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CODE : CYAN

29442/QB/HYD-NCO-CO / IITJ EE / 14-2-2011 /


IITJ EE


NARAYANA IIT ACADEMY
INDIA

IITJEE MODEL Exam Date : 19-2-2011
Time : 3:00
GRAND TEST-15
(PAPER -1)
Max Marks : 240
ID.NO :




INSTRUCTIONS :

1) This booklet is your Questions Paper containing 60 questions. Maximum marks: 240.

2) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics).Each part
has 4 sections.

3) Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Q.No: 1 to 8, 21 to 28 and 41 to 48. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For
each questions in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In
case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

4) Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Q.No: 9 to 12, 29 to 32
and 49 to 52. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR
MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if
you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the
answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark
will be awarded.

5) Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions bearing Q.No: 13 to 18, 33 to 38, 53 to 58 have to be answered. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each
question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other
cases minus one(-1) mark will be awarded.

6) Section-IV contains 2 questions. Q.No: 19, 20, 39, 40 and 59, 60. Each question
contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in
Column I are labeled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labeled p, q,
r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded
2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the
correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There
is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.






This Question paper contains 20 Pages GRAND TEST-15 PAPER-1_19-02-11
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-1
Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) ,
(C) and (D) , out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each questions in Section I , you
will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect
answer , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
1)
Analysis shows that nickel oxide consists of nickel ions with 96% ions having
8
d
configuration and 4% ions having
7
d configuration which among following best
represents the formula of the nickel oxide ?
(Atomic number of Ni =28)

A)
1.02
Ni O
B)
0.96
Ni O
C)
0.97
Ni O
D)
0.98
Ni O

2)
Which of following statements is correct for the complex ( )
4 2 5
K Fe CN O (


having
6
2
0
,
g g
t e electronic configuration?

A)
2 3
d sp hybridized and diamagnetic
B)
3 2
sp d hybridized and paramagnetic

C)
3 2
sp d hybridized and diamagnetic
D)
2 3
d sp hybridized and paramagnetic
3) An electron in an atom jumps from one energy level to another energy level in such a
way that its kinetic energy changes from ' '
4
x
x to . The change in potential energy will
be

A) 3
2
x +
B) 3
8
x
C) 3
4
x +
D) 3
4
x

4)
The reaction ( ) ( ) ( )
2
2 2 A g B g AB g + is second order in A and first order in
2
B .
When 10 mole of A and 4 mol
2
B are taken in vessel of volume
3
2dm together, and the
initial rate is
3
2 10

mole
3 1
dm s

. What will be the rate when half quantity of the
2
B has reacted ?

A)
3 3 1
4.3 10 mol dm s


B)
4 3 1
3.6 10 mol dm s



C)
3 3 1
3.6 10 mol dm s


D)
3 3 1
3.2 10 mol dm s


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5) Which of the following can give immediate turbidity on treatment with Lucas Reagent?

A)
OH

B)
2 2 3
CH CH CH OH
C)
2 2
CH CH CH OH =
D)
OH

6) Most stable conformer of 2-fluoro ethanol is

A)
F
H
H
H
H
OH

B)
F
H
H
H
H OH

C)
F
H
H
H
H
OH

D)
F
H
H
H
H
OH


7) Consider the following equilibria :
3 2 3 3
CH COOH H O H O CH COO
+
+ +


2 4 3 3 2 4
H SO CH COOH CH COOH HSO
+
+ +


2 4 3 2 3 4
H SO HNO H NO HSO

+
+ (

+


3 2 4
NH H O NH OH
+
+ +


Select the incorrect statement among the following

A)
2 4
H SO is a stronger acid than
3
HNO



B)
4
NH
+
is weaker acid than
2
H O



C) Acetic acid is stronger acid than
2
H O


D)
2
H Ois a weaker acid than
2 4
H SO and
3
HNO both



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8) Nitrogen and oxygen exist as diatomic but their congeners are
4 8
P and S respectively
because
A) Phosphorus and sulphur are solids

B) Phosphorus and sulphur catenate due to the existence of d-orbitals and form
strainles structures
C) Phosphorus and sulphur polymerise as soon as they are formed

D) Catenation tendency of P and S is stronger because of the high P-P and S-S bond
energies as compared to N-N and O-O bond energies

SECTION-2
Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4
choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each
question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer , and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
9) Product (s) formed during this reaction are
CH
2
- CH
2
- OTs
*
AcONa
AcOH


*
C isotopic carbon
(
=
(



A)
CH
2
- CH
2
- OAc
*

B)
CH
2
- CH
2
- OAc
*


C)
CH
2
- CH
2
- OTS
OAc
*

D)
CH =CH
2


10) Which of the following set of molecules have same shape but different hybridization

A)
2 2
, H O SnCl
B)
3 3
, XeO BrF
C)
4 4
, XeO SF
D)
2 3
, BeCl I



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11)
2 n
A O is oxidized to
3 4
AO by KMnO

in acidic medium. If 1.34 mmol of


2 n
A O requires
32.2mL of 0.05 M acidified
4
KMnO solution for complete oxidation, which of the
following statement (s) is (are) correct?
A) The value of n =2
B) Empirical formula of oxide is AO

C)
1.0 mol of
2 n
A O would require 1.0mol of acidified
7 2 2
K Cr O solution
D)
can be a metal from second group of Periodic Table
12)
( )
3 gas
CaCO A B +
2
A H O C +
( )
2
white ppt
C B D H O + +
( )
( ) ( )
2
2
lub
gas
Boil
BaCl
water so le white ppt
H O D B E F + +
Select the correct option(s) for white ppts. shown in the above reactions.

A)
3
CaCO
B)
3
MgCO
C)
3
BaCO
D)
2 3
Na CO

SECTION-3
Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph , 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 4
marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

P)
crystallize in rock salt structure. Its cell parameter can be determined by various
experimental methods like electrical conductivity measurement, colligative properties
measurement, pH measurement etc. A cubic crystal of
4
CuSO of edge length 17.1mm is
dissolved in water to make 500ml solution of pH 5.
( )
3
7 1.9 =
Given :
( ) ( ) ( )
2
5
2 2 2 3
6 5
; 10 Cu H O H O Cu H O OH H O K
+
+
+
(
+ + =


13) Moles of
4
CuSO dissolved in water to make above solution is

A)
5
10


B)
5
2 10


C)
4
2 10


D)
6
5 10



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14) Edge length of FCC unit cell of copper sulphate is

A)
0
190A
B)
0
270A
C)
0
120A
D)
0
300A


15)
If the given solution of
4
CuSO is made 1M with respect to
3
NH ,
2
Cu
+
(

becomes
15
10 M

.
f
K for the formation of
( )
2
3
4
Cu NH
+
(

is

A)
10
10
B)
8
10
C)
8
2 10
D)
10
2 10


P) .
2 4
1 3
2
2
conc H SO Polymerize
NH OH
Mild acid medium
P P P
A

A
O

16) Which type of the isomerism can be shown by
1
P ?
A) Geometrical isomerism B) Optical isomerism
C) Tautomerism D) All of these


17) The conversion of
1 2
P to P involves
A) Nitrene B) Electron deficient nitrogen
C) Negatively charge Nitrogen D) Electron deficient oxygen


18) Which of the following is monomer of
3.
P
A) Caprolactol B) Caprolactum C) Isoprene D) Caprolactone








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SECTION-4
Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which
have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the
statements in Column II are labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have
correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section
IV , you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section carries a maximum of 8
marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

19) Match the Following:
Column I
(Compounds)
Column II
(Can be differentiated by)
(a)
|
3 3 3 2 2
&
OH
CH CH CH CH CH CH OH (p) Lucas reagent
(b)

|
|
2 2 3 3
3
&
OH
CH
CH CH CH OH CH C CH =
(q) Victor Meyer test
(c)
CH
2
- CH
3
Cl
CH Cl CH
3
&

(r) Iodoform test
(D)
( )
2 3
3
& H C CHCl CH C Cl =
(s)
Aqueous
3
AgNO


20) Match the Following:
Column I Column II
(a) Linear shape (p)
2
CS
(b) Sp hybridization (q)
3
N


(c)
3
sp d hybridization
(r)
3
I


(d)
2
CO is isostructural to
(s)
NCO


(t)
2
NO
+



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MATHEMATICS

SECTION-1
Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of
which ONLY ONE is correct. For each questions in Section I , you will be awarded 3 marks if you have
darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In
case of bubbling of incorrect answer , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

21)
Let ( ) , 0 f x P x q p = + < is onto when defined from | | 1,1 to | | 0,2 , then
( ) ( )
1 1
cot tan2 sin sin3
2

t
is equal to

A) ( ) 0 f B) ( ) 1 f C)
1
2
f
| |
|
\ .
D) ( ) 1 f


22)
A certain polynomial ( ) P x when divided by , , x a x b x c leaves remainders , , a b c
respectively. The remainder when: ( ) P x is divided by ( )( )( ) x a x b x c is
(where , , a b c are constants)

A) 0 B) x C) a x b c + D)
2
a x b x c + +


23) The equation of line segment AB is . y x = If A & B lie on same side of line mirror
2 1, x y = then the equation of image of AB with respect to line mirror 2 1 x y = is

A)
7 5 y x =
B)
7 6 y x =
C)
3 7 y x =
D)
6 5 y x =


24)

( ) ( )
2
2 2 2
21 2 4 , x y z x y z + + = + + then x, y, z are in

A) A.P. B) G.P.
C) H.P. D) Not in A.P. /G.P./H.P.

25)
Let ( )
( ) ( ) ( )
( ) ( ) ( )
( ) ( ) ( )
2 3
2 3 ,
2 3 ' ' '
f x c f x c f x c
g x f c f c f c
f c f c f c
+ + +
=
where c is constant then
( )
0
lim
x
g x
x

is equal to

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A) 0 B) 1 C) 1 D) ( ) f c


26)
Let | | 3,5 : f R be a differentiable function such that ( ) ( ) ( )
lim 3, '
x
f x f x

+ =
then ( ) lim
x
f x



A) Can be obtained and is equal to 4
B) Can be obtained and is equal to 3
C) Can be obtained and is equal to 5
D) Can not be obtained from the given information

27)
The number of solutions of the equation
cos
2 sin
x
x = in | | 2 ,2 t t is
A) 8 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
28)
If ( ) 3 2 f x x x = and ( ) sin , g x x = then domain of ( ) fog x is
A) 2 ,
2
n n I
t
t+ e
`
)



B)
7 11
2 ,2
6 6
n I
n n
e
t t (
t+ t+
(




C) 2 ,
6
n n I
t
t+ e
`
)



D) ( )
7 11
4 1 ; 2 ,2
2 6 6
n I
m m I n n
e
t t t (
+ e t+ t+
`
(
)






SECTION-2
Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4
choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each
question in Section II , you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer , and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

29)
Equation of a tangent to the parabola
2
8 y x = which makes an angle 45
0
with the line
3 5 y x = + is

A)
2 1 0 x y + + =
B)
2 1 y x = +
C)
2 8 0 x y + =
D)
2 8 0 x y + =


This Question paper contains 20 Pages GRAND TEST-15 PAPER-1_19-02-11
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30)
Let
1 1
2
1
1
cot cot J x dx
x

| |
= +
|
\ .
}
and
7
2
sin
sin
x
K dx
x
t
t
=
}

Then which of the following alternative(s) is/are correct?

A)
2 3 8 J K + = t
B)
2 2 2
4 26 J K + = t C)
2 3 J K = t
D)
2
5
J
K
=


31)
If ( ) 3sin sin 2 | = o+| then
A) ( ) ( ) cot cot cot 3cot 2 6 o+ o+| | o+| = ( (

B) ( ) sin cos sin | = o+| o
C) ( ) 2sin sin cos | = o +| o D) ( ) tan 2tan o +| = o


32)
If Rolles Theorem is applicable to the function ( ) f x defined by
( )
2
, 1
1 , 1
, 1
a x b x
f x x
c
x
x

+ <

= =

>


in the interval| | 3,3 , then which of the following alternative(s) is/are correct ?


A) 2 a b c + + = B) 3 a b c + + =


C)
2 4 3 8 a b c + + =
D)
2 2 2
4 4 5 15 a b c + + =




SECTION-3
Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph , 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 4
marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

This Question paper contains 20 Pages GRAND TEST-15 PAPER-1_19-02-11
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P)
If
th
r term of a series can be written as ( ) ( ) 1 ,
r
a f r f r = then
( ) ( )
1
0
n r
n
r
S a f n f
=
= =

and lim ,
n
n
S S


= then
33)
Value of
( )
2
1
4 1 5
r
r
r
r r


A) is5 B) is 5 C) is 10 D) Grows without bound
34)
Value of ( )
50 50
1 1
cos1 1 sin sin1 cos n n +

is equal to
A)
0
sin50 B)
0 0
sin50 sin1 C)
0 0
sin51 sin1 D)
1
2



35)
If ( ) ( ) ( ) 3 3! 4 4! 5 5! .... 50 + + + + terms ! ! a b = then a b is equal to
A) 45 B) 50 C) 47 D) 48
P)
Let ( ) f x be a polynomial of degree n and let
1 2
, ,......
n
o o o be its real roots.
If

R oe be any arbitrary number, then ( ) f x can uniquely be expressed as
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
1 2
0 1 2 1
.....
n n n
n n
f x C x C x C x C x C

= o + o + o + + o + for a
polynomial ( )
3 2
2 6 7 5 g x x x x = + +
36)
If ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
3 2
0 1 2 3
2 2 2 , g x C x C x C x C = + + + then
0 1 2 3
C C C C + + + =
A) 90 B) 91 C) 92 D) 0
37)
If ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
3 2
0 1 2 3
2 2 2 , g x C x C x C x C = + + + then
2
C is equal to
A) 40 B) 39 C) 41 D) 41


38)
For ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
3 2
0 1 2 3
2 2 2 , g x C x C x C x C = + + + then
3
C =
A) 30 B) 31 C) 32 D) 31



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SECTION-4
Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which
have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the
statements in Column II are labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have
correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section
IV , you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section carries a maximum of 8
marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

39)
Match the Following:
Column I Column II
(A)
( ) ( )
1
1
x y
x y
dy e
dx x y e
+
=


(p)
3 2
2 2 y x x y c + = +
(B)
2 2
4 2
3 2
dy xy
dx y x


(q)
1
sin
0
y x
x k e

=
(C) 2 2
xdy y dx x y dx =
(r)
3
1
1
tan
3
y
x y c
x

| |
+ =
|
\ .

(D)
( ) ( )( )
4 2 2 2
1 0 x x dy y dx y x y x dy y dx + + + =
(s)
x y
x y e c + =


40)
Match the Following:
Column I Column II
(A) The number of positive integral solutions of the equations
1 2 3 4
1050 x x x x = is , then is divisible by
(p) 2
(B) If n is the number between 500 and 4000 that can be
formed with the digits 2,3,4,5,6 when repetition is not
allowed, then n is divisible by
(q) 3
(C) If
3
is the number of solutions of 15, x y z + + = such that
1, 2 x y > > and 3, z > then
3
is divisible by
(r) 5
(D)
The largest integer n for which 34! is divisible by 3
n
has
its factors as
(s) 11




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PHYSICS
SECTION-1
Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which
ONLY ONE is correct. For each questions in Section I , you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of
incorrect answer, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

41) The magnetic flux through each of five faces of a neutral playing dice is given by
, NWb =

where ( ) 1to5 N = is the number of spots on the face. Thus flux is


positive (out-ward) for N even and negative (in ward) for N odd. What is the flux
through the sixth face of the die?


A) 3Wb B) 4Wb C) 3Wb D) 4Wb


42)
Three liquids A,B and C are at temperature of
0
60 , C
0
55 C and
0
50 C respectively 4 g
of A mixed with 3g of C gives
0
55 C and 2g of A mixed with 3g of B gives
0
57 C . The
temperature of the mixture when equal masses of B and C are mixed is


A)
0
52.1 C
B)
0
55 C
C)
0
52.5 C
D)
0
53 C


43) The binding energies of the atom of elements A & B are E
a
& E
b
respectively. Three
atoms of the element B fuse to give one atom of element A. This fusion process is
accompained by release of energy e. Then E
a
, E
b
are related to each other as


A)
3
a b
E e E + =


B)
3
a b
E E =


C)
3
a b
E e E =


D)
3 0
a b
E E e + + =




44) In the system shown in figure find the angular frequency of small oscillations of block
of mass M. Here Pulley has moment of inertia I about horizontal axis passing through
O. In equilibrium, Line OA is horizontal:



A)
2
2
R K
I MR +

B)
2
R K
M

C)
K
R
I

D)
2
2 2
R K
I MR +



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45) Two rods are joined between fixed supports as shown in the figure. Condition for no
change in the length of individual rods with the increase of temperature (
1 2
, = linear
expansion co efficient,
1 2
, A A = area of cross section of rods,
1 2
, y y =Young modulus)



A)
1 1
2 2
1
2

A y
A y
=
B)
1 1 1
2 2
1
2 2

A L y
A L y
=
C)
2 2 2
1 1
1
2 1

A L y
A L y
=
D)
2 2
1 1
1
2

A y
A y
=


46)
A jet traveling at a constant speed of
2
1.20 10 / m s executes a vertical loop with a
radius of
2
5.00 10 m . (See Fig). find the magnitude of the force of the seat on a 70.0-
kg pilot at the top of the loop. (Take
2
10 / g m s = )


A) 1316N B) 2700N C) 700N D) 2000N
47) Consider the circuit shown in figure (Assume that batteries and ammeter are ideal).

Initially when the key K is open reading of ammeter is I. now if key k is closed.

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A)
If
2 1
= reading of ammeter will not change

B)
If
2 1
2 = reading of ammeter will not change

C)
If
2 1
= reading of ammeter will be zero

D)
If
2 1
= reading of ammeter will be more than I.


48)
Two point charges +q and -4q are placed at ( ) ,0 a and ( ) ,0 a + . Take electric field
intensity to be positive if it is along positive x direction and negative if along negative x
direction. The variation of the electric field intensity as one moves along the x axis is


A)

B)


C)

D)


SECTION-2
Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4
choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each
question in Section II , you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer , and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

49) The potential at a is higher than the potential at b which of the following statements
about ideal inductor can be true?


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A) If I is from a to b, it is steady
B) If I is from a to b, it is increasing
C) If I is from b to a, it is decreasing
D) If I is from b to a, it is increasing

50) A single conservative force acts on a 1kg particle that moves along x axis = . The
potential energy of the particle varies with x as ( )
2
20 2 U x = + here U is in joules and
x is in meters. When the particle is at 5 x m = , its kinetic energy is 20J . Then which of
the following is/are correct?


A)
Mechanical energy of particle is .

B)
Least and greatest value of x between which particle can move is
( )
2 29 m and
( )
2 29 m + respectively

C) Maximum kinetic energy of the particle is 29J
D) At 2 x = the body is in equilibrium

51)
Two particles A and B have charge and mass ( ) , q m + and ( ) , 2 q m +
respectively. They are projected simultaneously from same height h horizontally
towards each other with velocity
0
v . Assume acceleration due to gravity to be
uniform and vertically downward. Neglect the force due to magnetic field and effect of
time verying magnetic and electric field. Assume that distance D is sufficiently large so
that there is no collision between these particles. Select the correct statements:



A)
The time to hit the ground is independent of
0
v .
B) The two particles will be always at the same height.
C) The particle B will be always below the particle A.
D) The particle A will be always below the particle B.

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52) A sound wave of length of frequency v travels horizontally to the right. It is reflected
from a large vertical plane surface moving to left with a speed u. the speed of sound in
medium is c.


A)
The number of waves striking the surface per second is
( ) c u
v
c
+


B)
The wavelength of reflected wave is
( )
( )
c c u
v c u

+


C) The frequency of the reflected wave as observed by the stationary observer is
( )
( )
c u
v
c u

+


D) The number of beats heard by a stationary listener to the left of the reflecting surface
is
uv
c u



SECTION-3
Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph , 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 4
marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

P) The figure shows a cylinder container, fitted with a piston. It contains two immiscible
incompressible liquids with densities
1
and
2
. A block floats in equilibrium in the
position shown.


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53) Suppose the spring is initially in compressed state. Now, if the piston is moved
downwards slowly then
A) Spring will become more compressed
B) Spring will become less compressed
C) The compression in spring will remain same as before.
D) Nothing can be said

54) Suppose the spring is initially in compressed state. Now, if the whole system is moved
with some acceleration upward then
A) Spring will become more compressed
B) Spring will become less compressed
C) The compression in spring will remain same as before.
D) Nothing can be said

55) Suppose the spring is initially in relaxed state. The piston is moved downward slowly
and the whole system is accelerated upward then
A) Spring will become compressed
B) Spring will become stretched
C) No change will occur in the state of the spring .
D) Nothing can be said

P) A small block of mass m, can move without friction on the
outside of a fixed vertical circular track of radius R. The
block is attached to a spring of natural length R/2 and
spring constant k. The other end of spring is connected to a
point at height R/2 directly above the centre of track..

56) If the block is released from rest when the spring is in horizontal state (see figure) then
at that moment,

A)
Tangential acceleration is
( )
3
3 1
2 4
kR
g
m



B)
Radial acceleration is
( )
3
3 1
2 4
g kR
m
+


C)
Tangential acceleration is
( )
3
3 1
2 4
g kR
m



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D)
Radial acceleration is
( )
3
3 1
2 4
kR
g
m



57) Consider block to be at rest at top most point A of track. If the block is slowly pushed
from rest at the highest point A, when the spring reaches in horizontal state, then.

A)
Spring potential energy is
( )
2
3
2 3
4
kR
| |

|
\ .


B)
Spring potential energy is
( )
2
2
3 1
8
kR
| |

|
\ .


C)
Gravitational potential energy (taking 0 U = at 0 = ) is
2
mgR | |
|
\ .


D)
Gravitational potential energy (taking 0 U = at 0 = ) is
3
8
mgR | |
|
\ .



58)
If the complete setup is in a gravity free space, then the minimum speed
( )
0
v required at
the highest point A to just reach the lowest point is

A)
2
k
R
m

B)

3
2
R k
m

C)
k
R
m

D)

Motion not possible in gravity free space


SECTION-4
Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which
have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the
statements in Column II are labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have
correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section
IV , you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section carries a maximum of 8
marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

59) An electric circuit is shown. In the circuit there are three elements X,Y and Z. The high
potential point is shown by positive sign and low potential point is shown by negative
sign. In one column different conditions are given and in other column effects are
given, match them properly. Any of the circuit element is either battery or resistor.

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Column I Column II
(a) If X is a resistance (p) current will flow clockwise
(b) If X is a battery (q) current will flow anticlockwise
(c) If Y is a resistance (r) Z will act like a load
(d) If Y is a battery (s) Z will act like a source
(t) It is not possible to decide whether Z is a battery
or resistor
60) Match the Following:
In each situation of Column I a physical quantity related to orbiting electron in a
hydrogen like atom is given. The terms Z and n given in Column II have usual
meaning in Bohrs theory, Match the quantities in Column I with the terms they
depend on in Column II

Column I Column II
(A) Frequency of orbiting electron (p)
In directly proportional to
2
Z
(B) Angular momentum of orbiting
electron
(q) Is directly proportional to n
(C) Magnetic moment of orbiting electron (r) Is inversely proportional to
3
n
(D) The average current due to orbiting of
electron
(s) Is independent of Z




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PAPERS SETTERS : HYD-KCO-C
MATHS : MR.ALOK KUMAR 9030929949 - : : MR. G.Bheem Reddy-9492041854
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CHEMISTRY: MR. LAWRENCE 9703804794 : DR.R.V.S.MURTHY-9949187103.

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