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Ecmc49 4
Ecmc49 4
Ecmc49 4
Ata Mazaheri
Outline
Definition & historical record Risk and risk aversion
The Expected Utility Mean Variance Utility Function (MV)
s.d.
s.d.
r Normal distribution
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Return Distributions
The skewness of a distribution is a measure of the asymmetry of the distribution It is equal to the average cubed deviation from the mean Canadian stock returns are negatively skewed, implying that large losses are more probable than for a normal distribution
Value at Risk
Value at risk or VaR is another measure of risk It highlights the potential loss from extreme negative returns It measures the minimum loss that we can expect with a given probability, generally taken equal to 5% The VaR value also illustrates departures from normality
W = 100
1-p = .4
= 34.29
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1-p = .4
10
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Preferences to Risk
U(W) U(W) U(W)
12
10
20
30
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U[E(W)] and E[U(W)] U[(E(W)] is the utility associated with the known level of expected wealth (although there is uncertainty around what the level of wealth will be, there is no such uncertainty about its expected value) E[U(W)] is the expected utility of wealth the utility associated with level of wealth that may be obtained The relationship between U[E(W)] and E[U(W)] determines risk
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U[E(W)] = 2.30
E[U(W)] = 1.97
1.61
Certainty equivalent: 7.17 That is, this individual will take 7.17 with certainty rather than the uncertainty around the gamble
CE = 7.17
10
30
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=> Would take 7.17 with certainty rather than the gamble with expected payoff of 10 The difference, (10 7.17 ) = 2.83, can be viewed as a risk premium an amount that would be paid to avoid risk.
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19
RHS: Expected utility of current wealth and the gamble LHS: Utility of the current wealth plus the expected value of gamble less the risk premium. (CE) We want to use a Taylor series expansion to (*) to derive an expression for the risk premium (w,Z)
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- Defined as a measure of absolute risk aversion because it measures risk aversion for a given level of wealth ARA > 0 for all risk averse investors (U'>0, U''<0) How does ARA change with an individual's level of wealth? A $1000 gamble may be trivial to a rich man, but non-trivial to a poor man => ARA will probably decrease as our wealth increases
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Measures how risk-averse an individual becomes relative to his wealth as w changes Note: Typically, as w rises one becomes less riskaverse in absolute term but the relative risk aversion remains constant. Again this depends on the utility function.
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Example
U = ln(W)W = $20,000 A fair gamble: G(10,-10: 50) 50% will win 10, 50% will lose 10 Calculate this premium using both the Markowitz and Arrow-Pratt Approaches?
Markowitz Approach: E(U(W)) = piU(Wi) E(U(W))=(0.5)ln(20,010)+0.5*ln(19,990)= 9.903487428 ln(CE) = 9.903487428 => CE = 19,999.9975 The risk premium RP = $0.0025
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Arrow-Pratt Measure
Arrow-Pratt Measure:
= -(1/2) 2z U''/U', 2z = 0.5*(20,010 20,000)2 + 0.5*(19,990 20,000)2 = 100
, U'(W) = (1/W), U''(W) = -1/W2 => U''(W)/U'(W) = -1/W = -1/(20,000)
= -(1/2)(100)(-1/20,000) = $0.0025
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E (U ) = E ( r ) 0.5 A
A: Absolute Risk Aversion (ARA) The mean-variance utility function can be used for any individual as long as: (i) The individual is characterized by CARA (Constant Absolute Risk Aversion) (ii) The distribution of returns is normal.
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U = E ( r ) - .5 A 2 A: Measures the degree of risk aversion = 0.22 - .5 A (0.34)2 Risk Aversion A Utility High 5 -0.690 T-bill = 0.05 3 0.047 Low 1 0.162
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Indifference Curves
Expected Return
Indifference Curves
The slope of the indifference curve for the MV utility function is (A). It depends on the degree of risk aversion It also depends on the risk itself. The point of intersection of the indifference curve with the vertical axis is the certainty equivalent (CE) of all other risky combinations along the indifference curve.
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Rule 2: The variance of an assets return is the expected value of the squared deviations from the expected return.
2 =
p
i =1
[ri E(r)]
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rp = i =1 wi ri
n
E ( rp ) = i =1 wi E ( ri )
n
Rule 4:
When many risky assets with variances are combined into a portfolio with portfolio weights w , w ,..., w respectively, the portfolio variance is given by:
1 2
2 12 , 2 ,..., k2
p = wi i + 2 w j wk Cov( rj , rk )
2 2 2 i =1 j ,k =1 j k
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p = w1 1 + w2 2 + 2 w1w2Cov ( r1, r 2 )
2 2 2 2 2
Cov( r1 , r2 ) 12 = 1 2
2 2 = > 2 = w12 12 + w2 2 + 2 w1 w2 12 1 2 p
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a) Calculate each securitys expected return and standard deviation. E ( rA ) =0.25 .05 +0.5 .1 + .25 .25 =0.1 0 0 0 0
2 A =0.25(0.05 0.1) 2 +0.5(0.1 0.1) 2 +0.25(0.15 0.1) 2 =0.0013 A =0.0354
Example (Contd)
Suppose the historical correlation, AB = Corr ( rA , rB ) , between the return of security A and B is 0.25. The management is considering an investment, C, with 40% in security A and 60% in security B. b) Calculate the expected return and standard deviation of investment C. E ( rC ) = 0.4 0.1 + 0.6 0.13 = 0.11
2 C = 0.4 2 0.0013 + 0.6 2 0.0025 + 2 0.4 0.6 0.25 0.0354 0.05 = 0.0131 C = 0.03622
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Here as the number of assets increases, the first component (the variance term) converges to 0, while the term on the right approaches the average covariance of the stocks in the portfolio. => as the number of securities in a portfolio is increased, firm specific risk diminishes and market-wide risk (co-variances of the companies). 37 Will be discussed in detail later.