
To display configuration and status information for a VSS, which show command can be
used?
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Which command can be used to verify StackWise configuration to include their stack
number, stack role, MAC address, hardware priority, hardware version and current state?
show version
show stack
Correct!
show switch
show platform
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
What is considered a best practice for an optimal redundant network?
Correct!
Access switches should have a backup connection to at least one core device
Three distribution switches should be implemented so that the third switch can take the
role of active or standby, as necessary.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
What are two characteristics of the StackWise technology? (Choose two.)
The StackWise technology creates a virtual connection between the devices without
additional cabling.
Correct!
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
When using RPR, what two events can trigger a switchover from the active to the
standby Supervisor Engine? (Choose two.)
Correct!
Correct!
port failure
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
What is the main purpose of implementing Cisco NSF?
Correct!
to keep a backup copy of the latest MAC table in the event of RAM failure
to move switch ports that are currently in blocking mode to forwarding mode with
minimal packet loss
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Which one of the following features provides the fastest failover for supervisor or route
processor redundancy?
RPR+
NSF
RPR
Correct!
SS0
Quiz Score:
15 out of 15
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
What is the expected failover time for SSO mode for Layer 2 switching on the Catalyst
4500 family of switches?
Subsecond
1 to 2 minutes
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
What are three characteristics of the VSS technology? (Choose three.)
Correct!
Once the VSS is formed, only the control plan of one of the member's is active.
VSS is a network system virutalization technology that combine a pair of Catalyst 3500,
4500 or 6500 series switches into one virtual switch.
Correct!
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which three redundancy modes are supported by Catalyst 6500 Series switches? (Choose
three.)
Correct!
Manual Switchover
Correct!
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
A network administrator is designing a network with redundancy features such SSO with
NSF. What protocol is should the administrator avoid while designing the routing
topology?
BGP
Correct!
RIP
OSPF
EIGRP
ISIS
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
What are three benefits of implementing VSS in a network? (Choose three.)
Correct!
VSS is implemented in the access layer which supports a more simplistic design.
Correct!
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Which one is NOT a valid supervisor redundancy mode?
RPR
SSO
RPR+
Correct!
NSF
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Which supervisor redundancy mode offers the fastest failover time?
Correct!
SSO
RPR
RPR+
NSF
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Which two technologies can be used to reduce the number of logical network devices and
simplify Layer 2 and Layer 3 network toplogies? (Choose two.)
Correct!
VSS
TCAM
NSF
VRRP
Correct!
StackWise
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
To display configuration and status information for a VSS, which show command can be
used?
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Which command can be used to verify StackWise configuration to include their stack
number, stack role, MAC address, hardware priority, hardware version and current state?
show version
show stack
Correct!
show switch
show platform
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
What is considered a best practice for an optimal redundant network?
Correct!
Access switches should have a backup connection to at least one core device
Three distribution switches should be implemented so that the third switch can take the
role of active or standby, as necessary.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
What are two characteristics of the StackWise technology? (Choose two.)
The StackWise technology creates a virtual connection between the devices without
additional cabling.
Correct!
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
When using RPR, what two events can trigger a switchover from the active to the
standby Supervisor Engine? (Choose two.)
Correct!
port failure
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
What is the main purpose of implementing Cisco NSF?
Correct!
to keep a backup copy of the latest MAC table in the event of RAM failure
to move switch ports that are currently in blocking mode to forwarding mode with
minimal packet loss
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Which one of the following features provides the fastest failover for supervisor or route
processor redundancy?
RPR+
NSF
RPR
Correct!
SS0
Quiz Score:
15 out of 15
Chapter 10 Exam
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The web servers WS_1 and WS_2 need to be accessed by external
and internal users. For security reasons, the servers do not have to communicate with
each other although they are located on the same subnet. Both servers need to
communicate with the data server that is located on the inside network. Which
configuration will isolate the servers from inside attacks?
Ports Fa3/1, Fa3/2, Fa3/34, and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN
promiscuous ports.
Ports Fa3/1, Fa3/2, Fa3/34, and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN
community ports.
Correct!
Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN isolated ports. Ports
Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN community ports.
Ports Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.5.2
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
What is one way to mitigate ARP spoofing?
Correct!
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which statement describes the purpose of the configuration that is shown?
Switch(config)# ip dhcp snooping
Switch(config)# ip dhcp snooping vlan 3
Switch(config-if)# ip dhcp snooping trust
Switch(config-if)# ip dhcp snooping limit rate 30
It is meant to disable any rogue DHCP servers that are attached to VLAN 3.
Correct!
It is meant to monitor VLAN 3 for DHCP attacks that will deplete the DHCP pool.
It is meant to monitor VLAN 3 and disable any hosts that are using static IP addresses
rather than DHCP addresses.
Refer to curriculum topic: 6.4.2
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
What three steps should be implemented in the network to mitigate a VLAN hopping
attack? (Choose three.)
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Which type of output would be produced on a switch after entering the command,
Switch# show ip dhcp snooping binding?
DHCP clients that are connected to DHCP snooped ports on the switch
all active protocols on all DHCP clients that are connected to DHCP snooped ports on the
switch
Refer to curriculum topic: 6.4.2
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The DNS servers DNS1 and DNS2 are redundant copies so they need
to communicate with each other and to the Internet. The web server and the SMTP server
need to communicate with the Internet, but for security purposes the web and the SMTP
servers should not be reachable from the DNS servers. What private VLAN design should
be implemented?
All servers should be configured in separate isolated VLANs. All isolated VLANs should be
in the same primary VLAN.
All servers should be configured in separate community VLANs. All community VLANs
should be in the same primary VLAN.
Correct!
The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in a community VLAN. The web and
SMTP servers should be configured in an isolated VLAN. Both the community and isolated
VLANs should be part of the primary VLAN.
The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in an isolated VLAN. The web and
SMTP servers should be configured in a community VLAN. Both the community and
isolated VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN.
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.2.5
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
What can be used to mitigate MAC table flooding attacks?
DHCP snooping
private VLANs
Correct!
port security
root guard
Refer to curriculum topic: 6.1.2
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
What are two purposes for an attacker launching a MAC table flood? (Choose two.)
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
In which location or situation is a private VLAN appropriate?
a DMZ segment
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Which statement best describes how traffic is handled between different port types
within a primary pVLAN?
The traffic is forwarded from promiscuous ports to promiscuous ports in the same
primary VLAN.
The traffic is forwarded from promiscuous ports to community and promiscuous ports in
the same primary VLAN.
The traffic is forwarded from promiscuous ports to isolated and community ports in the
same primary VLAN.
Correct!
The traffic is forwarded from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other
promiscuous ports in the same primary VLAN.
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.2.5
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
How does VLAN hopping cause a vulnerability in the network?
The CAM table will be full, causing legitimate frames to be forwarded out all ports and
allowing unauthorized users to capture data.
Correct!
An attacking device can send or receive packets on various VLANs and bypass Layer 3
security measures.
An attacking device can exhaust the address space available to the DHCP servers for a
period of time or establish itself as a DHCP server in man-in-the-middle attacks.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
A network administrator is tasked with protecting a server farm by implementing private
VLANs. Each server should only be allowed to communicate with the default gateway.
Which type of pVLAN should be configured on the switch port that connects to a server?
Correct!
isolated
promiscuous
community
secondary VLAN
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.2.5
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration has been applied to ACSw22, frames that are
bound for the node on port FastEthernet 0/1 are periodically being dropped. What should
be done to correct the issue?
Correct!
Change the port speed to speed auto with the interface configuration mode.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Which countermeasure can be implemented to determine the validity of an ARP packet,
based on the valid MAC-address-to-IP address bindings stored in a DHCP snooping
database?
DHCP spoofing
Correct!
MAC snooping
Refer to curriculum topic: 6.4.1
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Which configuration guideline applies to using the capture option in VACL?
The capture port captures all packets that are received on the port.
The capture port needs to be in the spanning-tree forwarding state for the VLAN.
Refer to curriculum topic: 6.2.2
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
How does MAC address flooding cause a vulnerability in the network?
Correct!
The CAM table will be full, causing legitimate frames to be forwarded out all ports within
the VLAN and allowing unauthorized users to capture data.
An attacking device can send or receive packets on various VLANs and bypass Layer 3
security measures.
An attacking device can exhaust the address space available to the DHCP servers for a
period of time or establish itself as a DHCP server in man-in-the-middle attacks.
Information that is sent through CDP is transmitted in clear text and is unauthenticated,
allowing it to be captured and to divulge network topology information.
Refer to curriculum topic: 6.1.2
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
A network administrator is tasked with protecting a server farm by implementing private
VLANs (PVLANs). A server is only allowed to communicate with its default gateway and
other related servers. Which type of PVLAN should be configured on the switch ports that
connect to the servers?
isolated
promiscuous
secondary VLAN
Correct!
community
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.5.1
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The DNS servers DNS1 and DNS2 are redundant copies so they need
to communicate with each other and to the Internet. The SMTP server should not be
reachable from the DNS Servers. Based on the partial configuration that is provided, what
private VLANs design will be implemented?
Correct!
Community VLAN 202 will be created to host both DNS servers, and this VLAN will be
associated with the primary VLAN 100.
Isolated VLAN 202 will be created to host both DNS servers, and this VLAN will be
associated with the primary VLAN 100.
Community VLAN 100 will be created to host both DNS servers, and this VLAN will be
associated with the primary VLAN 202.
Isolated VLAN 100 will be created to host both DNS servers, and this VLAN will be
associated with the primary VLAN 202.
Refer to curriculum topic: 2.2.5
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
All access ports on a switch are configured with the administrative mode of dynamic
auto. An attacker, connected to one of the ports, sends a malicious DTP frame. What is
the intent of the attacker?
Correct!
VLAN hopping
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
What technology can be used to help mitigate MAC address flooding attacks?
root guard
Private VLANs
DHCP snooping
Correct!
Quiz Score:
20 out of 20
The priority number 150 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands.
The virtual IP address should be the same as the active router.
The ports on the switch must be configured with the spanning-tree PortFast feature.
2 Which statement correctly explains the process of mitigating ARP attacks on a
switch where dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) has been configured?
All intercepted packets that come from untrusted ports are dropped.
All intercepted packets that come from trusted ports are sent to untrusted ports only.
The intercepted packets are verified against the DHCP snooping binding table
for valid IP-to-MAC bindings.
For all intercepted packets, an ARP request is sent to the DHCP server for IP-to-MAC
address resolution.
3
Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need to be able to set a
parameter on ACSw1? a manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut
a manager who is using an Inform
Request MIB a manager who is using
host 192.168.0.5
a manager who is using authPriv
4 Which statement is true concerning the core layer within the
hierarchical design model? Remote users are granted access to
the network through the core.
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the output? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. What happens if interface gigabitEthernet 5/1 on SwitchA stops
receiving UDLD packets? UDLD stops trying to establish a connection with the
neighbor.
UDLD changes the port state to err-disable.
17
Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem between the connection on Switch1
and Switch2?
encapsulation
mismatch
switchport mode
mismatch
VTP mismatch
DTP mismatch
hardware failure
18
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains the configuration for a Cisco access device. How
will someone dialing in be authenticated?
local username and password
TACACS+ server
RADIUS server and, if that fails, local username
and password
TACACS+ server
TACACS+ server and, if that fails, local username
and password
Root guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between the distribution
switches.
PortFast should be implemented on the uplink ports from the access switches to the
distribution switches.
Loop guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2
and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.
BPDU guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2
and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.
20 What are two actions a hacker may take in a VLAN hopping attack? (Choose two.)
replying to ARP requests that are intended for other recipients
sending malicious dynamic trunking protocol (DTP) frames
replying to DHCP requests that are intended for a DHCP server
sending a unicast flood of Ethernet frames with distinct source MAC addresses
sending frames with two 802.1Q headers
21
24
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the switch is running Multiple Spanning Tree (MST),
which conclusion can be made based on the output?
Spanning-tree load balancing is in effect.
All VLANs are mapped to MST instance 2.
PVRST+ is still operating on switch DLS1.
PVST+ is still operating on switch DLS1.
MST will require fewer resources than PVST+ or PVRST+.
25
Refer to the exhibit. Switches DSw1 and DSw2 are configured with the HSRP virtual IP
address 10.10.10.1, and standby priority is set to 100. Assume both switches finish
booting at the same time and HSRP is operating as expected. On the basis of this
information, which three HSRP statements are true? (Choose three.)
Applying the standby 32 timers 10 30 command on the Gi0/2 interfaces of each
switch would decrease the failover time.
If the DSw1 and DSw2 switches have been configured to preempt, then DSw2 will be
the active router.
If the DSw1 switch is configured with the standby preempt command and DSw2 is
not, then DSw1 will be the active router.
The HSRP group number in this HSRP configuration is HSRP group number 50.
The standby track command is useful for tracking interfaces that are not configured
for HSRP.
When host A sends an ARP request for 10.10.10.1, Virtual Router replies with the MAC
address of the active router.
26 What is the recommended maximum one-way jitter when implementing video over IP for
real-time video applications?
1 ms
2 ms
5 ms
10 ms
27
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided show ip dhcp snooping command, which
statement is true?
Only port Fa0/24 can send and receive all DHCP messages.
Ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/24 can send and receive all DHCP messages.
Only ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 can send and receive all DHCP messages.
Ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/24 can send and receive only DHCP requests.
28 Which two items in the TCAM table are referenced in the process of forwarding a
packet? (Choose two.)
VLAN ID
ACL information
destination MAC address
QoS information
source MAC address
hash key
29 Catalyst Catalyst 6500 switches support which three Supervisor Engine redundancy
features? (Choose three.)
30 Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched
environment that has
32
Refer to the exhibit. What restriction will be presented in a campus enterprise network
that is designed with four large distribution building blocks?
The implementation of link aggregation will be limited.
The implementation of IGP routing protocols will be limited.
The implementation of EtherChannels on redundant links will exceed the bandwidth.
The implementation of scalability that is required during future growth will be limited.
33 Which three issues can cause devices to become disconnected across a trunk
link? (Choose three.)
native VLAN mismatch
unassigned management VLAN
Layer 2 interface mode
incompatibilities missing default
VLAN
mismatched trunk
encapsulations PAgP not
enabled
34
Refer to the exhibit. What additional configuration is required in order for users in VLAN
10 to communicate with the users in VLAN 20?
Configure interface Fa0/1 on SW1 as a trunk.
Remove the subinterfaces on R1 and configure interface Fa0/0 as a trunk.
Configure interfaces Fa0/2 and Fa0/3 on SW1 as trunk links.
Configure VLAN 100 as a data VLAN and VLAN 1 as the native VLAN.
35
Refer to the exhibit. Given that interface Fa3/42 is an active trunk port, what two
conclusions can be made based on the displayed output? (Choose two.)
Root guard is not enabled on interface Fa3/42.
Interface Fa3/42 will not pass data traffic if it detects that it is part of a spanning-tree
loop caused by unidirectional link failure.
UDLD cannot be configured on interface Fa3/42.
If a spanning-tree loop is detected on VLAN 1, data traffic will be blocked for all VLANs
on interface Fa3/42.
The difference in BPDUs sent and received indicates a loop caused by unidirectional
link failure has been detected.
three.)
bifurcated match
longest match
second match
exact match
first match
third match
39 Which two types of attacks can be mitigated by port
security? (Choose two.)
dictionary
denial of service
(DoS) replay
MAC-address
flooding
password
40 What is a characteristic of a standalone WLAN solution?
Refer to the exhibit. What configuration will be required on the DSW switch in order to
perform inter-VLAN routing for all VLANs that are configured on the access switches?
Configure the routing protocol.
Configure SVI for each VLAN in the network.
Configure the links between DSW and the access switches as access links.
Configure as routed ports the DSW interfaces that face the access switches.
42 How do FlexLink and STP operate together?
If an active STP port is blocked, the active FlexLink port will take over.
Both the active STP port and active FlexLink port can forward traffic simultaneously.
Both the active STP port and active FlexLink port can forward traffic simultaneously
but only for different VLANs.
STP can be active in the distribution layer, but is unaware of any FlexLink updates in
the access layer.
43
Refer to the exhibit. What two effects will occur when a fourth distribution module is
included in the campus enterprise network that is depicted in the exhibit? (Choose
two.)
The inclusion of the fourth module will increase the routing complexity.
It will limit the traffic flow in the network.
It will provide scalability for future growth.
It will impact the security of the traffic between the distribution switches.
It will increase the number of additional links that are required to provide
redundant connectivity.