Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Jet Engine
Jet Engine
Jet Engine
Blade is an angle formed by a line perpendicular to the propeller shaft and line formed
by the
(a) Relative wind
(b) Apparent wind
(c) Chord of the blade
(d) Blade face
5. Velocity index should be high. High freezing point – at a cold atm the water contents
in the fuel in having tendency to form in a ice crystal
7. In twin spool engine, with constant N2, compressor inlet temperature is decreasing then
(a) N2 changes
(b) Fuel flow increases
(c) N1 decreases
(d) The ratio N1 is maintained constant
N2
12. If jet velocity and mass flow is constant for a jet engine then thrust
(a) Is maximum when aircraft speed is minimum
(b) Is maximum when aircraft speed is maximum
(c) Is more when jet velocity and inlet velocity are equal
(d) Is always constant
13. Water injection systems are provides for the jet engine for the thrust augmentation
the thrust augmentation for water injection can be caused and by two methods.
(a) By adding or injecting water at the compressor inlet
(b) By adding or injecting water at the differ section
Fig shown that a water tank made up of aluminum or sheet metal allows the water
flow a regulating
It then panes to the pressure regulating V/o of the diffuse and compressor inlet
thought which water injection in done by providing two manifolds at the diffuse and
compressor manifold.
A water heater is provided for the water to not formed ice in cold atm or cold weather
condition
A drain a/v provided to drain full water tank after are it is generally use of after
getting sufficient thrust by water injection
The energy stored in a dual capacitor and storage charger at a fule charge level and then
tenses the tube this caused charger when fully developed it induces in the primary
winding of the transformer (TRIGGER), which is of up to app 2000 V
This induces a appx of 20,000V to the secondary of the tram former winding and
which gives high intensity current flow thr ignite plug which gives spark
A bleeder resistance are provided for troiger capacitor to give protection for
excess voltage
Two igniter plug are used for capacitor discharge type cht for alternate operations
30. How many igniters are usually used on a turbine engine having nine burner cans?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Nine
31. The material used for jet engine is following main fine types
(a) Titanium
(b) Aluminum or Aluminum alloy
(c) Nickel bare alloy
(d) Nickel chrome alloy
(e) Steel or stainless steel
Titanium are high resistant to 1000 & corrosion and are used for fan blades and
sometime for compressor vanes
Aluminum or aluminum alloy are used for jet engine for its light weight characteristics it
is high resistant to corrosion heat
Nickel- chrome alloy’s re used fore turbine blades, which stands for high temperature
Steel or stainless steel alloy are used for rota vane or staten vane in an axial flow type jet
32. In an axial flow turbine engine, compressor bled air is sometimes used to aid in the
cooling of
(a) Oil
(b) IGV
(c) Fuel cooler
(d) Turbine
33. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the greatest filtering action?
(a) Micron
(b) Wire mesh
(c) Wafer screen
(d) Stacked charcoal
35. Mechanical integrity of the turbine as well as engine operating conditions of the
engine can be checked by
(a) Engine oil pressure
(b) Exhaust gas temperature
(c) Engine oil temperature
(d) Engine pressure ratio
7. Reduced cooling air requirements by 50 percent and decreased wt. By 20% is in which
system
(a) Airflim cooling
(b) Transpiration cooling
(c) Impergement cooling
(d) Finwall
13. Speed droop is common to all mechanical governors to reduce these problems
(a) Use a weaker spring
(b) Make metering valve narrow radially
(c) Decrease pressure difference across metering valve
(d) All of the above
20. In performance monitor ring all parameter are in increasing order then it shows
failure
(a) Turbine
(b) Compressor
(c) Combustion
(d) In let guidvave
23. For the maintenance purpose engine is divide in the two section, in hot section
(a) Turbine combustion exhaust nozzle
(b) Turbine, diffuser, exhaust nozzle
(c) HP compressor, combustion, exhaust nozzle
(d) HP compressor, combustion, turbine
24. FCU senses
(a) Rpm
(b) As I and CDP
(c) As 2 and EDP
(d) AS 3 AND cip
29. TSFC is
(a) Directly proportional to compression ration
(b) Indirectly
3. a. In axial flow compressor why gas flow path is made convergent explain
b. What is the advantage of squalor blades?
c. What is bleed band how to check explain?
4. a. If mass flow rate is 60 lb/sec/engine and exhaust gas velocity is 1300 ft sec for a
turbojet engine ready for the take off find out gross thrust of each engine
b. Draw by graph effect air thrust for following variable
(i) Speed of a/c
(ii) RPM
(iii) Altitude
(iv) OAT
1 C 11 A 21 A 31 A 41 D
2 C 12 B 22 A 32 A 42 D
3 D 13 A 23 A 33 A
4 A 14 D 24 A 34 A
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 A
6 D 16 D 26 A 36 D
7 D 17 B 27 A 37 A
8 A,D 18 D 28 C 38 B
9 D 19 A 29 B 39 A
10 D 20 B 30 A 40 C
JET ENGINE
2. When mechanical energy is converted into heat energy or vice versa an exact
equivalent exists between the two. This is stated in the
(a) First law of thermodynamics
(b) Second law of thermodynamics
(c) Third law of thermodynamics
(d) None of the above
8. (a) At high power settings the noise generated from the compressor blade is
predominant
(b) Noise from the compressor is of lower frequency
(c) Low frequency sounds can be attenuated easily
(d) None of the above
13.In a flight from Delhi to Bangalore, excess oil was consumed than required most
probable cause could be
(a) Defective centrifugal breather carbon seal
(b) Main oil filter contamination
(c) Oil leak from contamination
(d) Both a and b
14. In the relation P.V X T the term X is proportional
(a) Mass of the gas molecules
(b) No of gas molecules
(c) Pressure volume and temperature
(d) Average K.E of the molecules
15. If a system is perfectly conducting to the surroundings and the temp remains constant
the process is
(a) Isothermal
(b) Adiabetic
(c) P.V constant
(d) Both b and c
17. An airplane has an engine providing 4000 lb thrust at 300 m.p.h the thrust horsepower
is
(a) 4000 b.h.p.
(b) 3200
(c) 12800
(d) 5000
19. When change in pressure and volume of a gas take s place without change in
temperature the process
(a) Is very slow
(b) Obeys boyle’s law
(c) Adiabatic change is quick
(d) All of the above
22. After engine starts the engine hesitates for 5-6 seconds go for
(a) Surge bleed valve check
(b) Solenoid controller check
(c) Fuel pump functional check
(d) All of the above
1 B 11 A 21 B
2 A 12 B 22 ?
3 D 13 D 23 ?
4 A 14 C 24 B
5 ? 15 B 25 ?
6 A 16 B 26 ?
7 B 17 B
8 A 18 B
9 C 9 B
10 A 20 B
Jet Engine (Fed 2003 Session)
1. If jet velocity is 1288ft sec & airflow is 125lb what will be thrust produced?
(a) 4000 lb
(b) 6000 lb
(c) 5000 lb
(d) 3500 lb
2. If atmospheric temperature change but EGT remains unchanged during ground run but
every define high power cruise flight then snag/fault is in
(a) CIT
(b) CDP
(c) FCU
(d) FCU altitude adjuster
3. In a turbo fan engine airflow is 60 lb in both fan and core engine exhaust and velocities
are sec & -------- ft / sec what will be thrust produced?
(a) 1433 lb
(b) --------lb
(c) 5433 lb
(d) --------lb
5. FACDEC means
(a) Full authorized digital electronic control
(b) Full authorized digital electronic control
Answers: 14 – d, 15 – c, 16 – b, 17 – c, 18 – b, 19 – b, 20 – c, 21 – c, 22 – a, 23 – c,
24 – a.
25.What is the effect of combustion emissions?
(a) Populates surrounded area
(b)
(c)
(d)
31. During oil analysis mg is gived Hi then a practice gear of problem in gearbox
Answer: 25 - , 26 - , 27 – b, 28 – a, 29 – b, 30 – a, 31 - .
JET ENGINE SUBJECTIVE (FEB 2003 SESSION)
2. Wright the types of thrust reverser. Explain mechanical blockage type with sketch
7. What are causes of oil temperature high give remedial action for each cause?
9. Wright the operating principal of turbojet and ice separator inlet screen?
10. What are the forces acting on rotating propeller explain each?
12. Explain the procedure for finding ------------ of the oil engines?
16. Using Newton’s seonel 100 of notion derive formula for thrust calculation
17. What is the not streak explain give reason for streak
18. FFX, FPM & EGT northern what are causes remedial action?
32. In the good combustion chamber
(a) Increase velocity
(b) Diffuse
(c) Convert pr to kinetic energy
(d) As 1 or 2
37. If anti ice valve is operative in flight then what is positive mean of finishing that
anticity system working properly
(a) EGT increase
(b) RPM & EPR fluctuation
(c) Fuel flow rate
(d) As in 1 & 2
Answers: 32 – b, 33 – b, 34 – a, 35 - , 36 – d, 37 – a, d.
JET ENGINE (JUN 2003 SESSION)
TOTAL MARKS 80 TIME 2 HOURS
Answers: 1- b, 2- d, 3 - a, 4 - d, 5 - a, 6 - c, 7 - b, 8 – d, 9 – d, 10 – b.
11. Compressure blade is loose fit due to
(a) Reduce vibrational stress
(b) Ease of removal
(c) Temperature compensation
(d) All of above
12. If EPR reads 2.4 then turbine discharge pressure is 2.4 times of
(a) Inlet static pressure
(b) Inlet ram pressure
(c) Ambient pressure
(d) Compressure inlet total pressure
Answers: 11 – d, 12 – d, 13 – d, 14 – d, 15 – d, 16 – c, 17 – a, 18 – b, 19 – c, 20 – b,
21 – b, 22 – c, 23 – c.
24. Mark incorrect statement regarding combustion chamber drain valve
(a) Mechanically operation by spring force
(b) Failure of valve gives false start
(c) Located in LH or RH side bottom
(d) None of the above
36. What component prevent stall during low speed ground operation
(a) Bleed valve
(b) P & D Valve
(c) Chock Valve
(d) As 1 & 2
Answers: 24 – c, 25 – d, 26 – a, 27 – d, 28 – c, 29 – d, 30 – b, 31 – d, 32 – d, 33 – b,
34 – a, 36 – a.
37. During starting starter & fuel flow are ok, but hung start cuase is
(a) CDP sensor loss
(b) CIT loss
(c) -----------
(d) -----------------------
Answers: 37 – b, 38 – c, 39 – b, 40 – d, 41 – d, 42 – d, 43 – c, 44 – b, 45 – b, 46 – d,
47 – a, 48 – d, 49 – b.
50. In part EEC system
(a) Control till part throttle and then switch off.
(b) -----------------------------------------------------
(c) -----------------------------------------------------
(d) It is like FADEC
Answers: 50 - , 51 – b, 52 – a, 54, b, 55 – a, 56 - , 57 – a, 58 – a, 59 - , 60 – a.
JET ENGINE OCT 2003
62. MCS
(a) APU generator frequency is maintained by CSD and is constant speed rated
(b) APU does not have CSD in its operation and is constant speed rated
(c) APU generator requires axial flow compressor and is constant speed rated
(d) Both B and C are correct
63. MCS
(a) In turbo-jet TSFC increases as airspeed increases
(b) In turbo prop TSFC decreases as airspeed increases
(c) In turbo prop TSFC increases as airspeed increases up to 450 mph
(d) Both A and B are correct
64. MCS
(a) Temp drop through turbines is greater than that of temp rise through compressor
(b) Temp drop through turbine is same as the temp rise through same no of stages of
compressor
(c) Temp drop through turbine is about the same as that of temp rise through
compressor
(d) Temp drop through turbine is less that that of temp rise through compressor
65. TSFC is
(a) Directly proportional to the rpm
(b) Directly proportional to the efficiency
(c) Inversely proportional to the efficiency
(d) Directly proportional to the compressor ratio
Answers: 61 – d, 62 – a, 63 – d, 64 – c, 65 – c, 66 – a, 67 – c, 68 – b, 69 – b.
70. Function of P & D valve is
(a) Flow divider
(b) Dumping fuel after engine shut down
(c) Fuel pressure control
(d) All of the above
72. AME’s knows OAT is significantly shifted but TGT is same at ground. In the high
power run every thing is normal then snag is
(a) CIT system
(b) CPP system
(c) FCU temperature compensator
(d) Throttle missrig
79. ----------------------------------------------------
(a) ------------------------------------------------
(b) -----------------------------------------------
(c) ------------------------------------------------
(d) ------------------------------------------------
Answers: 70 – d, 71 – a, 72 – a, 73 – a, 74 – a, 75 – a, 76 – d, 77 - , 78 - , 79 - , 80 - .
1. Engine performance check needed
(a) To see mechanical integrity of the engine
(b) Instrument check
(c) Power check
(d) All are correct
3. MCS
(a) Compressor and turbine discs are forged by powder metallurgy
(b) Compressor blades and vanes are generally cast
(c) Turbine blades and vanes are made by lost wax method
(d) All are correct
9. MCS
(a) Igniter plugs have problem of corrosion of case, and after prolonged use it get
eroded
(b) The audible test for proper ignition check is not possible in synchronous ignition
(c) Iridium inserts are placed in the tip to prolong its lift
(d) All are correct
Answer: 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – d, 4 – d, 5 – b, 6 – c, 7 – a, 8 – b, 9 – d.
10. Engine inference
(a) Nozzle diaphragm area is measured at the exit of the vanes
(b) Total outlet area measured is the sum of all areas of the passages between the
vanes
(c) Nozzle area effects the efficiency of the engine
(d) All are correct
18. If bypass valve is fitted across the metering valve, and P1 is inlet pressure and P2 is
outlet pressure then constant fuel pressure differential is depends on (Tr.273)
(a) P2 – P2
(b) Orifice area
(c) Metering valve
(d) Bypass valve
Answers: 10 – d, 11 - , d, 12 – a, 13 – a, 14 – a, 15 – a, 16 - , 17 – a, 18 – d.
19. Two internal sections of an engine are subjected to different air per seel to be used
(a) Thread seal
(b) Ring seal
(c) Multi grooved seal
(d) Carbon seal
21. In a hydro mechanical torque meter if the temperature of oil is increased causes
(a) High torque reading
(b) Low torque reading
(c) No change
(d) Any of the above
23. MCS
(a) Electrical heaters are mostly preferred than pneumatic heating for anti-icing
system
(b) Isopropyl alcohol or phosphate compounds are used for deicing system
(c) Anti icing heating is commanded through cyclic timers
(d) None of the above
27. In test house first and last test carried out after overhaul is
(a) Vibration survey
(b) Hot air leak
(c) Engine power setting
Answers: 19 – c, 20 – a, 21 – b, 22 – b, 23 – d, 24 - , 25 – c, 26 – d, 27 - .
28. Factory ignition depends upon
(a) Volatility of fuel
(b) Specific gravity
(c) Viscosity
(d) As in A atomization
29. MCS
(a) Turbojet engines used annular combustion for shorter length
(b) Turbojet engines used reverse flow combustion for shorter length
(c) Turbofan engines give best performance
(d) B and C are correct
Answers: 28 – d, 29 – d, 30 – b, 31 – a, 32 – c, 33 – a, 34 – a, 35 - b 36 – c.
37. Most commonly used oil in gas turbine engine is
(a) Petroleum
(b) Akyl diestar
(c) Polyester
(d) Mineral
38. Mark INCORRECT statement
(a) Screen type filter is used in low pressure
(b) Cartridge type filter is used in low pressure
(c) Screen disk type filter is used in low pressure
(d) Cone shaped filter element is used in screen type filter
40. MCS
(a) For a given torque weight of starter generator is less than air turbine starter
(b) Starter generator windings are separate
(c) Duty cycle of starter generator is more critical than air turbine starter
(d) None of the above
45. MCS
(a) Oil bypass valve is installed at inlet
(b) Oil flow through passages depend on the operation
(c) If problem occurs fuel will flow into oil
(d) All are correct
Answers: 37 – c, 38 – c, 39 – b, 40 – b, 41 – d, 42 – b, 43 – d, 44 – b, 45 – c.
46. Thrust of turbofan measured in test cell by
(a) EPR
(b) EPR/NI
(c) Torque meter
(d) Thrust meter
49. MCS
(a) The seal which rides on highly polished surface is carbon seal
(b) Carbon seals are used in vent pressurization system
(c) Both A and B are correct
(d) None of the above is correct
Answers: 46 – d, 47 – b, 48 – b, 49 – a, 50 – c, 51 – d, 52 – b 53 – b.
55. P & D valve senses
(a) Electrical signal
(b) Rpm
(c) Inter stage pump pressure
(d) All of above
Answers: 55 – c, 56 – c, 57 – a, 58 – a, 59 – a, 60 – a, 61
JET ENGINE (GAS TURBINE ENGINE)
(OCT 2000)
ESSAY
OBJECTIVE
1. A large jet engine handles 100 lb. Sec of air the velocity of this air at the jet nozzle is
659 mph what is the thrust of the engine
F MA F = (Wa / g) A = (100/32.2) (659*1.467) = 3002 LB **(initial speed = 0)
3. MCS
1. The rated net thrust of any engine is determined by how much the forward thrust forces
exceed the rearward forces
4. MCS
1. At higher altitude pressure continues to drop sharply W.R.T temperature resulting
Sharp drop in thrust
5. MCS
1. Brayton cycle called open cycle
8. British thermal unit is a standard measure of energy defined as the amount of energy
reqd to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water to 1-degree faranhit at
(a) Constant pressure
(b) Constant volume
(c) Constant mass
(d) None of the above
10. A unique cooling concept reduces cooling air requirements by 50% & decrease
weight by 20% the combustor is
(a) Annular
(b) Can annular
(c) Can type
(d) Fin wall
16. For the fuel pump containing two stages the possible connections are
(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) Series-parallel
(d) All above
2. Turbojet engines having axial-flow compressors have what type of rear bearing
(a) Ball
(b) Roller
(c) Taper-roller
(d) Needle-nose
3. Some high volume turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with tow spool or split
compressors. When these engines are operated at high altitude
(a) Throttle must be retarded to prevent over speeding of the two comp. Rotors due to
low density air
(b) Throttle must be retarded to prevent over speed of H.P rotor due to low density air
(c) L.P rotor will decrease in speed as compressor load decreases in lower density air
(d) L.P rotor speed does not change with altitude
5. The most modern method of cooling turbine blade and nozzle vanes is
(a) Design of hollow blades and hollow nozzle vanes
(b) Film cooling of vanes and blades
(c) Reducing T.I.T
14. In an axial flow turbine engine what type of rear bearing is mostly used?
(a) Ball bearing
(b) Roller bearing
(c) Tapered roller bearing
18. What would be the possible cause of a gas turbine engine to have as high EGT high
fuel flow and low r.p.m. At all engine power settings?
(a) Insufficient electrical power to the instant bus
(b) Fuel control out of adjustment
(c) Loose or corroded thermocouple
(d) Turbine damage of loss of turbine efficiency
19. The speed of high pressure compressor is less than that HPT because ?
(a) Turbine has more no of blades
(b) Turbine and compressor have same no of blades
(c) Turbine operates at high temperatures
(d) Turbine area is more
21. Work done W by the compressor as shown when Sp is the specific heat, is expressed
as
(a) W = Sp (T1 – T2) / m
(b) W = Sp. m. (T2 – T1)
(c) W = m. (T2 – T1) / Sp
(d) W = m. Sp (T1 – T2)
22. For a particular setting the compressor r.p.m. on a hot day compared to a standard day
will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain same
(d) Nothing can be said firmly
26. A tachometer reads 100% when it is being driven at 4200 r.p.m. If the tachometer
drives gear ratio is 0.428:1, what is actual speed of the compressor?
28. Match the following in pick up and O/p and O/p signals of the following instruments
(a) Thermocouple D.C voltage
(b) Accelerometer Charge thermocouple d.c. voltage
(c) Speed tachometer D.C signal speed tachometer – a.c. signal
(d) Electronic fuel flow A.C. signal vibration pick – up – a.c.
33. In the adjoining figure, why are the curves for real and ideal conditions different?
(a) Since air is not treated as a compressed gas
Surge
Buzz Supersonic
Positive incidence stall Rear stage stall at high speed
Negative incidence stall front stage stall at high speed
35. Mark the correct statement regarding the cleaning of various engine sections
(a) Hot section cleaning statement is done by
(b) Cold section cleaning is done by vapour degreasing and
(c) Trichloroethylene is not suitable for titanium
(d) All are correct
Square law Crack pressure Better pr. At low pr. Inverted flow chamber
Simplex Duplex Centrifugal Pre-vaporization
Duplex Duplex Centrifugal Prevapourisation
Simplex Simplex Prevapourisation Centrifugal
Duplex prevapourisation Centrifugal Pre-vaporization
High oil pressure Oil quantity increases at tank Partially blocked P & D
Defective pump Breather pressure leak Hot start
Seal is broken FCOC leak Hung start/No start
45. F.C.U is running at idle. If OAT increases idle r.p.m. is constant, it is due to
(a) C.I.T adjustment
(b) Defective throttle Idle r.p.m = fn. (C.I.T.)
(c) Speed sensor C.I.T. = fn. (OAT)
(d) C.D.P adjustment
46. If an engineer finds that the EGT reading is less than that of normal it may be dure
(a) Faulty electrical harness
(b) Wire length is shortened during maintenance
49. If an engine has been started using all components normal and hung start occurs, it
may be due to
(a) Closure of surge bleed valves
(b) Opening of surge bleed valves
(c) Lack of lubrication in the bearing
50. If the CSU (constant speed unit) fails, the pilot will maintain
(a) At climb, the r.p.m. Is maintained at climb r.p.m.
(b) At cruise, coarse pitch is constant
(c) At climb, the pilot increase throttle to fly at level flight condition
54. Exhaust nozzle is changed due to heat after long operation. It will cause
(a) The thrust to reduce for the amount of fuel flow
(b) The thrust will increase with increase in EGT.
(c) No appreciable change in thrust or EGT as area is the same
(d) The thrust will increase due to increase of fuel flow due to more airflow through
inlet
56. Bore scope inspection is does through the holes given. During inspection the HPT
shaft is rotated
(a) By removing the starter and rotate through the starter engagement gears
(b) By a drive pad provided for this purpose in the AGB section of the engine
(c) After removing the c/c only, B.S.L can be done
(d) 7/8” socket and spanner attached in the hand cranking pad
57. If the adjustment of the P & D valve on the FCU is lower than normal then
(a) Hot start
(b) Hung start
58. After engine light up the state does not cut off. The probable cause is
(a) Starter cut-off circuit is faulty
(b) Starter drive spring is weak
(c) Starter bleed valve does not close
(d) Either (a) or (b) is correct
61. L.O.P light illuminates during flight, what are the other parameters (associated with
the same) that the pilot has to check on the cockpit indicators?
(a) EGT and r.p.m indicators for the engine malfunction
(b) N1 r.p.m. Gauge and oil temperature
(c) Filter clogging light and EGT
(d) No indicators to check but to cut-off the engine.
62. In the inlet of the hydraulic pump is blocked, what will happen? (Check Feb. 96)
63. In the pressurized chamber of the bearing sump area overboard drain is provided.
This prevents
(a) Compressor air contamination
(b) Inward air flow to the chamber
(c) Oil tank overflow
(d) None of the above
66. A turbofan engine, with a hydro-mechanical FCU shows constantly poor r.p.m. Pick-
up to maximum power. To detect the snag, mark the correct statement
(a) C.D.P. sensor and N1 Cr
(b) C.I.T. sensor and N2 Cr
(c) R.p.m. sensor
(d) Governor problem
67. The power turbine turbo-shaft is running at higher r.p.m. There is a loss of oil
pressure. The most probable cause is
(a) The relief valve stuck in closed position
(b) The relief valve is jammed in open position
(c) Filter clogged
(d) Oil spray jet clogged
68. Which of the following condition, for long time storage of engine
(a) Lip
(b) Cup
(c) Carbon-rubbing
(d) All are correct
69. Engine operation inspection is O.K. except flame out during deceleration. The most
likely cause is
(a) Acceleration and deceleration valve
(b) Minimum flow valve setting
(c) Maximum flow valve setting
(d) Governor setting (for maximum speed)
70. Match the following condition, for long time storage of engine
(a) Intake
(b) Fuel system
(c) Compressor
(d) Exhaust
4. MCS
(a) The gap at igniter plug is such wider than that of spark plug
(b) As in a tip of igniter plugs not permitted to clean
(c) The ignition of gas turbine eng., is not continuous as used in piston eng
(d) All are correct
12. MCS
(a) Pr pump is gear type scavenge pump is centrifugal type
(b) Pr. Pump is venk type sev pump is gear type
(c) Both of gear type
(d) Pr. Pump is vent type & sev is vene type
15. MCS
(a) Geometric pitch is the distance a propeller should mores fwd in one complete
rev.,
(b) Effective pitch is the actual distance a prop move fwd in one complete rev.
(c) Slip is difference between geometric & effective pitch
(d) All are correct
16. Reverse pitch prop
(a) Uses far reducing landing roll
(b) When used high fuel is consumed
(c) All are correct
20. The temp of air is higher in rear stages of comp. This is due to
(a) Diffusion action
(b) Mechanical work. Done by rotor with an
(c) Mechanical energy is converted into heat energy
(d) All are correct
26. MCS
(a) Temp drop takes places thru the turbine i.e. approx equivalent to the temp rise
occurred in the comp
(b) Temp drop takes place than the turbine is much greater than the temp rise of the
comp
30. A BURNER design, which reduces cooling air req. by 50% & dec., burner wt., by
20% is
(a) Float wall
(b) In wall
(c) Annular
(d) Reverse flow
35. MCS
(a) In two wire thermal s/w type fire detection can withstand either an open or a short
& still remain in function
(b) In fenwal type also
(c) A & B are correct
36. MCS
(a) In nozzle diaphragm area is measured at the exit of the vanes
(b) Total area is sum of all areas between the vane
(c) Nozzle area effects the efficiency of the eng
(d) All are correct
37. MCS
(a) Pr. Of supersonic air as it flows that the convergent nozzle inc
(b) As in a pr. Of super sonic air is flows thru a convergent nozzle is inversely
proportional to the temp
(c) As in a the pr of supersonic air as it flows thru convergent nozzle is directly
proportional to the temp.
(d) The pt. of supersonic air is it flows thru convergent nozzle dec.
40. Fuel is delivered at high-pressure thru the fact control unit thru
(a) Gear type pump
(b) Centrifugal boost type
(c) Gear type & centrifugal boost pump
(d) Filter, gear type pump & centrifugal pump
47. When an eng is operation without its antince valve on epr inc., when other parameters
readings are normal the reason
(a) Ice formed the inlet cowling causing low piston PIC probe parts act as PS2
(b) Causing high pr. On PT2 probe
(c) Fuel malfunction
(d) Rise is engine pr ratio indication in cockpit
4. The advantages with split spool compressor over single spool compressor is
(a) Better compression ratio and surge margin
(b) More turbine wheels can be used
(c) The velocity of air entering the combustion chamber is increased
(d) Number of bearings required is reduced
5. To produces a thrust of 9600 lbs a jet engine consumes 900 gallons of fuel per hour.
Given that one gallons of fuel weighs 8 lbs. What is the thrust specific fuel consumption
of the engine?
(a) 0.075 lbs/hr/lb thrust
(b) 0.750 lbs/hr/lb thrust
(c) 1.330 lbs/hr/lb thrust
(d) None of the above
6. Compressor blades are not rigidly fixed but a slight movement is allowed in order to
(a) Provide flexibility for blade replacement
(b) Provide tolerance for blade expansion
(c) Reduce vibration stresses produced by high velocity air stream
(d) All the above
7. Turbine blades creep with increase is temperature and operating time. This means
(a) The blades elongates
(b) Blade wears out
(c) The blade losses its toughness
(d) All the above
8. Which of the following engine casing is the hottest during engine run
(a) H.P turbine casing
(b) L.P turbine casing
(c) Jet pipe
(d) Combustion chamber casing
9. What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal flow
unit?
(a) Easier maintenance
(b) High frontal area
(c) Less expensive
(d) Greater pressure ratio
11. Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in aircraft turbine
engines.
(a) Variable can annular and cascade vanes
(b) Annular variable and cascade vane
(c) Can multiple can and variable
(d) Multiple can, can annular, and annular.
13. Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single
shaft?
(a) To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly
(b) To straightened the airflow before it entered the exhaust area
(c) To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine
(d) Decrease temperature there by increasing pressure
14. What is the purpose of directing bleed air to the bearing compartment?
(a) It increases oil pressure for better lubrication
(b) It provides a high volume of oil to the most critical bearings
(c) It heats the oil to the proper operating temperature
(d) It heats the oil to the bearing compartments.
15. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air density of a turbine engine?
(a) The turbine inlet temperature
(b) The altitude of the aircraft
(c) Compression ratio
(d) The turbine and compressor efficiency
16. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the compressor of a turbine engine will
form a coating on all but which of the following
(a) Turbine blades
(b) Compressor blades
(c) Casings
(d) Inlet guide vanes
18. In the twins spool compressor system the first stage turbine drives the
(a) N – 1 compressor
(b) N – 2 compressor
(c) N – 1 & compressor
(d) The fan.
25. In a turbine engine with a dual spool compressor the low speed compressor
(a) Always turns at the same speed compressor, the low speed compressor
(b) Is connected to the high-pressure compressor through a reduction gear.
(c) Seeks its own best operating speed
(d) Is coupled to the high-speed turbine mechanically but through a reduction gear.
26. How many ignitions are normally used on a turbine engine having nine burner cans?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Nine
(d) Eighteen
27. Using standard atmospheric conditions the standard sea level temperature is
(a) 15 degrees C
(b) 0 degrees F
(c) 0 degrees C
(d) 273 degrees K
28. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation?
(a) Compressor inlet air temperature
(b) Compressor outlet air temperature
(c) Burner can pressure
(d) Turbine inlet temperature
29. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbo jet engine experienced?
(a) At the outlet of the burner section
(b) At the entrance of the turbine section
(c) At the outlet of the tail pipe sections
30. What turbine engine sections provides for proper mixing of the fuel and air?
(a) Combustion section
(b) Turbine sections
(c) Diffuser sections
(d) Compressor sections
GAS TURBINE ENGINES – MODEL PAPER
13. What is the purpose of directing bleed air to the bearing compartment?
(a) It seals the oil in the bearing compartment
(b) It seats the oil to the proper operating temperature
(c) It provides a high volume of oil to the most critical bearings
(d) It increase the oil pr for better lubrication
14. It the water injection system operation the addition of methanol will
(a) Restore turbine inlet temperature
(b) Bringdown N2 rpm
(c) Lower freezing point of water
(d) Both a and c are correct
15. Mark the correct statement regarding thrust resources
(a) Mixed exhaust type engines need only one resources
(b) In high by pass turbo fans, recourse of secondary air is more effective than that of
primary air
(c) Both primary and secondary how are reversed by using separate reverses
(d) All of the above statements are correct
16. Rotation pad on the accessory G.B is provided for
(a) Filtering alternate tacho-generator
(b) For N2 rotation
(c) To facilitate fan balancing
(d) All the above statements are correct
20. The fire detection system that uses a single course surrounded by a temperature
sensitive insulating medium in a tube is
(a) Fenwal system
(b) Kiddie system
(c) Thermocouple system
(d) Squists system
22. Thrust reverse utilizing a pneumatic actuating system usually receive air from
(a) The engine bleed air system
(b) An on board reciprocating compressor
(c) One or more high pressure air battles
(d) Environmental control system.
23. The rearward thrust capacity of an engine with the thrust reverse system deployed is
(a) Less tharits forward capacity
(b) Equal to or less than its forward capacity depending on ambient conditions and
system design
(c) Equal to its forward capacity
(d) More than its forward thrust capacity since engine bleeds are kept closed
28. The air and oil are separated in a jet engine oil system by returning the scavenge oil to
(a) The bottom of the reservoirs
(b) The deairator at the top of the reservor temp
(c) The pressurized tank
(d) To the centrifugal separator
29. The net reverse thrust available on a high by pass engine having only tan revouser is
approxionately
(a) 40 %
(b) 80%
(c) 60%
(d) 100%
30. In a jet engine otherwise behaving normally there are reports of flameout during
descent the problem is
(a) Metering orifice in FCU clogged
(b) Minimum flow valve malfunciton
(c) Fan exit guide vane icing
(d) Malfunction of acceleration and deceleration valve
31. On a jet engine the EGT reading is high as noticed by he AME during comparison
check in transit. The cause could be
(a) Party compressor blades
(b) One of the thermocouple probes is open circuit
(c) Turbine blade rub at periphery
(d) Both A & C are correct
32. In and engine with hydromechanical system F.C.U pilot reports engine acceleration
without throttle movement the possible cause is
(a) Loss of spad sense
(b) Loss of CDP sense
(c) C.I.T sensor failure
(d) Any one of the above
35. If the crack pressure adjustment of the pressuring valve is on the lower ride that
required than
(a) Secondary fuel will flow carlier
(b) Start EGT will be higher
(c) Stall margin will be reduced
(d) All above is correct
36. What is the possible cause when a turbojet engine indicates no change in power
setting parameters lent oil temperature is high
(a) Gear box real leakage
(b) Engine main bearing distress
(c) High oil sump pressure
(d) Oil scavenge pump not effective
37. Mark the incorrect match
(a) Turbo prop Best TSFC
(b) Turbo jet Best thrust to weight ratio
(c) Rocket maximum air consumption
(d) High by pass jet least noise
38. Why is the necessary to control acceleration and deceleration rates of turbine engines
(a) To prevent blow out due to rich
(b) To enable to heat and cool the engine at controlled rates
(c) To prevent friction between turbine wheels and the case due to expansion and
contraction
(d) To operate engine at optimum fuel consumption
39. When the pilot selects water injection during take of which of the following
observation is true?
(a) The engine r.p.m rises
(b) The engine r.p.m. Rises and J.P.T gas slightly above acceptable limit
(c) J.P.T increases
(d) Fuel consumption becomes less that normal due to water addition
40. Turbine blades air more susceptible to operation damage than compressor blades
because of
(a) Higher centrifugal loading
(b) Exposure to high temperature
(c) High pressure and high velocity gas flow
(d) All the above
41. What is the first engine instrument indicating successful start of a turbine engine?
(a) L.P.S spool rotation
(b) Rise in exhaust gas temperature
(c) Rise in oil pressure
(d) Rise in engine fuel flow
42. Hot section inspection for many modern turbine engines are required
(a) Only at engine overhaul
(b) Only when an over temperature or speed is reported
(c) On a time or cycle basis
(d) During every C of A renewal
SEMESTER IV
1. A severs condition of chafing or fretting in which a transfer of meal from one part to
another occurs. If called
(a) Gouging
(b) Burning
(c) Erosion
(d) Galling
3. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible indicator of
(a) Foreign object damage
(b) Faulty igniter plugs
(c) Dirty compressor blades
(d) Malfunctioning fuel nozzles
5. What is the purpose of the pressurization and dump valve used on turbo jet engine?
(a) Controls the pressure of the compressor outlet by dumping air when pressure
reaches an established level.
(b) Allows fuel pressurization of the engine when starting and operating and dumps
fuel pressure of engine shutdown
(c) Controls compressor stall by dumping compressor air under certain condition
(d) Maintain fuel pressure to the fuel control valve and dumps excessive fuel bake to
the fuel tanks
8. Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in a/c turbine engines
(a) Variable, can-annular, and cascade vane
(b) Annular, variable and cascade vane
(c) Can multiple can, and variable
(d) Multiple can, annular, and can annular
9. Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single
craft?
(a) To facilities balancing of the turbine assembly
(b) To straighten the airflow before it enters the exhaust area
(c) To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine
(d) To extract more power from the exhaust gases than a single wheel can absorb
15. Which of the following is the safest fire-extinguishing agent to use from a standpoint
of toxicity and corrosion hazards?
16. Which of the following is not used to detect fires in reciprocating engine necellers?
(a) Smode detectors
(b) Overheat detectors
(c) Rate of temp rise detectors
(d) Flame detectors
17.What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop fire detector system sensor?
(a) Fuse material which melts at high temp
(b) Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temp
(c) A conventional thermocouple which produces a current flow
(d) A bimetallic thermo switch which closes when heated to a high temp
18. Why does the fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired in parallel
between two separate circuits?
(a) A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction
(b) This installation is equal to two systems a prime system and a reserve system
(c) The duel terminal thermo switch is used so that one terminal is wired to a bell the
other to a light
(d) A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.
19. Which of the following fire detector system measures temp rise compared to a
reference temp?
(a) Fenwal continuous loop
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Thermal switch
(d) Lindberg continuous element
22. In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system the first stage turbine drives
the
(a) N1 and N2 compressors
(b) N4 compressor
(c) N2 compressor
(d) N1 compressor
23. Cracks may occur in hot section components of a turbine engine if they are marked
during inspection with
(a) A lead pencil
(b) Chalk
(c) Layout dye
(d) Any of the above
24. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if the engine.
(a) Exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits
(b) Falls to reach idle RPM
(c) RPM exceeds specified operating speed
(d) Pressure ratio exceeds specified operating limits
25. What are the two main sections of a turbine engine for inspection purposes?
(a) Combustion and exhaust
(b) Hot and cold
(c) Compressor and turbine
(d) Combustion and turbine
27. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on a turbine engine?
(a) Retime engine
(b) Recalibrate the fuel nozzles
(c) Retrim the engine
(d) Recheck the flame pattern
28. What is the most satisfactory method of attaching turbine blades to turbine wheels?
(a) The fire-tree design
(b) The tongue and groove design
(c) High temp high strength design
(d) Press fit method
29. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on both sides of the impeller is a
(a) Single entry centrifugal compressor
(b) Double entry centrifugal compressor
(c) Double entry axial flow compressor
(d) Single entry axial flow compressor
30. What is the first engine instrument indication of successful start of a turbine engine?
(a) A decrease in the exhaust gas temperature
(b) A rise in the engine fuel flow
(c) A decrease in the engine pressure ratio
(d) A rise in the exhaust gas temperature
37. Reciprocating engine fuel injection carburetor not developing full power may be due
to
(a) Propeller balancing out
(b) Carburetor idle RPM adjustment not correct
(c) AMC defective
(d) Cylinder head cooling fin cracked
45. The active clearance control portion of an eec system aid turbine engine efficiency by
(a) Adjusting start vane position according to operating condition and power
requirement
(b) Ensuring compressor and turbine blade to the engine laseing clearance are kept a
minimum by controlling case temperature
(c) Automatically adjusting engine spaced to maintained a desire EPR
50. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of turbine engine perfomance
check of alternate fuel is used?
(a) Fuel sp gravity adjustment
(b) Maximum RPM adjustment
(c) EPR KG gauge calibration
(d)
51. MIL F- 4624A. ATF – JP – 4 Fuel commonly used on gas turbine engine because
(a) High calorific value of fuel
(b) Specific gravity and vapour pressure low
(c) Good lubrication properties
(d) All above
53. What are the main input parameters in fuel controller unit monitors fuel flow
(a) Compressor inlet pressure compressor RPM and turbine inlet pressure
(b) Compressor inlet pressure compressor RPM compressor pressure ratio
(c) Compressor inlet temperature burner pressure, tail pipe temperature
(d) Compressor inlet pressure, burner pressure and compressor RPM
54. Which type of engine driven fuel pump are mostly used on turbine engine
(a) Vane tyupe
(b) Double gear element (Series)
(c) Centrifugal pump
(d) Double gear element (parallel)
60. Under which of following conditions will be trimming of turbine engine will be most
accurate?
(a) Low moisture and tail wind
(b) Aircraft should be parked in cross wind and high humidity
(c) All fuel tank must be full and rear cargo ballasted
(d) Aircraft parked engine facing wind and after engine warmed go stabilize
temperature
61. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of the turbine
blades of turbojet engine?
(a) Stretch
(b) Elongation
(c) Distortion
(d) Creep
62. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a turbofan engine?
(a) Engine over speed
(b) Engine over temperature
(c) Large rapid throttle
(d) FOD
63. Compressor stall is caused by
(a) A low angle of attack airflow through the first stages of compression
(b) A high angle of airflow in the through the first stages of compression
(c) A high velocity airflow in the engine inlet
(d) Rapid engine deceleration
65. How many igniter are normally used on a turbine engine having burner cans?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Nine
66. Which of the following is used to minotor the mechanical integrity of the turbines as
well as to check engine operating conditions of a turbojet engine?
(a) Engine oil pressure
(b) Engine gas temperature
(c) Engine oil temperature
(d) Engine pressure ratio
67. Which of the following can inspect and approve an engine major repair for return to
service?
(a) Certificated mechanic with airframe and power plant ratings
(b) Certificated mechanic with a power plant ratings
(c) Certificated mechanic with inspection authorization
(d) Designed mechanic examiner
68. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible indicators of
(a) Foreign object damage
(b) Faulty igniter plugs
(c) Dirty compressor blades
(d) Malfunctioning fuel nozzles
69. The fuel flow in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible indicators of
(a) Fuel mass-flow
(b) Fuel volume flow
(c) Engine burner pressure drop
(d) Fuel viscosity flow
70. Which of the following conditions is usually not acceptable to any extent in turbine
blades?
(a) Cracks
(b) Nicks
(c) Pits
(d) Dents
71. Which of the following I the ultimate limiting factor of turbojet engine operation?
(a) Compressor inlet air temperature
(b) Compressor outlet air temperature
(c) Turbine inlet temperature
(d) Burner can pressure
72. The oil used in reciprocating engine has a relatively high viscosity due to
(a) The reduced ability of thin oils to maintain adequate film strength at altitude
(reduced atmosphere pressure)
(b) The relatively high rotational speeds
(c) Its lower oxidation rate at elevated temperature
(d) Large clearances and high operating temperature
73. The type of lubricating oil that is used in a turbine aircraft engine is
(a) Synthetic
(b) Petroleum
(c) 50-50 blend of petroleum and synthetic
(d) 30-70 blend of petroleum and synthetic
75. In a reciprocating engine oil system, the temperature bulb senses oil temp
(a) And indicates the average oil temp
(b) At point after the oil has passed through the oil cooler
(c) While the oil is in the hottest area of the engine
(d) Immediately before the oil enters the oil cooler
76. What is the purpose of an augmenter used in some reciprocating engine exhaust
systems?
(a) To reduce exhaust back pressure
(b) To aid cooling the engine
(c) To assist in displacing the exhaust gases
(d) To augment the surface area of the exhaust extension
77. How do cowl flaps aid in cooling a horizontally opposed aircraft engine?
(a) Furnishes ram air to the engine cylinders
(b) Directs air through the engine cylinders
(c) Stremlines the engine
(d) Controls the amount of air passing around the engine
78. Power recovery turbine used on some reciprocating engine are driven by the
(a) Exhaust gas pressure
(b) Crankshaft
(c) Velocity of the exhaust gases
(d) Fluid drive coupling
81. How do the turbines, which are driven by the exhaust gases of a turbine compound
engine, contribute to total engine power output?
(a) By driving the crankshaft through suitable couplings
(b) By causing the exhaust back pressure to remain below atmosphere pressure at all
operating altitudes
(c) By driving the supercharger thus relieving the engine of the super charging loud
(d) By converting the latent heat energy of the exhaust gases into thrust by collecting
and accelerating them
84. Excessive valve clearance will cause the duration of valve opening to
(a) Increase for both intake and exhaust valves
(b) Decreases for both intake and exhaust valves
(c) Decreases for intake valves and increases for exhaust valves
(d) Increases for intake valves and decreases for exhaust valves
86. What is an advantages of using metallic fillex exhaust valves in aircraft reciprocating
engine?
(a) Increased resistance to corrosive gases
(b) Increased strength and resistance to fatigue
(c) Reduced valve operating temperature
(d) Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve temperature
88. The pumping capacity of the scavenger pump in a dry-sump aircraft engine’s
lubrication system?
(a) Is greater than the capacity of the oil supply pump
(b) Is less than the capacity of the oil supply pump
(c) Is usually equal to the capacity of the oil supply pump in order
(d) Varies according to the oil supply tank capacity and not according to the oil
supply pump capacitys
89. The economizer system of a float type carburetor performs which of the following
functions?
(a) It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds below cruising
(b) It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds
(c) It supplies sand regulates the additional fuel required for all speed above cruising
(d) It regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds and all altitude.
ALL INDIA AME VELFARE ASSOCIATION (REGD)
OBJECTIVE TYPE
3. Fig. Shown a simple torque meter which in the torque sensing component
(a) A
(b) A B & C
(c) B & C
(d) E
5. CSD input RPM is 5800 while output RPM in 6000 (generator) the CSD is working as
(a) Hyd. Motor
(b) Pump
(c) Direct straight drive to generator is working as
8. A helicopter on rescue mission is hovering. The EGT is 7000 C when the power is
increased
(a) EGT will increased
(b) EGT will decreased
(c) EGT will first decreased upto certain power and train increases
18. Inlet for coolings air for the first stage turbine blades is from
(a) Gill holes
(b) Blades root
25. Front bearings supporting the compressor drive shaft in a small business jet is
(a) Roller
(b) Hall
(c) Taper roller
(d) Depends on the radial longs impened on engine
27. In the figure of nozzle diaphragm assembly the splinge are provided are provided for
(a) Locking spring
(b) Labry in the seal
30. Methyle browide fig extinguisher has been accidentally discharged to return the
engine into service:
(a) Wash the engine into service
(b) Wait for atleast 3 hrs so that the extinguishing agent evaporation
(c) Operate the engine at idle low power
(d) Carry out electrolytic compressor wash
31. At ram recovery point
(a) Pressure increase neutralizes the friction losses in inlet
41. In the fuel control unit of hydro mechanical system if the engine all elevators without
throttle movement, it is due to
(a) Less of speed sense
(b) CIT sooner failure
(c) CIS dense
(d) All are correct
45. With the change in the altitude or forward speed of the a/c the our capsule assembly
in the fuel control unit in
(a) Capsule assembly expanded
(b) Capsule assembly compressed
(c) No changed in capsule assembly
(d) None of the above
47. During operation of the engine equipped with water injection system the watering of
the coolent to the system is
(a) Due to atmosphere pressure
(b) Due to altitude change
(c) Selected by the pilot
(d) None of the above
50. In a gas turbine engine, velocity type and accelerometer type vibration indicators are
used, in which:
(a) Velocity type reads in VOLTs and accelerometer type in COULUMBS
(b) Velocity type is less reliable than accelerometer type
51. The lowest TSFC is of
(a) Turbofan engine
(b) Turbojet engine
(c) Turboprop engine
(d) Turboshaft engine
56. The pitch movement of the propeller blade is controlled by a hydraulic servo piston
the increase of oil pressure in the servo makes the propeller blade to
(a) Low pitch rotation
(b) High pitch rotation
(c) Run at low RPM
(d) High pitch with high RPM
59.The free turbine turboprop engine has different control levers is the cockpit the power
lever directly controls the
(a) Gas generator speed (Ng)
(b) Power turbine speed (Nf)
(c) Propeller governor
(d) All the above
62. Modern jet engine uses a accelerometer to pick up engine vibration the indicator must
have
(a) Charge amplifier
(b) Voltage to current converter
(c) Current limiter
(d) Voltage limiter
63. A free turbine turbo shaft is running at higher RPM there is loss of oil pressure the
probable cause is
(a) The relief valve struck in closed position
(b) The relief valve struck in open position
(c) Filter clogged
(d) Oil spray jet clogged
64. When Pt2 is blocked due to ice formation then the EPR gauge will
(a) Over read
(b) Under read
(c) Read zero
65. Which one of the following scale is high pressure system
(a) Lip
(b) Cup
(c) Carbon rubbing
(d) All the above
66. When oil filter particle dissolves fully in Aquous solution of ammonium nitrate, the
particle is
(a) Tin
(b) Cadmium
(c) Aluminium
(d) Silver
67. The figure given below is or APU fitted in modern boeling aircraft the air inlet in the
figure in
(a) C
(b) A and B
(c) D
(d) None of the above
68. During preflight inspection the crewmember find that the amber deck of the fire
warning light appears out this indicates
(a) The extinguishing agent in bottle is over pressurized
(b) The extinguishing agent in discharged due to over temp.
(c) The extinguishing agent in the bottle is at low pressure
(d) The extinguishing agent in discharged due to cook pit control
69. When the air starter over speeds due to failure of internal switch mechanism
(a) The engine RPM continues to rise until it reaches idle RPM
(b) The volume to starting air automatically decrease to overcome the situation
(c) The drive shaft breaks
(d) Any the stated above may happen
70. Engine operating instructions are OK except flam out during deceleration the most
likely cause is
(a) Acceleration deceleration valve
(b) Maximum flow valve setting
(c) Minimum flow valve setting
(d) Governor setting.
71. At cruise condition the pilot observes fluctuation of EGT about 30 but the EPR and
RPM are study. The part of engine defective is
(a) Combustion chamber
(b) Pyrometer system
(c) Turbine
(d) None of the above
72. The graph indicates the specified fuel consumption at standard level pressure is of
(a) Turbo prop
(b) Turbo jet
(c) Turbo fan
(d) All of the above will have same graph
80. Mark the correct statement with respect of single speed engine shown being more
comp. Stage than turbine because.
(a) Compressor material is what before cannot take the load
(b) It’s different to get compression due to diffusion in less stage
(c) All the above are correct
ALL INDIA AME STUDENTS WELFARE ASSOCIATION (REGD)
3. When a turbojet engine operating at steady state max RPM any increase of airmass
flow due to inlet variable
(a) May increased the compression ratio
(b) May decrease the compression ratio.
(c) Not affect the compression ratio
(d) None of the above
4. The following fig shows a electrical tube anti icing system of an enging inlet.
(a) Outer surface is continuously heated
(b) Repairing element by welding decreases the element resistance
(c) Forward element is cyclicly heated
(d) There is no over heat protection when the A/C is on the ground
5. The principle involved in controlling the fuel flow according to the requirement of he
engine?
(a) Keeping the delta pressure across the metering valve constant and changing the
cross section of the orific
(b) Keeping the constant section of the orific constant and varying the dolta pressure
across the metering valve
(c) Sessing the feed back from RPM and EGT thermocouple and controlling the fuel
through the electronic controller.
7. When CDP sensor fail during cruise condition or high power condition the engine will.
(a) Flame out
(b) Surge
(c) Decelerate to idle condition
(d) Accelerate to max power condition
8. On a twin spool turbofan engine with electronic TGT limitor (Amplifier) all engine
paramotors are fluctuating at max. RPM this is due to malfunction of
(a) Amplifier
(b) TGT thermocouples storm
(c) N1 senser system
(d) Any one of the above
11. In a typical turboshaft free power turbine engine, the FCU basically senses.
(a) The power lever governor free turbine
(b) The power turbine
(c) The power lever governor free turbine through power turbine
(d) Gas generator
ESSAY - TYPE
1. A modern aircraft fitted with two turbofan engines is O.K during engine ground run
performance. The aircraft was released for flight with instructions to the pilot. During
take-off run, there was a jerk with rise in EGT, severe EPR fluctuation and vibration. The
pilot aborted the take-off.
(a) What is the cause and the events took place in a sequance?
(b) What are the critical areas to be checked for the cause and the remedial action.
2. (a) What will happen if the P & D valve is struck in open condition during starting?
(b) What are the functions of straightening vanes of exhaust cone?
(c) How the micro organism form in the fuel how they affect the fuel system and its
components? How they are detected?
(d) What are the areas to be checked for high oil consumption?
(e) What is the trim balancing?
a. How will you perform emergency shut down of APU during ground run
b. Where are the boroscopic inspection holes are provided in the engine and how and they
helpful in monitoring the health of engine?
c. What actions you will take during fire warning stall/surge and engine flame out?
6. RD 2490 is
(a) Corrosion inhibitor
(b) Synthetic oil
(c) Cleaning agent
(d) None of the above
7. After shut down of engine the boost pump should never be put off until the engine
rotor stop this make that the
(a) EDP do not loose prime
(b) F & D operate correctly
(c) Fuel pump life more
(d) Fuel filter operation is satisfactory
8. In hydro mechanical fuel control if CIT sense fail on hot day then engine
(a) Takes more time to accelerate
(b) Run at low RPM
(c) Surge and EGT may occur
(d) All the above are correct
10. The vibration indicator pick up is mounted in the turbine casing it indication
(a) Turbine vibration only
(b) Turbine and turbine casing vibration
(c) Turbine and compressor vibration
(d) All above
11. The blades of the compressor are twisted. This make blade
(a) More pressure on the blade tip than the root
(b) More pressure on the blade root than the tip
(c) More pressure at the middle portion of the blade
(d) None of the above
12. For the water particle inspection of the fuel the water indicator paste is applied at the
bottom of the sample bottle if the water is present in the fuel
(a) The past will come to from the bottom
(b) The bottom of the bottle will be discoloured
(c) The complete sample will be discoloured
(d) None of the above
13. A turbofan engine produce. A thrust of 9100 lbs, the fuel consumption is 700
Gallon/hr. The SPC will be
(a) 0.07 lb/lb/hr
(b) 0.5 lb/lb/hr
(c) 0.6 lb/lb/hr.
(d) 0.7 lb/lb/hr.
14. The diagram is of a single hydraulic actuator for satic vanes the is will be
(a) 200 PSI
(b) 20 PSI
(c) 10 PSI
(d) 200 PSI
15. Compressor blades are not fitted rigidly on the nut there is a slight movement this is
done to
(a) Provide case of replacement of blade
(b) To provide relief for the expansion of the blade due to heat
(c) To reduce vibrational stress on the blade
(d) All the above
14. The baffles plates are incorporated in the oil tank the of this plate is
(a) To avoid local turbulence and recirculation of used of
(b) To settle down the foreign particles in the bottom
(c) They give cooling capacity
(d) All the above are correct
15. For soap analysis the sample must be collected
(a) Within ½ an hour of the engine shutdown
(b) After enough cooling of the engine
(c) After half an hour of the engine showdown
(d) Any time
16. For a given EPR if the OAT decreases the N2 RPM of turbofan engine will
(a) Increase
(b) Decreases
(c) Remain same
(d) Increases N2 with decrease of EGT
17. If engine fitted with hydro mechanical FCU when speed sense N2 fails during IDLE
condition the engine.
(a) Flame out
(b) Can not accelerate above IDLE RPM
(c) Accelerate to high power bottj
(d) None of the above
25. The transformation of kinetic energy in to pressure energy is NIL in which type of
engine
(a) Turbo prop
(b) Turbo jet
(c) Turbo shaft
(d) By passed fan
32. In the APU of the A/C holes are provided near the exhaust the pu is to
(a) Exhaust duct air intake cooling oil breather
(b) For cooling
(c) Exhaust of QPU