Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) (Name) 2.

(Signature) (Name)

OMR Sheet No. : ......................................................

(To be filled by the Candidate)

Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)

Roll No.

(In words)

D8 7 0 8
Time : 1 hours]

COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS

PAPERII

Test Booklet No. [Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Instructions for the Candidates

1. 2. 3. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the question booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example :

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

U
1. U DU U S U UU U 2. - 3. U U U, -S U U U

-S U
(i)

-S U U U U SUU-U S SU U

(ii)

U DU U U U -S DU U U U U U U S DU / U UU U U S SU U UUU S U U -S U U -S U UQ
U

(iii) -S R OMR U U UU OMR R -S U 4. U U (A), (B), (C) (D)

4.

U UU U

(C) U
5. U U I U U- U

where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer Sheet given inside the Paper I booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the test booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is NO negative marking.

U U U S U U U , U

6. U U 7. (Rough Work) S DU U U 8. U-S U

, U U U U
9. U # U U-S U UU

U U # U U U

/ U ZU S U 11. U (UU) U U 12. U U

10.

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Computer Science and Applications

PAPERII
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective-type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

1.

The channel capacity of a band-limited Gaussian channel is given by : (A) (C)

S B log2 21 N
S B log10 11 N

(B) (D)

S B log2 11 N
S B loge 11 N

2.

The graph K3, 4 has : (A) 3 edges (B)

4 edges

(C)

7 edges

(D)

12 edges

3.

The total number of spanning trees that can be drawn using five labelled vertices is : (A) 125 (B) 64 (C) 36 (D) 16 Extremely low power dissipation and low cost per gate can be achieved in : (A) MOS ICs (B) C MOS ICs (C) TTL ICs (D) ECL ICs An example of a universal building block is : (A) EX-OR gate (B) AND gate (C)

4.

5.

OR gate

(D)

NOR gate

6.

An example of a layer that is absent in broadcast networks is : (A) physical layer (B) presentation layer (C) network layer (D) application layer The ATM cell is : (A) 48 bytes long (C) 64 bytes long

7.

(B) (D)

53 bytes long 69 bytes long

8.

Four jobs J1, J2, J3 and J4 are waiting to be run. Their expected run times are 9, 6, 3 and 5 respectively. In order to minimise average response time, the jobs should be run in the order : (B) J4 J3 J2 J1 (C) J3 J4 J1 J2 (D) J3 J4 J2 J1 (A) J1 J2 J3 J4 Suppose it takes 100 ns to access page table and 20 ns to access associative memory. If the average access time is 28 ns, the corresponding hit rate is : (A) 100 percent (B) 90 percent (C) 80 percent (D) 70 percent 2

9.

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10.

Transmission of N signals, each band limited to fm Hz by TDM, requires a minimum band-width of : (A) f m (B) 2 fm (C) N fm (D) 2N fm If a code is t error detecting, the minimum humming distance should be equal to : (A) t21 (B) t (C) t11 (D) 2t11 A relation R in {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} is given by { (1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 4), (4, 5) }. This relation is : (A) reflexive (B) symmetric (C) transitive (D) not reflexive, not symmetric and not transitive The dual of the switching function x1yz is : (A)
x1yz

11.

12.

13.

(B)

x1y z

(C)

x ( y 1z )

(D)

x ( y1z )

14.

The characteristic equation of D flip-flop is : (A) Q51 (B) Q50 (C) Q5 D (D) Q5D

15.

If four 4 input multiplexers drive a 4 input multiplexer, we get a : (A) 16 input MUX (B) 8 input MUX (C) 4 input MUX (D) 2 input MUX The throughput of slotted ALOHA is given by : (A) S5G (B) S5GeG (C) Congestion control is done by : (A) Network layer (C) Presentation layer

16.

S5Ge2G

(D)

S5eG

17.

(B) (D)

Physical layer Application layer

18.

Assertion (A) : Twisted pairs are widely used as transmission medium. Reasoning (R) : Twisted pairs have adequate performance and low cost. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true An example of a non-adaptive routing algorithm is : (A) Shortest path routing (B) Centralised routing (C) Barans hot potato algorithm (D) Barans backward learning algorithm

19.

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20.

IP address in B class is given by : (A) 125 . 123 . 123 . 2 (C) 192 . 128 . 32 . 56

(B) (D)

191 . 023 . 21 . 54 10 . 14 . 12 . 34

21.

N processes are waiting for I/O. A process spends a fraction p of its time in I/O wait state. The CPU utilisation is given by : (B) 12p N (C) p N (D) p2N (A) 12p2N If holes are half as large as processes, the fraction of memory wasted in holes is : (A)
2 3

22.

(B)

1 2

(C)

1 3

(D)

1 5

23.

An example of a non - pre-emptive scheduling algorithm is : (A) Round Robin (B) Priority Scheduling (C) Shortest job first (D) 2 level scheduling An example of a distributed OS is : (A) Amoeba (C) MS-DOS

24.

(B) (D)

UNIX MULTICS

25.

Which one of the following describes correctly a static variable ? (A) It cannot be initialised (B) It is initialised once at the commencement of execution and cannot be changed at run time (C) It retains its value during the life of the program (D) None of the above The output of the program code main ( ) { int x 5 0; while ( x < 5 10 ) for ( ; ; ) if ( 1 1 x % 10 5 5 0 ) break; print f(x5%d, x); } is : (A) x 5 1 (B) (C) x 5 20 (D) 4

26.

compilation error none of the above

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27.

A copy constructor is invoked when : (A) a function returns by value (C) a function returns by reference

(B) (D)

an argument is passed by value none of the above

28.

When a language has the capability to produce new data types, it is said to be : (A) extensible (B) encapsulated (C) overloaded (D) none of the above How many constructors can a class have ? (A) zero (B) (C) 2 (D)

29.

1 any number

30.

An entity has : (i) a set of properties (ii) a set of properties and values for all the properties (iii) a set of properties and the values for some set of properties may non-uniquely identify an entity (iv) a set of properties and the values for some set of properties may uniquely identify an entity Which of the above are valid ? (A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only Aggregation is : (A) an abstraction through which relationships are treated as lower level entities. (B) an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities. (C) an abstraction through which relationships are not treated at all as entities. (D) none of the above Suppose R is a relation schema and F is a set of functional dependencies on R. Further, suppose R1 and R2 form a decomposition of R. Then the decomposition is a lossless join decomposition of R provided that : (A) (B) (C) (D)
R 1 I R 2 R 1 is in F1
R 1 I R 2 R 2 is in F1

31.

32.

both R 1 I R 2 R 1 and R 1 I R 2 R 2 functional dependencies are in F1 at least one from R 1 I R 2 R 1 and R 1 I R 2 R 2 is in F1

33.

In a heap, every element is __________ of all the elements in the subtree. (A) maximum (B) minimum (C) sum (D) product If (rear 55 maxsize 21) rear50; else rear5rear11; is required in : (A) circular queue (B) linear queue (C) stack (D) 5

34.

deque P.T.O.

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35.

A high performance switching and multiplexing technology that utilises fixed length packets to carry different types of traffic is : (A) ATM (B) ADSL (C) SONET (D) None of the above A conventional LAN bridge specifies only the functions of OSI : (A) layers 1 and 2 (B) layers 1 through 3 (C) all layers (D) none of the above An assembly program contains : (A) imperative and declarative statements (B) imperative statements and assembler directives (C) imperative and declarative statements as well as assembler directives (D) declarative statements and assembler directives In which addressing mode, the effective address of the operand is generated by adding a constant value to the contents of register ? (A) absolute mode (B) immediate mode (C) indirect mode (D) index mode Which of the following are Assembler Directives ? (i) EQU (ii) ORIGIN (iii) START (A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Which of the following OS treats hardware as a file system ? (A) UNIX (B) DOS (C) Windows NT (D) None of the above In which of the following, ready to execute processes must be present in RAM ? (A) multiprocessing (B) multiprogramming (C) multitasking (D) in all of the above If the executing program size is greater than the existing RAM of a computer, it is still possible to execute the program if the OS supports : (A) multitasking (B) virtual memory (C) paging system (D) none of the above Software Quality Assurance (SQA) encompasses : (A) verification (B) validation (C) both verification and validation (D) none of the above 6

36.

37.

38.

39.

(iv)

END

40.

41.

42.

43.

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44.

Which level is called as defined in capability maturity model ? (A) level 0 (B) level 3 (C) level 4 (D) level 1

45.

COCOMO model is used for : (A) (C) product quality estimation product cost estimation (B) (D) product complexity estimation all of the above

46.

Font sizes are usually expressed in points. One point is : (A) (C) 0.0069 inch 0.0207 inch (B) (D) 0.0138 inch 0.0276 inch

47.

Assertion (A) : Cellular telephone systems can handle a multitude of users. Reasoning (R) : Cellular telephone systems permit extensive frequency reuse in a small local area. (A) (B) (C) (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation (A) is true but (R) is false (A) is false but (R) is true

48.

Ecommerce involves : (A) (C) Electronic Data Interchange Electronic Bulletin Boards (B) (D) Electronic mail All of the above

49.

An example of a data mining algorithm which uses squared error score function is : (A) (C) CART algorithm a priori algorithm (B) (D) back propagation algorithm vector space algorithm

50.

(I) (II) (A) (C)

Each object in the active directory of windows 2000 has an access control list. The scheme is a blueprint of all objects in the domain of windows 2000. Which of the following is true ? only (I) both (I) and (II) (B) (D) -oOoonly (II) none of the above

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P.T.O.

Space For Rough Work

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