KAAU

King Abdulaziz University

Third Year Medicine
Microbiology Course

Common MCQs & Essays in Microbiology

2009 – 2010

1
2
 Staphylococci
1- Scalded skin syndrome is caused by a toxin secreted by staph.aureus which is called :
a- Leukocidin
b- α-toxin
c- β- toxin
d- exfoliation
e- gamma- toxin

2- Pathogenicity of staphylococci is determined by production of :

a- Haemolysin
b- Pigment
c- Coagulase
d- Catalase

3- One is false about staphylococcus epidermidis :

a- A common cause of food poisoning
b- Coagulase negative
c- Normal skin flora
d- A common cause of prosthatic heart valve infection

4- Failure of treatment of staphylococcus aureus infection with penicillin is due to :

a- In ability of penicillin to penetrate the membrane of staph. aureus
b- Production of penicillinase by staph.aureus
c- Lack of penicillin binding site
d- Allergic reaction caused by staphylococcus aureus

5- The best labratory evedince of potential pathogenicity of a staphylococcus is

producing:
a- pigment
b- catalase
c- coagulase
d- DNAse

6- Staphylococcus epidermidis is the etiological factor of:

a- Urinary tract infection among children & elderly males.
b- Enteritis.
c- Osteomylitis.
d- Pneumonia.
e- Acute bacterial endocarditis.

7- In a patient suffering from influenza or measles staph. Aureus carried in the nose may
cause fatal pneumonia becouse of :
a- destruction of cilliated epithelial cells
b- resistant of staphylococcus to penicillin
c- acquiring of a plasmid by staphylocooci
d- integration of the viral nucleic acid into the bacterial chromosome

3
 1-d 2-d 3-a 4-b 5-b 6-a 7-a

Essays:
- Classify staphylococci and enumerate the diseases caused by one of them.
- Lab diagnosis of one disease caused by staphylococci.
- Classify Staphylococcus into species and outline the characteristic features of each
one. Enumerate toxic mediated diseases caused by the most pathogenesis species
and mention a method used for tracing source of outbreak?

___________________________________________________________________________
Streptococci
1. The nephrogenic strains that lead to acute glomerulonephritis are frequently
streptococci which cause :
a- Impetigo
b- Scarlet fever
c- Rheumatic fever
d- Post - partum infection
e- Wound infection

2. The serologic grouping of β-hemolytic streptococci depends on:

a- C-carbohydrate
b- M-protein
c- T-protein
d- Teichoic acid

3. High ASO titer indicated recent infection by streptococcus :

a- Viridance
b- Pyogenes
c- Faecalis
d- Agalactae

4. The use of sulfonamide for treatment of β-hemolytic streptococcal infection :

a- Eradicates completely the organism
b- Suppresses organism & prevent occurrence of late nonsuppurative
complication
c- Suppresses organism but does not prevent occurrence of late
nonsuppurative complication
d- Absolute not effective

5. Cure from one attack of scarlet fever:

a- does not protect from further infection with streptococci
b- give lifelong immunity against this disease
c- Does not result in any degree of immunity
d- results in increase in susceptibility to his disease

6. Immunity to one type of streptococci :

a- Group specific
b- direct against M protein
c- directed against c carbohydrate antigen

4
 d- means protection against all other types

7. Bacitracin is inhibitory to the following group of streptocooci:

a- A
b- B
c- C
d- D

8. Differentiation of streptococcus pneumoniae from other a-hemolytic streptoccci is

done by :
a- Bile solubility test
b- Optochin sensitivity test
c- Inulin fermentation
d- All of the above

9. The pneumococcus:
a- Usually occur in chains
b- Is a spore forming organism
c- Is motile with one terminal flagellum
d- Capsules are produced by virulent forms
e- Grows best in a markedly acid PH

10. One is FALSE for pneumococci:

a- Require enriches media for growth
b- Lack cytochromes
c- Catalase negative
d- Causes B-haemolysis on blood agar

11. Which is false for person with antitoxic imunity to scarlet fever
a- Having a history of previous attack of scarlet fever & possessing
antierythrogenic toxin.
b- May become infected with a group A-erythrogenic toxin producing
streptococcus of a type which anti-M protein immunity has not been acquired.
c- Not showing the rash after infection.
d- Never acting as a source of scarlet fever.

1-a 2-a 3-b 4-c 5-a 6-b

7-a 8-d 9-d 10-d 11-b

Essays:

- Discuss the morphological classification of streptococci and talk about the diagnosis
of one of them.

5
 - Classification of streptococcus and mention its diseases
- Diagnosis of beta-hemolytic Streptococci
- Give an account on extra cellular toxins of streptococci.
- Talk about the diseases caused by B-hemolytic streptococci, and what is the
diagnosis.
- Enumerate diseases caused by alpha-hemolytic streptococci and complications.
- Streptococcus pneumonia ( complications ,Lab diagnosis, treatment ,pathogenesis)

_____________________________________________________________________
Neisseriae
1- Neisseria meningitis is :
a- Transmitted by ingestion
b- Causative agent of neonatal meningitis
c- Carried in the nasopharynx by some healthy people
d- Isolated from urine of patient suffering from meningitis
e- All the above

2- Neisseria gonorrhea grows best when inoculated:

a- Anaerobically
b- Under 10% CO2
c- Under 10% NO2
d- Aerobically

3- Ophthalmia neonatorum is:

a- Caused by Haemophilus egypticus bacilli
b- Can be effectively treated with neomycin
c- An infection of the eye due to Neisseria gonorrheae
d- An optic nerve inflammation

4- Ophthalmia neonatarum is :
a- An infection of eye due to N. meningococcus
b- An infection of eye due to staph.aureus
c- An optic nerve inflammation
d- An infection of eye due to N.gonococcus

5- Neisseria spp. Isolated from joint fluid is more likely to be:

a- Neisseria meningitidis
b- Neisseria sicca
c- Neisseria flavescens
d- Neisseria gonorrhoeae

6- Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is caused by:

a- Staphylococcus aureus
b- Staphylococcus pyogenes
c- Streptococcal pneumonia
d- Neisseria meningitides

6
 7- Neisseria gonorrhea can be differentiated from N. meningitis by :
a- Glucose fermentation
b- Maltose fermentation
c- Nitrate reduction
d- Oxidase reaction

8- The portal of entry of meningococci is the:

a- mouth
b- nasopharynx
c- skin
d- genitalia

1-c 2-b 3-c 4-d

5-d 6-d 7-b 8-b

Essays:

- Give an account about gonorrhea (causative agent, pathogenecity, diagnosis,

clinical findings, treatment and control=vaccine)
- Name and describe the general properties of the causative agent of gonorrhea.
Enumerate its virulence factors; mention its pathogenesis, complication and
diagnosis.
- Discuss briefly the pathogenesis, treatment and control of epidemic cerebrospinal
meningitides
- What is the causative agent of the “epidemic meningitis “? Discuss its pathogenesis,
diagnosis, prevention, control and treatment.
___________________________________________________________________

Gram-positive Rods
1- The best treatment of diphtheria is :
a- Penicillin
b- Toxoid
c- Broad spectrum antibiotic
d- Antitoxic serum
e- None of the above

2- Metachromatic granules are outstanding characteristic of the bacillus:

a- Diphtheria
b- Anthrax
c- Plagues
d- Tuberculosis

7
 3- Corynebacterium diphtheria is transmitted by :
a- Ingestion
b- Sexual intercourse
c- Inhalation
d- An insect vector
e- None of the above

4- A toxigenic strain of Corynebacterium diphtheria :

a- Gram negative bacillus
b- Lysogenic
c- Pleomorphic
d- Always present in nasopharynx

5- Listeria monocytogenus is :
a- a non motile gram positive bacilli
b- Easily isolated on ordinary medium
c- A strict human parasite
d- A common cause of meningitis in renal transplant recipient
e- Not transmitted even by pasteurized milk

6- One is false for listeria monocytogenes :

a- Gram positive
b- Facultative anaerobe
c- Non motile diphtheroid
d- Small bacillus

7- All the following is true about bacillus cereus EXCEPT:

a- They grow aerobically
b- They are spore forming
c- They are gram positive
d- They are found in soil
e- They produce one distinct clinical form

8- Which is NOT a property of Bacillus anthracis:

a- Capsulated
b- Gram positive bacillus
c- Motile
d- Spore bearer

9- Immunity against tetanus:

a- Is directed only against the exotoxin
b- Depends on spore forming
c- Is only of the active type
d- Does not exist
e- Is directed only against the organism itself

8
 10- One is FALSE for tetanus:
a- Also called lock-jaw disease
b- Results from contaminated wound
c- Easily to be diagnosed by blood culture
d- Manifested by spastic contraction

11- Tetanus toxin produces the following characteristic symptom:

a- Dysentery
b- Constipation
c- Vomiting
d- Lock jaw

12- Anthrax is:

a- Zoonotic
b- A disease only of animals
c- A disease only of man
d- Causing an epizoonotic in rodents

13- The most potent toxin produced by any known bacterium is that of:
a- Corynebacterium diphtheria
b- Clostridium botulinium
c- Shigella dysentriae
d- Clostridium tetani

1-d 2-a 3-c 4-b 5-d 6-c 7-e

8-c 9-a 10-c 11-d 12-a 13-b

Essays:

- Discuss Pseudomemberanous Colitis (Causative organism, pathogenesis and

treatment)
- Name and describe the general properties of the causative agent of Diphtheria.
Mention its pathogenesis, diagnosis, treatment and prevention.
- Epidemiology and pathogenesis of listeriosis
- Give an account on the Anthrax its causative agent, pathogenesis, diagnosis,
treatment and control=vaccine.
- Name and describe the general properties of the causative agent of tetanus.
Mention its pathogenesis, diagnosis, treatment and prevention?
- Mechanism of action of tetanus toxins
- Mention the causative agent, pathogenesis and treatment of botulism.
- Give an account on gas-gangrene, epidemiology, pathogenesis, lab diagnosis,
prevention and treatment.

- Fill in the blank:

9
 Diphteria makes disease by: Exotoxin
___________________________________________________________________________

Mycobacteria

1- Mycobacterium tuberculosis has the following character:

a- Produce B-hemolysis on blood agar
b- It is a photochromogen
c- The cell wall has low concentration of lipid
d- Colonies require 3-6 weeks to appear
e- It is stained easily by gram stain

2- Prophylaxis against tuberculosis is achieved by:

a- Killed mycobacterium bacilli
b- B.C.G. vaccine
c- Purified protein derivative
d- Serum from tuberculous patients
e- Penicillin

3- Acid fast genus other than T.B is:

a- Actinomyces
b- Nocardia
c- Aspergillus
d- Corynebacteria
e- Histoplasma

4- A positive tuberculin test means that the person has:

a- Delayed hypersensitivity to tubercle bacilli
b- No infection with tubercle bacilli at all
C- Circulating antibodies
d- Increased susceptibility to infection

5- Conversion from negative to positive tuberculin reaction is indication of:

a- Activation of an old tuberculous focus
b- Complete cure of tuberculosis
c- Recent exposure to M. tuberculosis
d- Loss of sensitivity to tuberculin

6- The best specimen for investigation of urogenital T.B is:

a- Mid stream urine
b- Urine collected any time
c- Whole early morning urine
d- Urine collected over 24 hours

10
 7- Prolonged treatment of tuberculosis is needed because:
a- Bacilli are intracellular
b- The caseous material in the lesion inactivates the antituberculous drugs
c- The lesion is chronic so that bacilli are metabolically inactive
d- Antibodies against the bacilli antagonize the drugs

8- What statement about atypical mycobacteria is FALSE:

a- Culture characteristics differ from those of M.tuberculosis
b- Human to human transmission rarely if even occur
c- They are opportunistic pathogens for man
d- They are more antibiotic sensitive than M. tuberculosis

1-d 2-b 3-b 4-a 5-c 6-c 7-a,c 8-d

Essays:

- Discuss Tuberculosis (causative agent ,pathogenesis, diagnosis, treatment and

control=vaccine)
- Name and describe the causative agent of pulmonary TB enumerate its virulence
factors. Mention its treatment and prevention?
- Give an account about Tuberculin test.
- What are the clinical forms of T.B. and pathogenesis of them?
- Discuss the pathogenesis of tuberculosis (TB), prophylaxis and treatment.
- Difference between both types of leprosy (leptomatous,tuberculoid)
- Describe the causative agent(s) of tuberculosis, diseases they cause and their
mode(s) of transmission. Name the specimens to be taken for their diagnosis and
the vaccine used for prophylaxis.
___________________________________________________________________

Gastrointestinal Gram-negative Rods

1- A new born child who was lethargic with bulging anterior fontanelle who was
suspected to have meningitis the causative organism maybe:
a- E.coli
b- Streptococcus pneumonia
c- Niesseria meningitis
d- Hemophilus influenza
e- Mycobacterium tuberculosis

11
 2- E.coli causes the following diseases EXCEPT:
a- Neonatal meningitis
b- Septicacemia
c- Gastroenteritis
d- Urinary tract infection
e- Toxic shock syndrome

3- All the following are characteristics of Pseudomonas aeurginosa EXCEPT:

a- An opportunistic pathogen
b- A causative agent of urinary tract infection
c- A causative agent of burn infection
d- A primary pathogen
e- A causative agent of eye infection

4- Black death is caused by:

a- Brucella suis
b- Brucella abortus
c- Yersinia pestis
d- Francisella tularensis
e- Pasteurella multocida

5- Weil-felix reaction is negative in:

a- Epidemic typhus
b- Scrub typhus
c- Rocky mountain spotted fever
d- Endemic typhus
e- Q fever

6- Proteus does NOT cause:

a- Fermentation of lactose
b- Swarming growth
c- Urinary tract infection
d- Chronic otitis media

7- The main differentiating characteristics of the proteus group is:

a- A slow lactose fermenter
b- Hydrolysis of urea
c- Production of H2S
d- Oxidase positive
e- Non motile

8- Food poisoning due to ingestion of raw of partially cooked sea food is due to:
a- Vibrio cholera
b- Vibrio parahaemolyticus

12
 c- Salmonella typhimurium
d- Shigella flexneri

9- The virulence of vibrio cholera is due to:

a- Its resistance to alkali
b- The presence of flagella
c- Its invasive power
d- The production of enterotoxin

10- The Widal test is an example of:

a- a direct agglutination reaction
b- a neutralization reaction
c- an indirect agglutination reaction
d- an ouchterlony technique
e- a complete fixation test

11- Proteus does NOT cause:

a- Fermentation of lactose
b- Swarming growth on nutrient agar plate
c- Urinary tract infection
d- Epidemics of infantile diarrhea

12- Vibrio cholera is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

a- Small curved Gram-negative bacilli
b- Aerobic
c- Non-motile
d- Grows on alkaline media

13- Helicobacter pylori is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

a- Gram-negative spirally shaped bacterium
b- Strongly urease positive
c- Causes chronic gastritis
d- Morphologically similar to campylobacter

14- One is FALSE for bacteroids:

a- Gram negative slender rods
b- Facultative anaerobes
c- Opportunistic pathogen
d- Causes lung and brain abscess

13
15- ?Each of the following concerning bacteriodes melaninogenicus is correct EXCEPT:
a- It is gram negative rods, non motile
b- Normal flora of the oropharynx
c- Is found in pulmonary abscess
d- Forms endo-spores which allow it to survive in soils
e- Produces brownish pigment on blood agar

1-a 2-e 3-d 4-c 5-e 6-a 7-b,c 8-b

9-d 10-a 11-a 12-c 13-d 14-b 15-d

Essays:

- Mention the main tests used for Enterobacteriase

- Discuss the mechanism of toxin production in gastroenteritis caused by E.coli
- Discuss the mechanism of production of diarrhea by Enteropathologenic E.coli
- List the diseases caused by salmonella species and sort of samples and discuss the
diagnosis for one of them.
- What are the diseases caused by salmonella, source of infection, pathogenesis,
diagnosis “widal reaction “, and its treatment.
- Give an account on Enteric fever causative agent , pathogenesis, diagnosis and
treatment
- Give an account on Widal test
- Discuss Shigella (morphology, pathogenesis, diagnosis, treatment and control)
- Discuss Vibro Cholera (morphology, pathogenesis,diagnosis, treatment and control)
- Compare between Compylobacter and Shigella
- Compare between Campylobacter and Helicobacter
- Compare between Salmonella and Shigella.
- Helicobacter (Pathogenesis - Diagnosis - Treatment)
- Discuss plague (causative agent, pathogenesis, diagnosis, treatment and
control=vaccine)
- Name four sites of pseudomonas
- A 30 years old man had 10 days symptoms of high fever, malaise, headache, delirium.
Constipation, sweating and marked abdominal discomfort. On examination
hepatosplenomegaly and rose spots were detected on the abdomen. Blood culture
revealed non-lactose fermenting gram-negative rods. (Answer the following
question)
a- What is your provisional diagnosis?
b- Name and describe the causative organism.
c- Mention the mode of its transmission.
d- Mention the different laboratory method used in diagnosis.
e- Name drugs that are commonly used in treatment

14
 Other Gram-negative Rods - Non enteric Rods
1- One is FALSE about bordetella pertusis:
a- Cause whooping cough
b- Maybe stained directly from patient's specimen with fluorescent labeled
antibody
c- Require only X-factor for growth
d- Does not require either X- or V- factor for growth
e- Is a short coccobacilli

2- One is FALSE for Bordetella pertussis:

a- The causative agent of Whooping cough
b- The vaccine used is merthiolate killed
c- Sensitive to erythromycin
d- Highly invasive organism

3- One is false about brucellosis:

a- Infection is acquired only by ingestion
b- Can be diagnosed by blood culture
c- It is zoonotic
d- Infection may be acquired through the conjunctiva
e- Infection may be acquired through the skin

4- Bordetella species produce infection of:

a- Blood
b- Urinary tract
c- Respiratory tract
d- Gastrointestinal tract

5- Bordetella pertussis:
a- Produce a capsule when virulent
b- May be stained directly from patient's specimen with fluorescent labeled antibody
c- Requires only x-factor for growth
d- Does not require either x or v factor for growth

6- Haemophilus ducreyi is the causative agent of:

a- Syphilis
b- Hard chancre
c- Chancroid (soft chancre)
d- Lymphogranuloma venereum
e- Lymphogranuloma injuinale

15
 7- The followings are TRUE for Haemophilus influenza type b EXCEPT:
a- Can cause meningitis
b- Gram negative cocco-bacilli
c- Is the cause of influenza
d- Commensal in human throats

8- Best specimen for diagnosis of brucellosis in human include:

a- Blood culture
b- Sputum
c- C.S.F.
d- Urine
e- Faeces

9- Meningitis due to Haemophilus influenzae occurs most frequently in:

a- Infants under 2 months of age
b- Children between 6 months & 3 years
c- Adults
d- Patients with debilitating disease

10- Yersinia pestis is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

a- Highly invasive organism
b- Gram negative short bacilli
c- It causes epidemics
d- Transmitted by rat bite

11- The following are TRUE for Brucella abortus EXCEPT:

a- The causative agent of undulant fever
b- Can be transmitted by ingestion of contaminated milk
c- Treated by teatracyclines
d- Obligatory anaerobe

12- One is FALSE regarding chancroid:

a- The initial lesion is soft and painful
b- More common in topical countries
c- Associated with regional lymphadenophathy
d- Can be treated with penicillin

16
 13- The following are TRUE for Legionella pneumophilia EXCEPT:
a- Not transmitted from person to person
b- It is a cause of nosocomial infection
c- Sensitive to penicillin and cephalosporin
d- Causes Pontiac fever

1-c 2-d 3-a 4-c 5-d 6-c 7-c

8-a 9-b 10-d 11-d 12-d 13-c

Essays:

- Enumerate the diseases caused by Haemophilus species and give diagnosis for one
of them
- List the clinical infections produced by Haemophilus influenza, mention the
treatment of these infections, prophylaxis and control
- Discuss the epidemiology, clinical findings, prophylaxis, treatment and control for
Hemophilus influenza
- Discuss Whooping Cough (causative agent, pathogenesis, diagnosis, treatment and
control=vaccine)
- Discuss Malta fever (causative agent, pathogenesis, diagnosis, treatment and
control=vaccine)
- Discuss Tularaemia (causative agent, pathogenesis, diagnosis, treatment and
control=vaccine)
___________________________________________________________________________

SPIROCHAETES
1- Which of the following is NOT a serological test for syphilis:
a- Frei test
b- Fluorescent antibody test
c- VDRL test
d- TPI test
e- Wasserman test

2- A specific test used for serodiagnosis of syphilis is:

a- Wasserman test
b- VDRL test
c- Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)
d- Khan's test
e- Rapid plasma regain test (RPR)

3- Vincent's angina is a mixed infection caused by treponema Vincentii and ?

a- Borrelia recurrentis
b- Fusiform bacilli
c- Borrelia duttoni

17
 d- Treponema carateum
e- Treponema pertenue

1-a 2-c 3-b

Essays:

- Compare between Syphilis and soft Chancre

- Mention the different types of genus treponema and diseases produced by each of
them.
- Discuss Syphilis (Types, treatment and diagnosis)
- List the cause of the following diseases and treatment: Bejel, yaws and pinta
- Give an account about sero-diagnosis of syphilis
- spirochetes (groups, diagnosis)
- What is the disease caused by treponema pallidum. What are the stages of the
disease? Discuss briefly its diagnosis.
- Name and describe the causative agent of leptospirosis, discuss the pathogenicity,
clinical finding and treatment of this infection.
- Discuss the causative agents, pathogenesis and treatment for leptospirosis
- Borrelia-relapsing fever
- Classify spirochaetes into different genera. Mention the outstanding features and
disease(s) caused by each one of them
- What is the disease caused by trepanoma pallidum? What are the stages of these
diseases? Discuss briefly its diagnosis.

_______________________________________________________________________
Mycoplasma
1- All the following are associated with mycoplasmas EXCEPT:
a- Lack of rigid cell wall
b- Stain well with giemsa stain
c- Are resistant to penicillin
d- Cannot culture on artificial media
e- Produce atypical pneumonia

2- The following are true for mycoplasma EXCEPT:

a-has no cell wall
b-is a pathogenic fungus
c-Causes atypical pneumonia
d-Resistant to penicillin

18
 1-d 2-b

_____________________________________________________________________
Rickettsia – Coxiella

1- Rickettsia can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Obligate intracellular parasites
b- Small rods or cocci
c- Is best treated with sulfonamide
d- Having typical bacterial cell wall
e- Transmitted by vectors

2- Rocky mountain spotted fever is usually transmitted to man by:

a- Ticks
b- Mites
c- Lice
d- Fleas
e- Mosquitoes

3- Which of the following rickettsial disease is acquired primarily by inhalation:

a- Rickettsial pox
b- Endemic typhus
c- Rocky mountain spotted fever
d- Q.Fever
e- Epidemic typhus

4- Rickettsia best grow on:

a- Blood agar
b- Liquid medium
c- Yolk sac of chick embryos
d- Special media supplemented with 20% horse serum

5- The drug of choice for treatment of rickettsial disease is:

a- Tetracyclin
b- Sulfonamide
c- Penicillin
d- Aminoglycoside
e- Cephalosporine

6- The rickettsiae are considered as:

a- Yeast
b- Fungi
c- Viruses

19
 d- Bacteria
e- None of the above

7- Q fever is different from other rickettsial infections by all the following EXCEPT:
a- Is not associated with skin rash
b- Transmitted mainly by a vector
c- Transmitted by inhalation
d- Is stable outside the host cell
e- Does not give a weil-felix reaction

8- Fleas serve as a vector for:

a- Brill's zinsser disease
b- Epidemic typhus
c- Q.Fever
d- Endemic typhus
e- Rickettsial pox

9- Rickettsiae:
a- Can grow on ordinary media
b- Are disseminated by respiratory droplets
c- Are sensitive to penicillin
d- Are associated with skin rashes

10- Coxiella burnetii:

a- Cannot survive outside host cells
b- Can be isolated from saliva
c- Is the causative agent of Q.fever
d- Is associated with skin rashes

1-c 2-a 3-d 4-c 5-a

6-d 7-b 8-d 9-d 10-c

Essays:

1- Enumerate diseases of Ricickettsiae (causative agent, vector and its reservoir)

2- Talk about Ricickettsial diagnosis
3- Write about Q.fever (causative agent, pathogenesis, diagnosis, treatment and
control=vaccine)
4- Compare between Rickettsia and Coxiella
_____________________________________________________________________

20
 Chlamydiae
1- All are correct about Trachoma EXCEPT:
a- Can be treated with sulfonamide and tetracycline
b- Can occur in animal
c- Caused by chlamdiae
d- A disease limited to human
e- Is a chronic kerato-conjuctivitis

2- The following is true for Psittacosis EXCEPT:

a- Is a systemic infection of birds
b- Is caused by Chlamydia organizem.
c- The major source of infection is by eating infected meat of birds
d- Tetracycline is the drug of choice for its treatment
e- The causative organism cannot be isolated on artificial media

3- All are correct about psittacosis EXCEPT:

a- Is obligate intracellular parasite
b- Human usually contact the disease from infected birds
c- Produce atypical pneumonia
d- Is easily treated with sulfonamide
e- Is a chlamydial disease caused by Chlamydia psittaci

4- Chlamydia differ from true viruses by the following EXCEPT:

a- They possess both DNA & RNA
b- They are obligate intracellular parasite
c- They multiply by binary fission
d- They are sensitive to antibiotics
e- They possess bacterial-type cell wall

5- Inclusion conjunctivitis can be differentiated from trachoma by:

a- Demonstration of inclusion bodies
b- More marked involvement of upper eyelid
c- More marked involvement of lower eyelid
d- Equal involvement of both eyelids
e- Method of culture

1-b 2-c 3-d 4-b 5-d

Essays:

1- Chylamida trachomatis pathogenecity, symptoms and treatment

21
 2- What is the causative agent of trachoma? How does these microorganism produce
blindness (the mechanism). What is the diagnosis and treatment?
3- Discuss Lymphogranuloma Venereum
4- Comment on the epidemiology, pathogenesis, treatment and sort of samples
submitted to the lab for diagnosis of trachoma
5- Describe the general features of Chlamydia, classify into species. Name diseases
caused by each species, diagnosis and treatment of one of them.

___________________________________________________________________________
Actinomyces
1- All the following are true about actinomycetes EXCEPT:
a- They are gram positive
b- They can occur normally in the oral cavity
c- They possess branched mycelia
d- Sulfonamide is the drug of choice
e- They actually are filamentous bacteria

2- All are true about Norcardia spp. Except:

a- Are partially acid fast
b- Gram positive long filamentous
c- Produce sulfur granules
d- Treated with sulfadiazines

3- Actinomycetes are characterized by the followings EXCEPT:

a- Are Gram negative
b- Are anaerobic organism
c- Sulfur granules inducers
d- Are sensitive to penicillin

1-d 2-c 3-a

Essay:

- Give an account on Actinomycosis

_____________________________________________________________________

Mixed
22
 1- Urinary tract infection is NOT caused by:
a- Escherichia coli
b- Klebsiella pneumonia
c- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d- Proteus mirabilis
e- Shigella dysentriaeum

2- Urinary tract infection may be caused by the following EXCEPT:

a- Shigella sonnei
b- Escherichia coli
c- Streptococcus faecalis
d- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e- Proteus mirabilis

3- Urinary tract infection may be caused by the following EXCEPT:

a- Escherichia coli
b- Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c- Klebsiella spp
d- Streptococcus viridans
e- Proteus mirabilis

4- The man is the only host for:

a- Shigella flexneri
b- Salmonella entertidis
c- Compylobacter faetus
d- Brucella abortus
e- Yersinia pestis

5- The following disease is NOT a toxemia:

a- Scarlet fever
b- Tetanus
c- Plague
d- Diphtheria
e- Botulism

6- The following diseases are due to toxemia EXCEPT:

a- Diphtheria
b- Botulism
c- Scolded skin syndrome
d- Tetanus
e- Syphilis

23
 7- Ordinary milk pasteurization may NOT always eliminate all of the following EXCEPT:
a- Corynebacterium diphtheria
b- Streptococcus pyogens
c- Coxiella burnetri
d- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e- Staphylococcus aureus

8- The following disease in NOT a septicemia:

a- Subacute bacterial endocarditis
b- Diphtheria
c- Plague
d- Puerperal sepsis
e- Enteric fever

9- Aseptic meningitis is caused by:

a- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b- Haemophilus influenzae
c- Virus infection
d- Neisseria meningitidis
e- Escherichia coli

10- Which one of the following is always of clinical significance when present in sputum:
a- Escherichia coli
b- Salmonella typhi
c- Bacillus anthracis
d- Shigella flexneri

11- Which of the following is always of clinical significance when present in sputum
smear:
a- Gram positive cocci
b- Gram negative coccobacilli
c- Acid alcohol fast bacilli
d- Candida
e- Gram negative bacilli

12- The following organism does NOT circulate in blood:

a- Anthrax bacillus
b- Pneumococcus
c- Yersinia pestis
d- Corynebacterium diphtheria

24
 13- The following bacteria are causative agents of diarrhea EXCEPT:
a- Bacillus cereus
b- Vibrio parahaemolyticus
c- Clostridium perfringes
d- Campylobacter jejani.
e- Clostridium hystolyticum

14- The following disease will be presented as pyrexia of unknown origin EXCEPT:
a- Miliary tuberculosis
b- Infective endocarditis
c- Influenza
d- Brucelliasis
e- Enteric fever

15- Urine culture is performed on:

a- mid stream specimen
b- The first few mls of urine
c- Total 24 hours specimen
d- The last few mls of urine

16- Blood culture should be sent to micro lab for investigation of:

a- Rheumatic fever
b- Diphtheria
c- Tetanus
d- Acute epiglottitis

17- Burn infection is often associated with:

a- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b- Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c- Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d- Haemophilus influenzae
e- Salmonalla

18- The most common cause of neonatal meningitis is:

a- Escherichia coli
b- Haemophilus influenzae
c- Neisseria meningitides
d- Streptococcus faecalis

19- Over 95% of the normal flora of the faeces consists of:
a- Escherichia coli
b- Bacteroids

25
 c- Streptococcus faecalis
d- Enterobacter

20- Only 3-4% of the normal intestinal flora are species of:
a- Escherichis
b- Enterobacter
c- Pseudomonas
d- Bacteroids

21- Osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell anaemia is usually associated with infection
by:
a- Escherichia coli
b- Salmonella cholerasuis
c- Streptococcus viridance
d- Pseudomonas aeruginosa

22- A urine sample collected by suprapubic puncture from a healthy individual will
contain:
a- A normal flora as Staph. Epidermidis
b- Opportunistic pathogens as E. coli
c- Nonpathogenic diphtheroids of the urethra
d- No microorganisms

23- Blood culture is used for the investigation of:

a- Subacute bacterial endocarditis
b- Rheumatic fever
c- Enteric fever
d- Cholera

24- B.C.G. vaccine is:

a- killed bacteria
b- living attenuated bacteria
c- purified protein derivative
d- fluid toxoid
e- capsular polysaccharide

25- The following diseases are example of atypical pneumonia:

a- Q.fever
b- psittacosis
c- Legionnaires' disease
d- Lobar pneumonia

26- What is the most common causative agent of primary atypical pneumonia:
a- Klebsiella pneumonia
b- Mycoplasma pneumonia
c- Staphylococcus aureus

26
 d- Diplococcus pneumonia
e- Streptococcus pyogens

27- Anaerobic bacteria:

a- Streptococci
b- E.coli
c- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d- Clostridium

28- Thayer – Martin medium is suitable for transporting :

a. Staphylococci
b. Pneumococci
c. Meningococci
d. Haemophilus

29- Of the organisms listed below , which one is the most frequent bacteria cause of
acute osteomylitis:
a- streptococcus pyogens
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- pseudomonud aeruginosa
d- haemophilus influenzae
e- staphylococcus aureus

30- β-hemolysis is cauesd by

a. viridans streptocooci
b. enterococci
c. pneumococci
d. streptococcus pyogens

31- A culture of skin lesions from a patient with pyoderma shows numerous colonies
surrounded by a zone of B-hemolysis on a blood agar plate. A gram stain smear
shows gram positive cocci. If you found the catalase test to be negative, what would
you determine?
a- The bacteria are staphylococci.
b- The bacteria are streptococci.
c- The bacteria are pneumococci.
d- The bacteria are neither streptococci nor staphylococci.
e- The bacteria are E. coli.

32- The organism capable of spore formation is:

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogens
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Streptococcus pneumonia

33- Of the organisms listed below, which one is the most frequent bacteria cause of
pharyngitis:
a- Streptococcus pneumonia
b- Corynebacterium diphtheria

27
 c- staphylococcus aureus
d- Streptococcus pyogens
e- Haemophilus influenza

1-e 2-a 3-d 4-a 5-c 6-e 7-d 8-b 9- 10-c

a&c

11-c 12-d 13-e 14-c 15-a 16-d 17-a 18-a 19-a 20-a

21-d 22-d 23-a 24-b 25-c 26-b 27-d 28-c 29-e 30-d

31-b 32-c 33-d

Essays:

- Causes of atypical pneumonia and talk about one of them

- Name and describe the causative agent of subacute bacterial (infective)
endocarditis. Mention its pathogenesis, laboratory diagnosis and treatment.

- Name an organism that is:

a. Inducing fecal pollution of water____________
b. Used as a major agent of bioterrorism_________________
c. Lacking cell wall___________
d. Cannot be cultivated or grown on laboratory____________

-Name an organism that can cause:

a. pseudomembranous colitis_______________
b. Infection of implanted hip joint prosthesis________________
c. Necrotizing fasciitis (flesh eating bacteria__________________
d. Proctitis____________
e. waterhouse fredreichsen syndrome____________

Answer the following clinical cases:

A young 6-years old boy brought to the clinic by his mother, clinical diagnosis showed
abdominal pain and mucoid bloody diarrhea. Laboratory diagnosis showed non-motile, non-
lactose fermenter bacilli.

a) What is your diagnosis?

b) What is the causative organism?
c) What is the control and treatment of this disease?

28
A 6-years old child was seen by the physician because of low grade fever with sore throat.
On examination, a grayish membrane was seen covering one of the tonsils. The physician
gave immediate antitoxic serum, but the child fall down in a sudden hypotension and shock.

a) What is your provisional diagnosis of this infection?

b) Describe the pathogenesis and treatment of this infection.
c) How to control this disease?

A 35-years old man had a car accident. He had a deep lacerated wound in his leg. After
three days he developed fever and spastic paralysis of voluntary muscles. It started in the
muscles of the mastication and he had difficulty in opening his mouth. The spastic paralysis
extended in descending order together with convulsions.

a) What is your provisional diagnosis?

b) Mention the causative organism.
c) What is the pathogenesis of this case?
d) Mention the control of this disease.

A patient has chills, fever, headache, cough and chest pain. A history reveals that he raises
chickens and parrots and approximately two weeks ago lost a large number of them due to
undiagnosed disease. Sputum gram-stain revealed clear.

a) What is your provisional diagnosis?

b) Mention the causative organism.
c) What is the best choice for treatment?

A 66 years old man was seen in the clinic because of diarrhea. The stools were watery and
thin. Stool culture on alkaline peptone water revealed rapid growth of a surface pellicle.

a) What is the probably clinical diagnosis of this case

b) Mention the pathogenesis of diarrhea and describe the main treatment.
c) What measures are appropriate to prevent this infection?

29
 Virology

30
1- A virus which causes AIDS is:

a- Small pox virus.

b- Coxsackie B virus.
c- Mumps virus.
d- Rubella virus.
e- HIV-II virus.

2- A virus commonly transmitted by use of contaminated surgical tools & needles

produces a disease called serum hepatitis. This is:

a- Hepatitis A virus.
b- Hepatitis B virus.
c- Non A non B (hepatitis C) virus.
d- Delta agent.
e- Yellow fever virus.

3- Chicken pox rashes are:

a- Monomorphic in shape.
b- Centrifugal in distribution.
c- Deeply seated in location.
d- Heeled without disfigurement.
e- Caused by variola minor.

4- Throat & nasal swabs from a 4 months old infant suffering from acute lower respiratory
infection. Their laboratory examination revealed a large enveloped helical virus. The
infected cell cultures revealed on staining multinucleate giant cells with cytoplasmic
inclusions. The virus is probably:

a- Rhinovirus.
b- Corona virus.
c- Adenovirus.
d- Parainfluenza virus.
e- Respiratory syncitial virus.

5- All picorna viruses are:

a- Human pathogens.
b- Immunologically cross acting.
c- Not enveloped.
d- Not inactivated by gastric fluid.

31
6- A febrile viral disease characterized by infection & swelling of the parotid salivary glands
is produced by a large enveloped helical virus which produce hemadsorption of
erythrocytes to infected cells. This virus is:

a- Cytomegalovirus.
b- Coxsackie virus.
c- E.B virus.
d- Mumps virus.
e- ECHO virus.

7- A virus which is commonly associated with a mild disease called hand, foot & mouth
disease which appears in epidemic of families is:

a- Herpes simplex I.
b- Foot & mouth disease virus.
c- Coxsackie A16.
d- Varicella-zoster.
e- Rubella virus.

8- The antiviral effect produced by interferon is associated with inhibition of:

a- Virus adsorption on the cell.

b- Penetration of the virus into the cell.
c- Replication of the viral nucleic acid.
d- Translation of the viral mRNA to proteins.
e- Release of the virus from the cell.

9- Viral replication:

a- Occurs by binary fission.

b- Requires host cell macromolecules.
c- Occurs within the host cell lysosomes.
d- Can be prevented by antibiotics.
e- Can occur in synthetic media.

10- A helpful test in diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is the:

a- Paul-Bunnell.
b- Weil-felix.
c- Widal.
d- Wasserman.
e- Blood culture.

32
11- A 7 years old boy suffering from sore mouth, excessive salivation & fever. On
examination of the mouth, vesicles were observed & the gingivae were reddish & swollen.
The laboratory examination of the vesicular fluid revealed a large icosahedral enveloped
virus, by electron microscopy small pock lesion in the chorioallantoic membrane of chicken
eggs, & in cell cultures the CPE was in the form of microplaques. The virus is probably:

a- Coxsackie A virus.
b- Coxsackie B virus.
c- ECHO virus.
d- E.B virus.
e- Herpes simplex virus.

12- In tropical Africa most malignant tumors occurring in children are represented by:

a- Burkitt's lymphoma.
b- Hodgkin's disease.
c- Kaposi sarcoma.
d- Neurofibromatoma.

13- Dene particle can be isolated from:

a- Yellow fever.
b- Hepatitis A infection.
c- Hepatitis B infection.
d- Non A, Non B hepatitis.

14- Dendritic corneal ulcer can be treated with:

a- Thiosemicarbitone.
b- Adamantanamide.
c- Adenine arabinoside (Ara-A).
d- Penicillin.

15- Paul-Bunnell test is used in diagnosis of the following viral infection

a- Cytomegalovirus.
b- Epstein-barr virus.
c- Hepatitis A virus.
d- Hepatitis B virus.

33
16- Virus which contains the enzyme reverse transcriptase:

a- Influenza virus.
b- Small pox virus.
c- Rota virus.
d- Human immunodeficiency virus.
e- Respiratory syncitial virus.

17- A virus which contains a hemagglutinin & a neuraminidase is:

a- Rubella virus.
b- Adenovirus.
c- Reo virus.
d- Influenza virus.
e- Respiratory syncitial virus.

18- Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is usually transmitted by:

a- Respiratory secretions.
b- Contact with blood.
c- Sexual contact.
d- Fecal-oral route.
e- Mosquitoes.

19- The protein core which surrounds the nucleic acid of animal viruses is called:

a- Envelope.
b- Nucleocapsid.
c- Capsomer.
d- Capsid.
e- Heson.

20- Latency is an outcome particularly characteristic of which of the following viruses:

a- Polio viruses.
b- Rhino viruses.
c- Herpes viruses.
d- Influenza viruses.
e- ECHO viruses.

34
21- Dene particles:

a- Are found in hepatitis A virus infection.

b- Are found in hepatitis B virus infection.
c- Are found in hepatitis non A, non B virus infection.
d- Are found cultivated on tissue culture.
e- Are found cultivated in chick embryo.

22- In all DNA containing viruses. DNA is synthesized in the nucleus EXCEPT for:

a- Herpes viruses.
b- Adenoviruses.
c- Pox viruses.
d- Papovaviruses.
e- Parvoviruses.

23- Positive Paul-Bunnell test is the diagnosis of one of the following:

a- Varicella-zoster virus.
b- Cytomegalovirus.
c- E.B virus.
d- Measles virus.
e- Rubella virus.

24- Acyclovir is relatively safe & effective in the treatment of:

a- Respiratory syncitial viral infection.

b- AIDS.
c- Herpes encephalitis.
d- Influenza.
e- Hepatitis B infection.

25- All the following statements are true for rabies EXCEPT:

a- It has short incubation period.

b- It can be diagnosed by Negri bodies.
c- It can be treated by successful vaccine.
d- It is also known as hydrophobia.
e- Patients have excessive salivation.

35
26- The following statements are true for heres simplex virus EXCEPT:

a- It is an enveloped virus.
b- It can produce genital lesions.
c- It can produce fatal encephalitis.
d- It produces intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies.
e- It is associated with cervical cancer.

27- One of the following statements is NOT true for viruses:

a- Viruses contain either DNA or RNA.

b- Viruses lack mitochondria.
c- Viruses contain a protein coat.
d- Viruses multiply by binary fission.
e- Viruses require specific receptors to infect cells.

28- One of the following viruses is transmitted by mosquitoes:

a- Rubella virus.
b- Rabies virus.
c- Polyomyelitis virus.
d- Yellow fever virus.
e- Measles virus.

29- One of the following viruses produce eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies
called Negri bodies:

a- Herpes simplex virus.

b- Small pox virus.
c- Adenovirus.
d- Cytomegalovirus.
e- Rabies virus.

30- The following viruses spread by fecal-oral route EXCEPT:

a- Polioviruses.
b- ECHo viruses.
c- Hepatitis A viruses.
d- Narwalk agent.
e- Corona virus.

36
31- All the following viruses produce rash EXCEPT:
a- Small pox virus.
b- Vericella-zoster virus.
c- Coxsackie virus.
d- ECHO virus.
e- Rota virus.

32- All the following viruses are secreted in the saliva EXCEPT:

a- Hepatitis A virus.
v- Hepatitis B virus.
c- HIV virus.
d- Mumps virus.
e- Cytomegalovirus.

33- A virus which produces pocks in the chorioallantoic membrane of embryonated

chicken eggs is:

a- Adenovirus.
b- Influenza virus.
c- Mumps virus.
d- Herpes simplex virus.
e- Rabies virus.

34- Interferon prevents infection with viruses by:

a- Blocking their absorption to cells.

b- Blocking their penetration to cells.
c- Inhibiting their intracellular multiplication.
d- Cleaving their nucleic acid.

35- The genetic character of the virus is carried on the:

a- Core.
b- Capsid.
c- Envelope.
d- Non metabolic enzymes.

36- Supercoiled DNA:

a- A property of the brick-shaped big pox virus.

b- A character of papova viruses.
c- The linear molecule of ds DNA.
d- The linear molecule of ss DNA.

37
37- The following agents are considered as the cause of sexually transmitted diseases
EXCEPT:

a- Condyloma acuminatum.
b- Coliform.
c- Hepatitis B virus.
d- Ureaplasma.

38- Clinical syndrome caused by ECHO viruses include the following EXCEPT:

a- Respiratory tract infection.

b- Diarrhea.
c- Skin rash.
d- Congenital fetal defects.

39- Which of the following viruses does NOT contain DNA:

a- Cytomegalovirus.
b- Varicella-zoster virus.
c- Respiratory syncitial virus.
d- Variola virus

40-Dene Particles:

a- Are found in hepatitis A virus infection.

b- Are found in hepatitis B virus infection.
c- Are found in hepatitis non A,non B virus infection .
d- Are found cultivated on tissue culture.
e- Are found cultivated in chick embryo.

38
 Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer

1 E 16 D 31 E

2 B 17 D 32 C

3 D 18 D 33 D

4 E 19 B 34 B

5 C 20 C 35 A

6 D 21 B 36 B

7 C 22 C 37 B

8 D 23 C 38 D

9 B 24 C 39 C

10 A 25 A 40 B

11 E 26 D

12 A 27 D

13 C 28 D

14 C 29 E

15 B 30 E

39
Essays:

DNA viruses
1- Enumerate members of herps viride and talk about one ?
2- Give an account on the herps simplex ( clinical picture ,diagnosis and treatment )?
3- Give an account on the chicken pox (causative agent, clinical picture, diagnosis and
treatment )?
4- Give an account on the cytomegalovirus (clinical picture, mode of infection,
diagnosis, control and treatment)?
5- Give an account on the small pox (causative agent, clinical picture, diagnosis and
treatment)?
6- Compare between hepatitis A&B?
7- Give 2 examples of possible association of DNA viruses with malignancy, give
incidence for this association?

8- According to Ebstin-Bar Virus ( EBV),give the mode of

transmission,pathogenesis,diseased caused and LAB diagnosis.

RNA viruses
1- Mention difference between Ag drift & Ag shift & discuss the theories explaining the
major Ag changes ?
2- Enumerate members of paramyoxviride &talk about one (characters , mode of
transmission, diagnosis and control )?
3- Basis of classification of paramyoxviride according to the presence of spikes on the
envelop?
4- Enumerate members of picorna viride & talk about one (clinical picture , mode of
transmission, diagnosis and control )?
5- Give an account on measles (causative agent, clinical picture , mode of transmission,
diagnosis ,control and treatment )?
6- Compare between Salk vaccine & Sabin vaccine?
7- Diseases caused by coxsaki viride ?
8- Give an account on Rabies virus (clinical picture , mode of transmission, diagnosis
and control )?
9- Yellow fever pathogenesis ?
10- Dingo fever ( agent, symptoms, pathogenesis, diagnosis & treatment)?
11- Give an account on AIDS ( causative agent, route of infection, mode of transmission
& clinical picture )?
12- Viruses secreted in the saliva & discuss one ?
13- describe the pathogenesis of measles , What are the complication?

 Discuss how to prepare a media for cultivation of viruses , show different culture cell
lines and discuss the assay of viruses.
 list the different skin rashes causes , give the name of the virus and the name of skin
rash.

40
 Mycology

41
1-The following is a disease produced as a result of consumption food
contamination:

A. histoplasmosis
B. mycotoxicosis
C. abdominal actinomycosis
D. blastomycosis
E. coccidioidmycosis

2- A dimorphic fungus is the one that :

A. Produce artyro spores and chlamydospors

B. Invade hair and skin
C. Can grow as yeast and as mold
D. Reproduce both sexually and asexually
E. None of the above

3-the most satisfactory medium for isolation of fungus is:

A. Nutrient agar
B. sabouraud's dextrose
C. Chocolate agar
D. loeffler's serum
E. MacConkey agar

4- Which of the following Fungi commonly acquired by inhalation of spores

from soil contaminated with bird droping:

A. Sporoathrix schenckii
B. Blastomyces dermatidis
C. Histoplasma Encapsulatum
D. Geotricum candidum
E. Candida albicans

5-Which of the following disease starts as an allergy (asthma) to the fungus

itself:

A. Histoplasmosis
B. Aspergillosisis
C. Zygomycosis
D. Candidioses
E. Blastomycosis

42
6- All the following statements are true for rabies EXCEPT:

A. It has short incubation period

B. It can be diagnosed by Negri bodies
C. It can be treated as hydrophobia
D. Patients have excessive salivation

Short Essays:

1- Write about Candida Albican (types of infection,diagnosis and treatment)

2- Write short essay on candidiasis (types of infection, laboratory diagnosis

and treatment)

2- Discuss Oral Candidiasis?

3- Give an account on Mycotoxicosis ?

4- Discuss Dermatophytosis ?

5- About dermatophytes:

 What are dermatophytes?

 How they can spread?
 Discribe the shape for the lesion and list different features with their
site.
 Treatment.
6- Give an account on dermatophytes disease, name of skin lesions and
treatment.

7- In regard to dermatophytes:

 What are dermatophytes?

 How it spread
 Discribe the typical dermatophytes
 Name these lesions according to their location on body
 Mention the treatment of dermatophytes

43