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Pre PG-2014 MBBS Section-II

Q. No. 1 0032001 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 2 0032002 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 3 0032003 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 4 0032004 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 5 0032005 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 6 0032006 Option 1 Option 2 Right axis deviation is seen in all EXCEPT Ventricular septal defect Tricuspid atresia Pulmonary atresia Atrial septal defect 2 Cranial nerve not involved in Lateral Medullary Syndrome is 5th 7th 10th 12th 2 Criteria not included in histologic staging of chronic hepatitis is Periportal inflammation Bridging necrosis Portal fibrosis Cholestasis 4 Drug of choice for CMV retinitis is Gancyclovir Acyclovir Cidofovir Foscarnet 1 Myasthenia gravis is associated with all EXCEPT Grave's disease Hashimoto's thyroiditis Thymoma Hyperparathyroidism 4

Renal papillary necrosis can be a complication in all, except Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Salicylate toxicity

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Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 7 0032007 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 8 0032008 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 9 0032009 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 10 0032010 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 11 0032011 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 12 0032012 Option 1 Option 2

Diabetes mellitus Sickle cell disease 1 The cut-off for diagnosis of diabetes for HbA1c is 5.7% 6.1% 6.5% 7.0% 3 Low T4 and Low TSH levels are consistent with Sick Euthyroid state Central hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism Subclinical hypothyroidism 2 All are DPP-4 inhibitors EXCEPT Sitagliptin Vildagliptin Linagliptin Exenatide 4 All are features of primary adrenal insufficiency EXCEPT Hypotension Hyperglycemia Loss of weight Loss of appetite 2 Which will give higher reading for blood glucose Plasma Whole blood Serum All are equivalent 1

GDM is diagnosed if fasting blood glucose as per 2013 ADA criteria is 80 mg% 82 mg%

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Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 13 0032013 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 14 0032014 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 15 0032015 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 16 0032016 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 17 0032017 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option

92 mg% 102 mg% 3 Hirsutism can be seen in Polycystic ovary syndrome Prolactinoma Struma ovary Choriocarcinoma 1 On DXA scan if T-Score is 0.8, patient is said to have Normal Bone mineral density Osteopenia Osteoporosis Osteomalacia 1 Which is not a component of FRAX score Mother's age Bone mineral density Sex History of RA 1 Histoid hansens is a type of Multibacillary Leprosy Paucibacillary Leprosy Neuritic Leprosy Indeterminate Leprosy 1 To confirm a dermatophytic infection the following test may be done Tzank smear KOH examination Zeihl Neelson stain Slit skin smear 2 A 10 year old boy developed an asymptomatic single patch of complete hair loss over the occipital scalp. The skin in this patch was completely normal. What is the most probable diagnosis ? Morphea

Q. No. 18 0032018 Option 1

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Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 19 0032019 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 20 0032020 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 21 0032021 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 22 0032022 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 23 0032023 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 24 0032024 Option 1

Tinea capitis Trichotillomania Alopecia areata 4 Sign of groove is seen in Lymphogranuloma venereum Granuloma inguinale Syphilis Bubonic plague 1 Pityriasis versicolor is cause by Trichophyton rubrum Malassezia furfur Epidermophyton floccosum Microsporum gypseum 2 'Luftsichel Sign'on X-ray Chest is seen in Right Lower lobe collapse Middle lobe collapse Left upper lobe collapse Left lower lobe collapse 3 'Pop corn' calcification in solitary pulmonary nodule is a feature of Bronchogenic Ca Hamartoma Bronchoalveolar Ca Granuloma 2 Investigation of choice for the detection of Bronchiecatsis is High resolution CT MRI Bronchography Multidetector CT 4

Imaging technique of choice in Coarctation of aorta is MRI

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Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 25 0032025 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 26 0032026 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 27 0032027 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 28 0032028 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 29 0032029 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 30 0032030 Option 1

Echocardiography Doppler Ultrasound X-Ray 1 Which of the following is NOT a feature of Crohn's disease on imaging Cobble stoning Skip lesions Aphoid ulcers Symmetrical involvement 4 Which type of cerebral palsy is observed as a result of kernicterus ? Choreoathetoid Spastic diplegic Spastic quadriplegic Hypotonic 1 Which of following is an absolute contraindication of breastfeeding ? HIV infection in mother Galactosemia in baby Hepatitis B infection in mother Pulmonary tuberculosis in mother 2 Antibody to tissue transglutaminase is measured to diagnose which condition ? Cystic fibrosis Inflammatory bowel disease Rheumatoid arthritis Celiac disease 4 Which drug is the first-line agent to control seizures in a child with status epilepticus ? Lorazepam Phenytoin Phenobarbitone Valproate 1

Unilateral small smooth kidney on renal arteriography is seen in Lobar infarction

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Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 31 0032031 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 32 0032032 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 33 0032033 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 34 0032034 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 35 0032035 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 36 0032036 Option 1

Reflux nephropathy Renal artery stenosis Renal tuberculosis 3 Which of the following diseases does NOT cause increased bone density Osteopetrosis Fluorosis Chronic hypervitaminosis A Osteogenesis imperfecta 4 Ketosis with skin manifestations are observed in which of the following type of metabolic disorders ? Maple syrup urine disease Isovaleric acidemia Methylmalonic acidemia Multiple carboxylase deficiency 4 Which derangement in physiological status has been associated with intraventricular hemorrhage in preterm neonates ? Hyperoxia Hypotension Metabolic alkalosis Hyperkalemia 2 Administration of which agent can reduce incidence of bronchopulmonary dysplasia in preterm neonates ? Inhaled steroids Frusemide Vitamin A Zinc 3 Which of following have not been proven to decrease incidence of necrotizing enterocolitis ? Early start of feeding Administration of prophylactic probiotics in very preterm neonates Antenatal steroids Use of human milk alone for feeding of very preterm neonates 1

Phenylketonuria is disorder of; autosomal recessive transmission

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Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 37 0032037 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 38 0032038 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 39 0032039 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 40 0032040 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 41 0032041 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 42 0032042 Option 1

autosomal dominat transmission X-linked genetic disorder Trisomy disorder 1 Wernicke's encephalopathy is common with one of the following substance of abuse: Cannabis Heroin Amphetamine Alcohol 4 In the treatment of delirium, one of the following drug is preferred; Diazepam Haloperidol Chlordiazepoxide Chlorpromazine 2 The term 'Ego defense mechanisms' was coined by; Sigmund Freud Eric Berne Karen Horney Carl Jung 1 Cognitive theory of depression was proposed by TS Elliot Aaron T Beck Albert Ellis Carl Rogers 2 Pheochromocytoma is characterized by all except; Paroxysmal hypertension & headache Anxiety & panic attacks Normal level of Vinylmendalic acid On examination raised BP and tachycardia is found 3

One of the following drug can cause hypothyroidism; Imipramine

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Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 43 0032043 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 44 0032044 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 45 0032045 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 46 0032046 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 47 0032047 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 48 0032048

Haloperidol Lithium Carbamazepine 3 Which drug does not cause agranulocytosis as side effect; Clozapine Mianserine Haloperidol Mirtazapine 3 Delayed ejaculation caused by selective serotonin inhibitor can be reversed by; Cyproheptadine Phentolamine Disulfiram Cetrizine 1 One of the following is a culture bound syndrome; Bulimia Nervosa Koro Kleptomania Trichotillomania 2 A 65 years old lady presents to the emergency with painless abdominal distension and absolute constipation. On examination, there are no significant findings except for abdominal distension. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient ? Colon cancer Ulcerative colitis Sigmoid volvulus Anal atresia 1 Hilton method is commonly used for Treatment of ganglion Drainage of an abscess Excision of a sebaceous cyst Keloids 2

Peau d'orange appearance of the breast seen in carcinoma is due to

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Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 49 0032049 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 50 0032050 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 51 0032051 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option

Intra epithelial cancer Lymphatic permeation Sub epidermal cancer Vascular involvement 2 Free air under the domes of the diaphragm is commonly seen as an indication of Ileosigmoid knotting Sigmoid volvulus Cecal volvulus Perforation of a hollow viscus 4 All of the following are mesenteric cysts EXCEPT Chylolymphatic Urogenital remnant Dermoid cyst Epidermoid cyst 4 All of the following are complications of total parenteral nutrition EXCEPT Hypoglycemia Hypoalbuminemia Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis Hypertriglyceridemia 2 A 30 year old male patient, known to be a case of peptic ulcer disease for last 5 years, presents with worsening of symptoms, loss of periodicity, epigastric fullness, early satiety and epigastric bloating and vomiting after food. The most likely diagnosis is Pancreatitis Posterior penetration of ulcer Gastric outlet obstruction Malignant change - development of cancer 3 A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department having fallen on her left arm. X-ray demonstrates a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus. She has lost the ability to extend the left wrist joint. Which nerve has most likely been damaged with the fracture? The radial nerve The ulnar nerve The median nerve The musculocutaneous nerve 1

Q. No. 52 0032052 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option

Q. No. 53 0032053 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option

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Q. No. 54 0032054 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option

Which of the following is a nonbreast disorder Fibroadenoma Tietze's disease ANDI Mondor's disease 2 A 3 years old, previously healthy boy presents to the emergency with colicky pain abdomen, vomiting and constipation. On examination, he is dehydrated, with tachycardia. Examination of the abdomen reveals a lump in the periumbilical area. What is the possible diagnosis ? Pyloric stenosis Appendicitis Strangulated inguinal hernia Intussusception 4 Advantages of minimal access surgery include all EXCEPT Decrease in wound size Decreased heat loss Improved vision Dependence on hand-eye combination 4 The anti-thyroid antibody will not be elevated in which of the following conditions Hashimoto's thyroiditis Grave's disease Multinodular goitre Thyroid Lymphoma 4 The commonest type of hernia encountered in females is Incisional Inguinal Paraumbilical Epigastric 2 In a patient of acute abacterial cystitis the most likely underlying causative organism could be Mycoplasma Hemophylus Chlamidia Bacteroids

Q. No. 55 0032055 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 56 0032056 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 57 0032057 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 58 0032058 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 59 0032059 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4

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Correct Option

1 A 63 year old female patient presents with spontaneous ulceration of the left nipple and areola complex. Examination does not reveal any underlying mass, and the axilla is normal. The other breast is also normal, and there is no history of breast cancer in her family. What would be your initial diagnosis ? Eczema of the nipple-areola complex Paget's disease Mondor's disease Benign ulceration 2 Absolute indication of Caesarian Section is Central Placenta praevia Prior Lower segment Caesarian section Cephalopelvic disproportion Breech presentation 1 Presentation when the engaging diameter is Mentovertical Brow Face Vertex Breech 1 WHO modified Partogram charting starts at cervical dilation of 2 cm 3 cm 4 cm 5 cm 3 Sign seen in ultrasonography in dichorionic diamniotic twins is Delta sign Twin peak sign Membrane thickness <1mm Empty delta sign 2

Q. No. 60 0032060 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 61 0032061 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 62 0032062 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 63 0032063 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 64 0032064 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 65 0032065 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3

In monozygotic twins there is Always same sex Always different sex Always separate chorion and amnion

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Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 66 0032066 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 67 0032067 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 68 0032068 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 69 0032069 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 70 0032070 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 71 0032071 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3

Always one amnion 1 HAIR-AN syndrome is seen in? Ovarian cancer Polycystic Ovarian Disease (PCOD) Prolapse uterus Uterine fibroid 2 The Cut off age limit for Premature menopause is 40 years 45 years 55 years None of the above 1 The Classic features of Asherman's Syndrome are Triad of amenorrhoea, abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Galactorrhoea and secondary amenorrhoea. Oligo-Ovulation and Hirsuitism. Secondary Amenorrhoea and formation of intrauterine synechiae. 4 The most important and specific single marker for the detection of Down's syndrome in 2nd trimester is Thickened nuchal fold Pyelectasis Intracardiac echogenic focus Echogenic bowel 1 Lovset's Maneuver is used for Delivery of the aftercoming head. Delivery of the arms. Delivery of the buttocks. Delivery of legs. 2

Surface ectoderm gives rise to all of the following structures except. Lens Corneal epithelium Conjunctival epithelium

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Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 72 0032072 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 73 0032073 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 74 0032074 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 75 0032075 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 76 0032076 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 77 0032077 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3

Anterior layers of iris 4 Coloured halos are seen in all, EXCEPT Cataract Angle closure glaucoma Corneal edema Corneal opacity 4 Flurescein angiography is used to identify lesions in all EXCEPT Retina Lens Optic nerve head Iris 2 Periphery of retina is visualized by: Indirect ophthalmoscopy Direct Ophthalmoscopy Gonioscopy Retinoscopy 1 Retinal detachment with shifting fluid is Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment Tractional retinal detachment Exudative retinal detachment Traumatic retinal detachment 1 Peripheral retinal degeneration is most common in case of Myopia Presbyopia Hypermetropia Astigmatism 1 A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She asks for your opinion. All the following things are suitable for performing LASIK surgery except: Myopia of 4 Diopters Age of 15 years Stable refraction for 1 year

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Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 78 0032078 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 79 0032079 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 80 0032080 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 81 0032081 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 82 0032082 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 83 0032083 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3

Corneal thickness of 600 microns 2 Arlt's line is seen in: Vernal keratoconjunctivitis Pterygium Ocular pemphigoid Trachoma 4 A 12 year old boy presents with recurrent attacks of conjunctivitis for the last 2 years with intense itching and ropy discharge. The Diagnosis is Vernal conjunctivitis Phlyctenular conjunctivitis Trachoma Viral conjunctivitis 1 Satellite lesions in cornea is caused by Herpes zoster Herpes simplex Aspergillosis Trachoma 3 Which form of radiation is most commonly used for cancer treatment Electron beam Neutron beam X rays Proton beam 3 Which one of the following statements is incorrect about electromagnetic radiations They travel with the same velocity in free space Gamma rays are produced by intra-nuclear mechanisms They obey inverse square law in free space Electron beam is an example of electromagnetic radiation 4 Which one of the following radiation induced chromosomal lesion is considered to be most important Single stranded RNA break Single stranded DNA break Double stranded RNA break

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Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 84 0032084 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 85 0032085 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 86 0032086 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 87 0032087 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 88 0032088 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 89 0032089 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3

Double stranded DNA break 4 Which one of the following radioactive nuclide can be used for both teletherapy and brachytherapy Iridium-192 Cobalt-60 Radium-226 Iodine-125 2 Prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI) is used in which histological subtype of lung cancer ? Adenocarcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Small cell carcinoma Bronchoalveolar carcinoma 3 All of the following are tests for non organic hearing loss (NOHL) EXCEPT Stenger's test Schawback's test Teal test Lombard's test 2 Indications for tracheostomy include all EXCEPT Releave upper airway obstruction Facilitate bronchial toilet To reduce dead space Bronchography 4 Treatment modalities for chronic laryngitis include all of the following EXCEPT Voice rest Antibiotics Speech therapy Endoscopic procedure 2

All of the following are red lesions of the oral cavity EXCEPT Epulides Erythroplakia Granular cell tumor

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Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 90 0032090 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 91 0032091 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 92 0032092 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 93 0032093 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 94 0032094 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 95 0032095 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3

Lichen planus 4 Which one of the following tumors of the oral cavity is NOT a cystic lesion Torus Mucocele Ranula Dermoid 1 Movements of the hand does mainly occurs at all of the following joints EXCEPT Carpo-metacarpal of the thumb Metacarpophalengial joints Interphalangeal joints Carpo-metacarpal of the of fingers 4 All of the following are examples of bursitis EXCEPT Housemaid's knee Weaver's bottom Tailor's ankle Tennis elbow 4 Involucrum in chronic osteomyelitis signifies: Reactive new bone Piece of dead bone Cavity in bone containing pus Foreign body 1 Froment sign is positive in palsy of: Ulnar nerve Radial nerve Median nerve Sciatic nerve 1

What is the vertebral level at the level of spine of the scapula D2 D3 D4

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Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 96 0032096 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 97 0032097 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 98 0032098 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 99 0032099 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option Q. No. 100 0032100 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct Option

D6 2 First public demonstration of anaesthesia was given by William Thomas Green Morton Horace Wells Edward Gilbert Abbot James Young Simpson 1 Following agents are useful as preanaesthetic medication EXCEPT Metoclopramide Glycopyrrolate Ranitidine Neostigmine 4 Following are characteristics of inhalational agents EXCEPT All are true gases All are non ionized Have low molecular weight All are delivered through lungs 1 Which of the following intravenous agents has intrinsic analgesic property Thiopentone Propofol Ketamine Etomidate 3 All of the following local anaesthetic agents belong to amide group EXCEPT Bupivacaine Ropivacaine Prilocaine Tetracaine 4

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