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All India Test Series

MCAT 7

Instructions:

 This test contains 61 questions in three sections.

 There are 20 questions in Section I, 21 questions in Section II and 20
questions in Section III.
 You will be given two hours and fifteen minutes to complete the
test.
 In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind
that you have to demonstrate your competence in all three sections
 Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of
questions.
 Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by choosing
appropriate Answer.
 Each question has only one correct answer.
 All Questions carry four marks each.
 Each Wrong answer will attract a penalty of One Mark.
 Do not use calculators, log tables, dictionaries, or any printed or online
reference material while taking this test.
 You may use Rough paper for your calculations.
 Try to complete the test in one sitting to feel the real test environment.

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Section I
Number of Questions: 20

Directions for questions 1 to 3: Refer to the table given below and answer the questions
that follow.
Exports of nitrogenous fertilizers of 7 biggest companies in the year 2008 is given below.

It is also known overall exports of nitrogenous fertilizers has declined by 18% to

Rs.20,500 millions in 2008.

Q1. How many companies have increased their market share in the overall exports in the
year 2008?

A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. 4
E. None of the above

Q2. Which company had the least share in the export of nitrogenous fertilizers among the
given 7 companies in the year 2007?

A. B
B. E
C. C
D. G
E. D

Q3. What is the percentage increase in the exports of all the other companies other than
these 7 companies in 2008?

A. 37
B. 39
C. 35
D. 36
E. 30

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Directions for Questions 4 to 6: Refer to the bar graph below and answer the questions
that follow:
The graph below shows the different types of loans sanctioned by the public sector banks
over a period of 10 years. The vertical axis represents the loans in millions.

Q4. What is the percentage of the car loans sanctioned over the second half of the
decade?

A. 28.2
B. 34.5
C. 30.5
D. 27
E. 36.5

Q5. In which year is the share of the personal loans in the total loans sanctioned the
maximum?

A. 2007
B. 2004
C. 2002
D. 2008
E. 2005

Q6. What is longest span of years over which the loans have not increased over the
previous year in at least two categories?

A. 1

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B. 0
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Directions for Questions 7 to 10: Answer the questions on the basis of the table given
below.
A workshop has been arranged for the students of class III and IV. The table below
shows the participation of students in different activities organized in the workshop.

It is also known that,

a) Two-thirds of the students participated in either painting or singing.
b) Number of students in Std IV exceeded those of Std III by 25.
c) One seventh of the std III students took part in acting.

Q7. What is the percentage of students who participated in singing?

A.9
B.11
C.13
D.15
E. None of the above

Q8. What percentage of students who participated in painting were from std Std IV?

A. 3.3
B. 5.5
C. 4.5
D. 6.6
E. Cannot be determined

Q9. How many of Std IV students took part in acting?

A. 79
B. 69
C. 99
D. 89
E. None of the above

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Q10. If 12 more students from Std III took part in singing and 14 others took part in
acting, then what is the percentage change in the total number of students?

A. 7.8
B. 8.2
C. 6.5
D. 9.0
E. 5.2

Directions for questions 11 to 15:

Choose A if the question can be answered by using statement I alone, but not by using II
alone.
Choose B if the question can be answered by using statement II alone, but not by using I
alone.
Choose C if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose D if the question can be answered by using both the statement together.
Choose E if the question cannot be answered by using either of the statements.

Q11. Is p+1 < q?

I. p2 + 4p + 3 > q2 + 2q
II. p3 - 6p2 + 12p - 7 > q3 - 3q2 + 3q

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Q12. Let p and q be two distinct prime numbers both less than 20. Find them.

I. p + q is also a prime number

II. p2 + q2 is perfect cube.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Q13. A and B are two liquids filled in three containers P, Q and R in such that the ratio of
the volumes A and B is x:y, y:z and z:x respectively. Liquid of all three containers are
mixed. Is volume of liquid A is more than liquid B in final mixture?

I. x, y, z are prime numbers less than 10.

II. The volume of liquid A is a multiple of 10

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A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Q14. A container of height H contains one inlet at height H and three outlets at height
H/6, H/3, 2H/3. The efficiency of outlet pipes is same and is equal to x. The inlet takes
time t to completely fill the tank when outlets are not operating. The container will be
half filled in how much time?

I. Time taken to fill the water from first outlet to second outlet is equal to the time taken
to fill water from height of second outlet to third outlet.
II. Time taken to fill the water from second outlet to the height of third outlet is 12t.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Q15. A circle C given by x2 + y2 - 8x - 8y + 16 = 0 and two lines A and B lie in the same
plane. Is line A tangent to the circle?

I. The shortest distance between line A and center of circle is equal to the shortest
distance between center of circle and B. Also the lines are perpendicular to each other.
II. P is the point of intersection of lines A and B such that its distance from the center of
the circle is 4√2

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Directions for questions 16 to 17: Three boys (Amar, Bmar and Cmar) and three girls
(Dini, Eini and Kini) went on tracking. They are to stay in a row of nine tent houses, each
one living in his or her own tent house. There are no others staying in the same row of
tent houses.

1. Eini, Amar and Cmar do not want to stay in any house, which is at the end of the row.
2. Dini and Eini are unwilling to stay besides any occupied house.
3. Kini is next to Bmar and Cmar.
4. Between Eini and Cmar's house there is just one vacant house.
5. None of the girls occupy adjacent houses.

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6. The house occupied by Amar is next to an end house.

Q16. How many of them occupy cottages next to a vacant cottage?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

Q17. Which among these statement(s) is/are true?

I. Eini is between Dini and Cmar.

II. At the most four persons can have occupied cottages on either side of them.
III. Amar stays besides Bmar

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

Directions for questions 18 to 20: Answer the questions independent of each other.

Q18. Two persons each with a separate key are necessary to open a treasure box. Each
person opens his lock of the treasure box by his own key. Alfaire, Blfaire and Clfaire own
a treasure box with several locks. They want to make sure that only at least two persons
together can get at the content of the treasure box. How many locks and how many keys
to each lock do they need?

A. 2 lock 2 keys
B. 3 lock 3 keys
C. 2 lock 3 keys
D. 3 lock 2 keys
E. None of the above.

Q19. In a contest there are three doors behind which two goats and a car are hidden (the
quizmaster knows where). The candidate chooses a door. Then the quizmaster reveals a
goat behind another door. Which of the following is true?

A. The candidate changes its choice will increase his chances of winning
B. The candidate changes its choice will decrease his chances of winning
C. Candidate not changing his choice will increase his chances of winning
D. Candidate not changing his choice will decrease his chances of winning
E. Change is choice doesn't matter

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Q20. A, B, and C play 'winner stays on' in a series of badminton games, with A and B
playing the first game and C sitting it out. At the end A has won 10 games and B has won
21 games. How many times did A and B play each other?

A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
E. Cannot be determined

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Section II
Number of Questions: 21

Directions for questions 21 to 38: Answer the questions independent of each other.

Q21. A square ABCD of side length 10 cm contains two semi-circles C1 and C2 each of
radius R with centers lying on non-adjacent sides of the square. The distance of centers of
C1 and C2 from the corners A and C is 4cm each and the distance of centers of C1 and
C2 from the corners B and D is 6cm each. If the distance between the two closest points
of C1 and C2 is 4, find the radius of the circles.

A. 2√13 - 1
B.√26-2
C. 6
D. 5+√3
E. None of the above

Q22. An equilateral triangle is of side length 'a'. Find the area of the equilateral triangle
which best fits 5 such triangles.

A. 3a2(1 + √3/2)
B. a√2(1 + √3/2)
C. 9√3a2/2
D. 6(√3 + 1)a2/2
E. a2(2√3+3)/2

Q23. There is a hollow cuboid of length 12m, breadth 8m and height 16m. Now cylinders
of radius 0.7m and varying heights are placed inside the cuboid such that one layer of
cylinders are placed along the length and the next layer of cylinders are placed along
width. The cylinders to be placed inside cuboid are chosen for maximum volume. Find
the volume of cuboid left after filling cylinders. Assume the first layer is placed along the
length.

A. 636.6
B. 482.6
C. 1053.3
D. 451.8
E. None of the above

Q24. Let f be a real-valued function defined on the positive integers satisfying the
following condition: For all n >1, there exists a prime divisor p of n such that
f(n) = f(n/p) – f(p).
Given that f(2001) = 1, what is the value of f(2002)?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2

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D. 3
E. 4

Q25. There is a circular pond of radius 25 mts. Two swimmers P and Q start from point
A and swim along the periphery of the pond with same speed in opposite directions (i.e.
clockwise and anti-clockwise). A third swimmer R also starts from same point A and is
swimming such that its distance from P and Q is always same and all three always lie on
a straight line. Find the number of points that P reaches in his one complete round such
that his distance from R and distance of R from the center are integers at the same time.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. No such point exists

Q26. Three numbers are in geometric progression such that their sum is 2 and the sum of
their squares is 8
Which of the following could be true?
I. The sum of two numbers could be 3.
II. The product of all three numbers is -2
III. Two out of three numbers are negative

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Both I and II
E. All I, II and III

Q27. Which of the following in true?

Given that: A=80105 B= 28140 C=45697635

A. C<A<B
B. A<B<C
C. A>C>B
D. A<C<B
E. A>B>C

Q28. A point is chosen on each of the four sides of a unit square. Let a,b,c and d be the
length of sides of the quadrilateral obtained by joining these points. Find the maximum
possible value of a+b+c+d.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6

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D. 8
E. 9

Q29. Which of the following can be folded to make a cube?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E. None of these

Q30. A person’s job allows him to work any number of hours per week he desire. He can
take home pay as proportional to the number of hours worked (no overtime). After
subtracting time for sleeping and routine daily tasks he has 80 hours per week left for
work and pleasure. Success is defined by the product of his income and the amount of
pleasure time that he can enjoy. How many hours per week, he should work in order to
maximise his success?

A. 80
B. 79

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C. 40
D. 55
E. 60

Q31. Find the number of four digit numbers which are perfect squares and written with
four even integers?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Q32. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. [x+y] ≥ [x] +[y]
2. [[x]/n] = [x/n]
(Here, [.] represents Greatest Integer Function)

A. Both are true

B. Both are false
C. Only I is true
D. Only II is true
E. None of these.

Q33. If n is an integer, how many values of n will give an integral value of (16n3 + 23n2
+ 13n + 6)/(n2 + n)?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of these

Q34. Find the number of ways to tile a stair-step of height 4 with 4 rectangles.

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
E. 18

Q35. Find the last two digits of quotient when 2472 + 2652 + 2832 + 3012 +3192 +3372 -
2452 -263 2 - 2812 - 2992 - 3172 - 3352 is divided by 24.

A. 94
B. 49

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C. 91
D. 69
E. 61

Q36. There are n quadratic equations E1, E2, E3,..., En with each having both roots
positive integers. The roots of quadratic equations are such that the difference of smaller
root of E2 and E1 , E3 and E2,..., En and En-1 each is 4. Similarly the difference of the
other roots of E2 and E1, E3 and E2,..., En and En-1 is also 4. If X1, X2, X3,..., Xn are
the points where the quadratic equations have their minimum value, find the value of X6.
Given E1: x2 - 5x + 6 = 0

A. 61/2
B. 53/2
C. 45/2
D. 37/2
E. None of these

Q37. Find the sum of the series

1 + 5 + 12 + 22 + 35 +...+ 330 + 376

A. 13600
B. 12600
C. 13300
D. 12300
E. None of these

Q38. Numbers 1 to 56 are written on a board. One boy comes to the board and removes
all even numbers. Now the second boy comes and removes one number from the start,
the third boy removes two numbers from the start and sums it. The fourth boy removes 3
numbers from the start and keeps the sum of them. This process is continued till all
numbers are over. Finally all the boys sum up theirs sums. What is the resultant sum?

A. 639
B. 629
C. 682
D. 729
E. 784

Directions for questions 39 to 40:

Figure shows two boilers P and Q of radius 7cm and 14cm respectively are kept side by
side. A belt which moves at a speed of 8cm/s contains 5 buckets A 10lt, B 20lt, C 30lt, D
40lt and E 50lt such that AB = 2cm BC = 2cm CD = 1cm and DE = 1cm. The buckets
drop the water once it's filled completely. In one second all the buckets are filled
simultaneously. The belt moves till the last bucket just crosses the second cylinder.
Neglect the radius of the buckets. Buckets pour water into the boiler which is just below
them during their course of path traversal. Assume the buckets are empty initially.

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Q39. Find the volume of water in P after 4 seconds.

A. 240
B. 270
C. 280
D. 300
E. 320

Q40. Find the distance of bucket B from the starting line after 10 seconds.

A. 6cm
B. 12cm
C. 14cm
D. 22cm
E. 20cm

Direction for question 41: Answer the question independently.

Q41.
Three regular hexagons are joined as shown in figure. Find the distance between point A
and B where A and B are the midpoints of the respective sides of the hexagons.

A. 6a
B. a √84
C. 26a/5
D. a√21
E. None of the above

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Section III
Number of Questions: 20

Directions for Questions 41 to 44: Read the passage below and answer the questions
based on it.

Let’s consider the terms ‘subjective’ and ‘objective’ and see if we can make up our minds
what we mean by them in a statement like this: “Philosophers and artists are subjective;
scientists, objective.” First, the two terms make up a semantic pair. The one has no
meaning without the other. We may define each by antonym with the other. We may
define them by synonym by translating the last syllable and say that ‘subjective’ pertains
to a subject, and ‘objective’ pertains to an object. By operation analysis we may say that
subjects perceive or conceive objects in the process of knowing. The word ‘knowing’
reminds us that we are talking about the central nervous system and should waste no time
in examining our terms for their sensory, affective, and logical components. The terms are
primarily logical. What, then, is the basic logical relation that establishes whatever
meaning they have? What goes on in the world when a poet is being subjective, and how
does it differ from what goes on when a scientist is being objective?

When the poet sings “Drink to me only with thine eyes,” he is responding immediately or
in retrospect to an object, his beloved, outside himself; but he is fundamentally concerned
with the sensations and emotions which that object stimulates in him; and whether the
object justifies his praise in the opinion of others, or indeed whether there actually is such
an object, is quite irrelevant to his purpose, which is the weaving of a beautiful pattern of
sound and imagery into a richly affective concept of feminine loveliness. This is to be
subjective.

Now the scientist is primarily concerned with the identity and continuity of the external
object that stimulates his response. It need not seem absurd to locate the Eiffel Tower, or
Everest, or the Grand Canyon, for that matter, in the mind because it is so perfectly
obvious that they can exist as the Eiffel Tower, Everest, or the Grand Canyon nowhere
else. Perhaps we can move a little closer to our definition of ‘objective’ by suggesting a
distinction between an object and thing. Let us define object as the external cause of a
thing. Whether objects ‘exist’ is obviously not discussable, for the word ‘object’ as used
here must necessarily stand not for a thing but for a hypothesis. There is, for example, no
way of telling whether objects are singular or plural, whether one should say the stimulus
of the Eiffel Tower experience or the stimuli of the Eiffel Tower experience. If then, it is
impossible even for the scientist to escape the essential subjectivity of his sensations,
generalizations, and deductions, what do we mean by calling him objective?

Q42. Which of the following pairs best exemplifies the subjective/objective opposition as
defined by the passage?

A. art/philosophy
B. knower/known
C. object/thing
D. stimulus/stimuli

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E. emotion/sensation

Q43. The passage refers to “Drink to me only with thine eyes” primarily in order to

A. suggest the affective powers of sound and imagery.

B. exemplify the objective.
C. exemplify the subjective.
D. demonstrate how art can bestow universal significance on an object.
E. illustrate the difference between literal and metaphorical language.

Q44. According to the passage, “objectivity” depends on the assumption that

A. discrete objects exist external to the mind.

B. one’s vocation in life should be logical.
C. subjectivity is a cognitive weakness.
D. science is a viable discipline.
E. the Eiffel Tower is a singular stimulus, not a diffuse experience.

Q45. According to the definitions of the third paragraph, which of the following is (are)
true of an object?

I. The reality of an object is hypothetical.

II. Whether objects are plural or singular is uncertain.
III. An object is the external cause of a thing.

A. III only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

Directions for Questions 46 to 48: Read the passage below and answer the questions
based on it.

In economics, demand implies something slightly different from the common meaning of
the term. The layperson uses the term to mean the amount that is demanded of an item.
Thus, if the price were to decrease and individuals wanted more of an item, it is
commonly said that demand increases. To an economist, demand is a relationship
between a series of prices and a series of corresponding quantities that are demanded at
these prices. If one reads the previous sentence carefully, it should become apparent that
there is a distinction between the quantity demanded and demand. This distinction is
often a point of confusion. Demand is a relationship between price and quantities
demanded, and therefore suggests the effect of one (e.g., price) on the other (e.g.,
quantity demanded). Therefore, knowledge of the demand for a product enables one to
predict how much more of a good will be purchased if price decreases. But the increase
in quantity demanded does not mean that demand has increased, since the relationship

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between price and quantity demanded (i.e., the demand for the product) has not changed.
Demand shifts when there is a change in income, expectations, taste, etc., such that a
different quantity of the good is demanded at the same price.

In almost all cases, a consumer wants more of an item if the price decreases. This
relationship between price and quantity demanded is so strong that it is referred to as the
“law of demand.” This “law” can be explained by the income and substitution effects.
The income effect occurs because price increases reduce the purchasing power of the
individual and, thus, the quantity demanded of goods must decrease. The substitution
effect reflects the consumer’s desire to get the “best buy.” Accordingly, if the price of
good A increases, the individual will tend to substitute another good and purchase less of
good A. The negative correlation between price and quantity demanded is also explained
by the law of diminishing marginal utility.

According to this law, the additional utility the consumer gains from consuming a good
decrease as successively more units of the good are consumed. Because the additional
units yield less utility or satisfaction, the consumer is willing to purchase more only if the
price of the good decreases.

Q46. Which of the following is an instance of a shift in demand as it is understood by

economists?

I. A market is selling two pounds of coffee for the price it usually charges for one pound;
the demand for coffee has increased.
II. The success of a television program featuring cartoon turtles has increased the demand
for an oat cereal in turtle shapes.
III. Because of the rail strike, California lettuce costs more in Chicago, and the demand
for lettuce has fallen.

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III

Q47. According to the passage, a change in demand, as economists use the term, would
occur in which of the following situations?

A. The gasoline price increases, resulting in the increased sale of compact cars (whose
price remains stable).
B. The gasoline price increases, resulting in the increased sale of compact cars (which go
on sale in response to increased gas prices).
C. The gasoline price decreases on the same day that a new 43-mpg car enters the market.
D. A federal order imposes a price ceiling on gasoline.
E. A federal order lifts price regulations for gasoline.

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Q48. Assume that firms develop an orange-flavored breakfast drink high in vitamin C
that is a good substitute for orange juice but sells for less. Based upon assertions in the
passage, which of the following would occur with respect to the demand for orange
juice?

A. Health food stores would resurrect the law of diminishing marginal utility.
B. Assuming that the price of fresh orange juice remained constant, more orange juice
would be consumed.
C. The law of demand would prevail.
D. Assuming that the price of fresh orange juice remained constant, the demand would
not change.
E. There is not enough information in the passage to answer this question.

Directions for Questions 49 to 51: Read the passage below and answer the questions
based on it.

A growing body of research on sharks and their relatives portrays these creatures as
behaving in ways far more sophisticated and complex than was thought possible.
Scientists are documenting elaborate social behaviors among these fish, including never-
before-witnessed mating rituals that seem to be based on electrical signals.
Compared to other fishes, sharks have huge brains. But because sharks are so difficult to
study—they are dangerous, far-ranging, and usually inhabit murky waters—scientists
only recently have accumulated enough data to even hint at their behavioral and sensory
complexity. In one of the most surprising findings, a researcher discovered a new sense
organ, located on top of certain sharks’ heads. The organ is a sort of light-gathering “third
eye,” known in some pre-historic fishes, the lantern fishes, and at least one living reptile,
the tuatara of New Zealand. Its precise function in the six-gilled shark is still uncertain,
though sensing light at the deep depths to which they dive is most likely.
Sharks are literally covered in sense organs. Over the last two decades, researchers have
found no fewer than four separate sensory systems to detect chemicals in the water. Past
researchers have documented that sharks also have good vision and can see in color; they
have directional hearing, and although they cannot hear notes much above middle C, they
can hear sounds below the threshold of human hearing.
But perhaps the most astounding sense possessed by sharks is their ability to sense
electric fields. Elasmobranchs—sharks, skates, and rays—can detect fields so weak they
cannot be measured by standard laboratory equipment. All live organisms, immersed in
water, have a weak bioelectric field, a current generated between biological membranes
and the surrounding water. Elasmobranch fishes use electroreception to locate prey.
Some scientists suspect that sharks, skates, and rays, sensing and interpreting the much
larger voltage potentials created by salt-water currents moving through the earth’s
magnetic field, use this information to navigate.
Electroreception may also play a key role in the mating system of sharks and the one
thousand other fishes in the same taxonomic group. The females use electroreception for
some sort of social cues. Receptive females may be advertising their availability by
congregating in large, highly visible, unburied piles; but unreceptive females, perhaps
already pregnant, may use electroreception to locate other buried females to hide from

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amorous males in buried aggregation. Field strength intensifies when the fishes open their
mouths. Literally, “heavy breathing” could enhance a female’s attraction.

Q49. The complexity of the shark has been underestimated for which of the following
reasons?

I. Sharks are a very ancient life form.

II. Sharks are dangerous.
II. Sharks rarely live in clear waters.

A. II only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

Q50. It can be inferred from the passage that female sharks hiding in groups from male
sharks

A. could not be found if they were buried in the sand.

B. could be discovered by a male shark using his “third eye.”
C. would emit no bioelectrical signals.
D. would be easier to detect by electroreception than a female shark hiding alone.
E. would open their mouths as often as possible.

Q51. Which of the following is most relevant to the research described in the passage?

A. Certain birds communicate by emitting cries pitched two octaves above middle C.
B. Certain migrating birds determine their location by detecting variations in the strength
of the earth’s magnetic field.
C. Migrating herds of wildebeest can reach their destination in spite of major changes in
landscape from one year to the next.
D. Some migrating birds and insects appear to arrive at the same place on exactly the
same day year after year.
E. Dogs are capable of hearing sounds at pitches inaudible to human ears.

Directions for questions 52 to 54: Arrange the sentences to form a logical sequence of
sentences.

Q52.
A. This may be another way in which shared environment influences attitude formation.
B. Parents seem to pass on their gender role orientations both directly and indirectly.
C. Parents who are more highly educated may discuss social equality openly with their
children, thus sharing their more egalitarian perspectives on gender roles more openly.

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D. Attitudes and behaviors regarding gender roles are generally learned first in the home
and then reinforced by a child’s peers and experiences.
E. Just as an individual’s education is likely to encourage less traditional attitudes toward
gender roles, the education of one’s parents will likely affect one’s attitudes.

A. BEDAC
B. BDECA
C. DCEBA
D. DBECA
E. CDEAB

Q53.
A. From one ancient bone one can reconstruct not only the whole animal, but from its
body also the kind of environment in which it lived.
B. The body even as a dead structure still contains all that implicit information about its
environment.
C. From the kind of feet it had one can infer the kind of ground on which it moved. From
its stomach cavity one can know what it fed on and chased.
D. When alive, its bodily life-process is much more implicit information. And this bodily
sentience implies and generates the animal's next move.
E. Animal bodies are complex interactions with their environments.

A. ABCDE
B. AECBD
C. AECDB
D. ECADB
E. EACBD

Q54.
A. In temperate regions, there are enough lakes for correlations between them to give us a
reliable picture.
B. One very old method used in the investigation of past climatic conditions involves the
measurement of water levels in ancient lakes.
C. On the basis of snow-line elevations, however, it has been concluded that the climate
then was not necessarily wetter than it is now, but rather that both summers and winters
were cooler, resulting in reduced evaporation.
D. In arid and semiarid regions, on the other hand, the small number of lakes and the
great distances between them reduce the possibilities for correlation.
E. Moreover, since lake levels are controlled by rates of evaporation as well as by
precipitation, the interpretation of such levels is ambiguous.

A. BDAEC
B. ADECB
C. BADEC
D. ADBEC
E. BCADE

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Directions for questions 55 to 56: In each of the questions a word has been used in
sentences in five different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in
which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

Q55. EXERCISE

A. The captive’s continued entreaty to the kidnapper seemed an exercise of futility.

B. The situation in Parliament is chaotic – the Speaker must exercise his authority to
restore order.
C. John was quite exercised to hear the news about his ailing father.
D. China’s military exercises near the border are a cause of regional concern.
E. We look forward to repeating the exercise in two years time.

Q56. RAISE

A. Kids raised on fast foods tend to be obese.

B. The book has become controversial as it raises questions against established traditions.
C. The plan for setting up an incinerator in the residential area raised angry protests.
D. Organizers hope to stage the event on 22 Jan, and could raise over a million pounds.
E. It would be good if democracy raises from the ashes of the revolution.

Directions for questions 57 to 59: Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that
is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical
consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.

Q57.
A. Pune’s charm for business has turned even menial workers who come from other
states resourceful.
B. Construction workers from Andhra abandon their contractors to be their own and earn
fortune.
C. They buy a plot of land or a flat and make Pune their second home.
D. Immigrant plumbers, sweepers, fruits vendors fill the vacuum left behind by Pune’s
youth suffering from ‘indignity of labor’.

A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and C
D. A, B and C
E. B, C and D

Q58.
A. It has been a cruel summer for the BPO industry, as news of clients cancelling
outsourcing deals to India kept breaking with alarming regularity.
B. If that was not bad enough, more incidents of data fraud have put up a question mark
on the security of business transacted in India.

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C. The primary reason for outsourcing work to India – cheap labor – does not hold true
anymore.
D. India does not have the personnel with the right qualifications and skills.

A. A, B and C
B. A, C and D
C. A and C
D. Only B
E. Only D

Q59.
A. Till recently, the concept of realistic advertising on TV was considered a fantasy.
B. In the past, most commercials were dictated by hyperbolic situations and random
opulence and promoted by star power which made products seem like a distant
probability.
C. Given the Indian consumers passion for larger-than-life images, companies will
continue to use logic-defying commercials.
D. But as the economy evolves so will the advertising.

A. A and B
B. C and D
C. A and C
D. B and D
E. A, B and D

Directions for questions 60 to 61: Answer the questions independent of each other.

Q60. Which of the following most logically completes the below paragraph?
In a civilized society, members of the community will often defer to others, even against
their own better judgment. This situation may occur in public, in gatherings with
strangers, or in the household with one’s family or friends. It is a sign of a more
sophisticated culture that one’s immediate interests are thought to be secondary to those
of another. On first examination this may seem to be selflessness, but ___________.

A. actually it is not; it is just ignorance

B. rather it may take many names
C. actually it is
D. to some extent it does serve the ends of the individual concerned
E. sometimes it can harbor animosities and hostility

Q61. Money talks as never before in state and local elections, and the main cause is TV
advertising. Thirty seconds can go as high as Rs 250,000. Political fundraising is one of
the few growth industries left in India. The way to stop the waste might be for television
to be paid by state and local government, at a standard rate, to provide air time to all
candidates to debate the issues. This might be boring at first. But eventually candidates

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might actually brush up their debating skills and electrify the TV audience with content,
not style.

Which of the following presuppositions is (are) necessary to the argument above?

I. Candidates spend too much money on television advertising.

II. Television can be used to educate and inform the public.
III. The freedom of speech doesn’t abridge the freedom to spend.

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II and III

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