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Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Essentials of Marketing

Date: 14th December 2011

Time: 1400 Hrs 1700 Hrs

Duration: Three (03) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100 marks. There are three parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One and Part Two are compulsory. Part One includes 20 Compulsory multiple choice questions. Select the most appropriate answer from the given choices and mark it in the given space in the answer book. Part Two includes 06 Compulsory short answer questions. Part Three includes 03 Questions. Answer only 02 Questions from this part. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2. 3. 4. Always start answering a question on a new page. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate 5. I llegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized.

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PART ONE Read the question and select the most appropriate answer out of the four given choices. Tick your choice in the given space in the answer booklet.

Question 01

Question 1.1 An organisation with a ______ orientation assumes that customers will resist purchasing products not deemed essential. The job of marketers is to overcome this resistance through personal selling and advertising. a) Production b) Marketing c) Relationship d) Sales

Question 1.2 Moral philosophies/principles that define right or wrong behaviour in marketing is known as: a) b) c) d) Corporate Social Responsibility Marketing Myopia Marketing ethics None of the above

Question 1.3 Ethical environment refers to: a) The rules of conduct and moral principles governing the behaviour of marketing activities. b) Bargaining power of suppliers, bargaining power of share holders threats of new substitutes, bargaining power of public and bargaining power of buyers. c) The rules of conduct and moral principles governing the behaviour of competitor activities. d) Issues related to the marketer interacts with and affects the natural environment or the ecology.

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Question 1.4 Mr. Fernando who acts as an insurance agent visited ABC Ltd., with the hope of persuading a few members of the staff to purchase his product and was prevented by the secretary from meeting them. In the above instance the secretary acted as: a) b) c) d) a Buyer a Decider an Influencer a Gatekeeper

Question 1.5 A student carries out a research which includes a detailed study of Consumer Trends, Lifestyles and Purchase Habits. How would you term this type of a research?

a) b) c) d)

Product Research Market Research Price Research Consumer Research

Question 1.6 Target Marketing begins with a three-stage process;The first stage begins with: a) b) c) d) Choosing which segments to target Identifying possible positioning concepts Identifying segmentation variables and developing profiles of those segments Evaluating the attractiveness of each segment

Question 1.7 A company marketing coffee has identified that coffee is most often consumed in the mornings. However, they would like to change this and make the drink acceptable during other time periods during the day. Which form of segmentation would they need to work with and establish a strategy reflective of their desires? a) b) c) d) Gender Segmentation Benefit Segmentation Occasion Segmentation Age and Life-cycle Segmentation

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Question 1.8 In the diffusion of innovation process the second group of new product adopters, representing 13.5% of the total market, is called: a) Early Majority b) Innovators c) Laggards d) Early Adopters

Question 1.9 ECB Ltd experiences the following with regard to one of its products: Sales begin to decline as the market becomes saturated, and the product becomes obsolete. Unit costs may increase and the product is a loss maker. Identify the correct stage of the product life cycle that can be attributed to the above mentioned product. a) b) c) d) Growth Stage Introduction Stage Maturity Stage Decline Stage

Question 1.10 At which stage of the new product development process will the organisation assess the Target Market and all aspects of the marketing mix to be implemented: a) Idea Generation b) Idea Screening c) Marketing Strategy Development d) Test Marketing

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Question 1.11

The key requirement of extending the traditional 4 P marketing mix to 7 P extended marketing mix is:

a) The advent of e-commerce into the marketing equation creating issues for marketers to manage its marketing activities with the existing marketing mix b) The intensity of competition c) The advent of service into the marketing equation creating issues for marketers to mange service situations with the existing marketing mix. d) The environmental changes created issues for marketers to manage its marketing activities with the existing marketing mix

Question 1.12 Breakeven point is calculated as:

a) b) c) d)

Total Fixed cost/Contribution per unit Total Fixed cost/Variable cost per unit Variable cost per unit/Contribution per unit Profit/Contribution per unit

Question 1.13

When a truly innovative product is introduced to the market which does not have any substitutes and which carries less price elasticity of demand, what will be the best pricing strategy a Marketer could use?

a) b) c) d)

Psychological Pricing Strategy Market Penetration Pricing Strategy Value based Pricing Strategy Market Skimming Pricing Strategy

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Question 1.14

The key aspects of Physical Distribution Management are: a) Order Processing, Warehousing, Inventory Management, and Transportation b) Order Processing, Quality Control, and Transportation c) Inventory Management, Quality Control, Order Taking, and Transportation d) Manufacturing, Quality Control, Warehousing, and Transportation Question 1.15

The starting point for developing an advertising campaign is:

a) b) c) d)

Identifying the target market Defining advertising objectives Understanding the firm's marketing strategy Setting the advertising budget

Question 1.16

The Public Relations department of XYZ group of companies communicate with a range of Publics. Which of the following would not be included in their publics: a) b) c) d) The media Customers, suppliers, distributors The company employees All of the above would be included

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Question 1.17 There are many methods available for a marketer to decide on its communication budget. The method, where the organisation sets its budget on what it wants to accomplish with communications is known as: a) Affordable Method b) Objective and Task Method c) Competitive Parity Method d) Percentage of Sales Method

Question 1.18 The SWOT analysis allows the marketer to gain a competitive advantage over the competitors by the Matching Principle. The Matching Principle is about: a) b) c) d) Converting weakness to threats and converting strengths into opportunities Converting weakness to strengths and converting threats into opportunities Converting weakness to strengths and converting opportunities into threats None of the above

Question 1.19 Ansoffs matrix is a strategic marketing tool used to plan for:

a) b) c) d)

New Product Development Product Life-cycle Changes Business Growth Product Positioning

Question 1.20 A systematic examination of a firms marketing g environment, objectives, strategies, and activities, with a view to identifying key strategic issues and opportunities, is called: a) b) c) d) Marketing Audit Control Process SWOT Analysis None of the above (1.5 Marks 20 = 30 Marks)

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PART TWO Answer all questions

Question 2

Question 2.1 Describe the range of marketing mix elements that you could use in order to communicate with your customers (05 marks)

Question 2.2 In identifying the target audience for marketing communications, an image analysis plays a vital role. Explain briefly the importance of carrying out an image analysis for this purpose. (05 marks) Question 2.3 Briefly explain the key stages involved in planning and developing an effective communication campaign for your organisation. (15 marks)

Question 2.4 One of the most frequently used communication process model is the AIDA model. Briefly explain how marketers use this model effectively in taking the consumer through an effective communication process in order to achieve its communication objectives. (05 marks)

(Total 30 marks)

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PART THREE Answer a total of 2 questions from this part

Question 3

Organisations which follow the marketing concept are said to be marketing-oriented. Marketing orientation means being driven by customer needs. The philosophical idea underlining all marketing thought is that corporate success comes from satisfying customer needs.

a) Explain what you understand by the term marketing orientation in the context of the above statement and discuss the steps involved in establishing a marketing orientation approach to an organisation.

(10 marks)

b) Discuss the anticipated benefits of implementing the marketing concept and identify some of the problems/difficulties marketers may face in implementing this concept. (10 marks)

Question 4

a) Explain the target marketing process and state why marketers tend to choose the target marketing process as against mass marketing and mass customization. (08 marks)

b) Identify and briefly explain a suitable set of segmentation variables/bases for segmenting the education market in Sri Lanka and identify two potential segments that you would like to recommend to the government to encourage private sector participation. (12 marks)

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Question 5

a) Identify and explain briefly the 3 broad types of new product categories and list three reasons for introducing new products. (08 marks) b) Explain the key stages of the New Product Development (NPD) process with relevant examples and identify four reasons why NPD fails. (12 marks)

-END-

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Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Understanding Consumers


Date: 19th December 2011

Time: 0900 Hrs 1200 Hrs

Duration: Three (03) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100. There are three parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One and Part Two are compulsory. Part One includes 20 multiple choice questions. Select the best answer from the given choices and mark it in the given space in the answer booklet. Part Two includes six compulsory short answer questions. Part Three includes 3 questions. Answer two questions from this part. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2 3 Always start answering a question on a new page. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. 4 Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate Page 11 of 93 5 Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized.

PART ONE Answer all questions. Mark the most suitable answer in the given space in the answer booklet.

Question 01
1. Under the cognitive view of decision making consumers are assumed to be: a) b) c) d) Perfect rational decision makers Information processors Irrational purchasers Impulsive buyers

2. Products under high involvement purchase situations can have the characteristics of: a) b) c) d) Being very expensive but having a low perceived risk Having serious personal consequences and reflecting on the consumers social image Having very few important attributes but a high perceived risk All of the above

3. External influences of consumer decision making process include: a) b) c) d) Rituals Customs Core values All of the above

4. Stages of consumer decision making process logically consists of the following: a) b) c) d) Trial>>>purchase>>>post-purchase evaluation External influences>>>consumer decision making>>>post-decision behaviour Need recognition>>>pre-purchase searching>>>evaluation of alternatives Input>>>process>>>output

5. When a consumer feels a brand is inferior and neglects it in a purchase situation, the brand belongs to: a) b) c) d) Evoked set of brands Inert set of brands Indifferent set of brands Inept set of brands

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6. Groups in which a person does not hold membership; does not have face-to-face contact with whose values, attitudes & behaviour he or she disapproves of are called: a) b) c) d) Contractual groups Aspirational groups Disclaimant groups Avoidance groups

7. When an individual perceives a stimulus that is below his or her level of conscious awareness, this process is referred to as: a) b) c) d) Sensation Supraliminal perception Subliminal perception Just-Noticeable-Difference (JND)

8. Predispositions that make an individuals perception different from those of others do not consist of: a) b) c) d) Expectations Motives Learning Marketing mix elements

9. Principles of perceptual organization do not include: a) b) c) d) Figure and ground Grouping Physical appearance Closure

10. When an FMCG company introduces a new hand-wash product using its presently successful toilet soap brand name, this situation best describes the concept of: a) b) c) d) Physical appearance Stereo-type Irrelevant cues Halo effect

11. A research technique that a marketer can use to identify the present positioning of his or her brand in comparison to its competitors is: a) b) c) d) Attitude surveys Perceptual mapping Dept interviews Focus group interviews

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12. If you are looking for an HP lap-top computer to purchase, it is: a) b) c) d) A generic goal A product-specific goal A drive An object

13. A persons inability to attain a goal can result in: a) b) c) d) Negative motivation Tension Frustration Disconfirmation

14. According to Herzbergs two-factor theory of motivation job security and paid insurance are: a) b) c) d) Motivational factors Hygiene factors Satisfiers None of the above

15. The assumption that consumers always go for new products that are associated with a favourably viewed brand name is a major idea of: a) b) c) d) Learning theories Classical conditioning theory Instrumental conditioning theory Cognitive learning theory

16. Elements of culture include: a) b) c) d) Customs Language and symbols Rituals All of the above

17. How a unique consumption phenomenon happens in a particular cultural setting can be best understood through: a) b) c) d) Semiotics Ethnography Surveys Experiments

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18. In comparison to primary data, limitations of secondary data does not include: a) b) c) d) Less relevance Less accuracy Insufficient Less expensive

19. Qualitative research studies rely heavily on: a) b) c) d) Random sampling techniques Non-random sampling techniques Stratified sampling technique Cluster sampling technique

20. The arithmetic Mean of the following data set- 6, 3, 6, 8, 7, 2, 3, 4, 6 is: a) b) c) d) 6 8 5.5 5

(Total 30 Marks)

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PART TWO Answer all questions. Question 02 Adoption of Internet Banking by Sri Lankan Customers With the recent advances, consumers have increasing access to innovative financial services such as automated teller machines (ATMs), smart cards and computer banking. Using these innovative features, consumers can conduct fast and conventional financial transactions and obtain account information without visiting banks. However, a vast majority of products and services, which were launched in previous years, has failed at a considerable cost to those involved. In Sri Lanka also, the adoption rate of internet banking is not adequate according to bank sources. Hence, banks need to enhance the understanding of why some people adopt an innovation while others do not and the factors that may influence the adoption decision which is of considerable practical value to executives of the Sri Lankan banking sector.

2.1. If you were to carry out a study on the empirical issue above, identify two (2) possible objectives of the study. (05 marks)

2.2. Identify two (2) possible psychological factors that might influence the Sri Lankan decision to adopt internet banking services.

consumers (05 marks)

2.3. Based on the above identified factors, develop two (02) hypotheses in relation to the objectives the study. (05 marks)

of

2.4. Identify two (2) possible data sources you might use for the study with justification. (05 marks)

2.5. Suggest your research approach to conduct the study with justification. (05 marks)

2.6. Suggest four (4) statistical measures you would employ to analyse survey data so as to accomplish the research objectives you set above with justifications. (05 marks)

(Total 30 Marks)

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PART THREE

Answer a total of 2 questions from this part

Question 03
a) Explain with examples how marketers can use three (3) perceptual distortion mechanisms in promoting their brands. (10 marks) b) Describe Maslows theory of hierarchy of needs. Briefly explain two (2) strategic marketing applications of the theory. (10 marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

Question 04
a) Marketers can change present attitudes of consumers using several approaches. One of these approaches is changing the basic motivational function of consumers. Explain with examples how marketers can change the basic motivational function of consumers. (10 marks) b) Describe the term core values with examples. Should marketers change core values held by their target buyers? Justify your answer.

(10 marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

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Question 05 Suppose that you are the idea manager of a large multinational operating in Sri Lanka. The company intends to introduce a new body-wash to the local market and wants to explore potential avenues for developing an effective appeal for its advertising campaign. For this purpose you are required to arrange a brain-storming session in the form of a focus group discussion.

a) Explain how you would plan this group discussion effectively. (10 marks)

b) If you were the moderator of the above group discussion, explain your role in improving the effectiveness of the group discussion. (10 marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

-END-

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Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Effective Communication Skills


Date: 13th December 2011

Time: 1400 Hrs 1700 Hrs

Duration: Three (03) Hrs

Total marks for the paper is 100. There are three parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One and Part Two are compulsory. Part One includes 20 multiple choice compulsory questions. Select the best answer from the given choices and mark it in the given space in the answer booklet. Part Two includes 6 compulsory short answer questions. Part Three includes 3 questions. Answer two questions from this part. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2 3 Always start answering a question on a new page. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. 4 Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate 5

Page 19will of 93 Illegible hand writing and language errors be penalized.

PART ONE Answer all questions Mark the most suitable answer in the given space in the answer booklet Question 1 1. 1 The list of illustration should contain the following; a) b) c) d) Figure Table number Titles & page numbers All of the above

1.2

The book of Hidden Dimensions is written by; a) b) c) d) Thomas Edison Gary Barnett Edward Hall Thomas Edison and Edward Hall both

1.3

Attitude could be built using .. technique. a) b) c) d) Four Five Six Seven

1.4

One of the following is NOT a problem of the speaker, when the presentation is not going as planned; a) b) c) d) Attendance of expected people Visual equipment failures Visual aid problem Unexpected Interruption

1.5

Chronological Resume means; a) b) c) d) Listing all experience from least to most Listing all experience in skills cluster Listing all experience from most to least None of the following

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1.6

One of the following is behaviour of the Hippo; a) b) c) d) Aggressive and inflexible Liable to run away Intelligent but could not plod on for ever Half a sleep most of the time

1.7

One of the following is NOT a Reduce Resistance; a) b) c) d) Trial offer Free samples Money back guarantee Save money

1.8

There are two major goals in business presentation; a) b) c) d) To inform or to persuade To convince or to create need To inform and present None of the above

1.9

In a sentence a noun or a pronoun is known as; a) b) c) d) e) Pronoun Preposition Correlative Connection All of the above

1.10

Pitch Variation means; a) b) c) d) The speed at which you speak at a presentation Gradually decreasing your voice Highness or lowness of the voice Maintaining different tones

1.11

When preparing a report it is important that you should define unfamiliar words and words with specific meaning. This is known as; a) b) c) d) Definition of Key Terms Literature Review Sources and Methods All of the above

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1.12

One of the following is NOT a classification of nonverbal communication; a) b) c) d) Gestures and Posture Appearance Attendance All of the above

1.13

Horseshoe seating arrangement style means; a) b) c) d) According to the hall Square arrangement U-shape arrangement Round setup

1.14

What are the common types of visual aids that are used? a) b) c) d) Charts & Graphs Photographs Drawings & Maps All of the above

1.15

One of the following audited documents which are issued annually by all public listed companies to their shareholders in accordance with SEC regulations is known as; a) b) c) d) Justification Report Feasibility Report Informative Reports Annual Report

1.16

One of the following is the best definition of Tone in communication; a) b) c) d) When someone speaks loud An impression that you create when communicating An impression you create in your listener An impression that you create in your reader

1.17

Pronouns are; a) b) c) d) This, that & these Who & whom He, she & it All of the above

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1.18

One of the following is a key heading which is listed first in a combination resume; a) b) c) d) Education & Qualification Names & Address Skills & Experience Experience & Referees

1.19

Distortion occurs due to one of the following; a) b) c) d) e) If your voice is raised If the tone is high If Jargon is used a and b are correct

1.20 Who gives more priority to the quality than to the colour when choosing a product? a) b) c) d) Colour Backward Colour Loyal Colour Prudent Colour Forward

(Total 30 Marks)

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PART TWO Answer all questions Question 2 2.1 Briefly explain what is meant by Paralanguage. (05 marks)

2.2

Describe how Word Processing works and list its basic functionalities. (05 marks)

2.3

Illustrate the use of Memos with a few examples. (05 marks)

2.4

List the types of selection of participants for a meeting. (05 marks)

2.5

Briefly explain the Resume and three types of Job Hunters in point form. (05 marks)

2.6

Write down the six key points when writing the Executive Summary. (05 marks)

(Total 30 Marks)

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PART THREE Answer TWO questions from this part

Question 3 a) Briefly explain the word Acronym with a few examples and explain its disadvantages.

(Total 20 Marks) Question 4 a) What are the key pieces of information included in a good agenda. b) Draw up a agenda using the above key criteria. (Total 20 Marks) Question 5 a) Write a professional Cover Letter taking into consideration all key factors of a Cover Letter Format of your choice.

(Total 20 Marks)

(Total 40 Marks)

-END-

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Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Economics and Legal Concepts for Marketing Part One Economics
Date: 21st December 2011

Time: 0900 Hrs 1100 Hrs

PART ONE

Duration: Two (02) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100 marks. There are three parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One and Part Two are compulsory. Part One includes Compulsory multiple choice questions. Select the most appropriate answer from the given choices and mark it in the given space in the answer book. Part Two includes 06 Compulsory short answer questions. Part Three includes 03 Questions. Answer only 02 Question from this part. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2 3 4 Always start answering a question on a new page. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate 5 Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized.

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Answer all questions and mark the most suitable answer in the given space in the answer booklet. Question 1 Question 1.1 Scarcity exists in every society because there are:
a) limited wants and abundant resources. b) limited resources and unlimited production capabilities. c) limited resources and unlimited wants. d) limited production capabilities and an unlimited quantity of economic resources.

Question 1.2 The Production Possibility Frontier depicts:


a) the maximum amount of alternative combinations of two goods that an economy can produce at a point in time. b) the limited amount of resources that an economy has at a point in time. c) the alternative combination of capital and labour inputs used in producing goods and services over time. d) the economys employment level at a point in time.

Question 1.3 The intersection of a market demand curve and a market supply curve for a commodity determines:
a) the equilibrium price for the commodity. b) the equilibrium quantity for the commodity. c) the point of neither surplus nor shortage for the commodity. d) all of the above.

Question 1.4 Which of the following statements is not true when price is above the equilibrium price?
a) There is a shortage of the commodity. b) The quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded of the commodity. c) The pressure on the commodity price is downward. d) There is a surplus of the commodity.

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Question 1.5 Supply is initiated by:


a) customers with the intention of maximising profit. b) suppliers with the intention of maximising profit. c) customers with the intention of maximising utility. d) suppliers with the intention of maximising utility.

Question 1.6 The demand curve is downward sloping due to:


a) income effect. b) income and substitution effect. c) substitution effect. d) consumption effect.

Question 1.7 Perfect inelastic demand indicates:


a) a horizontal curve showing different quantities demanded at a constant price. b) an upright curve showing quantity changes little with a large movement in price. c) a vertical curve showing a constant quantity demanded at different prices. d) a flatter curve showing a large decrease in quantity demanded with a small increase in price.

Question 1.8 The value of perfectly inelastic supply:


a) is equal to zero. b) ranges between 0 1. c) reports infinity. d) is equal to 1.

Question 1.9 Average revenue is equal to:


a) unit selling price multiplied by total output sold. b) total output sold divided by total revenue. c) total revenue divided by unit selling price. d) total revenue divided by total output sold in units.

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Question 1.10 Monopoly is a market stricture in which:


a) there are many buyers and sellers. b) there is only one producer/seller for a product. c) there are only few firms that make up an industry. d) there are no entry barriers to the market.

Question 1.11 All of the following are characteristics of the Oligopoly Market, except:
a) interdependency. b) no entry barriers. c) collective pricing decisions. d) fewer number of large scale firms.

Question 1.12 Total utility is:


a) the amount of satisfaction that a consumer derives by consuming a commodity. b) the utility gained through the change in the form of the commodity. c) the aggregate sum of satisfaction that an individual gains by consuming a given amount of goods
and services.

d) the utility gained through the product consumed at the right time.

Question 1.13 Output method of National Income calculates:


a) the gross domestic expenditure based on major expenses. b) the gross domestic income based on national income figures. c) the money value of all final goods and services produced in an economy. d) the cost of all final goods and services produced in an economy

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Question 1.14 In the Two Sector Economy of national income, accounting leakages happen through:
a) taxes. b) imports. c) taxes and imports. d) savings.

Question 1.15 The degree to which the quantity supplied changes according to a change in any determinant of supply is identified as:
a) elasticity of demand. b) elasticity of supply. c) price elasticity of supply. d) elasticity of income.

Question 1.16 Deflation can be identified when:


a) the general level of prices is increasing. b) the inflation of a country exceeds 10%. c) the general level of prices is falling. d) there is a rapid devaluation of currency.

Question 1.17

Cost-push inflation exists when:


a) consumers use their market power to push up prices. b) resource owners use their market power to push up prices. c) potential output is growing faster than real GDP. d) real GDP is increasing faster than potential GDP.

Question 1.18

The Concept of Comparative Advantage was initially introduced by:


a) Adam Smith. b) David Ricardo. c) Alfred Marshall d) John Maynard Keynes.

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Question 1.19 Floating exchange rate is set by:


a) the government by tying official exchange rate to another countrys currency. b) the central bank according to supply and demand of a particular currency. c) the monetary authority of a particular government. d) the foreign exchange market through supply and demand of a particular currency relative to other currencies.

Question 1.20 With each additional increase in consumption of a good, marginal utility usually
a) remains constant. b) decreases. c) increases. d) exceeds total utility.

(Total 30 Marks)

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PART TWO Answer all questions Question 2 Question 2.1 Explain the importance of understanding the Determinants of Demand in marketing decision-making. (5 Marks) Question 2.2 What are the three methods of calculating the national income of a country? (5 Marks) Question 2.3 Briefly explain the concepts of Inflation, Deflation and Hyperinflation. (5 Marks) Question 2.4 What do you mean by Income Elasticity of Demand? goods and inferior goods. Question 2.5 Define Monopolistic Competitive Market Structure and list its three characteristics. (5 Marks) Question 2.6 Explain Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC). (5 Marks) (Total 30 Marks) Distinguish between normal (5 Marks)

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PART THREE Answer only TWO (02) questions from this part Question 3 Define International Trade. Discuss the importance of engaging in International Trade for firms. (20 Marks) Question 4 Define Economies and Diseconomies of Scale. Discuss main types of Economies of Scale referring to internal and external economies of scale. (20 Marks) Question 5 Define Fiscal Policy. Explain Expansionary and Contractionary Fiscal Policies and their effect on the government budget. (20 Marks)

(Total of 40 Marks)

END -

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Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Economics and Legal Concepts for Marketing Part Two - Legal
Date: 21st December 2011 Time: 1100 Hrs 1200 Hrs Duration: One (01) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100 marks. There are three parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One and Part Two are compulsory. Part One includes 10 Compulsory multiple choice questions. Select the most appropriate answer from the given choices and mark it in the given space in the answer book. Part Two includes 06 Compulsory short answer questions. Part Three includes 03 Questions. Answer only 01 Question from this part. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2 3 4 Always start answering a question on a new page. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate 5 Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized.

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PART ONE Answer all questions. Mark the most suitable answer in the given space in the answer booklet. 1. Which of the following is not the legal requirement of a valid acceptance?
a. b. c. d. It must be communicated. It must be absolute and unconditional. It must be presumed from silence if not communicated within the specified time. It must be accepted by a person who has the authority to accept.

2. Amal lost his dog. He sent his servant to search for the dog. When Amal did not hear about the lost dog, he advertised a reward of Rs. 10,000 to any person who found the lost dog and returned it to Amal. The servant found the lost dog and returned the lost dog to Amal. When the servant came to know about the reward of Rs 10,000 he claimed the reward from Amal. Can he claim the reward.
a. b. c. e. He cannot claim the reward since the offer was not communicated to him. He can claim the reward since there is a valid contract between Amal and the He cannot claim the reward because he is the servant of Amal He can claim the reward since he found the lost dog. servant.

3. Peter leads Deepal erroneously to believe that 100 tons of indigo are made annually at Peters factory. Deepal examines the accounts of the factory and finds that only 50 tons of indigo have been made. Afterwards, Deepal buys the factory. Deepal now wants to avoid the contract.
a. Deepal can avoid the contract because it is based on misrepresentation. b. Deepal can avoid the contract because it is based on fraud. c. Deepal cannot avoid the contract because he had duly affirmed the contract even after knowledge of misrepresentation. d. Deepal can avoid the contract because it is a void contract.

4.

Of the following which is the incorrect statement?


a. b. c. d. Ordinary damages are recoverable. Special damages are recoverable only if the parties knew about them. Remote damages are not recoverable. None of these statements is correct.

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5. Samantha fraudulently represented to Star Jewelers Shop that she was the wife of the famous politician John and thus obtained a valuable gold necklace worth Rs. 100,000 on credit. But she did not pay money. She subsequently sold the necklace to Shane, another jeweler for Rs. 75,000.
a. b. c. d. The contract between Samantha and Star Jewelers was a voidable contract. The contract between Samantha and Star Jewelers was based on a unilateral mistake. Star jewelers cannot get the necklace from Shane. All the above answers are correct.

6.

Legally, a contract of sale includes:


a. b. c. d. Sale Agreement to sell Barter Both a and b

7. B selects certain furniture in a shop. The price is settled. He arranges to take delivery of the furniture the next day through his driver and agrees to pay for the furniture on the first of the next month. The furniture was destroyed by fire on the same evening. Is B liable to pay the price?
a. b. c. d. B is not liable to pay the price because at the time of fire it was at the furniture shop. B is not liable to pay the price because he has not paid money for the furniture. B is liable to pay the price because ownership of furniture has passed to him. None of these.

8.

Which of the following statement is not true?


a. b. c. d. e. An agent An agent An agent An agent should conduct business according to his principals instructions. is liable to account for any secret profit made by him. is not liable for many misinformation given to the principal. should not deal on his own account.

9.

An endorsement made by an endorser by signing his name and also by writing the name of the endorsee is known as:
a. b. c. d. General endorsement Special endorsement Restrictive endorsement None of these.

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10.

Which statement is incorrect regarding inventions?


a. An invention is an idea of an inventor which permits in practice the solution to a specific problem. b. An invention is related to a product or process. c. Inventions such as discoveries, scientific theories and mathematical methods shall be patentable. d. Inventions such as schemes, methods of doing business shall not be patentable.

(4 marks x 10)

Total of 40 marks.

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PART TWO Answer all questions. Question 02


a. What are the various methods of termination of an offer? (10 marks) b. To get registration of a trade mark what type of information need to be provided to the Director General? (10 marks) c. State briefly the duties and of an agent. (10 marks)

(30 Marks)

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PART THREE Answer one question from this part. Question 03


a. Define goods and explain how goods are classified. (15 marks) b. Explain briefly the implied conditions in a sale of goods contract. (15 marks) (30 Marks) Question 04 a. What do you understand by the doctrine of frustration of contracts? (15 marks) b. Define the term capacity to contract. State the law relating to the competence of the parties, giving suitable examples. (15 marks) (30 Marks)

Question 05 a. What are the main differences between bill of exchange and cheque? (15 marks) b. Explain clearly the term Negotiation. What are the different modes of negotiation? (15 marks)

(30 Marks) -END-

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Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Brand Management


Date: 20 December 2011
th

Time: 0900 Hrs 1200 Hrs

Duration: Three (03) Hrs

There are two parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One are compulsory. It includes a mini case. Part Two includes 6 questions divided into three sections. Select one question at least from each section and answer 3 questions from Part Two. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2 3 4 Always start answering a question on a new page You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate

Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized

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PART ONE
Answer all questions Question 1 Case study Air Lanka to SriLankan: Just a rebrand or beginning of new era 30 years ago Air Ceylon a state owned civil aviation entity converted into a dynamic new venture with better international presence and new partnerships. The countrys commercial aviation industry began a new era with this venture. Having tied up with Singapore airlines, one of the worlds best airlines for technical and management partnership, with the dawn of the open economy, tourism boom and new globalised conditions, the Air Lanka brand grew from its regional presence to a global presence. Air Lanka was able to build it brand within the aviation industry as one of the friendliest in the world. Their success was a hallmark of the familiar hospitality and friendliness of Sri Lankans. However, by the beginning of the 90s the airline faced major financial losses due to the problems in the global aviation industry. Also certain management mishaps and difficulties faced by the bureaucratic structure they had maintained due to government ownership may have also contributed to this. Air Lanka brand faced major criticism for frequent delays of their flights. Operational difficulties and aging fleet situations within this time period also tarnished the brand name to a great extent. This resulted in the dramatic decision of privatising the national airline in 1994. After privatisation, the Dubai based aviation giant Emirates airlines became the management partner of the airline. They were involved in a rapid revamping process of infrastructure development and procurement of new aircraft. The most prominent change they made was rebranding Air Lanka as SriLankan. Along with the name change, logos, colours and all other branding aspects were changed. The Global presence of the airline was reinstated with new destinations and dynamic features comparable with other international giants. The airline won many accolades and recognition internationally. Within the 12 years of partnership with Emirates, SriLankan was able to achieve a level of infrastructure development despite the terrorist attacks and other challenges it faced. Yet the airline was not able to make major profits within this period due to global and local socioeconomic and political scenarios. Also major criticism was aimed at Emirates about restricting Sri Lankan to its regional base and keeping it as a feeder for Dubai. In 2010 SriLankan airlines management was again taken over by the government of Sri Lanka by buying back the shares from Emirates. This became a new era again for the airline. There was some speculation that SriLankan may change its name to AirLanka, but the government decided to keep the name.

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I.

Consider yourself as the newly appointed brand manager of Sri Lankan Airlines. Analyse the brand position for SriLankan airlines covering the following areas: a. Brand features and benefits b. Brand personality c. Brand value and vision (20 marks)

II.

The name SriLankan is better than the name Air Lanka for a commercial airline brand. Critically evaluate this statement using your knowledge of brand management. (20 marks) (Total 40 marks)

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PART TWO Answer three questions selecting at least one from each section

Section A Question 2

I.

Consumers perceived risk can be reduced by brands. with your knowledge of branding, explain how a brand will reduce the main risks of the consumers (10 marks)

II.

Using an appropriate example explain the concept of brand positioning and how a particular brand is positioned among customers. (10 marks)

(Total 20 marks)

Question 3 I. Naming is a prerequisite in the process of converting a commodity into a brand. But naming itself needs to fulfill certain basic criteria to make the brand name prominent and sustainable in the future. Identify at least three (03) main criteria that need to be considered when naming a brand with relevant examples for the effective use of each criteria. (10 marks) II. The symbolic meaning of brand is important to gain a competitive advantage Describe this statement with your brand management knowledge. (10 marks) (Total 20 marks)

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Section B Question 4 I. Using an appropriate example, explain how brand personality is important in building a brand relationship. (10 marks) II. Some companies build brands while others buy them. What are the main considerations of the decision to building or buying brands? (10 marks) (Total 20 marks) Question 5 I. Explain the difference between brand extension and brand stretching with relevant examples. (10 marks) Value added brand is used by organisations to gain a competitive advantage. Explain value added brands and how they give a competitive advantage with relevant examples (10 marks) (Total 20 marks)

II.

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Section

Question 6

I.

Write short notes on following a. Brand vision b. Brand identity prism of Kapferers (10 marks)

II.

Customers purchase a brand to solve their problems (physical as well as and psychological) Explain this statement using your knowledge of buying process and branding.

socio

consumer

(10 marks) (Total 20 marks)

Question 7 I. Explain different phases of brand life cycle and strategies to manage brands in each phase. (10 marks) II. What is Brand Audit? Explain. (10 marks) (Total 20 marks)

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Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Distribution Management


Date: 15th December 2011

Time: 0900 Hrs 1200 Hrs

Duration: Three (03) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100. There are two parts in this question paper
All questions in Part One are compulsory. It includes a mini case. Part Two includes 6 questions divided into three sections. Select one question at least from each section and answer 3 questions from Part Two. Instructions to candidates
6 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 7 8 9 Always start answering a question on a new page You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate

10

Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized

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Part one Answer all questions

Question 01 International Education The demand for international education and qualifications continue to grow in Sri Lanka. An increasing number of UK institutions see Sri Lanka as a significant market, as they seek to diversify. They are also establishing more courses jointly run with Sri Lankan institutions incountry, and / or promoting distance or open learning methods. Increasing numbers of students and professionals take examinations which give them international recognition. An increase in demand for International School Leaving Qualifications has also occurred, despite high fees. Although the majority of families do not have the resources to fund an international education, there is a growing disillusion with the options the state offers. Hence those with funds are looking for alternatives. Of even more significance, a growing number of Sinhala (the mother tongue of the majority of people of Sri Lanka) medium private schools are now offering British A-levels as an option, and the uptake is high. (Note: to be admitted to universities in Sri Lanka, students must sit for the Sri Lankan A-Levels. International schools do not offer their students the option of taking Sri Lankan A-levels.) In 2009, Sri Lankan private schools (national and international) were producing around 2,500 candidates with good British A-levels results. Some of these students have the desire and the financial resources to pursue higher education at a degree or diploma level. There is also demand for postgraduate studies in research fields. Graduate output from Sri Lankan universities for the year 2008 was 11,941 (first degree) and 2,708 (postgraduate). Out of these, there has been a considerable increase in the percentage of graduates with a preference for research programmes in the fields of Bio-Technology, Pharmacology and Molecular Biology. In addition, the University of Colombo has introduced new undergraduate courses in Pharmacology and Bio-chemistry. However, there are no postgraduate courses in these fields, and as a result there is further demand for research programmes abroad. MBAs have become very popular with professionals, but they generally opt for distance learning / affiliated courses, due to the time factor.

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Our Infrastructure and Strategic Education Priorities:

Sri Lanka is not an Education UK Partnership country. We have to generate funds to deliver our events according to the expected standards. We encourage UK based institutions to build more links with local colleges and provide affiliated courses in Sri Lanka.

1.1)

You have been appointed as the head of recruitment of prospective students by this newly established educational institute. You are to brief the management about the concept of recruitment as a marketing function. Your answer should discuss the personal selling function based on the marketing mix. Use diagrams to explain your answer. (20 Marks)

1.2)

Write a report to the management explaining What is personal selling?. Your report should explain why personal selling should be done, the type of personal selling required and the qualities of a good salesperson.

(20 Marks)

(Total 40 Marks)

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PART TWO Answer a total of 3 questions selecting at least one from each section

Section A Question 2 a) You have recruited a few sales people. You have to submit a proposal for their training to the management. You need to explain to the management the following: Why it is necessary to train salesmen; how the sales training process is planned; and the obstacles you face in doing this. (10 Marks) b) Explain how your sales training program would be designed. Explain the contents of a sales training programme. (10 Marks) (Total 20 Marks)

Question 3 a) It is said good territory management will help an organisation to gain many benefits. Explain at least four benefits good territory alignment management could bring to an organisation. (10 Marks) b) Explain what you understand by the seven step procedure of redistricting territory management. (10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

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Section B

Question 4 a) Transportation has a very significant effect on the overall organisations cost. Explain the available transportation methods to a firm. (10 Marks) b) Explain how a firm could select the best transport method that suits its distribution. (10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

Question 5 a) Repeated research has indicated the longer the customers remain with a firm the greater the profits. Explain the four factors that is said to be generating incremental profits over a period of time. (10 Marks) b) Explain the three parts of the application architecture of CRM.

(10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

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Section C

Question 06 a) The world has seen an accelerated trend in the growth of services. How would you understand the term customer service excellence? Explain it through your experiences. (10 marks) b) Explain these two terms understanding the customer and helping the customer (10 marks)

(Total 20 Marks) Question 07 a) Explain the six customer focus skills which are effective for better and more effective customer focused selling. (10 Marks) b) Explain what you understand by customer focus prospecting

(10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

-END-

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Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Promotional Practice


Date: 13th December 2011

Time: 0900 Hrs 1200 Hrs

Duration: Three (03) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100. There are two parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One are compulsory. It includes a mini case. Part Two includes 6 questions. Select at least one question from each section and answer 3 questions from this part. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2 3 4 Always start answering a question on a new page. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate 5 Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized.

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PART ONE Answer all questions Question 01: Case Study Sri Lankan candy maker comes back into business In November, 2008 Sri Lankan chocolate maker Dana says it will resume production and start an aggressive marketing campaign to clear their name after winning a court battle over a melamine contamination scare.

On November 21, Colombo High Court gave the firm the go ahead after using fresh samples taken by the government analyst. Dana says the company will start its distribution activities as soon as possible. "Since we have the whole melamine matter behind us now, well be aggressively starting our campaign in December," says the head of marketing at Dana Chocolates. The issue started with reports from China of infant formula contaminated with melamine. Due to a milk powder shortage experienced in the country, Dana says it decided to import 51 metric tonnes of milk powder from China in August which was investigated by the Health Ministry in late September for melamine contamination. The first cases of melamine were detected in mainland China in infant milk formula in mid-July 2008 after four infants had died of kidney damage. It was estimated that around 50,000 more people were sick after consuming Chines milk. The company says it lost 250 million rupees of sales a month during a court order which suspended their activities. The chocolate manufacturer with a 56 year history claims it had a 41 percent market share before the melamine scare hit. There was also a malicious e-mail campaign against Dana Chocolates by an unknown competitor. "One of our competitors used their sales representatives to distribute the emails to retail shops," says the head of marketing.

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Despite the Health Ministry's clearance, the CAA had sought a court order on October 13, to completely stop the manufacturing and distribution of Dana chocolates. However, one of the samples submitted by the CAA on October 21 to research lab ALS Singapore, had indicated Dana chocolates contained 1.5 parts per million (ppm) levels of melamine which is well below the World Health Organization and Food and Drug Administration established tolerance limits of 2.5 parts per million for melamine. Dana had sent samples from the same batch of milk powder to ALS Labs and HAS Labs Singapore to double check, which cleared the products. 1.1) Dana will use PR to minimise the negative effects of the situation. Explain if Dana should use a PR consultancy firm or do PR in-house. (5 marks)

1.2)

Explain how 3 PR tools can be used by Dana to eliminate the bad image created and recapture the market share. (15 marks)

1.3)

Dana will have to communicate with different stakeholders in order to minimise the effects of negative publicity and re-build trust. Identify 5 stakeholders Dana will have to tackle and how each stakeholder group can be tackled through PR activities. (20 marks)

(Total 40 Marks)

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PART TWO

Answer one question from each section

Section A

Question 02

a) Briefly explain two main advantages of using Television for advertising. (6 marks)

a) Explain the 4 types of message strategies, Cognitive, Affective, Conative and Brand with the help of local and international examples. (10 marks)

(Total 16 Marks)

Question 03

a) Explain what is meant by merchandising and identify some popular merchandising tools. (6 marks)

b) Your company has decided to conduct sales promotions for your companys brand of shampoo, in order to defend market share. Explain with examples, 3 consumer promotions and 3 trade promotions your company should conduct.

(10 marks)

(Total 16 Marks)

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Section B

Question 04

a) List 5 objectives of direct marketing. (5 marks) b) List 5 types of online advertising and promotions. (5 marks) c) Your company has decided to use catalogues to promote a range of cosmetics. Explain how you will handle the creative process, prepress stage and post printing activities when printing the catalogues. (12 marks)

(Total 22 Marks)

Question 05

a) You are responsible for designing an appropriate packaging for a childrens flavoured liquid milk your company is launching. Explain any three elements of packaging and how you will design each element for this product.

(10 marks)

b) Whats meant by green packaging? Explain 3 ways a company can engage in green packaging, with examples. (12 marks)

(Total 22 Marks)

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Section C

Question 06

a) Differentiate between Advertising and PR with examples. (10 marks)

b) You are planning a promotional event for your company. Explain the 5 stages of the event management process. (12 marks)

(Total 22 Marks)

Question 07

a) List the 5 stages of the Innovation Adoption Model. (5 marks)

b) List 5 types of outdoor advertising and 5 reasons why outdoor advertising is becoming popular. (5 marks)

c) Your company is planning an advertising campaign for a washing powder brand. Explain 2 elements you will consider when deciding on your promotional budget and 3 methods you could use to set your promotional budget. (12 marks)

(Total 22 Marks)

-ENDPage 57 of 93

Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Finance for Marketing


Date: 14th December 2011

Time: 0900 Hrs 1200 Hrs

Duration: Three (03) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100 marks. There are two parts in this question paper. All questions in part one are compulsory. It includes a mini case. Part two has 3 sections. Each section has 2 questions. Select at least one question from each section and answer 3 questions from part two. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2 3 4 Always start answering a question on a new page. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate

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Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized.

Part One Answer all the questions Question 01

SS Packaging is a company engaged in the production of packing materials and they sell their products mainly to corporate customers. The managing director (the owner) of this company was recently appointed as chairman of two leading institutes. Since he has more responsibilities, re appointed a CEO for this company to manage the entire operations of the company. The CEO needs to evaluate the performance of the company to take remedial measures.

SS Packaging Ltd Balance sheet as at 31st March 2011

Fixed assets

2011 Rs 5,164,000

2010 Rs 4,979,000

Current assets Stocks Debtors Cash at Bank Total current assets Creditors falling due within one year Creditors Taxation TR loans Dividend payable Total Current liabilities

341,926 320,313 13,719 675,958 45,230 27,185 600,000 13,983 686,398

352,250 342,109 16,907 711,266 40,494 23,875 500,000 8,284 572,653

Net current assets 5,153,560 Creditors falling due after more than one year 10% Debenture 2,000,000 3,153,560 Capital & reserves Capital 10/-each Accumulated profit 3,000,000 153,560 3,153,560

5,117,613 2,000,000 3,117,613 3,000,000 117,613 3,117,613

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SS Packaging Ltd Profit & loss for the year ended 31st March 2011

Net sales Cost of sale Gross profit Other operating expenses Operating profit Interest Profit after interest Tax on profit Profit before dividend Dividend Profit for the year Profit b/f Profit c/f

2011 Rs 6,339,000 4,012,382 2,326,618 1,938,156

2010 Rs 4,252,000 2,626,400 1,625,600 1,253,220

388,462 260,000 128,462 65,815 62,647 26,700 35,947 117,613 153,560

372,380 250,000 122,380 53,057 69,323 17,250 52,073 65,540 117,613

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Additional information Industry averages

Gross profit Net Profit Earnings per share Current ratio Acid test ratio Return on capital employed Dividend cover Stock turnover Debtors collection period Gearing ratio

38% 3% Rs.0.25 per share 2:1 1.1:1 8% 5 times 12 times 30 days 30%

i.

Credit sales are 90% of the total sales. The debtors and stocks for the year 2009 are Rs.352, 842 and Rs.341, 820 respectively.

ii.

Assume that there are 365 days in the year.

Further, it was decided by the CEO to start a project for launching a product investing Rs.4 million. There are 3 projects called Pra, Qua, Rai proposed by one of the senior managers. Cost of capital of the company is 15%. There is no scrap value at the end of each project.

Project Investment - Year 0 Net cash flow Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 Year 6

Pra (Rs.000) -4000

Qua (Rs.000) -4000

Rai (Rs.000) -4000

1400 1300 1100 1300 1300 0

900 1000 1100 1000 1200 1200

1200 1300 1200 1200 1300 0

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DCF at 15% is as follows:

Year 1 0.87

Year 2 0.76

Year 3 0.66

Year 4 0.57

Year 5 0.5

Year 6 0.43

1.1. Conduct a ratio analysis for the company. (Marks 15) 1.2 The CEO was requested to explain the performance of the company categorising them into; Liquidity (current ratio, acid test) Profitability (gross profit ratio, net profit ratio, earning per share) Shareholder interest (Earnings per share, Return on capital employed, and Dividend cover) Ratios relevant to internal management (stock turnover, debtors collection, gearing ratio) (Marks 8) 1.3. The liquidity of a company is the inter relationship between current assets and current liabilities. Explain as to why it is important to have a good working capital management.

(Marks 3) 1.4. Based on the above information, calculate the following for each project; 1.4.1. Payback Period 1.4.2 .Accounting Rate of Return 1.4.3. Net Present Value 1.4.4. The project that is more feasible (Marks14)

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Part Two Answer three questions selecting at least one from each section

Section A

Question 02

Havana, a Bicycle manufacturer, produces bicycles for children. You, as an Accountant (Marketing), are provided with the following details for the year ended 31st March 2011 to write a report to the DirectorMarketing, giving independent answers to the following questions.

(Rs) Selling price per item No of units sold Variable cost of production per unit Fixed cost for the year Factory overhead Administration Selling distribution overhead 900,000 1,100,000 1,000,000 1,300 11,000 1,000

i.

Calculate the breakeven point and margin of safety in units and in value. Fixed cost is fixed for 12,000 units.

ii. iii.

What is the C/S ratio of the company? The company wishes to achieve a profit of Rs.3, 000,000 how many units should be sold for the year?

iv. v.

If the price of a bicycle is reduced to Rs.1200 what is the breakeven point? Why is the margin of safety important to a company?

(Marks 20)

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Question 03

P& K Ltd produces bags for packing food grade items. The management accountant was asked to prepare a statement of profit for this business under marginal and absorption methods. Fixed Admin & Selling Production Overhead is based on 40,000 bags. There are no opening balances. As a management accountant, you are required to submit profit statements based on the following information.

Production capacity Sales Selling price Direct material Direct labour Variable overhead Variable admin & selling OH Fixed production OH

55,000 bags 50,000 bags Rs.20 Rs.6 Rs.3 Rs.2 Rs.175,000 Rs.100,000

Prepare Profit statements using;

1. Absorption Costing Method 2. Marginal Costing Method 3. Calculate the under/over absorption 4. Give reasons for under or over absorption that arises under the Absorption Costing Method.

(Marks 20)

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Section B

Question 04

Somaratne Company has two production departments called Product A and Product B and three service departments namely Quality, Maintenance and Stores. The following estimate of overheads for the year 2011 has been given to the cost executive.

a. Prepare an overhead analysis sheet showing allocation, apportionment and re-apportionment and also calculate overhead absorption rate for Product A and Product B for the year. Estimated cost: Electricity Lighting & heating Depreciation Other OH expenses Rent & rates Dormitory expenses Rs. 511,000 105,000 200,000 150,000 75,000 102,000

Details of the departments are as follows;

A No of employees Floor area -Sq M Cost of machinery Machine hours 30 3000 500,000 4,000

B 40 3600 700,000 5,000

Quality 3 100 100,000

Maintenance 8 100 300,000

Stores 4 200 200,000

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Further details provided are as follows;

A Indirect material Indirect labour Maintenance & repairs 300,000 30,000 25,000

B 350,000 40,000 40,000

Quality 100,000 20,000 0

Maintenance 150,000 22,000 10,000

Stores 100,000 18,000 20,000

Apportionment is as follows;

A Quality control Maintenance Stores 30 50 40

B 40 40 60

Quality 0 0 0

Maintenance 10 0 0

Stores 20 10 0

b. What is Controllable Cost and Uncontrollable Cost? c. What is Conversion Cost and Notional Cost.

(Marks 20)

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Question 05

Soma Perera & Co. manufactures polythene bags for a wider market through good dealer network. You were asked by the Director of the company to prepare budgeted cash flow for the three months Jan March 2012. The following budgeted formation was provided for.

Sales Nov 2011 Dec 2011 20,000

Purchase 12,000 13,200

Wages 4,000 4,400

Overhead 1,600 2000

Total 17,600 19,600

22,000

Jan 2012

18,000

10,800

3,200

2200

16,200

Feb 2012

21,000

12,600

4,200

1800

18,600

Mar 2012 Total

23,000 104,000

13,800

4,600

2500

20,900

62,400

20,400

10,100

92,900

Additional information;

a. 80% of the sales is on credit basis. 60% of the credit sales are collected in the next month and 40% is in the current month. b. Purchases and overhead payments are allowed one month credit. c. Cash and bank balance as at 1st January 2012 is Rs.25, 000. d. Sales promotion expenses amounting to Rs.6000 is to be paid in February 2012. e. Self assessment income tax amounting to Rs.2,000 is expected to be paid in March 2012. f. Petty cash float is expected to increase by Rs.5, 000 in January 2012. 1. Prepare a cash flow for 3 months ended 31st March 2012. 2. Explain the usefulness of the flexible budget to management. (Marks 20)

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Section C

Question 06

Bee Ltd. introduced a standard costing system to their company to control costs effectively. The company provided the following data related to actual and standard performance for the last month.

Standards data Standard price per Kg Standard production units Standard material for production units Actual data Actual units produced Actual quantity used/produced Actual cost of material purchased 1,550 17,050 204,600 Rs.13 1,500 Kgs. 15,000

Calculate the following variances. a. Material cost variance b. Material price variance c. Material usage variance

Explain the reasons for direct material price variance and material usage variance. What is standard cost and standard costing? Explain basic standards and attainable standards.

(Marks 20)

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Question 07

Price is one of the four elements of the marketing mix. Therefore, pricing plays a vital role in the marketing aspect of the organisation. It helps bring expected profit for an organisation and also customer satisfaction.

a. Explain the following pricing decisions;

i. ii. iii.

Market based pricing decisions Competitor based pricing decisions Pricing based on life cycle of a product

b. Explain the importance of management accounting as a tool of management decision making. c. What is meant by the term flexible budget? d. Explain the requirements for successful budgeting. e. BCG matrix classifies products of an organisation in relation to cash generation and cash usage. Explain BCG matrix.

(Marks 20)

End

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Graduate/Postgraduate Diploma in Marketing December 2011 Examination Marketing Planning


Date: 19th December 2011 Time: 1400 Hrs 17 Hrs Duration: Three (03) Hrs

There are two parts in this question paper.

All questions in Part A are compulsory. It includes a mini case.

Part B includes 6 questions. Select at least one question from each section and answer 3 questions from this part. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2 Always start answering a question on a new page. 3 You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. 4 Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate 5 Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized.

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Part A Answer all Questions Question 01 The Lexmark is a leading printing and imaging solution provider. Lexmark sells its products to customers in over 150 countries around the world. Lexmark caters to both business and consumer segments through products which are specially designed for both home and office. Lexmark sells dot matrix, Inkjet and Laser printers and other related printer supplies such as ink cartridges and toners. Lexmark is the third largest manufacturer of inkjet printers and fifth largest manufacturer of laser printers in the world. In the recent years, there has been a significant growth in the laser printer market. Lexmark has comparatively low presence in the Laser printing market. Lexmark's product portfolio consists of single function printers, photo printers and all-in-one printers. Though Lexmark's portfolio is not as comprehensive as HP, its printers have attractive features and are priced lower than that of the competitors. Through research and development (R&D), Lexmark continuously develops new printer technologies and improves existing technologies. R&D focuses on continuously increasing product performance, ease of use and at the same time lowering the production cost. Lexmark has seven R&D centres around the world and holds over 4000 patents in countries all over the world. Lexmark's R&D efforts are aimed at developing Laser printer technologies, wireless printers and multifunction printers. In the recent years, the revenue and the operating income of Lexmark has significantly decreased whereas that of the competitors such as HP and Canon has increased. The printer market is very competitive. Lexmark competes with large competitors such as HP, Canon and Epson who together with Lexmark caters to 80% of the global printer market. Further, convergence in copier and printer technologies has brought in a number of new players into the printer market. This includes companies such as Xerox and Ricoh who were previously copier companies. Around 80% of Lexmark's revenue is from mature markets such as US and EMEA. Although Lexmark has presence in the fast growing markets, it has comparatively a very low market share of these markets. Growth in re-manufacturers of after-market supplies which includes ink cartridges and toners has created more competition. These manufacturers purchase empty cartridges and toners from the users and, refill and sell them for a lower price than that of the original cartridge manufactures. This has reduced the sales of Lexmarks cartridges and toners. Today, due to the increased use of mobile products such as laptops and other handheld computing devices, there is a growing demand for wireless networks and related peripherals including wireless printers. A wireless network enables wireless access to Internet, printing devices and provides connectivity for other wireless devices. Wireless networks are gradually becoming more popular in home and offices. Further, web printing is another important feature which is becoming popular in printers. Printing websites is not an easy task because printing a web page normally prints unnecessary and lengthy advertisements in the webpage. This has created requirements for facilities that can print only texts on the web page.

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a) Conduct a SWOT analysis for use in the marketing planning process.

(20 Marks)
b) What marketing objectives should be set by Lexmark and what strategies should it use to achieve them?

(20 Marks) (Total 40 Marks)

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Part B Answer a total of three questions with at least one from each section

Section A Question 02
a) Describe briefly eight marketing mix tools included in the tactical planning process.

(10 Marks)
b) List and briefly describe the 10 steps involved in creating a marketing plan.

(10 Marks) (Total 20 Marks) Question 03


a) The scope section is a critical first step in establishing a focus for your business review Discuss this statement.

(10 Marks)
b) An important step in developing a business review is conducting Product and Market Review. What is the purpose of conducting a Product and Market Review?

(10 Marks) (Total 20 Marks) Question 04 a) What criteria should be fulfilled before you finalise a primary target market choice? (10 Marks) b) Why are secondary target markets important? What type of target markets are considered to be a secondary target market? (10 Marks) (Total 20 Marks)

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Question 05
a) Describe briefly key steps that need to be carried out in order to execute the marketing plan successfully.

(20 Marks) (Total 20 Marks) Question 06


a) Briefly outline how the product life cycle (Introduction, growth and maturity) stages of a product affect target market, competition, pricing, distribution and advertising.

(20 Marks) (Total 20 Marks) Question 07


a) Briefly describe the key steps involved in creating an advertising message for your company.

(12 Marks)
b) Discuss the four characteristics of an ideal message strategy. Provide examples.

(8 Marks) (Total 20 Marks)

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Graduate/Postgraduate in Marketing December 2011 Examination Marketing Skills


Date: 20th December 2011

Time: 1400 Hrs 1700 Hrs

Duration: Three (03) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100. There are two parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One are compulsory. It includes a mini case study. Part Two includes 6 questions divided into three sections. Select one question at least 1 from each section and answer 3 questions from Part Two. Instructions to candidates
1 State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2 3 4 Always start answering a question on a new page. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen except in drawing diagrams. Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate 5

Page 75will of 93 Illegible hand writing and language errors be penalized.

PART ONE Answer all questions Question 01: Case study Completing a successful six-year career in the field, Mr. Sugith Rathnayake has been working as the regional marketing director for Asian Cosmetics PLC for just over six months. As part of his duties, he supervises forty territory sales reps across his region. He was the supervisor for forty five reps until last week and five experienced reps resigned three months after he resumed his job at Asian Cosmetics PLC. Since those resignations were a major concern, the board of directors has advised Mr. Rathnayake the importance of retaining experienced sales reps in the company. The CEO further influenced him on retaining capable sales force and warned him about preventing reps from joining competitors. Mr. Rathnayake also knew other factors which had contributed to those resignations were unsatisfactory compensation packages, grave targets and cut back of increments. Due to those resignations, the company recruited another fifteen sales reps. As a result of staff increase and as business boomed, Mr. Rathnayake found himself running a very large section. Asian Cosmetics PLC is a rupees eight billion worth cosmetic manufacturer and it produces a wide range of cosmetics for both men and women. At the beginning Mr. Rathnayake managed his large sales force, but as time went by he showed increasing signs of strain. Once he had been punctual and now he sometimes arrived late. He often stayed late in the evening and continued his office work at home. He worried his boss for decisions on matters referred to him by his staff. As a result, work piled up and affected his overall performance. Mr. Rathnayake sensed that most of his sales staff was unhappy with him. However, his assistant regional marketing manager still had the hope that he could make the staff happy. Mr. Rathnayake felt that the morale of his sales force was very low. But in his last six months on the job, he focused primarily on achieving sales targets through his sales staff. Hence, he thought that he was dedicated to his company and did much work on his own. Some of his sales reps laughed at him saying that he was trying to play a one man show. The senior sales executive addressed his concern at his recent evaluation. His concern was to communicate better with his sales people. Hence, Mr. Rathnayake had also been told that his overall sales performance was not up to the expectation. According to the market research, Asian Cosmetics PLC holds twenty percent of the market share in the region. This is well below the companys current national average of forty percent. What stood out more than anything else was the lack of success in selling more expensive newly introduced cosmetics products by the unit, thus the CEO was already conscious about it. To effectively sell such new products, team effort is required. Hence, the company reps must work with commitment and create a very friendly working environment. Since Mr. Rathnayake knows that he is currently not in a good position in the company, he needs to improve the morale of an under achieving group of people who had a long history of not being committed to achieve company goals. Further, he has to do this in a hard-hitting business climate where his experienced salespeople had left, at the same time the main competitor was hunting his reps with better compensation packages. He believes that he is committed to the organization and tried to do much work by himself. Mr. Rathnayake had taken the advice of his superiors and now he has planned to dedicate his time exclusively to address the above matters.

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He got to know recently that five of his reps named Sisira, Nuwan, Sena, Saman and Sunil who were high performers and experienced sales staff were trying to reach his boss directly to address their concerns. They sell all Asian cosmetics products the way that the company targets were set, but they had been badly affected due to certain decisions of Mr. Rathnayake. Many of the other reps are solid performers, but they were committed to sell existing products and not new cosmetics products. Hence, these reps believed that their sales commissions were reduced due to Mr. Rathnayake. Prior to Mr. Rathnayakes appointment, the reps were very close to each other and now there had been some distractions among them. However, many reps still did not completely reject their boss, but expected to correct him. Mihin and Sarath who are well experienced and capable key reps have analysed their boss Mr. Rathnayakes behaviour. Hence, they accept that Mr. Rathnayake is a hard worker and over committed to his job. Further they have discovered that Mr Rathnayake is experiencing some family problems due to his commitment to his job. Already five key reps have left the company and others hate Mr. Rathnayakes overall work and delayed decisions, Mr. Rathnayake is now in a difficult situation, and really need to resolve the crisis to protect his own dignity. He needs to gain value for his own commitments and respect as a good boss in front of his subordinates.

a. What is the main mistake committed by Mr. Rathnayake in the above crisis? Discuss the consequences of this mistake. (10 Marks)

b. What are the specific behaviours that Mr. Rathnayake should exhibit toward his reps? (10 Marks) c. Do you recommend specific type/s of leadership style/s for Mr. Rathnayake to resolve the above crisis? Justify your answer with your theoretical knowledge of leadership.
(10 Marks) d. Explain the four types of situational leadership styles classified by Hersey and Blanchard which can be used by Mr. Rathnayake for leading his reps. Discuss what style is most important for Mr. Rathnayake to resolve the crisis? (10 Marks)

(Total 40 Marks)

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PART TWO Answer three questions selecting at least one from each section

Section A Question 02

a. Emotional Intelligence is the ability to understand and manage moods and emotions in yourself and others which contributes to effective leadership in organisations.

Explain the six competencies of Relationship Management which was discussed in Golemans Emotional Intelligence Model in 2002.
(10 Marks) b. Assume that you have been appointed as a retail marketing manager of a well established bank. Explain the importance of emotional intelligence for you to improve retail customer services. (10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

Question 03 a. Need for intraprunership could be best described through Michal Porters five forces Model. Explain Porters five forces model and discuss how these five forces affects for your organisation. (10 Marks) b. The success of any corporate marketer significantly depends on his intraprenurial capabilities. List key intraprenurial characteristics and explain how it supports marketers to achieve their corporate goals. (10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

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Section B

Question 04
a. The regional marketing manager was amazed at hostility provoked by introduction of a new production system at the organisation. As far as he was concerned, the workers should make the job more interesting and take the drudgery out of their work load. He has arranged training to take place and he knew that labour turnover would take care of any excess staff. He could see only advantages and yet there had been traffic fuss and the workers had resigned to move to other organisations. What are the possible reasons for the hostility which the regional manager faced? (10 Marks)

b. What he should have done to introduce the change more smoothly?

(10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

Question 05
a. Mediation uses a trained, impartial third party to help reach consensus on substantive issues in disagreements among conflicting parties in public involvement. Discuss the characteristics of non binding medication in negotiations. (10 Marks)

b. You are the marketing manager of a leading FMCG company and are facing a few problems with one of your suppliers who are supplying a very small amount of total raw material supply. There are many suppliers already who had given their consent to supply of raw materials. Do you recommend an integrative bargaining style of negotiation to handle the above situation? Justify your answer. (10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

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Section

Question 06
a. Explain the classical model of decision making. Discuss your answer by highlighting situation where you have used the above model in your job as a marketer.

(12 Marks)

b. Should the marketing manger make a decision on every problem he faces? Justify and explain your answer. (08 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks) Question 07


a. Explain three styles of management identified by Kurt Lewin in 1939. Discuss the importance of these styles for a marketer.

.
b. Write short notes on the following: i. Transformational Leadership ii. Barriers to Intrapreureship iii. Group Brainstorming

(08 Marks)

(03x04 marks = 12marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

(Total 60 Marks)

-END-

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Graduate/Postgraduate in Marketing December 2011 Examination Marketing Management


Date: 15th December 2011 Time: 1400Hrs 1700 Hrs Duration: Three (03) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100. There are two parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One are compulsory. It includes a mini case study. Part Two includes 6 questions. Select one question at least from each section and answer a total of 3 questions from this part. Instructions to candidates
1. State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts. 2. Always start answering a question on a new page. 3. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen. A pencil may be used for drawing diagrams. 4. Answer the questions using: Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate 5. Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalized.

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PART ONE Answer all questions. Question 01: Case Study Challenging task of Managing Projects Introduction SING (MEGA) was established as a subsidiary company of SING SRI LANKA LTD on the year 2000. The main purpose of establishing the company was to focus on the sale of household appliances in the Sri Lankan market. The main strategy of the company is to introduce new innovative products to the Sri Lankan customers at an affordable price. Therefore, SING (MEGA) products have become very popular among upper middleclass customers in the urban areas of Sri Lanka. Interest-free instalment plans introduced by the company attracted customers to purchase the SING (MEGA) products. The basket of goods of the company consisted of Refrigerators, TVs, Washing machines, other household electrical equipment and modern furniture. During the last five years, SING (MEGA) has doubled their sales income through the islandwide sales and distribution network. The Sales figures during the last five years are given in the Table 1. Table 1: Last five year sales of SING (MEGA) Year Total Sales (Rs.) 2006 100 Mn. 2007 120 Mn. 2008 180 Mn. 2009 190 Mn. 2010 210 Mn. During the period, market share of the company has increased by 24% and 20% in the TV and Refrigerator markets respectively. But the company has not performed well in the other products in comparison with the forecasted sales. The Board of Directors of the company, in 2010 decided to critically evaluate the past performance and operations of the company and formulate a new Strategic Plan for a period from 2011 to 2015 (5year period), revising the present mission statement of the company. Strategic Plan For this purpose, the company has hired a professional management consultancy firm and assigned the task of formulating the Strategic Plan. The consultancy firm conducted a SWOT Analysis of the company and identified the brand loyalty, financial strength, improved customer service and the distribution network as the main strengths of the company and highlighted the poor sales promotion strategy as the main weakness. Analysing the threats and opportunities the consultancy firm formulated the new strategic plan with a revised Mission Statement for the company. According to new Strategic Plan approved by the Board of Directors, the forecasted sales target at the end of the five year period is estimated as Rs. 450 Mn. in 2014.

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Strategies In order to achieve the set challenging sales target set, the consultancy firm recommended multiple strategies pertaining to the each product of the company. As per the sales forecast of the new strategic plan, SING (MEGA) is required to increase the sales of televisions by 200% in 2014. Main strategy, recommended to achieve the above target is to introduce LED televisions to the Sri Lankan Market. It was also observed that the cost of LED televisions was 20% higher than the presently available LCD televisions. But the improved quality of pictures and the saving on the electricity consumption were the main factors to be highlighted in the proposed sales promotion campaign. As requested by the company, the consultancy firm prepared a project proposal to popularise the LED TVs in the brands of SING, Toshiba and Sanyo in the Sri Lankan Market. According to the project proposal, the life time of the project was 24 months and the investment was estimated as Rs. 60 Mn. during the two year period of the project. Project Introduction of LED TVs The first step of the implementation of the project was to appoint a Project Manager and a team for the following:
A. Initiation of the project B. Planning of the sub-activities according to the project proposal C. Executing and controlling

Project Implementation Considering the task to be completed and the limited time frame available, the Board of Directors decided to appoint Mr.Tharaka Silva, Deputy Marketing Manager of the company as the Project Manager to lead the project. The main reason for selecting Mr. Tharaka Silva as the Project Manager was his knowledge and experience in Marketing as a Chartered Marketer. The Board of Directors has delegated the authority to the Project Manager to recruit eight internal members from the other divisions of the company, namely Finance, HRM, IT, Media and Technical. He selected 8 senior managers representing various divisions, according to his choice to serve in the project. Further, Mr.Tharaka Silva preferred the cross-functional team structure in executing the project. After appointment of the project team, Mr.Tharaka Silva convened the kickoff meeting of the project. At the kickoff meeting, Mr.Tharaka Silva distributed the copies of the project proposal prepared by the consultants and requested the team members to prepare individual plans in their fields to achieve the set objectives of the project. At the meeting, the individual team members raised various quarries regarding the objectives of the project and procedure to be followed in preparing individual plans. But the Project Manager failed to provide satisfactory answers to these quarries. The Project Manager advised team members to carefully read and understand the project proposal prepared by the consultants. At the second meeting of the project, serious disagreements surfaced between two team members who represent Finance and HRM functions, on the priorities of the individual plans. However, the Project Manager has failed to resolve the conflict between these two members and the second meeting of the project ended without reaching any consensus. Page 83 of 93

In the meantime, the Board of Directors granted permission to the Project Manager to recruit five new Sales Promotion Officers to promote the project. The Project Manager decided to recruit five Sales Promotion Officers on the referrals given by the internal managers of the company. Accordingly, the Project Manager interviewed eight candidates recommended by internal managers and recruited 5 Sales Promotion Officers. Further, he assigned these 5 officers to the marketing division to be given one week orientation before commencing the promotional campaign of LED TVs in the Sri Lankan market.

Project Crisis At the third meeting of the project team, the team members of the project heavily criticised the method adopted by the Project Manager in recruiting five Sales Promotion Officers without consulting the project team. Due to the disagreement between the Project Manager and the project team, even two months after the kickoff meeting, the Project Manager has failed to finalise the initial documentation and plans to initiate the project. The Board of Directors observed that there is a delay in initiating the sales promotion project. However, the Project Manager realised that he is not getting the required cooperation from the team members to initiate the project, even after two months of his appointment as the Project Manager.

1.1

The Board of Directors decided to select Mr.Tharaka Silva to the post of Project Manager, having considered his knowledge and experience in Marketing. In addition to the above job factors, what are the managerial and other skills to be considered in selecting an effective Project Manager? (12 Marks)
b. Why did the kickoff meeting convened by the Project Manager fail? If you were the Project Manager what items/topics would you include in the agenda of the project kickoff meeting? Give examples. (08 Marks)

1.2

Conflicts between project members emerged in the initial stage of the sales promotion project. However, the Project Manager has failed to resolve these conflicts. Explain five possible reasons for emerging conflicts between the members of the Project Team. Identify two possible approaches to conflict resolution in projects.
(10 Marks)

1.3 The Project Manager assigned five sales Promotion Officers to the marketing division for induction training. Explain the critical factors to be included in a scientific induction programme. (10 (Total 40 Marks) Page 84 of 93 Marks)

PART TWO

Section A Question 02
a) The way an organisation is structured is one of the most important management decision making spheres. Criticise this statement. (10 Marks) b) Recommend two types of appropriate organisational structures that will facilitate the achievement of objectives of the sales promotion campaign. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each organisational structure.

(10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

Question 03
a) The Project Manager is the authority of the project. Explain the five types of leadership powers, the Project Manager yields in leading the project team.

(10 Marks) b) Throughout the project, the Project Manager will have to develop the project team to achieve project targets. What is the basic information required by the Project Manager to plan the team development activities of the project team?

(10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

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Section B Question 04
a) What do you mean by Qualitative Risk Analysis? Identify the main objectives of carrying out a Quantitative Risk Analysis for a project. (10 Marks) b) SING (MEGA) is planning to implement the sales promotion campaign. The following are the major tasks identified.

Activity A B C D E F G H I

Preceded Activity A A A D B C, F G E, H

Duration (Months) 2 5 2 4 2 1 6 2 1

Draw the Network Diagram to establish the duration of the project and the Critical Path. (10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

Question 05
a) Define Job Analysis. What type of information do you require to analyse the job of a Sales Assistant? (10 Marks) b) Briefly explain the methods of collecting information for a Job Analysis. Give examples. (10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks)

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Question 06
a) Compare and contrast between Maslows Hierarchy of the Needs Theory and Herzbergs two Factor Theory of Motivation. (10 Marks) b) Explain the Goal Setting Theory applicable to motivation. Discuss the practical value of the theory in motivating the Sales Staff. Give Examples. (10 Marks) (Total 20 Marks)

Question 07
a) What is Misconduct? Explain five types of Misconduct observed in work places. (10 Marks) b) Describe the purpose of conducting a Preliminary Investigation before the Domestic or Formal Disciplinary Inquiry.

(10 Marks) (Total 20 Marks) (Total 60 Marks)

-END-

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Graduate/Postgraduate in Marketing December 2011 Examination International Marketing


Date: 21st December 2011 Time: 1400Hrs 1700Hrs Duration: Three (03) Hrs

Total marks for this paper is 100. There are two parts in this question paper. All questions in Part One are compulsory. It includes a mini case study. Part Two has 05 questions. Answer a total of 3 questions from this part. Instructions to candidates
1. State your Registration Number on the front cover of the answer book and on each and every
additional paper attached to it. Your name must not appear anywhere in the answer book or answer scripts.

2. Always start answering a question on a new page. 3. You are reminded that answers should not be written in pencil or red pen. A pencil may be
used for drawing diagrams.

4. Answer the questions using:


Effective arrangement and presentation Clarity of expression Logical and precise arguments Clear diagrams and examples where appropriate

5. Illegible hand writing and language errors will be penalised.

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PART ONE

Answer all Questions

Question 01 Renold Petson UK based car manufacture, combines three important elements: power, beauty and soul and they are truly special. They produce some of the worlds most prestigious sports cars, based on traditional values of craftsmanship, attention to detail and exclusivity. All of their sports cars continue to be hand-built and bespoke but using high technology processes in a very modern environment. Over the past nine decades, Renold Petson has witnessed many changes. In a long and distinguished history, Renold Petson has seen some good times and some not so good times. The fact that Renold Petson has survived is a testament to the strength and resolve of everyone who has ever been involved with the company - customers and employees alike. Their originators held that a sports car should have a distinctive and exclusive character. They felt it should be built to the highest standards and be exhilarating to drive and own many things have changed over the ensuing ninety plus years, but those goals are still very relevant to them today.

At present over 70 per cent of its sales are generated by exports and it naturally seeks markets in which a reasonably-sized segment exists capable of spending up to 100,000 for a car. It is perhaps not surprising that the USA, Canada, Germany, Japan, Italy and Switzerland have been selected as prime markets in which a dealer and service support infrastructure should be established. In April 2011 they opened the doors to their first dealership in India.

Changes are planned, however, with production expected to treble over the next five years. The introduction of a new entry-level car priced at just 65,000 and the dealer network doubled to create a presence in 35 countries, are all designed to improve the international market position.

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1.1

What are the factors associated with the selection of an appropriate market in a particular country for the automobile industry? (08 Marks)

1.2 is

According to Michel Porter, the most important factor for competitive advantage the ability of companies to have constant innovation. Explain this statement with regards to the relevant model you have learned. (12 Marks)

1.3

You are working as marketing and media advisor to Renold Petson. What are your suggestions for the changes happening in the customer tastes, life styles,

and

for the economic fluctuations in the international automobile market? (10 Marks)

b. role.

When running international businesses, distributional channels play a significant When selecting appropriate channel intermediary, there is a model suggested by Czinkota and Ronkanien (2001), which help the product or service to go the international borders. Explain this model.

beyond

(10 Marks)

(Total 40 Marks)

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PART TWO Answer a total of three (03) questions

Question 02 People all over the world have diverse needs. Companies like Gillette, Coca-Cola, BIC, and Cadbury Schweppes have brands that are recognised across the globe. Many of the products that these businesses sell are targeted at a global audience using a reliable and steady marketing mix.

a. What are the main marketing mix components that need to be considered when inflowing to the overseas markets? (10 Marks)

b. How does Standardization and Adaptation apply to global customer need?

(10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks) Question 03 Governments create the rules and frameworks in which businesses are able to compete against each other. From time to time the government will change these rules and frameworks forcing businesses to change the way they operate.

a. How are international businesses affected by government policies?

(10 Marks)

b. Do you think the government of each country should limits international business to protect their national culture? (10 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks) Page 91 of 93

Question 04

Today most organisations are using CRM widely to manage the companys interaction with customers in a more efficient and profitable manner.

a. What does CRM stand for? (08 Marks) b. How does CRM relate to International marketing and business? (Use examples to detail the answer) (12 Marks)

(Total 20 Marks) Question 05

a. Franchising is one of the best options to expand business operations internationally. Critically analyse this statement. (10 Marks) b. What are the primary differences between licensing and franchising?

(10 Marks) (Total 20 Marks)

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Question 06

Find out an international consumer product manufacturer that produces a variety of products serving different price segments in the consumer market. How does the particular manufacturer justify the different prices? Elaborate with examples. (Total 20 Marks)

(Total 60 Marks) -END-

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