ACE/12/EE/MG2

EE 1/24
ACE
Engineering Academy
MOCK GATE (2012) 2
EE: ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Time : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. This question paper contains 20 printed pages including pages for rough work.
Please check all pages and report discrepancy, if any.
2. Candidates have to answer in the Optical Response Sheet(ORS) by darkening the bubbles using a
black ink ballpoint pen only.
3. Write your registration number, name and other details at the specified locations on the
ORS using Black ink ballpoint pen only.
4. All the questions in this question paper are of objective type.
5. Questions must be answered on Objective Response Sheet (ORS) by darkening the
appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using Black ink ballpoint pen against the
question number on the ORS. Each question has only one correct answer. Since bubbles
darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles
in the ORS very carefully.
6. Questions 01 through 25 (25 questions) are 1-mark questions and questions 26 through 55 (30
questions) are 2-mark questions.
7. The question pairs (48, 49) and (50, 51) are the common data questions. The question
pairs (52, 53) and (54, 55) are questions with linked answers. The answer to the second
question of the linked question pairs will depend on the answer to the first question of the
pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is un attempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions 56 through 60 (5 questions) are 1-mark questions and questions 61 through 65
(5 questions) are 2-mark questions.
9. Un-attempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in Negative
Marks. For Q1 to Q25 and Q56 to Q60, 0.33 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For
Q26 to Q51, Q61 to Q65, 0.66 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs
(Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks
only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair, i.e. for Q.52 and
Q.54, 0.66 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53
and Q.55.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination
hall.
11. Cell / Mobile phones or any other electronic gadgets are prohibited in the examination hall.
12. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Additional blank pages are given at the end
of the question paper for rough work.
Name
Registration Number EE
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 2/20
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q01. For what values of a and b the simultaneous equations,
x + y + z = 1, x + 2y + 3z = 4 x + 2y +az = b
have no solution ?
(A) a = 3 & b 4 (B) a 3 & b = 4
(C) a = 3 & b = 4 (D) a = 4 & b = 4a
Q02. Which of the following substitutions reduces the non Linear differential equation
0 Qy Py
dx
dy
4
= + + to linear form (P and Q are functions of x) ?
(A) y
2
= V (B) y
3
= V (C) y
1
= V (D) y
4
= V
Q03. The volume of solid of revolution generated by the curve y = x , 0 s x s 4 about
x axis is
(A) 4 t (B) 8 t (C) 6 t (D) 10 t
Q04. A and B are alternatively tossing a coin. One who gets the head first wins the game.
If A starts the game what are winning chances of player B in second trial?
(A) 5/16 (B) 1/4 (C) 3/4 (D) 1/16
Q05. The inverse Laplace Transform of log
2
s 1
s(s 1)
| | +
|
+
\
(A)
t
1
(2sin t 1 e )
t

+ + (B)
t
1
(1 e 2cos t)
t

+
(C) 1 + e
t
+ 2 cost (D) None
Q06. No. of minterms present at the output of n bit EX OR gate is
(A) 2
n
(B) 2
n
1 (C) 2
n 1
(D) 2n
Q07. A 10 bit Digital to Analog converter has a resolution of 10 mV/bit. The analog
output voltage for digital input of 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 is
(A) 2.45 V (B) 2.55 V (C) 2.02 V (D) 1.85 V
Q08. The value of SP after executing the following instructions is
SP = 0 0 0 0
H
(1) Push PSW
(A) 0 0 0 0
H
(B) F F F F
H
(C) 0 0 0 2
H
(D) F F F E
H
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 3/20
Z
C
~
V
S is closed
+
1 KO
V
i
V
0

+
D
2
D
1
6.6 V
0.6 V
6.6 V
0.6 V
V
0
V
i
0
5.3 V
5.3 V
6.6 V
6.6 V
V
0
V
i
0
Q09. Assume that the diodes D
1
and D
2
have Cutin Voltage of 0.6 V under forward bias.
For the Zener Diodes, V
Z
= 6 V. The i/p o/p characteristic curve is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q10. The Refracted current of the transmission line is
(A)
C
Z
V
(B)
C
Z
V
(C) Zero
(D)
C
Z
V
2
0.6 V
6.6 V
0.6 V
V
0
V
i
6.6 V
0
6.6 V
6.6 V
6.6 V
V
0
V
i
6.6 V
0
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 4/20
Q11. Consider the following Statements regarding HVDC Power transmission:
1. The Modern HVDC systems use 12 pulse converters.
2. DC systems never use ground or sea return.
3. Most of present Day D.C. schemes are two-terminal links.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
Q12. If a fixed amount of power is to be transmitted over a certain length with fixed power
loss, it can be said that volume of conductor is
(A) Inversely proportional to magnitude of the voltage and power factor of
the load.
(B) Inversely proportional to square of the voltage and square of power factor of the
load.
(C) Proportional to square of voltage and power factor of the load.
(D) Proportional to magnitude of the voltage only.
Q13. When hot spots occur at core joints in a transformer, the gases liberated are
(A) Acetylene, Hydrogen (B) Acetylene, Methane, Hydrogen
(C) Methane, Ethane, Propane (D) Methane, Ethane, Hydrogen
Q14. In a Transformer, eddy current loss is 100 W which is half of the total iron loss. If
both thickness of laminations and frequency are increased by 10%, the new iron loss
would be
(A) 256.41 W (B) 231 W (C) 267.41 W (D) 242 W
Q15. Semi closed slots or totally closed slots are used in induction motor, essentially to
(A) improve starting torque
(B) increase pull out torque
(C) increase efficiency
(D) reduce magnetizing current and improve power factor
Q16. A Cumulative compound DC motor delivers fixed rated load power at rated speed. If
the series field is short circuited then
(A) Both armature current and speed increases
(B) Armature current remains constant but speed increases
(C) Armature current increases and speed decreases
(D) Both decrease
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 5/20
Q17. A synchronous machine is operating on busbar at constant load and at unity power
factor. If its excitation is increased, then which of the following statements are
correct?
The machine operates as
1. a generator at leading power factor
2. a motor at leading power factor
3. a generator at lagging power factor
4. a motor at lagging power factor
5. exporter of reactive power
6. absorber of reactive power
(A) 2, 4, 6 (B) 2,3,5 (C) 2,3,5 (D) 3,4,6
Q18. Consider the following network
The current i(t) is
(A) 7.5 sin (1000 t) A
(B) 7.5 sin (1000 t) A
(C) 7.5 cos (1000 t) A
(D) 7.5 cos (1000 t) A
Q19. The Q factor of a parallel resonance circuit consisting of an inductance 1 m H,
capacitance of 10
5
F and a resistor of 100 O is
(A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 20 t (D) 100
Q20. Open loop transfer function of an unity feedback system,
5 s
10
G

= .
The time constant of the corresponding closed loop system is
(A) 0.20 sec (B) -0.25 sec
(C) -5 sec (D) 0.1 sec
Q21. The open loop transfer function of an unity feedback system is
) 2 s ( s
10
+
.
The Phase Margin (PM) of the system is in the range of
(A) 0 < PM< 90
0
(B) 0 < PM<180
0
(C) 0 < PM < 225
0
(D) cant be determined

150 sin 1000 t V 0.02 H

i(t)
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 6/20
Q22. A L.T.I continuous time system has the frequency response H(e). It is known
that the input, x(t) = 1 + 4 cos (2tt) + 8 sin (3tt 90
0
) produces the response,
y(t) = 2 2 sin (2tt). Then H(e) at e = 3t is
(A) 2 (B) 0
(C) 0.5 e
jt/2
(D) 8
Q23. The range of firing angle in Thyristor Controlled Rectifier (TCR) is
(A) 0
0
- 90
0
(B) 90
0
- 180
0
(C) 0
0
- 180
0
(d) 0
0
- 45
0
Q24. A single phase current source inverter is feeding a purely capacitive load. The inverter
is operated with a current source of 100 A with capacitance of 10 mF. The output is
required with 50 Hz alternations of supply. The peak to peak output voltage would be
(A) 50 V (B) 100 V
(C) 25 V (D) 200 V
Q25. A Dual slope integrating type digital voltmeter has a read out range from 0 to 39999
counts. The resolution of this voltmeter in 40V range of operation is
(A) 4 mV (B) 0.1 mV
(C) 1 mV (D) 0.4 mV
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q26. , )
}
+i 2
o
2
dz z along
2
x
y = is
(A) , ) i 2
3
5
+ (B) , ) i 2
3
5

(C) , ) i 3
3
1
(D) 3 + i
Q27. The value of
}
t
0
x sin
dx e by Simpsons rule with 2 sub intervals, is
(A) ) e 2 1 (
3
+
t
(B) ) e 2 1 (
2
+
t
(C) ) e 4 2 (
3
+
t
(D) ) e 4 2 (
2
+
t
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 7/20
Q28. The solution of the following differential equation is
2
2
d
g 0
dt
u
+ u = , g is a constant, u(0) = a and
d
(0) 0
dt
u
=
(A) u = a sin(gt)
(B) u = a cos (gt)
(C) u = sin ( g t)
(D) u = a cos ( g t)
Q29. In a binary communication system either 0 or 1 is transmitted. Because of noise in
the system a 0 can be received as a 1 with probability p and a 1 can be received
as a 0 with probability (1-p). Assuming that the probability that a 0 is transmitted
is p
0
and 1 is transmitted q
0
. Then the probability that a 1 was transmitted when 1 is
received, is
(A)
0 0
0
p p q
q ) p 1 (
+

(B)
p p ) p 1 ( q
pp
0 0
0
+
(C)
0 0
0
pp ) p 1 ( q
) p 1 ( q
+ +

(D)
0 0 0
0 0
pp p q
q p
+
Q30. The logical expression for glowing the LED in the following logic circuit in terms of
P, Q and R is
(A) P Q R (B) R Q P +
(C) P + Q + R (D) R Q P
+ 5 V
33 K O
100 O
P
Q
R
1
2
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 8/20
1.8 KO
+

+
1KO
5V
R
L
1KO
15V
A
1
A
2
1.5V
+

Q31. Which of the following Flip Flops is represented by digital circuit given below ?
(A) S R F F with A = S and B = R (B) J K F F with A = J and B = K
(C) J K F F with A = K and B = J (D) S R F F with A = R and B = S
Q32. Calculate R
L
for op-amp circuit shown :
(A) 500 O (B) 1 KO (C) 6 KO (D) 9 KO
Q33. Match List-I (Equipment) with List-II (Application) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the list.
List I List II
A. Metal oxide Arrester 1. Protects generator against short circuit faults.
B. Isolator 2. Improves transient stability.
C. Auto Reclosing CB 3. Allows CB maintenance
D. Differential Relay 4. Provides Protection against surges.
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
1
2
3
T
Q
Q
A
B
Clk
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 9/20
~
X = 0.3
X = 0.2
V= 1.0Z0
E = 1.1Zo
Q34. A synchronous generator working at 50 Hz is connected to an infinite bus through a
line as shown in Fig. The inertia constant is 3 MW sec/MVA. If the generator is
loaded to 75% of its maximum power transfer capacity and a small perturbation is
given, the new natural frequency of oscillations is
(A) 9.62 Hz
(B) 1.53 Hz
(C) 8.72 Hz
(D) 1.39 Hz
Q35. The current rating of a relay is 5A. The relay is set at 150% and connected through
CT of 400/5. For the Fault current of 6000A, find PSM?
(A) 60 (B) 50 (C) 10 (D) 15
Q36. A 100 KVA transformer is provided with tap changer on primary side. The pu
leakage impedance of Transformer is (0.0075 + j 0.09) O . The tap setting for
maintaining rated voltage on secondary side of Transformer at a load of 100 KW at
0.8 p.f lag is
(A) 6.5% down (B) 6.5% up (C) 7.5% down (D) 7.5% up
Q37. A starting torque of 80 Nm is developed in an induction motor by an auto-transformer
starter with a tapping of 30%. If the tapping of auto-transformer starter is 60%, then
the starting torque will be
(A) 40 Nm (B) 160 Nm (C) 240 Nm (D) 320 Nm
Q38. A 230 V D.C series motor takes 30 A when it delivers its rated output at 1200 rpm.
Its resistance is 0.4 O. The resistance that must be added to obtain rated torque at
800 rpm is
(A) 7.2 O (B) 1.2 O (C) 2.42 O (D) 5.62 O
Q39. Consider the following network
The power dissipated across 4 O resistor is
(A) 0.188 W (B) 0.288 W (C) 0.388 W (D) 0.488 W
+
2 V
1 O
2 O 3 O
3 O
4 O
0.5 A
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 10/20
Ideal
Sampler
T
s
e
s
/2
x(t)
y(t)
T
s
e
e
s
/2
Q40. The phasor diagram shown in fig. is valid for a two element series circuit having
(A) R and C, with tan u = 1.3367
(B) R and C, with tan u = 4.2635
(C) R and C, with tan u = 1.1918
(D) R and C, with tan u = 0.2345
Q41. Characteristic equation of a system is s
3
+ 20 s
2
+ 16 s + 320 = 0.
The undamped natural frequency in rad/sec is
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 16
Q42. The input to the following system is x(t) = 2 + cos (50tt) . If it is sampled at
T
s
= 0.01 secs, then the expression for the output signal y(t) is
(A) 2 + cos (50tt) (B) 2 + cos (5tt)
(C) cos (50tt) (D) 2 + cos (30tt)
Q43. A step down chopper is feeding an inductive load, whose output current is assumed to
be ripple free. The ratio of average currents through chopper and free wheeling diode
is
(A) 4
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.8
(D) 1.25
Q44. A single phase 230 V, 50 Hz ac mains fed step down transformer (2 : 1) is supplying
power to a full wave bridge uncontrolled ac dc converter. The converter is used
for charging a battery with 12 V dc with the series limiting resistor being 20 O. If one
of the diodes gets open circuited then average charging current is
(A) 2 A (B) 1 A (C) 1.65 A (D) 2.3 A
V
50
0
103.2
0
I
CH
F.D
V
S
= 100 V
+

L
O
A
D
I
0
Duty cycle o =0.8
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 11/20
Q45. A single phase fully controlled bridge rectifier with a free-wheeling diode feeds an
inductive load. The load resistance is 15.53 O and it has a large inductance providing
constant load current. Input to converter is fed from an ideal 230 V, 50 Hz single
phase source. For a firing angle delay of 60, the average values of thyristor current
and source current are respectively.
(A) 3.33 A, 3.33 A (B) 5.77 A, 0
(C) 5.77 A, 5.77 A (D) 3.33 A, 0
Q46. A dynamometer type wattmeter with its voltage coil connected across the load side of
the instrument reads 250W. The voltage coil has a resistance of 2000 O. If the load
voltage is 200 V, the power taken by the load is
(A) 250 W (B) 230 W
(C) 200 W (D) 20 W
Q47. An oscilloscope is operated in X-Y display mode.
List-I suggests Y- i/p & X - i/p signals.
List-II describes corresponding Lissajious figures displayed.
Match List-I & List-II using codes given below.
List-I List-II
1. 10 cos (100 tt)V & 5 sin (100 tt) V
2. 10 sin (100 tt+45
0
) V & 10 sin (100 tt) V
3. 5 cos (100 tt) V & 10 sin (100 tt) V
4. 10 sin (100tt) V & 10 cos (100 tt) V
1 2 3 4
(A) Q S P R
(B) Q P S R
(C) R Q P S
(D) S P R Q
P
.
Q
.
R
.
S.
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 12/20
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
A 2000V, 3-phase, 4-pole, star connected synchronous motor runs at 1500 rpm. The
excitation is kept constant corresponding to an open circuit voltage of 2000V. The
resistance is negligible in comparison with synchronous reactance of 3.5 O/phase.
Armature current is 200 A.
Q48. The torque (or load) angle is
(A) 17.65
0
(B) 35.3
0
(C) 16.65
0
(D) 45
0
Q49. The power factor is
(A) 0.816 lag (B) 0.816 lead
(C) 0.953 lag (D) 0.953 lead
Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:
A synchronous generator is rated 20MVA, 13.8 KV. It has X
1
= 0.25 PU,
X
2
= 0.35PU and X
0
= 0.1 PU. The neutral is solidly grounded. The Machine is on
no-load and is operating at rated voltage when a double line to ground fault occurs at
its terminals.
Q50. The Sub-Transient fault current in KA is
(A) 57.6 (B) 45.5
(C) 11.52 (D) 28.65
Q51. The Sub-Transient current in phase B in KA is
(A) 4.85 (B) 6.45
(C) 31.12 (D) 18.42
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 13/20
Linked Answer Questions :
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53 :
In the circuit shown, the switch is moved from position a to position b at t = 0. The
switch was in position a for a long time, and the current i
1
(t) achieved steady state
of 2 A with a time constant of 0.2 sec.
Q52. The values of R
1
and L are respectively.
(A) R
1
= 1 O , L = 0.2 H (B) R
1
= 0.5 O , L = 0.1 H
(C) R
1
= 2 O , L = 0.5 H (D) R
1
= 4 O , L = 1 H
Q53. If the poles of the circuit for t > 0 lie at s = 1 and 2, the values of R
2
and C are
respectively.
(A) R
2
= 0.5 O , C = 1 F (B) R
2
= 0.3 O , C = 10 F
(C) R
2
= 0.3 O , C = 5 F (D) R
2
= 4 O , C = 5 F
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55 :
The transfer function of a system is given by
2 s 3 s
6
) s ( U
) s ( Y
2
+ +
=
Its state space model is given by
x c y , u
b
a
x
K 0
0 K
x
2
1
=
(

+
(

=
where x is the state vector.
Q54. The values of K
1
and K
2
are
(A) 1, 2 (B) 1, 2 (C) 3, 2 (D) 3, 2
Q55. The State Transition Matrix (STM) is given by
(A)
(
(

0 e
e 0
t 3
t 2
(B)
(
(

t 2
t 3
e 0
0 e
(C)
(
(

t 2
t
e 0
0 e
(D)
(
(

t 2
t
e 0
0 e
i
2
(t)
C
R
2
i
1
(t)
V
1
= 1 V
b
Fig.
L
+

a
R
1
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 14/20
General Aptitude (GA) Questions :
Q. 56 to Q. 60 carry one mark each.
Q56. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the
following sentence
The visitor was of an______age; white-haired but baby-faced, he might have
been twenty-five or fifty.
(A) assiduous (B) unalterable
(C) indecorous (D) indeterminate
Q57. The question below consists of pair of related words followed by four pairs of words.
Select, the pair that best expresses the relation in the original pair.
HIBERNATION : ACTIVITY ::
(A) joint : rope (B) molecule : crystal
(C) infringement : law (D) interregnum : government
Q58. Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the given word:
CANONICAL :
(A) infelicitous (B) irrefutable
(C) heterodox (D) minuscule
Q59. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the
following sentence:
Medieval kingdoms did not become constitutional republics overnight; on the
contrary, the change was _______
(A) unpopular (B) unexpected (C) advantageous (D) gradual
Q60. If the two digits of the age of Mr. Manoj are reversed then the new age so obtained is
the age of his wife.
11
1
th of the sum of their ages is equal to the difference between
their ages. If Mr. Manoj is older than his wife then find the difference between their
ages.
(A) 8 years (B) 10 years (C) 9 years (D) 7 years
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 15/20
Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.
Q61. There are two containers : The first contains 500ml, of alcohol, while the second
contains 500ml of water. Three cups of alcohol from the first container is taken out
and is mixed well in the second container. Then, three cups of this mixture is taken
out and is mixed in the first container. Let A denotes the proportion of water in the
first container and B denotes the proportion of alcohol in the second container. Then,
(A) A > B (B) A < B (C) A=B (D) cannot be determined
Q62. The average temperature of the town in the first four days of a month was 58 degrees.
The average for the second, third, fourth and fifth days was 60degrees If the
temperatures of the first and fifth days were in the ratio 7 :8, then what is the
temperature on the fifth day?
(A) 64 degrees (B) 232 degrees (C) 240 degrees (D) None of these
Q63. Aqua regia is a mixture containing 50percent concentrated HCL and 70 percent
concentrated HNO
3
in the ratio 1:3 respectively. Aqua regia is to be formed with 15
lit, of HCL of 80 percent concentration and 56 lit, of HNO
3
of 90 percent
concentration by adding water as a diluting agent. Another mixture X having
40percent concentrated HCL and 30percent concentrated H
2
SO
4
in the ratio 5:7
respectively is added to the aqua regia to form a solution of 111 lit. Find the ratio of
HCL to water in the solution. Only water is used as a diluting agent.
(A) 3:8 (B) 4:7 (C) 2:5 (D) 1:3
Q64. Select the correct alternative from the given choices
Statement :
A study on effects of coffee consumption on the sleeping pattern has found out that
those who have coffee at least twice a day have a sound sleep.
Which of the following contradicts the findings reported in the above statement ?
(A) Children have the most sound sleep even though they do not consume coffee.
(B) Caffeine contained in coffee, is used in manufacturing ayurvedic sleeping pills.
(C) It is found that those who do not consume coffee are able to sleep long hours than
those who consume coffee.
(D) It is found that those who consume coffee are likely to dream more frequently in
sleep than those who do not consume coffee.
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 16/20
Q65. Directions for question No . 65: Answer the question on the basis of the information
given below. Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the
age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not
exceeding the age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4
years (or) less. Table B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of
the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always
taller and weights more than a younger child, answer the following question.
Table A Table B Table C
Age (years) Number Height (cm) Number Weight (kg) Number
4 9 115 6 30 8
5 12 120 11 32 13
6 22 125 24 34 17
7 35 130 36 36 28
8 42 135 45 38 33
9 48 140 53 40 46
10 60 145 62 42 54
11 69 150 75 44 67
12 77 155 81 46 79
13 86 160 93 48 91
14 100 165 100 50 100
What is the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not
exceed 135 cm ?
(A) 48 (B) 45
(C) 3 (D) cannot be determined
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
ACE/12/EE/MG2
EE MG2 17/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK