BioTecNikas Model Test Papers for CSIR NET Life Sciences June 2013 Examination

Practice Today with the best Model Papers. Get to know where you stand in the competition Model Test Paper - 2

Part-A

1. A bat was flying with the speed of 0.5 m/s, produced an ultrasound wave with the speed of 5 m/s. It received the signal back exactly after 20 sec. how far is the object from the bat at that point? A. 100 m C. 25 m B. 50 m D. 40 m 2. What is the angle covered by the hour hand between 4.10 PM to 4.10 AM? A. 300 C. 360 B. 400 D. 6 3. In how many ways you can build a team of 2 players, from 20 players? A. 100 C. 120 B. 190 D. 290 4. The ratio between the three angles of a quadrilateral is 13: 9: 5 respectively. The value of the fourth angle of the quadrilateral is 36. What is the difference between the largest and the second smallest angles of the quadrilateral? A. 104 C. 72 B. 108 D. 96 5. If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true? A. A is smaller than B. C. A and B are equal B. A is greater than B D. If x is smaller than y, then A is greater than B. 6. If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10%, then its area is diminished by: A. 10% C. 20% B. 19% D. 36% 7. The reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 10.25 is: A. 180 C. 195 B. 192 1/2 D. 197 1/2 8. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively? A. 2 : 1 C. 8 : 3 B. 3 : 2 D. Cannot be determined 9. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is: A. 720 C. 1200 B. 900 D. 1800 10. On a certain exam the only grades awarded were 80 and 100. If the 10 students completed the project and the average of their grades were 94. How many eared 100? A. 2 C. 5 B. 3 D. 7 11. If 2x =32. What is x2? A. 5 B. 14

C. 25 D. 100

12. An alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C? A. Rs. 375 C. Rs. 600 B. Rs. 400 D. Rs. 800 13. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60 and the foot of the ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is: A. 2.3 m C. 7.8 m B. 4.6 m D. 9.2 m 14. Find out how the key figure (X) look will like after rotation

A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4 15. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it? A. 35 C. 45 B. 40 D. 50 Part-B 16. A DNA sequence, which is homologous to active gene, but not having any function A. Intron C. Pseudogenes B. Interrupted sequences D. Non coding repeats 17. Which of the following statement is true? A. Satellite DNA is a part of chromosome localized to centromere only B. Satellite DNA was discovered as distinct band on agarose gel C. Satellite DNA contains different base composition from rest other DNA sequences D. All repetitive DNA are a part of satellite DNA. A. Only A C. Only D B. Only C D. Both A and D 18. Around which prehistoric time scale, Homo sapiens evolved from previous species? A. Pleistocene epoch C. Oligocene epoch B. Eocene epoch D. Jurassic period 19. Bat use echolocation to locate the prey. The right ear of the bat picked up the wave slightly before being recognized by the left ear. This is interpreted as A. The prey is on right side C. The prey is moving B. The prey is on left side D. The prey is on left side and bat is moving over it. 20. In non-human primates, the dominant male shows A. More ability to capture prey B. Polygynous C. Parental care A. Only B C. Both A and B B. Only c D. All the above

21. The phenotype is governed by both genotype and environment. Sometimes we find phenotype is not inheritable and is produced by organism exposed to a particular environment. This is due to A. Pleotropy C. Psedogenes B. Phenocopy D. Complementation 22. What is the minimum number of transesterification reactions required to splice out an intron from an mRNA transcript? A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4 23. Match the following Proteins involved in DNA replication with their functions: Protein Functions 1. DnaA A. Required for DnaB binding at origin 2. HU B. Methylates 5 GATC sequences at oriC 3. DnaC C. Recognizes ori sequences; opens duplex at specific sites in origin 4. Dam D. DNA binding protein; stimulates initiation methylase A. 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B C. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D B. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B 24. Which of the following processes allows activation of transcription by changing the accessibility of chromatin to transcription factors? A. Extensive methylation of DNA C. Action of ATPase chromatin B. Binding of protamines to DNA remodeling complexes D. Formation of a Barr body 25. Rifampicin is an important antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, as well as other mycobacterial diseases. Some strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, are resistant to rifampicin, these strain become resistant by which of the following mechanisms? A. Mutations in the MDR-type ABC transporter, which pumps the drug out of the Mycobacterium. B. By production of rifamycin oxidase (RO). C. Mutations that alter rpoB gene, involved in synthesis of subunit of RNA polymerase. D. Mutations in the sigma () subunit of RNA polymerase. 26. E. coli cells are growing in medium containing lactose but no glucose. A mutation is introduced such that it prevents binding of CRP to its binding site near the lac promoter. What will be the consequence of such type of mutation? A. When glucose is introduced in the medium, the cells will not be able to utilize glucose. B. The lac operon will be constitutively expressed irrespective of the concentration of glucose in the external medium. C. The lac operons expression will decrease irrespective of the concentration of lactose in the surrounding medium. D. The lac operons expression will be halted when glucose concentration is high. 27. Which of the following is not a pathway for biosynthesis of Auxins? A. Indole-3-pyruvic acid pathway B. Tryptamine pathway C. Indole-3-acetonitrile pathway D. Oxindole-3-acetic acid pathway 28. Match the Following as per the importance of stratification taking place in lake ecosystem? Column A Column B

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

gradient at edges of biomes vertical temperature gradient in lake upper layer of warm water rich in organic nutrients lower layer of water at 40 F. (about 4 C.)

a. b. c. d. e.

epilimnion hypolimnion ecocline thermocline eutrophic

A. c,d,a,e,b B. d,c,a,e,f

f. oligotrophic C. b,c,a,e,f D. a,b,d,e,f peculiar to it Column B a. savannah b. taiga c. deciduous forest d. tundra

29. Arrange the biomes as per the characteristics Column A 1. Biome including grass, hyenas, antelopes, zebras, and lions. 2. This biome exhibits the greatest diversity of plant species. 3. The subsoil of this biome is permanently frozen 4. This biome can be recognized by its coniferous forests and relatively infertile acidic soil.

A. a,e,d,b B. a,b,d,e

e. tropical rain forest f. temperate grassland C. b,d,a,e D. a,e,b,d

30. Mark out the appropriate difference between r and k selected species A. R- Density dependent regulation K Density independent regulation B. R- abiotic factors K- biotic factors C. R low r max K- High r max D. Both b) and c) 31. In syncytial specification, the fates of cells can be determined by ____ within the egg cytoplasm A. gradients of morphogens C. Mesoderm B. Ectoderm D. Endoderm 32. Competence is the ability to bind and to respond to the inducers, and it is often the result of a inducing protein. __________ are inducing proteins that bind to cell membrane receptors in competent cells. A. Paracrine factors C. neurotransmitters, B. Juxtacrine factors D. cytokines 33. Mammalian sperm bind to the zona pellucida before undergoing the acrosome reaction. In the mouse, this binding is mediated by ____________ and one or many sperm proteins that recognize it. A. ZP3 (zona protein 3) C. ZP1 (zona protein 1) B. ZP2 (zona protein 2) D. ZP4 (zona protein 4) 34. Media containing spores can be sterilized by A. pasteurization B. UV

C. dry heat D. tyndallization

35. Two proteins have same molecular weight and same isoelectric focusing .The best way to separate them will be

A. Ion exchange chromatography B. Gel filtration chromatography 36. The separation principle of dialysis is A. diffusion B. charge

C. Reverse phase chromatography D. Chromato-focussing

C. turbulence D. solubility

37. EcorI restriction enzymes produce cohesive (sticky) ends. This means that they A. Cut both DNA strands at the same base pair B. Cut in regions of high GC content,leaving ends that can form more hydrogen bonds than ends of high AT content C. Make a staggered double stand cut, leaving ends with a few nucleotides of single-standed DNA protruding. D. Stick tightly to the ends of the DNA they have cut. 38. In recombinant DNA technology, invitro packing is used to A. Cut a desired region out of the bacterium`s chromosome. B. Ensure that genetically engineered bacteria are not accidentally released into the environment. C. Incorporate recombinant DNA into infectious bacteriophage particles. D. Very effective 39. Which of the following does not apply to the construction or use of a DNA library? A. Many segment of DNA from a cellular genomes are cloned B. Specialized DNA libraries can be made by cloning DNA copies of mRNAs. C. The DNA copies of mRNA found in a cDNA library are made by reverse transcriptase. D. Genomic libraries are better for expressing gene products than cDNA libraries. 40. Two sites that are often used to grow animal viruses A. Chorioallantoic membrane and allantoic cavity B. Yolk sac and amniotic cavity C. Amniotic cavity only D. Yolk sac only 41. Which of the following organism produce hydrogen peroxide as virulence factor A. Mycoplasma C. Salmonella sp B. Streptococcus species D. Pseudomonas 42. Glucose effect is A. Higher the glucose concentration cause decreased cAMP B. Lower the glucose concentration caused decreased the cAMP C. Higher the glucose concentration caused increased the cAMP D. Lower glucose concentration cause increased cAMP 43. Increased activity of calcitonin is seen during A. High blood calcium level B. Low blood calcium level 44. Andrenergic neurons are A. sympathetic post-ganglionic neuron B. sympathetic pre-ganglionic neuron C. parasympathetic post-ganglionic neurons D. parasympathetic-preganglionic neurons 45. Anti inflammatory effect is shown by

C. Decreased osteoclast activity. D. All of the above

A. Cortisol B. Aldosterone

C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine

46. Which of the following antigens can be processed by TAP deficient cells? A. Any antigen as antigen processing is independent of TAP proteins. B. Only endogenous antigens C. Endogenous and non proteinaceous antigens D. Only exogenous antigens 47. Which of the following cytokines mediates activation of T helper cells by macrophages? A. IL-2 C. IFN B. IL-4 D. IL-12 48. Polymers of D-amino acids are poor immunogens because A. The degradative enzymes within antigen-presenting cells can degrade only proteins containing L-amino acids. B. MHC cannot present polymers of D amino acids. C. APCs cannot express an MHC with the polymers. D. No polymer can activate cell mediated immunity. E. Only Tc cells get activated by polymers of D amino acids. A. B and D C. C and E B. A and E D. A and B 49. An Enzyme which binds to the substrate at Gly 60 position is inhibited by compound X, X binds to the substrate at Asp 72. What would be the effect of this inhibitor on the Vmax and Km of the reaction? A. Vmax and Km will increase drastically C. Both Vmax and Km decrease B. Vmax remains the same but Km D. No effect on Vmax and Km decreases. 50. Familial glucocorticoid deficiency and isolated glucocorticoid deficiency are caused due to A. Decrease in the carbohydrates in the C. Defect in adrenal cortex food D. Defect in glucocorticoid receptor. B. Defect in ACTH receptor PART-C 51. Bacteriophage is a small virus with 9 genes coding for 9 different polypeptide sequences. When counted the weights of all polypeptides, it was calcultated that the genome need to have minimum 6078 nucleotides, but it was found to have only 5387 nucleotides. 5387 bases can no way produce 9 polypeptides as per our gene knowledge. What may be going on in the viral genome that it could code for 9 polypeptides with fewer than needed nuclotides? A. May be the calculations of 9 polypeptides is wrong, it is coding for only 8 polypeptides, for which 5387 bases are enough B. May be calculations of genome size is wrong, it is actually 6078 bases C. The genes may be overlapping in the virus, so that they can produce 9 peptide sequences D. The virus has extrachromosomal DNA. 52. Chromosomes are always easy to mutate. Imagine a gamete with a small arm of chromosome 2 is missing. This chromosome containing gamete fused with a normal gamete and produced a offspring. The recessive gene present on the nondeleted chromosome, now started showing its phenotypes, as its counterpart on deleted chromosome was lost. This phenomenon is due to A. Pseudogenes C. Exon shffling B. Pseudo dominance D. Suppressor mutation.

53. Imagine we have only with One species of each produced plant, herbivore, carnivore and decomposer with sufficient light source. All in a bioshpere interdependent on each other. Will this system work? A. Yes, it will as all the essential components are present B. No, it will never work as comsumers will be more than the producers C. No, it will not work for long time, as with the threat to or death of one of the species, entire system will break down. D. No, it needs Human who produces enough CO2 and other chemicals for plant survival. 54. It is seen in lions, that the Alpha lion mates with almost all the female lions and builds a bigger pride. The female lions allow the copulation to only the lion which is stronger and has larger territory. Hence other male lions are always under conflict for females. Which of the following can be a suitable explanation for the female lion behavior? A. Females are bigger cats and hence need more space for them B. More territory means more food available C. More territory means it will ensure a larger area of healthy and comfort for the offsprings to grow, hence reproductive success. D. Female like to go on walk in larger territory. 55. Which of the following are not types of phenolic plant secondary metabolites? A. Lignin C. Cardenolides B. Caffeic acid D. Anthocyanin 56. Which one of the following sugar phosphates is not part of the pool of readily interconvertible metabolites used by the plant cell? A. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate C. Glucose 1-phosphate B. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate D. 6-phosphogluconate 57. Following are statements regarding the plant hormone ethylene. A. Ethylene biosynthetic pathway is also called as the Yang cycle which involves the amino acid Glycine and an intermediate ACC. B. Auxins promote synthesis of Ethylene. C. Ethylene can be measured by GC. D. Fruits are stored under high concentration of CO2, to delay ripening as CO2 acts as Ethylene antagonist. The correct combination of statements is A. A, B, C C. B, C, D B. A, B, D D. A, C, D 58. The importance of dark period in photoperiodism is that it can be made ineffective by interruption with a short exposure to light, called a night break. In contrast, interrupting a long day with a brief dark period does not cancel the effect of the long day. Which of the following statements are correct? A. It is possible to induce flowering in SDPs with light periods longer than the critical value, provided that the light period is followed by sufficiently long nights. B. SDPs will not flower if short days are followed by short nights. C. LDPs will not flower if short days are followed by short nights. D. LDPs will not flower if day breaks are introduced in day time, followed by short nights. A. A and B C. A and D B. B and C D. B and D 59. Host parsitoid interactions are been given by the following equation:

Where is the per-capita growth rate of hosts in the absence of parasitoids and c is the conversion efficiency . What is f(Nt, Pt) ? A. Effect of parasite on Host C. Probability of Infection B. Effect of Host on Parasites D. Number of Host and parasites present in the environment 60. Metapopulation Concept is given by:

Where m is the rate of colonization, and e is the rate of extinction and e<m If instead of one species 2 species are present in the community then whicj of the following statements are true

A. If Rate of Extinction is high P1 and P2 can coexist B. If rate of extinction is high P1 and P2 cannot coexist and P1 P2 =0

C. If rate of Extnction is moderate p1 and p2 can coexist D. Both a) and b)

61. Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the concept of the primary organizer in amphibian embryos while studying the A. medial cells between the optic cups. C. posterior edge of the dorsal B. anterior terminus of the notochord. ectoderm. D. dorsal lip of the blastopore. 62. If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to divide the gray crescent, then A. the daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die. B. both daughter cells will develop normally because amphibians are totipotent at this stage. C. only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally. D. both daughter cells will develop abnormally. 63. Select the correct statement regarding Bt toxin produced by bacillus. I.Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins II.During sporulation, it synthesizes a cytoplasmic inclusion containing one or more proteins that are toxic to insect larvae. III.Upon completion of sporulation the parent bacterium lyses to release the spore and the inclusion A. only i and ii C. all the above B. only ii D. only i and iii 64. Match the items in column I and column II and choose the correct option: Column I Column II A. UV i. Biomagnificatr on B. Biodegradable ii. Eutrophication Organic matter C. DDT iii. Snow

D. Phosphates The correct match is: A. A ii, B i, C iv, D iii B. A iii, B ii, C iv, D i C. A iii, B iv, C i, D ii D. A iii, B I, C iv, D i E. 65. Match each features of the plasmid pBR322

blindness iv. BOD

I. II. III. IV. V.

ampR sequence a. permits selection of bacteria containing the plasmid ori sequence b. a sequence required invitro packing tetR c. origin of replication BamHI sequence d. cleavage of the plasmid here doesnt affect antibiotic r esistance. pstI sequence e. insertion of foreign DNA here permits identification of recombinants A. I B, II C, III D,IV A C. I E, II C, III D,IV B B. I A, II C, III E,IV B D. I A, II C, III B,IV E

66. Match the genes involved in plant cell transformation by agrobacterium. I. Vir A. segment of the Ti plasmid transferred to the plant genome II. Cytokinin B. genes that involved in transfer of a segment of Ti to plant III. Opine C. a plant growth harmone IV. T DNA D. an unsual metabolite that can be metabolized only bacteria. E. Encodes enzyme required to metabolize auxin A. I B, II C, III D,IV A C. I E, II C, III D,IV B B. I A, II C, III E,IV B D. I A, II C, III B,IV E 67. If core body temperature rises above normal, which of the following would occur to cool the body? (1) dilation of vessels in the skin, (2) increased radiation and conduction of heat to the environment, (3) increased metabolic rate, (4) evaporation of perspiration, (5) increased secretion of thyroid hormones. A. 3, 4, and 5 C. 1, 2, and 5 B. 1, 2, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 68. The four refracting media of the eye, listed in the sequence through which light passes, are: 1. Vitreous body 2. Lens 3. Aqueous humor 4. Cornea A. 1,2, 3, 4 C. 4, 3, 2, 1 B. 4, 1, 2, 3 D. 2, 3, 4, 1

69. The arrow in graph represents

A. Stationary phase in diauxic growth B. Stationary phase of normal growth of organism in glucose

C. Lag phase of diauxic growth curve D. Log phase of normal growth curve with limiting factor.

70. A Mutation in wee1 protein is induced such that its phosphorylation activity is lost. The effect of this would be A. Cdc2 is active, therefore cell would enter mitosis B. Cdc2 to is inactive, therefore cell cycle would arrest at G2. C. Cdc1 to is inactive, therefore cell cycle would arrest at G1. D. Cdk2 to is inactive, therefore cell cycle would arrest at GS. 71. Which of the following statement is false? A. The and angles for every amino acid residue in a perfect helix would fall at a single point in a Ramachandran plot. B. Many Combinations of and angles are impossible in polypeptides because of steric interference C. The and angles in Ramachandran p lot can each vary over a range of 360 D. The and angles in a Ramachandran plot represent the possible angles of rotation around the peptide bond 72. TLRs are transmembrane proteins, expressed on the cell surface and the endocytic compartment and recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs).TLR9 targets CpG sequences in DNA molecules.The effect is attraction of phagocytes, macrophages,(cell membrane) dendritic cells and it induces secretion of several cytokines. TLR9 show specificity for bacterial cells but not for host cells because A. TLR9 recognizes methylated CpG sites which are in abundance in bacterial genome B. TLR9 recognizes unmethylated CpG sites which are relatively rare in vertebrate genome C. TLR9 recognizes methylated CpG sites which are relativly rare in bacterial genome D. TLR9 recognizes unmethylated CpG sites which are in abundance in vertebrate genome. 73. In an experiment setup involving B cells, mutations are introduced in genes encoding oligosaccharyl transferase. These B cells, along with unmutated B cells, are stimulated to proliferate and IgGs obtained from these cells are subjected to digestion with papain. It was observed that a. IgGs derived from mutated B cells are resistant to papain digestion b. IgGs derived from unmutated B cells are resistant to papain digestion c. IgGs derived from mutated B cells are more sensitive to papain digestion d. IgGs derived from unmutated B cells are more sensitive to papain digestion Correct combination of statements is A. A and B C. C and D B. B and C D. A and D

74. The mythical Gram-negative extracellular bacterium, Stevensonella pulmonensis, causes a disease called acute miamiosis as the result of its thick capsule and production of a toxin that causes buildup of fluid in the lungs. Which immune mechanism(s) would be effective against this bacterium? A. Antibody specific for the toxin would be helpful because it might neutralize the toxin by preventing its interaction with cellular targets. B. Activated macrophages would be required because these cells would be able to prevent intracellular multiplication of this parasite C. Opsonizing antibody specific for capsular antigens might be helpful because it would be able to enhance phagocytosis of the bacterium by neutrophils, which could then kill it intracellular. D. ADCC mediated by NK cells would be a primary line of defense against this pathogen because it would provide for its complement mediated lysis. 75. Which of the following statements, regarding platelet activating factors is/are incorrect? A. It is an ether lipid B. It is released from leucocytes and lead to the release of serotonin. C. It activates inflammatory responses D. It subdues the inflammatory responses. E. It plays a role in allergic responses. A. A and D C. Only D B. A and E D. C and E --END of Questions --

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Answers PART-A 1. D. 40 m 2. C. 360 3. B. 190 4. D. 96 5. C. A and B are equal 6. B. 19% 7. D. 197 1/2 8. C. 8:3 9. C. 1200 10. D. 7 11. C. 25 12. B. Rs 400 13. D. 9.2 m 14. C. 3 15. B. 40 PART-B 16. C. interrupted sequences 17. C. Only D 18. C. Oligocene epoch 19. A. The prey is on right side 20. D. All the above 21. B. Phenocopy 22. B. 2 23. B. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B 24. C. Action of ATPase chromatin remodeling complexes 25. C. Mutations that alter rpoB gene, involved in synthesis of subunit of RNA polymerase. 26. C. The lac operons expression will decrease irrespective of the concentration of lactose in the surrounding medium. 27. D. Oxindole-3-acetic acid pathway 28. A. c,d,a,e,b 29. A. a,e,d,b 30. B. R- abiotic factors K- biotic factors 31. A. gradients of morphogens 32. A. Paracrine factors 33. A. ZP3 (zona protein 3) 34. B. UV 35. C. Reverse phase chromatography 36. A. diffusion 37. C. Make a staggered double stand cut, leaving ends with a few nucleotides of singlestanded DNA protruding. 38. B. Ensure that genetically engineered bacteria are not accidentally released into the environment.

39. D. Genomic libraries are better for expressing gene products than cDNA libraries. 40. A. Chorioallantoic membrane and allantoic cavity 41. A. Mycoplasma 42. A. Higher the glucose concentration cause decreased cAMP 43. A. High blood calcium level 44. A. sympathetic post-ganglionic neuron 45. A. Cortisol 46. C. Endogenous and non proteinaceous antigens 47. D. IL-12 48. D. A and B 49. C. Both Vmax and Km decrease 50. B. Defect in ACTH receptor PART-C 51. C. The genes may be overlapping in the virus, so that they can produce 9 peptide sequences 52. B. Pseudo dominance 53. C. No, it will not work for long time, as with the threat to or death of one of the species, entire system will break down. 54. C. More territory means it will ensure a larger area of healthy and comfort for the offsprings to grow, hence reproductive success. 55. C. Cardenolides 56. B. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate 57. C. B, C, D 58. A. A and B 59. C. Probability of Infection 60. D. Both a) and b) 61. D. dorsal lip of the blastopore. 62. C. only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally. 63. C. all the above 64. A. A ii, B i, C iv, D iii 65. A. I B, II C, III D,IV A 66. A. I B, II C, III D,IV A 67. B. 1, 2, and 4 68. C. 4, 3, 2, 1 69. C. Lag phase of diauxic growth curve 70. A. Cdc2 is active, therefore cell would enter mitosis 71. D. The and angles in a Ramachandran plot represent the possible angles of rotation around the peptide bond 72. B. TLR9 recognizes unmethylated CpG sites which are relatively rare in vertebrate genome

73. B. B and C 74. C. Opsonizing antibody specific for capsular antigens might be helpful because it would be able to enhance phagocytosis of the bacterium by neutrophils, which could then kill it intracellular. 75. C. Only D

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