Proof by Induction

Prove that:
∑
n
(r2 + 1)r! = n(n + 1)!
1

Case for n = 1:

2×1=1×2

It works! Which is nice.

Assuming this beast is true when n = k:

∑
k
(r2 + 1)r! = k(k + 1)!
1

Now working out what’s going on when n = k + 1:

(Note that we know, by the definition of what sums are, that,

∑
p+1
∑
p
f (r) = f (r) + f (p + 1)
1 1

(Also note that we know that, by the definition of what a factorial is:

(q + 1)! = (q + 1)(q!)

∑
k+1 ∑
k
∴ 2
(r + 1)r! = (r2 + 1)r! + ((k + 1)2 + 1)(k + 1)!
1 1
= k(k + 1)! + (k 2 + 2k + 2)(k + 1)!
= (k 2 + 3k + 2)(k + 1)!
= (k + 2)(k + 1)(k + 1)!
= (k + 1)(k + 2)!

∑n
∴ by induction, 1 (r
2
+ 1)r! = n(n + 1)!.