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ChE Objective Type Questions Compilation - Dean Medina
ChE Objective Type Questions Compilation - Dean Medina
0.28
c. Di = q 0.487
0.025
opt c opt f c
a. Di = 3 q
0.36
0.18 d. Di = q
f
0.364
0.182
opt f c opt c
49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function of the
a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating temperature
b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency
c. diameter of the vessel
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. Bubble cap plate column is
a. a finite stage contactor
b. used only for distillation, not for absorption
c. a differential stage contactor
d. a continuous contactor
51. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial operation is
a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser
b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riser
c. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser
d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser
52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the distillation column
a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is recommended to prevent plugging of the slots by
residue build up.
b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the gas into the liquid in the form of small bubbles.
c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the gas may pass through the skirt clearance
d. none of these
53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number of bubble caps to be used per tray is set by the
a. allowable gas velocity through the slots b. plate spacing c.
diameter of the column d. all (a), (b) and (c)
54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the distillation column design) as recommended
by Davies are respectively
a. 12/
0.5
and 3.4/
0.5
b.3.4/
0.5
and 12/
0.5
c. 3.4/
0.5
and 12/
0.5
d. 3.4/
0.5
and 12/
0.5
55. Normally, the ratio of the total riser area to the tower cross sectional area (for bubble cap towers
of diameter more than 3 ft) is around
88
Di
opt
a. 0.4 - 0.6 b. 0.35 - 0.75
c. 0.1 - 0.2 d. 0.55 - 0.85
56. An adequate clearance between the tray and the shell wall of a distillation column is provided to
a. drain the liquid from the tray when the unit is not in operation.
b. allow for thermal expansion and facilitate installation
c. avoid back-trapping
d. none of these
57. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column is to
a. keep a check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual observation
b. give access to the individual trays for cleaning, maintenance and installation
c. guard against foaming and entrainment by dumping anti-forming agent through it.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
58. Weep holes provided in the plates of a distillation column
a. facilitate draining out liquid from a tray when the unit is not in operation
b. are normally located near the overflow weir so that any delivery of liquid during operation follow
approximately the same path as the overflow fluid
c. must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to 5/8 inch diameter) to prevent plugging but should not
deliver excessive amount of fluid during operation
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may result in
a. maldistribution of gas
b. back trapping
c. gas blowing beneath cap skirt
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray must not exceed
a. 0.5" - 1.25" b. 2"-3.5"
c. 5" d. half the tray spacing
61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to
a. the resistance offered to flow of liquids by caps and risers and the flow of gas.
b. low gas velocity
c. large plate spacing
d. large reflux ratio
62. Liquid gradient over a tray can be minimized by
a. providing a higher skirt clearance or a higher weir
b. decreasing the number of rows of caps through which the liquid flows or by decreasing the
velocity of liquid flow past the caps or by reducing the distance along the tray through which
the liquid must flow.
c. using split flow, radial flow or cascade flow for column diameter larger than 4 ft.
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
63. Which of the following factors determine the amount of entrainment in a distillation column?
a. plate spacing
b. depth of liquid above the bubble cap slots
c. vapor velocity in the volume between the plates
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
64. Larger depth of liquid on the trays of a distillation column
a. lead to high tray efficiency
b. results in higher pressure drop per tray
c. both (a) and (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)
65. The minimum tray spacing in distillation column of diameter than 3 ft is normally
a. 6" b. 18" c. 24" d. 34"
66. The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery distillation columns (of diameter 73 ft)
is normally
89
a. 6" b. 12" c. 18" d. 34"
67. Back-trapping in a distillation column results due to
a. low gas velocity b. high gas velocity
c. excessive liquid gradient over the tray d. low reflux ratio
68. A calming section below the liquid flows into the downcomer is provided to
a. permit release of entrained vapor in the liquid
b. reduce the discharge fluctuation
c. ensure better vapor liquid contract
d. cool the liquid before it flows down.
69. The length of straight rectangular weir used on cross-flow trays is generally
a. 0.6 - 0.8 times the column diameter
b. equal to the column diameter
c. twice the column diameter
d. 2 ft irrespective of column diameter (for column 73 ft diameter)
70. Pick out the wrong statement
a. If sufficient residence time (around 8 seconds) is not provided to the downcoming liquid in the
downcomer, it may entrain some vapor.
b. The liquid head in the downcomer should not be greater than one half the plate spacing to
avoid flooding.
c. The discharge end of the downcomer must project far enough into the tray liquid so that no
gas bubbles can enter the open end and bypass the bubble caps.
d. none of these
INSTRUMENTATION AND PROCESS CONTROL
1. What is the Laplace transform of sin t ?
(a) __1__ (b) __s_____
s + 1 1 + s
(c) __1 (d) __s_____
s - 1 s - 1
2. The transfer function of the first order system is
(a) __1 (b) _1_
Ts + 1 Ts
(c) ___s__ (d) 1/s
Ts + 1
3. Pick out the first order system from among the following
(a) damped vibrator
(b) mercury in glass thermometer kept in boiling water
(c) interacting system of two tanks in series
(d) non-interacting system of two tanks in series
4. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input called
(a) impulse response (b) unit step response
(c) frequency response (d) step response
5. What is the ratio of output amplitude to input amplitude for a sinusoidal forcing
function in a first order system ?
(a) 1 (b) > 1
(c) < 1 (d) none of these
6. Phase lag of the sinusoidal response of a first order system is
(a) 120 (b) 30
(c) 180 (d) 90
7. Conversion formula for converting amplitude ratio (AR) into decibels is
90
(a) Decibel=20 log10 (AR) (b) Decibel=20 log e(AR)
(c) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)0.5 (d) Decibel = log10 (AR)
8. A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response exhibits an
amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency. This is
(a) Bode stability criterion (b) Nyquist criterion
(c) Routh stability criterion (d) both b and c
9. Typical specifications for design stipulates the gain margin and phase margin to be
respectively
(a) > 1.7 and > 30 (b) < 1.7 and > 30
(c) < 1.7 and < 30 (d) >1.7 and < 30
10. The frequency at which maximum amplitude ratio is attained is called
(a) corner frequency (b) resonant frequency
(c) cross-over frequency (d) natural frequency
11. A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means
(a) a stable system (b) unstable system
(c) critically damped system (d) both a and c
12. Bode diagram is a plot of
(a) log (AR) vs. log (f) and vs. log (f)
(b) log (AR) vs. f and log vs. f
(c) AR vs.log (f) and vs. log (f)
(d) log (AR) vs. log f
13. For measuring the temperature of a furnace, which is the most suitable instrument?
(a) Platinum resistance thermometer (b) Thermocouple
(c) Optical pyrometer (d) Bimetallic thermometer
14. Degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in measured variable without
dynamic error is called
(a) speed of response (b) reproducibility of instrument
(c) fidelity (d) its static characteristics
15. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument?
(a) high drift (b) high fidelity
(c) high temperature lag (d) poor reproducibility
16. Which of the following shows maximum dip affect (indicating reverse direction of
temperature change)?
(a) mercury thermometer (b) radiation pyrometer
(c) bimetallic thermometer (d) thermocouple
17. Pick out the most suitable instrument for measuring temperature in the range of -40
to 800F.
(a) mercury thermometer (b) bimetallic thermometer
(c) radiation pyrometer (d) radiation pyrometer
18. Thermocouple is suitable for measuring
(a) liquid temperatures only (b) very high temperatures only
(c) very low temperatures only (d) both high and low temperatures
19. Which of the following relates the absorption and evolution of heat at the junctions
of a thermocouple to the current flow in the circuit?
(a) Seebeck effect (b) Peltier effect
(c) Joule heating effect (d) Thomson effect
20. Thermal wells are used in temperature measurement to
(a) guard against corrosive and oxidizing action on thermocouple materials
(b) reduce measuring lag
(c) increase the fidelity
(d) increase the sensitivity
21. Gas analysis is commonly done using
(a) thermal conductivity cell (b) X-ray diffraction
91
(c) mass spectrometer (d) emission spectrometer
22. Psychrometer determines
(a) humidity of gases (b) moisture content of solids
(c) water of crystallization (d) hygroscopic nature of solids
23. Continuous measurement of moisture content of paper in paper industry is done
by measuring
(a) thermal conductivity through the paper
(b) electrical resistance through the paper
(c) magnetic susceptibility
(d) both b and c
24. Optimal activity of a solution can be determined using a
(a) polarimeter (b) polarograph
(c) dilatometer (d) refractometer
25. A simple pitot tube measures
(a) average velocity (b) maximum velocity
(c) point velocity (d) static pressure
26. Pirani gauge is used for
(a) measurement of very high pressure (b) measurement of high vacuum
(c) liquid level under pressure (d) liquid level at atmospheric pressure
27. A barometer measures
(a) absolute pressure (b) gauge pressure
(c) both absolute and gauge pressure (d) dynamic pressure
28. The level of a liquid under pressure can be determined using
(a) bubbler system (b) differential pressure manometer
(c) diaphragm box system (d) air-trap system
29. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a liquid is done by
(a) hydrometer (b) contact -type electric indicators
(c) displacement meter (d) both a and c
30. Hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement of
(a) flow rates of fluid (b) flow rates of granular solids
(c) very high temperature (d) thermal conductivity of gases
31. Flow rate through an orifice is
(a) proportional to the pressure differential
(b) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential
(c) proportional to the square root of pressure differential
(d) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential
32. Which of the following flow-metering instruments is an area meter?
(a) venturi meter (b) rotameter
(c) pitot tube (d) hot wire anemometer
33. Continuous measurement of flow rates of dry granular fertilizer is done using
(a) velocity meters (b) area-meters
(c) weighing meters (d) anemometer
34. Pick out the symbol for locally mounted instrument in instrumentation diagram
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
35. Which is the symbol for pneumatic control valve
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) none of these
36. The symbol for capillary line in instrumentation diagram is
(a) ___ ___ _ ___ _ ___
(b)
92
(c) _________________ (d)
37. Instrumentation in a plant offers the advantage of
(a) greater safety of operation (b) better quality of product
(c) greater operation economy (d) all a, b and c
38. Dilatometer is used to measure
(a) stress (b) strain
(c) deflection (d) contraction/expansion due to changes
in temperature
39. Stalagmometer is used for the measurement of
(a) kinematic viscosity (b) surface tension
(c) refractive index (d) optical activity
40. Stroboscope is used for the measurement of
(a) rpm of a flywheel (b) frequency of light
(c) depression of freezing point (d) liquid level under pressure
41. Minute depression of freezing point of a liquid solvent or addition of a solid solute
can be best measured by
(a) Beckman thermometer (b) dilatometer
(c) mercury thermometer (d) bimetallic thermometer
42. Gain margin is equal to the
(a) amplitude ratio (b) reciprocal of amplitude ratio
(c) gain in P controller (d) gain in P-I controller
43. Phase margin is equal to
(a) 180 - phase lag (b) phase lag - 180
(c) phase lag + 180 (d) phase lag - 90
44. A system with a transfer function __2s _ is of
4s + 1
(a) zero order (b) 1st order
(c) 2nd order (d) 3rd order
45. Bode stability method uses
(a) open loop transfer function (b) closed loop transfer function
(c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b
46. Routh stability method uses
(a) open loop transfer function (b) closed loop transfer function
(c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b
47. Nichels chart deals with
(a) A.R. vs. phase lag of first order
(b) A.R. vs. phase lag of second order
(c) closed loop values vs. open loop value
(d) frequency response values of controllers
48. The fluid used in hydraulic controller is
(a) water (b) steam
(c) air (d) oil
49. Number of poles in a system with transfer function ________1______ is
s + 2s + 1
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 3 (d) 1
50. Which of the following controllers has maximum offset?
(a) P-controller (b) P-I controller
(c) P-D controller (d) P-I-D controller
51. Process degrees of freedom
(a) indicates the maximum number of controller to be used
(b) indicates the minimum number of controller to be used
93
(c) determines both maximum and minimum number of controllers to be used
(d) gives no idea of controllers
52. Resistance of a gas in a vessel is
(a) __V__ (b) nRT
nRT V
(c) nRT (d) __P_
P nRT
Where: P =pressure V= volume of the vessel
n= number of moles of the gas R= gas constant
52. In an exothermic chemical reactor, the manipulated variable is the flow rate of
(a) coolant (b) reactant
(c) product (d) hot fluid
53. Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates
(a) elimination of offset (b) reduction of offset
(c) reduction of stability time (d) both b and c
54. Which of the following error integral is considered as the best criterion in controller settings?
(a)
| e | dt (b)
| e | dt
0 0
(c)
e
2
dt
(d) both a and b
0
55. Cascade control means
(a) feed forward control (b) more than one feed-back loop
(c) on-off control (d) one feed-back loop
56. Which of the following controllers has the least maximum deviation?
(a) P-controller (b) P-I controller
(c) P-I-D controller (d) P-D controller
57. Measurement of pressure in ammonia reactor is done by
(a) Bourdon gauge (b) U-tube manometer
(c) Inclined tube manometer (d) Pirani gauge
58. Pressure of 0.01 psi (absolute) can be measured by
(a) Ionization gauge (b) Pirani gauge
(c) Mcleoid gauge (d) Bourdon gauge
61. Continuous measurement of moisture in paper is done by
(a) sling psychrometer
(b) hair-hygrometer
(c) weighing
(d) high resistance, Wheatstones bridge circuit
62. Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be measured by
(a) Meloid gauge (b) Pirani gauge
(c) Thermocouple gauge (d) Bourdon gauge
61. E.m.f. generated by thermocouples is of the order of
(a) millivolts (b) microvolts
(c) volts (d) bi-metallic thermometer
62. Measurement of sub-zero Celsius temperature in industry is done by
(a) thermocouples (b) resistance thermometers
(c) gas thermometer (d) bi-metallic thermometer
63. Starting temperature of optical radiation pyrometer is
(a) 800C (b) 400C
(c) 1200C (d) 1500C
64. Which thermocouple can be used to measure temperature around 1400C?
(a) copper-constantan (b) aluminum-chromel
(c) platinum-platinum+rhodium (d) copper-aluminum
65. pH meter has
94
(a) one cell (b) two cells
(c) three cells (d) no cell
66. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer is
(a) 20 psi (b) 30 psi
(c) 40 psi (d) 50 psi
67. Interfacial level in pressure vessel is measured by
(a) float (b) manometers of float type
(c) U-tube manometer (d) Bourdon gauge
68. Flow rate of sludge is measured by
(a) V-notch (b) rectangular notch
(c) circular pipe (d) Kennison nozzle
69. Composition of natural gas can be determined by
(a) chromatograph (b) orsat apparatus
(c) spectrometer (d) photometer
70. Bellows are made of
(a) leather (b) paper
(c) plastic (d) thin copper
71. Flapper nozzle is a
(a) pneumatic controller (b) hydraulic controller
(c) electronic controller (d) both a and b
72. Weir valve is used for
(a) slurries (b) acids
(c) neutral solutions (d) bases
73. Valve used to supply oil to burner is
(a) gate valve (b) butterfly valve
(c) rotary plug valve (d) both a and b
74. Mode used for transmitting signal for one kilometer distance is
(a) hydraulic (b) pneumatic
(c) electronic (d) all a, b and c
75. Use of pilot in transmission (pneumatic) is to
(a) speed up signal (b) change the flow of air
(c) adjust the signal (d) all a, b and c
76. Final control element is a
(a) valve (b) switch
(c) signal (d) both a and b
77. Example of a second order instrument is a
(a) mercury-glass thermometer with covering
(b) bare mercury-glass thermometer
(c) pressure gauge
(d) Bourdon gauge
78. Offset
(a) varies with time (b) varies exponentially with time
(c) does not vary with time (d) varies as square of the time
79. Regulator problem means that
(a) set point is constant (b) load is constant
(c) both set point and load are constant (d) neither set point nor load is constant
80. Servo problem means that
(a) set point is constant (b) load is constant
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
81. Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is
(a) 1 (b) < 1
(c) > 1 (d) 0
82. In Bode stability criterion, amplitude ratio at 180 should be
95
(a) 1 (b) < 1
(c) > 1 (d) 0
83. Phase plane method is used for
(a) linear-behavior (b) non-linear behavior
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
84. Laplace transform method is used for
(a) linear behavior (b) non-linear behavior
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
85. Phase lag of first order system is
(a) tan
-1
(T) (b) tan
-1
(T)
(c) t/2 (d) 0
86. P-I controller as compared to P-controller has a
(a) higher maximum deviation (b) longer response time
(c) longer period of oscillation (d) all a, b and c
87. Difference at any instant between the value of controlled variable and the set point is
called
(a) deviation (b) derivative time
(c) error ratio (d) differential gap
88. The time difference by which the output of a P-D controller leads the input when the input changes
linearly with time is called
(a) error ratio (b) derivative time
(c) proportional sensitivity (d) gain
89. Steady state deviation resulting from a change in the value of the load variable is called
(a) offset (b) error ratio
(c) deviation (d) static ratio
90. Time required for the output of a first order system to change from a given value to within 36.8% of
the final value when a step change of input is made is called
(a) time constant (b) settling time
(c) rise time (d) derivative time
91. A controller action in which there is a continuous linear relation between value of the controlled
variable and rate of change of controlled output signal is called
(a) proportional action (b) integral action
(c) derivative action (d) proportional-integral action
92. A controller action in which there is a continuous relation between value of the controlled variable and
the value of the output signal of the controller is called
(a) proportional action (b) derivative action
(c) integral action (d) proportional-derivative action
93. Steady state ratio of the change of proportional controller output variable and
the change in actuating signal is called
(a) proportional sensitivity (b) reset rate
(c) rangeability (d) integral action
94. In case of flow measurement by an orifice, the pressure difference signal is
proportional to
(a) Q (b) Q
(c) Q
3
(d) 1 /Q
where Q= volumetric flow rate
95. Thermistor is a
(a) semiconductor whose resistance decreases with temperature rise
(b) metal whose resistance increases linearly with temperature rise
(c) metal whose resistance does not vary with temperature
(d) device for measuring nuclear radiation
96. Which of the following factors does not influence measurement accuracy?
(a) static and dynamic error (b) reproducibility
96
(c) dead zone (d) none of these
97. Which of the following is suitable for measuring the temperature of a red hot moving object
(e.g. steel ingots on roller table) ?
(a) thermocouple (b) radiation pyrometer
(c) thermistor (d) radiograph
98. Thermocouples
(a) have very slow speed of response
(b) cant be connected to the measuring instrument remotely located
(c) need cold junction compensation
(d) are much less accurate compared to bimetallic or vapor pressure thermometer
99. Selection of material for thermocouple depends on the
(a) depth of immersion in the hot fluid
(b) minimum and maximum temperature
(c) pressure and velocity condition of the fluid whose temperature is to be measured
(d) both a and b
100. Radiation pyrometers
(a) have very low speed of response
(b) need not see the temperature source; it is measuring
(c) cant measure temperature of objects without making physical contact (d) none of
these
101. V-notch is used to measure flow rate of a liquid in
(a) an open channel (b) a non-circular cross-section closed channel
(c) vertical pipeline (d) horizontal pipeline
102. Which of the following is not a head flowmeter?
(a) segmental orifice plate (b) pitot tube
(c) rotameter (d) flow nozzle
103. Flow rate of a liquid containing heavy solids (e.g. sand) can be best measured by
(a) pitot tube (b) concentric orifice
(c) eccentric orifice (d) rotameter
104. Orifice plates for flow measurement
(a) incurs very low permanent pressure loss (b) has poor accuracy
on high orifice ratios (above 0.75)
(c) cant be easily interchanged
(d) is best for very large liquid flows and big pipelines
105. Pitot tube is used
(a) for highly accurate flow measurement
(b) when the fluid contains lot of suspended material
(c) when the line is large and the velocity is high
(d) both a and c
106. In an area meter (e.g. rotameter), the flow rate is
(a) proportional to the square root of the differential pressure
(b) inferred from the change in area of an orifice in the flow line across which the pressure
differential is constant zero
(c) inferred from change in flow cross-section across which the pressure differential is zero
(d) all a, b and c
107. A rotameter
(a) incurs constant and small permanent pressure drop (b) incurs constant but very large
permanent pressure drop
(c) is inaccurate for low flow rates
(d) need not be mounted always vertically
108. On-off control
(a) fully opens the final control element when the measured variable is below the set point
(b) fully closes the final control element when the measured variable is above the set point
97
(c) is a two position (fully open or fully closed) control adequate to control a process with
slow reaction rate and minimum dead time or transfer lag
(d) all a, b, and c
109. Floating control action
(a) moves the final control element at constant speed in either direction in response to an
error signal
(b) changes the position of the final control element from on to off
(c) is used to counteract rapid load changes
(d) both b and c
110. Cascade control is
(a) the continuous adjustment of the set point index of an automatic control loop by a primary
(master) controller
(b) used when changes in process conditions cause serious upsets in controlled variable
(c) useful to control flow from temperature
(d) all a, b and c
MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist ferric hydroxide)
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. carbon free iron
d. none of these
2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called
a. pig iron b. wrought iron
c. high carbon steel d. none of these
3. The softest material in Mhos scale (for measuring hardness) is
a. talc b. gypsum
c. rubber d. none of these
4. Karbate is
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. acid resistant material
d. both (b) and (c).
5. Duralumin is an alloy of
a. aluminum, copper and manganese
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon
c. aluminum and nickel
d. none of these
6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of
a. phosphorus and tungsten
b. nickel and chromium
c. lead and vanadium
d. molybdenum and tungsten
7. White metal is an alloy of
a. lead, tin and cadmium b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper and lead d. none of these
8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its
a. cutting ability b. corrosion resistance
c. tensile strength d. none of these
9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out from blast furnace contains about
98
a. 0.2% carbon b. 2% carbon
c. 4% carbon d. 8% carbon
10. Carbon content in steel is
a. 0.1 2% b. 4 6%
c. 5- 10% d. 0
11. An ideal material of construction for the storage of 50% caustic soda solution would be
a. Karbate b. high silica cast iron
c. monel d. none of these
12. For storing water and acid free benzol, use
a. steel vessel b. karbate vessel
c. stainless steel vessel d. none of these
13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in a vessel made of
a. monel b. karbate
c. cast iron d. none of these
14. Most suitable material of construction for the storage of concentrated nitric acid is
a. cast iron
b. monel
c. karbate
d. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr > 18% for cold acid).
15. Babbit metal (used for making bearings) comprises
a. mainly tin (85%) and lead
b. saw dust and iron dust mixture
c. zinc and aluminum
d. copper and aluminum
16. The material of construction of pressure mills used for squeezing out the juice from sugar cane is
a. stainless steel b. cast iron
c. mild steel d. monel.
17. Chlorination of benzene is done to produce benzene hexachloride (a pesticide) in a
photochemical reactor lined with
a. karbate b. lead or glass
c. fire clay bricks d. PVC
18. Polymerization reactor used for the production of styrenebutadiene rubber (SBR) is made of
a. vessel b. stainless steel or glass lined vessel
c. karbate d. wrought iron
19. Which of the following is the most suitable material of construction for evaporator and its tubes for
concentrating NaOH solution to 70%?
a. cast iron b. steel
c. nickel d. karbate
20. Most common stainless steel type 316, which it highly resistant to corrosion contains
a. 16 13% chromium, 10 14% nickel and 2 3% molybdenum
b. 20 22% chromium, and 8 10% nickel
c. 2 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 4% molybdenum
d. none of these
21. Caustic soda can be stored in
a. steel drums b. cast iron drums
c. brass drums d. gun metal drums
22. Brass is an alloy of
a. nickel and tin b. copper and zinc
c. tin and lead d. copper, nickel and zinc
23. The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process of soda ash manufacture is made of
a. cast iron b. stainless steel
c. karbate d. lead lined steel
24. Gun metal is an alloy of
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a. nickel, tin and copper
b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper, phosphorus and nickel
d. manganese, phosphorus and nickel
25. Marcy ball mills are usually made of
a. steel b. cast iron
c. stainless steel d. bronze
26. Bronze is an alloy of
a. lead and copper b. copper and tin
c. nickel and copper d. copper and zinc
27. Rotary kilns in cement industry are lined with
a. fire clay b. silica
c. lead d. high alumina and high magnesia bricks
28. In the Kraft (sulfate) process for the paper manufacture the digester is made of
a. cast iron b. stainless steel
c. karbate carbon d. wrought iron
29. Dry chlorine can be handled in a vessel made of
a. iron or steel b. PVC
c. nickel d. brass
30. Tank furnace used for melting of glass is made of
a. mild steel b. cast iron
c. refractory blocks d. stainless steel
31. Stainless steel contains
a. chromium and nickel b. copper
c. aluminum d. vanadium
32. Caustic soda is reduced in a mercury cell having anode and cathode made respectively of
a. moving mercury and graphite
b. graphite and moving mercury
c. moving mercury and carbon
d. moving mercury and crimped steel wire
33. Monel metal is an alloy of
a. molybdenum and nickel
b. nickel and copper
c. molybdenum and aluminum
d. molybdenum and zinc
34. German silver is an alloy of
a. copper, nickel and zinc
b. copper, aluminum and silver
c. silver, zinc and aluminum
d. silver, nickel and zinc
35. Chromel (Nichrome) is an alloy of
a. chromium and molybdenum
b. nickel and chromium
c. molybdenum and nickel
d. chromium and aluminum
36. Urea autoclave is made of
a. cast iron b. refractory blocks
c. stainless steel d. lead lined steel
37. Steel tower used for storage of oleum
a. is lined with lead b. need not be lined
c. is lined with rubber d. is lined with acid-proof bricks
38. Hydrochloric acid is stored in
a. lead lined steel vessel b. rubber-lined steel vessel
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c. stainless steel vessel d. cast iron vessel
39. Photographic plates are coated in
a. silver nitrate b. silver halide
c. calcium silicate d. metallic silver
40. Aqueous nitric acid is stored in
a. steel drum
b. stainless steel vessel
c. cast iron vessel lined with acid-proof masonry brick
d. cast iron vessel
41. SO3 is absorbed using H2SO4 in
a. cast iron packed tower
b. stainless steel plate tower
c. packed steel tower lined with acid proof bricks
d. none of these
42. Hydrochloric acid absorber is made of
a. cast iron b. mild steel
c. karbate d. stainless steel
43. Sulfuric acid is mixed with ground phosphate rock (to produce phosphoric acid) in a steel digester
lined with
a. acidic refractory b. rubber
c. karbate d. lead or acid-proof bricks
44. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives:
Hydrochloric acid is _______ corrosive to common metals
a. least b. not
c. mildly d. highly
45. In SO3 absorber (Contact Process), packing material used is of
a. cast iron b. chemical stoneware
c. karbate d. mild steel
46. Valves in pipe sizes of 2 and under are normally made of
a. wrought iron b. brass
c. bronze d. monel
47. Acid proof stoneware
a. has very low strength
b. cannot be heated
c. is broken by small temperature changes
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
48. Duriron is
a. acid resistant, brittle and very hard
b. high silicon iron
c. prone to breakage due to thermal expansion because of very high co-efficient of thermal
expansion.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
49. Lead pipe is
a. especially resistant to solutions containing H2SO4
b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by melting to adjacent pieces with a torch)
c. having very low elastic limit resulting in permanent deformation from either mechanical
or thermal strain
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. The most resistant material to alkaline corrosion is
a. duriron b. nickel
c. aluminum d. karbate
51. Presence of nickel in steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance b. cutting ability
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c. wear resistance d. all (a), (b) and (c)
52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is called
a. high carbon steel b. wrought iron
c. mild steel d. none of these
53. Bell metal is an alloy of
a. copper and zinc b. copper and tin
c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
54. Inconel is an alloy of
a. tin, zinc and nickel b. iron, nickel and chromium
c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
55. Hastelloy comprises
a. copper and tin b. copper and nickel
c. molybdenum and nickel d. lead and tin
56. Ability of a material to absorb energy in deformation in the plastic range is characterized as its
a. ductility b. toughness
c. creep d. resilience
57. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under constant stress is called
a. creep b. erosion
c. resilience d. none of these
58. Wrought iron is
a. high carbon iron
b. highly resistance to acid corrosion
c .malleable and ductile; hence used for chain links, hooks and couplings
d. an alloy of iron, chromium and carbon
59. Which of the following constituents of cast iron is mainly responsible for imparting it an anti-
corrosive property?
a. silicon b. phosphorus
c. sulfur d. none of these
60. Mild steel is
a. a low carbon steel (0.05 0.3% carbon)
b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much as stainless steel)
c. a high carbon steel (0.5 1.5% carbon)
d. very poor in strength and ductility
61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance
b. cutting ability
c. abrasion resistance and toughness
d. elasticity and creep resistance
62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive to
a. aluminum, mild steel, stainless steel, concrete and tin
b. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron (14% Si)
c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber and teflon
d. glass, graphite, porcelain and stoneware
63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to store
a. aqua regia b. ferrous sulfate
c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. none of these
64. Brass container is suitable for storing
a. aqueous ammonia b. beer
c. H2SO4 (95% concentration) d. phosphoric acid (95%)
65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the storage of
a. Freon b. H2SO4 (95%) at room temperature
c. H2SO4 (fuming) d. Wet SO2
66. Out of the following, copper vessels are most suitable for the storage of
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a. bromine
b. dry chlorine and dry fluorine
c. nitric acid (95% and fuming)
d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95% and fuming)
67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by the action of
a. wet chlorine b. synthetic detergent solution
c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. nitric acid (<25%)
68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable for the storage of
a. acetic acid
b. benzoic and boric acids
c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)
d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable for handling
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid
c. sulfuric acid up to 60C d. all (a), (b) and (c)
70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the storage of
a. anhydrous ammonia b. fatty acids
c. hydrochloric acid (95%) d. sulfuric acid (25%)
71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for handling
a. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous)
b. fruit juices, milk and its products and caustic soda solution
c. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
d. sulfuric acid (concentrated)
72. Platinum and silver are corroded by
a. caustic soda solution b. phosphoric acid
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. none of these
73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it contains
a. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
b. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenum
c. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
d. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium
74. Stainless steel is not corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid (10%)
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. saturated brine
75. Tin vessels are corroded by
a. anhydrous ammonia b. aromatic solvents
c. synthetic detergent solution d. none of these
76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action of
a. aqua regia b. chloroform
c. sulfuric acid (95%) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive action of
a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sulfuric acid (95%)
c. ether d. both (b) and (c)
78. Perspex is nothing but
a. acrylic sheet b. an elastomer
c. an alloy of lead and tin d. aluminum foil clad with bakelite
79. Teflon is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. hydrochloric acid (95%)
c. sulfuric acid d. none of these
80. Polythene (low or high density) containers are not corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%) at room temperature
b. nitric acid (95%) at room temperature
c. sulfur trioxide at 60C
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d. any of these
81. The most commonly used resin for making reinforced plastic is
a. unsaturated polyester b. polyproplylene
c. polyurethane d. nylon 6
82. Carbon tetrachloride can be stored in a storage vessel made of
a. high silicon iron (14%) b. tin
c. stainless steel d. all (a), (b) and (c)
83. Concrete tank can be used to store
a. alum b. sulfuric acid
c. sulfuric acid d. saturated brine
84. Glass is corroded by
a. fluorine (dry or wet) b. sulfuric water
c. phosphoric acid d. none these
85. Graphite is corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sea Water
b. hydrochloric acid d. none of these
86. Wood is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid b. SO2 (dry or wet)
c. chlorine (dry or wet) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
87. The 'bomb' in the bomb calorimeter is made of
a. molybdenum stainless steel b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. copper
88. Most suitable material for high pressure vessel operating at 500 atm and 500C is
a. molybdenum stainless steel b. 18-8 stainless steel
c. mild steel d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
89. Centrifugal pump made of pyrex or glass can't be used to pump
a. mild and fruit juices b. alkaline solutions
c. dilute H2SO4 at room temperature d. brine
90. Rubber lined pumps can be used to pump
a. caustic soda b. chlorinated brine
c. hypochlorous acid d. all (a), (b) and (c)
91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H2SO4 in percolation tanks made of
a. wood b. stainless steel
c. reinforced concrete lined with lead d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
92. Rotary dryers are generally made of
a. cast iron b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. tin lined with refractory bricks
93. Kel-F is
a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene
b. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance (up to 200C)
c. an elastomer
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal) is an alloy of zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium b. and graphite
c. and copper d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of construction for handling aqueous
hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100C?
a. none b. stainless steel
c. graphite d. Kel-F and Teflon
96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling concentrated HNO3 at 100C.
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon b. silicon rubber
c. tin and wood d. stainless steel
97. Concentrated HCl at 30C can be stored in a vessel made of
104
a. PTFE and porcelain
b. cast iron and aluminum
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron
d. copper, nickel and monel
98. Which of the following material of construction may be recommended by a chemical engineer
for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet) stream in a fluid flow system?
a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber, Kel-F and teflon
b. Mild steel and stainless steel
c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum
d. Copper, nickel and monel
99. Which of the following materials may prove unsuitable for handling acetic (glacial and
anhydrous) at 40C?
a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and wood
b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and graphite
c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron
d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin
100. 100% H2SO4 at 30C can't be used and stored in a vessel made/ lined with
a. cast iron and high silicon iron
c. aluminum, tin and rubber
b. mild steel and stainless
steel d. teflon, glass and porcelain
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating cost of an enterprise is:
a. interest b. depreciation
c. taxes d. supplies
2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit to equal the investment is
called:
a. receivable turnover b. return of investment
c. price earning ratio d. payback period
3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from newest products / model
a. depreciated cost b. fixed cost
c. indirect cost d. obsolescence
4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth
a. production b. break even point
c. balance method d. balance sheet
5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation.
a. earning value b. scrap value
c. book value d. face value
6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so that subsequent interest is
based on the cumulative amount.
a. compound interest b. simple interest
c. interest rate d. sinking fund
7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost
a. break even point b. investment
c. depreciation d. cash flow
8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the
supply and the demand being equal.
a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returns
c. present worth method d. obsolescence
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated life.
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a. break even point b. cash flow
c. interest d. book value
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated life.
a. book value c. salvage value
c. depreciation d. cash flow
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity available as a coal, oil and
timber in forests.
a. depletion b. depreciation
c. amortization d. investment
12. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period of net loss that ten years and
guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries.
a. appraisal b. bond
c. written contract d. equity capital
13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that profit will be earned.
a. equity capital b. investment
c. working capital d. present
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt be repaid at a
specific place and time
a. discount b. cash flow
c. working capital d. borrowed capital
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time
a. supply b. demand
c. discount d. investment
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given place and time.
a. supply b. demand
c. discount d. investment
17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that action of one will lead to almost
the same action by the other.
a. monopoly b. oligopoly
c. semi monopoly d. perfect competition
18. Is the simplest form of business organization
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable business
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a real person could
do.
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
21. An increase in the value of capital asset is called
a. profit b. capital gain
c. capital expenditure d. capital stock
22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. capital expenditure b. capital loss
c. loss d. deficit
23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold
a. net income b. gross profit
c. rate of return d. gross national product
26. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is consistently high in relation to
its supply
a. money market b. hard currency
106
c. treasury bill d. certificate of deposit
25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years
and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation
a. bonds b. T-bills
c. stock d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. time deposit b. bond
c. capital gain d. certificate of deposit
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to
ordinary shareholders
a. dividend b. return
c. share stock d. par value
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security
a. bond b. bank note
c. coupon d. check
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite reasons
a. valuation b. appraisal
c. estimate d. both a and b
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock b. preferred stock
c. common stock d. incorporators stock
31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at some time in the future
a. discount b. amortization
c. depletion d. investment
32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party in order to establish a price that
is fair to both seller and buyer.
a. fair value b. market value
c. salvage value d. book value
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand
a. book value b. salvage value
c. fair value d. market value
34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific reasons
a. amortization b. appraisal
c. investment d. depreciation
35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing corporation
a. debenture bond b. lien bond
c. collateral bond d. mortgage bond
36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic payment continue
indefinitely.
a. ordinary annuity b. deferred annuity
c. annuity due d. perpetuity
37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is designed to produce at a
profit
a. write off period b. physical life
c. economic life d. perpetual life
38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each year
a. Matheson formula b. Straight line method
c. SYD method d. Sinking fund method
39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and which can engage in practically
any business transaction which a real person can do.
a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
c. corporation d. all of the above
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40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any change in operation or policy which
is made.
a. fixed cost b. increment cost
c. variable cost d. differential cost
41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase a unit have already been
recovered.
a. economic life b. write off period
c. physical life d. salvage life
42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:
a. compound interest b. nominal interest
c. simple interest d. effective interest
43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product / services in a given region of the
country.
a. franchise b. branch
c. extension d. outlet
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to
prevent additional vendors entering the market
a. free market b. perfect competition
c. open market d. law of supply and demand
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included as a cost.
a. rate of return b. annual cost pattern
c. present worth pattern d. capital cost
46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a decreasing rate.
a. SYD method b. sinking fund
c. straight line method d. declining balance
47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials
a. construction cost b. expenses
c. labor cost d. investment
48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. analytic b. gratuitous
c. private d. pure
49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is called
a. profit margin b. gross margin
c. ROI (rate of return) d. price earnings
50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time
a. interest b. depreciation
c. annuity d. amortization
51. A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services
a. contract b. barter
c. memorandum d. pro-forma
52. An index of short term paying ability is called
a. current ratio b. receivable turnover
c. acid test ratio d. profit margin ratio
53. Used to produce consumer goods
a. producer goods b. supply
c. consumer goods d. cash flow
54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made
several periods after the beginning of the payment
a. deferred annuity b. delayed annuity
c. progressive annuity d. simple annuity
55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods substitute
a. monopoly b. monopsony
c. oligopoly d. oligopsony
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56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property
when neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell
a. fair value b. goodwill value
c. book value d. market value
57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from the first
period
a. ordinary annuity b. annuity due
c. deferred annuity d. perpetuity
58. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of
the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation applies
a. straight line b. sinking fund method
c. SYD method d. declining balance method
59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event based on the earning power of
equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn
a. present worth factor b. interest rate
c. time value of money d. yield
60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
c. corporation d. enterprise
61. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a sinking fund
resulting from specific periodic deposits
a. sinking fund factor b. present worth factor
c. capacity factor d. demand factor
62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to provide a specific product
or service in a stated region of the country
a. market value b. book value
c. goodwill value d. franchise value
63. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for which it was designed
and manufactured.
a. economic life b. business life
c. insular life d. physical life
64. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants.
a. supply b. consumer goods
c. producer goods d. cash flows
65. A change in cost for a small change in volume of production.
a. fixed cost b. sunk cost
c. first cost d. differential cost
66. An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be recovered.
a. sunk cost b. first cost
c. increment d. fixed cost
67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value is
a. salvage value b. resale value
c. sunk cost d. fixed cost
68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier and entry of all
other possible suppliers presented.
a. competition b. monopoly
c. inventory d. profitability
69. A place where buyer and seller come together
a. market b. shop
c. department store d. parlor
70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion b. rate of return
c. load factor d. use factor
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71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a commodity
a. resale value b. market value
c. book value d. scrap value
72. The price of property when sold for a junk
a. scrap value b. book value
c. resale value d. market value
73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal intervals of time
a. annuity b. sinking fund
c. interest d. investment
74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could include cash equipment,
raw materials and finished products
a. capital b. investment
c. collateral d. assets
75. The first cost of any property includes
a. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
b. installation expenses
c. initial taxes and permits' fee
d. all of the above
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of continuous ultraviolet radiation
for spectrophotometers because of
a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
d. the narrow band pass of modern grating of monochromators
2. Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a tuned ac amplifier in an atomic absorption
spectrophotometer accomplishes the following
a. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a voltmeter for the readout
b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual photomultiplier tube
c. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of ground-state atoms
d. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not interfere with the absorbance
measurement
3. Line spectra are emitted by
a. hot solids
b. excited polyatomic molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
4. Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with feedback loops that vary the power of the
reference beam until it matches the power of the beam through the sample. This mode of operation
a. eliminates the need for a continuous source
b. requires two monochromators
c. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents
d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that nonlinear response to radiant power
would not be deleterious
5. Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is sometimes more sensitive than flame
emission spectroscopy?
a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of ground-state atoms is much greater
than the population of excited atoms.
b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more sensitive than those used to measure
emission.
110
c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater radiant power output than do ordinary flames
.
d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than an emission line because of the Doppler
effect.
6. The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects provided
a. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably and does not itself introduce
appreciable quantities or interfering substances
b. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the concentrations of interfering substances are
lowered to negligible values
c. the addition contains none of the substance being determined
d. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some substance to swamp out sample variations
7. Fe
3+
and Cu
2+
form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is colorless , as is Fe
3+
itself, at the
concentration involved here: the copper complex is a deep blue color (deeper than the color of Cu
2+
itself), while EDTA is colorless. The photometric titration curve below was obtained when a solution
containing both Fe
3+
and Cu
2+
was titrated with EDTA using a spectrophotometer set at a wavelength
of 745 nm in the visible region of the spectrum.
A
B
A
ml of EDTA solution
a. A is the iron end point.
b. B is the iron end point
c. The distance from A to B on the milliliter axis represents the quantity of iron
d. The quantity of iron could not be calculated from a graph like this unless the quantity of copper
in the solution was known ahead of time
8. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution of the coefficient, K, is zero may be used to
estimate
a. the volume within the column occupied by the packing materials
b. the total volume of the column
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the volume within the column available to the mobile phase
9. The purpose of the solid support material in a GLC column is to
a. immobilize the stationary liquid phase
b. adsorb sample components that are insufficiently soluble in the stationary liquid phase
c. provide a "backup" stationary phase in the event that the liquid is lost by evaporation
d. remove impurities from the carrier gas
10. Helium, rather than nitrogen, is sometimes used as the carrier gas in GLC because
a. being lighter than nitrogen, helium elutes the sample components more rapidly
b. helium is less expensive than nitrogen
c. nitrogen has stable isotopes which separate and cause anomalous column behavior
d. of its much higher thermal conductivity
11. An important feature of open-tubular GLC column is
a. they can accept much larger samples than can packed column because of their great length
b. solute partitioning between stationary and mobile phases is very rapid and the C term in the
Van Deemter equation is relatively small
c. they permit the use of a wider variety of carrier gases
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d. they can be operated at temperatures closer to the boiling point of the stationary liquid phase than
can packed columns and thus handle less volatile examples
12. Raising the column temperature in GLC decreases solute retention times primarily because
a. solute diffusion coefficients in the liquid phase decrease with increasing temperature
b. van der Waals interactions between solutes and stationary phase are stronger at higher
temperatures
c. gases are generally less soluble in liquids at higher temperatures
d. detector sensitivity is a function of temperature, especially with a thermal conductivity cell
13. Which of the following would have practically no effect upon the retention volume of a solute in GLC?
a. changing the carrier-gas flow-rate
b. increasing the stationary liquid loading of the column packing from 5 to 10% by weight
c. increasing the column temperature
d. changing the chemical nature of the stationary liquid
14. The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upon
a. the length of the column
b. the square root of the length of the column
c. the nature of the stationary liquid phase
d. the number of theoretical plates in the column
15. In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often cause
a. unusually narrow elution bands
b. asymmetric elution band
c. excessive eddy diffusion
d. decreased detector sensitivity
16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column packing will, with everything
else the same,
a. increase tR for a solute
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation
17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way into the pores of a typical anion-
exchange resin can be eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one exchange basis
d. by flushing out the water
18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient, K, is zero may be used to
estimate
a. the volume within the column available to the moving phase
b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the total volume of the column
19. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase absorption?
a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed from a solution
b. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors being equal
c. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the solute
d. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear
20. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC is
a. the height of the elution band
b. the area of the elution band
c. the baseline width of the elution band
d. the retention volume
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21. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which adsorbent and what solvent system to
use for a larger-scale chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product from materials
formed in side reactions?
a. Paper chromatography
b. Affinity chromatography
c. TLC
d. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution
22. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best approach employs
a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the hydrogen form
b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the sodium form and a strong-
base anion exchanger in the chloride form
d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the hydrogen form and a
strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
23. Line spectra are emitted by
a. incandescent solids
b. excited molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
24. Band spectra are emitted by
a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. incandescent solids
25. A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development of analytical methods based upon
chemiluminescence. If a conventional spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements, an the
instrument has separate switches for its various circuits, which switch will be left in the "off" position?
a. detector power supply
b. amplifier
c. source power supply
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the emission side of the instrument
26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant combination available as yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
c. acetylene-oxygen
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide
27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy involves change in the average
separation of the nuclei of two or more atoms, then the change is
a. electronic
b. vibrational
c. translational
d. rotational
28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon
a. Beer's law
b. Fajar's law
c. Bouger law's
d. Beer Lambert's Law
29. IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic components as visible and UV spectro-
photometers. In which of the following basic components could the devices be used interchangeable in
both:
a. sources of radiant energy
b. optical system
c. sample holders
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d. detectors
30. Which of the following may not be used in the determination of sugars?
a. TLC chromatography
b. Polarimetry
c. Copper reduction methods
d. Lane and Eynon methods
31. Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?
a. hydrogen arc lamp
b. glass filter
c. barrier layer photocell
d. none of these
32. This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a solution is an experimental
function of the concentration of absorbing substance present and the sample path length
a. Bouger's Law
b. Beer's Law
c. Lambert's Law
d. Bouger-Beer Law
33. Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to
a. instrumental
b. intermolecular reactions
c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
d. all of these
34. IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV spectrophotometers, except:
a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these
35. Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited atoms:
a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
d. Nephelopmetry
36. The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not depend on the :
a. wavelength of the incident light
b. intensity of the incident light
c. concentration of the substance
d. thickness of the sample cell
37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy, which of the following statements
will be true?
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopy
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission spectroscopy
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission spectroscopy
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy
38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible absorption spectrophotometry because
AAS
a. has no light source
b. does not need a monochromator
c. does not follow Beer's Law
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made
39. Gas chromatography does not use this detector
a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector
c. flame ionization detector
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d. electron capture detector
40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on
a. carrier gas velocity
b. column temperature
c. volume of compound analyzed
d. volatility of compound analyzed
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The main component of air is ____________.
a. oxygen b. argon c. carbon dioxide d. nitrogen e. methane
2. Of the following, ____________ is characteristic of gases.
a. Gases are highly compressible
b. These are relatively large distances between molecules
c. Gases form homogenous mixtures regardless of the non-reacting gas components
d. All of these
e. A gas expands spontaneously to fill its container
3. One significant difference between gases and liquids is that ______________________.
a. a gas is made up of molecules
b. a gas assumes the volume of its container
c. a gas may consist of both elements and compounds
d. gases are always mixtures
e. all of these answers are correct
4. Molecular compounds of low molecular weights tend to be gases at room temperature. Which of the
following is most likely not a gas at room temperature?
a. Cl2 b. HCl c. LiCl d. H2 e. CH4
5. Gaseous mixtures ________________.
a. can only contain molecules
b. are all heterogeneous
c. can only contain isolated atoms
d. are all homogenous
e. must contain both isolated atoms and molecules
6. Which one of the following is NOT true about the unit Pascal (pa)?
a. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2
b. The Pa is the SI unit for pressure
c. 1 atm = 101.325 kPa
d. 1 Pa = 100 torr
e. The Pa is the Si unit for force
7. The first person to investigate the relationship between the pressure of a gas ad its volume was
________________.
a. Amadeo Avogadro
b. Lord Kelvin
c. Jacques Charles
d. Robert Boyle
e. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac
8. Of the following, ____________ is a correct statement of Boyles law.
a. PV = constant
b. P = constant
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V
c. V =
constant P
d. V =
constant T
e. n = constant
P
9. Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of Charles law.
a. P =
constant T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
10. Which one of the following is a valid statement of Avogadros law?
a. P =
constant T
b. V =
constant T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
11. The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________.
a. 0C b. -45F c. -273K d. -363K e. -273C
12. Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal gas.
a. V1 = V2
T1 T2
b. V1T1 = V2T2
c. V1 = T1
V2 T2
d. V2 = T2 ( V1)
T1
e. V1 = T1 = 0
V2 T2
13. The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L.
a. 0.08206 b. 62.36 c. 1.00 d. 22.4 e. 14.7
14. A gas is considered ideal if ___________.
a. it is not compressible
b. one mole of it occupies exactly 1 liter at standard temperature and pressure
c. it can be shown to occupy zero volume at 0C
d. its behavior is described by the ideal-gas equation
e. one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure exactly 1 atm at room temperature
15. For which of the following changes is not clear whether the volume of a particular sample of an
ideal gas will increase or decrease?
a. increase the temperature and increase the pressure
b. increase the temperature and decrease the pressure
c. increase the temperature and keep the pressure constant
d. keep temperature constant and decrease the pressure
e. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure
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16. Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context of gases, refers to ____________________.
a. 298 K and 1 atm
b. 273 K and 1 atm
c. 298 K and 1 torr
d. 273 K and 1 pascal
e. 273 K and 1 torr
17. Of the following, ______________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature, amount (mol),
molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass (g).
a. M = dRT
PV
b. M = gRT
PV
c. M = PT
GRV
d. M = gV
RT
e. M = RT
Gv
18. Of the following, _____________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature, amount (mol),
molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass (g).
a. d = PM
RT
b. d = gRT
PM
c. d = PTM
gRV
d. d = gV
RT
e. d = RT
PM
19. Of the following gases, ____________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature.
a. NH3 b. CH4 c. Ar d. HBr e. HCl
20. An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas _________________.
a. have no attraction for one another
b. have appreciable molecular volume
c. have a molecular weight of zero
d. have no kinetic energy
e. has an average molecular mass
21. The statement, For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is inversely
proportional to gas pressure. Is known as:
a. Avogadros law b. Boyles law c. Charles law d. Grahams law e. Kelvins
law
22. If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant:
a. the pressure stays the same
b. the molecules move faster
c. the kinetic energy increases
d. the molecules move slower
e. none of these answers
23. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas collected over water is an
example:
a. Avogadros Hypothesis b. Daltons law c. Grahams law
d. van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law
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24. The energy of molecules of a gas:
a. is dependent on concentration
b. is distributed over a wide range at constant temperature
c. is the same for all molecules at constant temperature
d. increases with a decrease in temperature
e. increases with an increase in pressure
25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas law?
a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas volume
b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly elastic
e. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear size
26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end of the
room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon
is an example of:
a. monometry b. ideality c. effusion d. diffusion e. barometry
27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than one filled with hydrogen is
explained by citing:
a. Avogadros hypothesis b. Daltons law c. Grahams law d. van der Waals Theory
e. ideal gas law
28. Gases tend to behave ideally at
a. low temperature and low pressure
b. low temperature and high pressure
c. high temperature and low pressure
d. high temperature and high pressure
e. gases always behave ideally
29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have the lowest density at
standard temperature and pressure?
a. SF6 b. CF2Cl2 c. CO2 d. N2 e. Kr
30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is:
a. CH4 b. NH3 c. Ne d. H2 e. He
31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on the surface of
some water illustrates a property of liquid known as:
a. compressibility b. polarizability c. surface tension d. triple point e.
viscosity
32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called:
a. capillarity b. polarizability c. resistivity d. viscosity e. wetability
33. A liquid will wet a surface if:
a. the liquid has a lesser density than the surface
b. the forces between the liquid molecules are weak
c. the liquid has a low vapor pressure
d. the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater than the forces between
the molecules of the liquid
e. none of these answers
34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is true?
a. Cohesive forces are not important b. The molecules
contract to fit the size of the container
c. The molecules have no motion d. The molecules in
a patterned (oriented) arrangement
e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together
35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external pressure is called the :
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a. boiling point b. critical point c. melting point d. sublimation point
e. thermal point
36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at the:
a. triple point b. normal point c. permanent point d. critical point
e. absolute point
37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature, the following
conditions could exist:
(I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor
(II) The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at equal rates
(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
Which of the above choices are applicable?
a. I b. II and III c. I, II, and III d. II and IV e. none of
these combination
38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a liquid?
a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquids meniscus disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are identical
e. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid form its vapor by
increasing pressure
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium If the volume of the container
is decreased, which of the following has occurred once equilibrium is reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower b. the temperature is higher c. the pressure is
higher
d. the pressure is lower e. none of these
40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the temperature of the liquid equals:
a. 100C b. boiling point c. the normal boiling point d. the vaporization
point e. none of these
41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:
a. The rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the gas phase exactly equals
the rate at which molecules from the gas phase pass into the liquid phase
b. A change in temperature will not change the pressure in the container
c. The amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount of liquid
d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase because the amount of liquid in the
container is constant
e. The vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no vapor will be left
42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
b. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large surface area
c. high molecular energy, small surface area
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass
43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of vaporization?
a. closing container lid b. increasing forces between molecules c. increasing mass of
molecule
d. decreasing temperature e. decreasing surface area
44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling point of a liquid?
a. atmospheric pressure b. strength of forces between molecules c. rate of evaporation
d. rate of condensation e. none of these answers
45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed to escape, what is the
immediate result?
119
a. condensation rate decreases b. vaporization rate increases c. condensation rate increases
d. vaporization rate decreases e. none of these
46. The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a metastable:
a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point
b. liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point
c. liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point
d. gas at a temperature below that of its critical point
e. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point
47. All of the following are true about crystals EXCEPT
a. A crystal softens and melts over a wide range of temperature
b. A crystal tends to shatter along defined planes
c. Crystals generally have a specific shape for a specific substance
d. Crystal usually have a high degree of symmetry
48. All of the following are logical consequences of the observed macroscopic properties of
crystals EXCEPT
a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly repeating pattern
b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for essentially every atom except at
the surface
c. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary greatly
d. Some defects are present in the crystals
49. Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit cell?
a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice b. The face centered
cubic lattice c. The body centered cubic lattice
d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell
50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure EXCEPT
a. The first lattice point can be placed at any location b. All lattice points
have identical environments
c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice points d. Atoms are
always located on lattice points
51. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. The face-centered cubic lattice is identical to the cubic closest packed lattice
b. The body-centered cubic lattice is identical to the hexagonal closest packed lattice
c. The cubic closest packed and hexagonal closest packed structures have identical fractions of
space which are occupied by atoms
d. The density of a metal sample is independent of the size of the sample considered
52. Which of the following represents the minimal amount of date necessary to determine the atomic
mass of a metal?
a. Avogadros number and the density of the metal
b. Avogadros number, the density of the metal and the length of the unit cell edge
c. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell edge and the type
of lattice
d. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell edge, the type of lattice and
the atomic radius of the metal
53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating atomic radii of metals form crystallographic data?
a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed in the structure
b. The atoms are almost perfect cubes
c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value calculated for the radius is an average
d. The atoms in the structure are touching
54. What is the usual relationship between the number of valence electrons and the number of
nearest neighbors of a metal atom in a solid metal?
a. The number of valence electrons is less than the number nearest neighbors
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b. The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of nearest neighbors
c. The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of nearest neighbors
d. The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than, or equal to the number of nearest
neighbors
55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the structure of metals EXCEPT
a. Metals conduct electricity b. Metals are malleable c. Metals are ductile d. Metals break
easily when they are bent
56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity?
a. The metal atoms are close together
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely
57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid state?
a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ions
b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other salt molecules
c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure includes no
electrostatic repulsions
d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within the structure but the total of
the attractions is greater
58. All of the following are possible crystal defects EXCEPT
a. An atom or ion out of its regular position and occupying a normally empty hole
b. A crystal in which he only defect is one pair of ions of the same charge which are missing
c. An electron occupying a site that is normally occupied by a 1 anion
d. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and some ions not bearing the expected charge
59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the conductivity of metals?
a. they are almost all solids b. their coordination numbers are high
c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high d. Their densities are high
60. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?
a. AIS and P b. GeAs and Se c. GeAs and GaSe d. Al and SiP
61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same element?
a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass c. the structure d. the chemical and
physical properties
62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in the dark because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic solids
63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1 doped semiconductor bonded to
a region of P doped semiconductor) with a flowing current due to an applied voltage from a
battery. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number of thermally
generated electrons is higher
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region combines with an electron from
the P region
d. Both (a) and (c)
64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element should be incorporated into
the lattice?
a. P b. A1 c. C d. O
65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, EXCEPT
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice versa
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the same
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c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of Na and Cl are known, then
the density can be calculated
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have different ionin radii
66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are true, EXCEPT
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band gap is quite large
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in only two dimensions
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp
3
hybridization
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large
67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
a. amorphous b. crystalline c. glasses d. metals e. none of these
68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains many sharply
defined spots. The specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous d. plastic e. liquid
69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains three
diffuse rings close to primary x-ray beam. The specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous d. polycrystalline
e. colloidal
70. The colors in the gemstone opal result from
a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal crystals in the stone
b. absorption by transition metal complexes
c. contamination by large organic molecules which absorb light in the visible region
d. radioactivity
e. none of these
71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an equilateral triangle?
a. a 2-fold rotation b. a 3-fold rotation c. as mirror line or plane d. all of these
e. none of these
72. About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______ crystal system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic d. triclinic e.
monoclinic
73. The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of one 4-fold rotation is
a. orthorhombic b. cubic c. tetragonal d. triclinic e.
trigonal
74. Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous substances are ________.
a. isotropic, isotropic b. anisotropic, anisotropic c. isotropic,
anisotropic d. anisotropic, isotropic
75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a crystal that have the same environment in
the same orientation is called the
a. unit cell b. primitive cell c. crystal system d. crystal lattice e.
symmetry pattern
76. The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice is the
a. unit cell b. atom c. molecule d. atomic cluster
e. symmetry pattern
77. The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. this depends on the crystal
system
78. The conditions --- a b c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the _________ unit cell.
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal e. trigonal
79. The conditions --- a b c, alpha = gamma = 90, 90--- describe the _______ unit cell
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic d. hexagonal e. trigonal
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic lattice is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 8
81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the unit cell
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a. 1/8 b. c. d. 1 e. none of these
82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in a face of the unit cell
is shared equally with ___ other unit cell
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. none of these
83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the following correctly relates the atomic
radius r of the metal to the length of an edge a of the unit cell?
a. r = a b. r = a2 c. r = a3
2 4 4
d. This cannot be determined without additional information e. none of these
84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular solid are
a. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds d. all of these e. none of
these
85. Molecular crystals typically
a. are soft b. have low melting points c. are insulators d. all of these
e. none of these
86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic d. tetragonal
e. monoclinic
87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions, with cations occupying positions
exactly between pairs of anions
a. face-centered cubic b. monoclinic c. trigonal
d. body-centered cubic e. primitive cubic
88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________ equidistant ions of opposite charge
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. none of these
89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt structure?
a. VN b. Na2S c. ZrSe d. NH4I e. MgO
90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?
a. 1/8 b. c. d. 1 e. 2
91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. 12
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting point. The substance
readily conducts electricity when molten. This substance is most likely _____ in nature.
a. molecular b. covalent c. ionic d. metallic e. it could be more
than one of these
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.
a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules c. positively charged core ions d. electrons e. atomic
clusters
94. The metal with the highest melting point is
a. Pt b. Rh c. Nb d. Ga e. W
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed as close together as possible is
called a ____ arrangement.
a. primitive b. close-packed c. face-centered d. dense e. nematic
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres is
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic d. all of these e. none of these
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination number of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 12
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other carbon atoms
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. 8
99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature is
a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4 tetrahedral
d. S2 molecules with double bonds
100. Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom bonded to three others?
e. S8 rings
a. As b. Bi c. N d. P e. Sb
123
101. Which of the following forms a layered structure?
a. graphite b. white tin c. sulfur d. red
phosphorous e. all of these
102. Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure?
a. sulfur b. white tin c. red phosphorous d. sodium
e. gray tin
103. The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular position in the lattice to an
interstitial site is called a(n)
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. F-center d. site defect
e. berthollide
104. Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause
a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline lattice
b. formation of an F-center
c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
d. all of these
e. none of these
105. In a plastic crystal,
a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disrupted
b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumble
c. the molecules are rod-like
d. all of these
e. none of these
106. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
a. initial concentration of reactants
b. extent of reaction
c. temperature
d. time of reaction
107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature
108. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced from
a. the temperature dependence of the rate
b. the rate law
c. the net equation
d. the activation energy
109. The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by
a. raising the temperature
b. lowering the temperature
c. removing the products of the reaction
d. adding a catalyst
110. The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at given temperature
a. depends on the initial concentrations of the reactants
b. depends on the concentration of one of the products at equilibrium
c. does not depend on the initial concentrations
d. is not characteristic of the reaction
Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the hypothetical reaction and its rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]
2
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a factor of
124
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9
112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9
113. If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its original volume the rate will
increase by a factor of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16
114. The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased by
a. decreasing the concentration of D
b. increasing the concentration of A
c. increasing the concentration of C
d. increasing the temperature
115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of the reaction?
a. Halved b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled d. Tripled
116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase in temperature on the rate of
the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary activation of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the products
117. The reactions of high molecularity are rare because
a. activation energy of many body collisions is very high
b. many body collisions have low probability
c. many body collisions are not favoured energetically
d. none of the above statement is true
118. At 25C , the half life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is dependent of the initial
pressure of N2O5 the specific rate constant is
a. ln 2 b. (1/5.7)hr
-1
c. (ln2/5.7)
-1
hr
-1
d. (ln2/5.7)hr
119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant, the reaction is of
a. zero order b. first order
c. second order d. third order
120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
a. Drapper b. Einstein
c. Grotthus d. Lambert
121. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on
a. its amplitude b. its frequency
c. its wave length d. none of the above
122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a chemical reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
d. None of the above
123. Raman spectra may be obtained in
a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region
124. ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
125
125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the reactions involving
substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)
0.5
(Cy)
0.5
(Cz)
0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)
1.5
(Cy)
1
(Cz)
0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)
0
/(Cy)
2
126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent upon
a. pressure b. temperature
c. concentration d. catalyst
127. Which of the following might be used as an electrode?
a. A stick b. A nail
c. A glass rod d. A soda straw
128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H
2
at 1.0 atm to H
+
at 1.0 x 10
-1
M is
a. 0.00V b. 0.059V
c. 0.059V d. 0.030V
129. A good reducing agent
a. will always react rapidly
b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. is readily oxidized
d. shows a negative oxidation number
130. A Faraday of electricity is
a. one ampere per second
b. 96,500 coulombs per second
c. 6.02 x 10
23
electrons per second
d. 6.02 x 10
23
electronic charges
131. When aqueous HCl is electrolyzed
a. chlorine gas is produced at the anode
b. hydrogen gas is produced at the anode
c. oxygen gas is produced at the anode
d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode
132. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu from Cu2+ at the cathode of an
electrolytic cell is
a. 1.89 x 10
22
b. 3.04 x 10
3
c. 9.47 x 10
21
d. 1.91 x 10
25
133. A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing oxidation-reduction equation
is
a. electrons need not be balanced
b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
c. charges are not balanced
d. atoms need not be balanced
134. In a galvanic cell the cathode
a. is always made of copper
b. is always made of zinc
c. may be made of an inert metal
d. always attracts negative ions in the solution
135. Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than
a. Ag
+
b. Cu
++
c. Cl2 d. Zn
++
136. Not all galvanic cells contain
a. a cathode b. an anode
c. a porous partition d. ions
137. When a cell of a lead storage battery is being charged, it is
a. a galvanic cell b. an electrolytic cell
126
c. a Daniel cell d. a dry cell
138. A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour. The loss of mass of anode
is
a. 0.180g b. 23.6g
c. 0.197g d. 11.8g
139. The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m concentration; all gases at 1
atmosphere pressure)
a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr
+3
+ 6 Cl
-
b. NO3- + 2 H
+
+ Ag(s) Ag
+
+ H2O + NO2(g)
c. NO3- + 4 H
+
+ 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag
+
+ NO(g) +2H2O
d. Cl2(g) + 2 Br
-
2 Cl
-
+ Br2
140. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH
-
concentration is 0.0500M, how many
moles of Cl2 gas are produced?
a. 5.00 x 10
-3
mole b. 1.00 x 10
-2
mole
c. 5.00 x 10
-2
mole c. 1.00 x 10
-1
mole
148. As the lead storage battery is charged,
a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfate
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated
d. lead dioxide dissolves
149. If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes) one would expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown
150. When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at the cathode is
a. Na b. H
+
c. OH
-
d. Cl2
144. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere, the volume of
ozygen produced at STP at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter b. 6.96ml
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter d. 1.16 ml
145. As a lead storage battery is discharged
a. water is used up
b. lead is formed
c. lead sulfate is consumed
d. sulfuric acid is consumed
146. If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped into a solution containing Ag+, Fe+2, Cu+2, the
products of the reaction will be:
a. Ag, Fe and Cu b. Ag, Fe
++
and Cu
+
c. Fe
++
, Cu and Co
++
d. Fe
++
, Cu, Ag and Co
++
147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode potentials and the variation
of electrode potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous d. Electrophotometer
148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an order is known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series
127
149. In a salt-bridge KCl is used because
a. agar-agar forms a good jelly with it
b. KCl is an electrolyte
c. K+ and Cl- have the same transference number
d. KCl is present in calomel electrode
150. Four colorless salt solutions are placed in separate test-tubes and a strip of copper is dipped in
each.. which solution finally turns blue?
a. Pb (NO3)2 b. Zn (NO3)2
c. AgNO3 d. Cd (NO3)2
151. When an electric current is passed through a cell containing an electrolyte, positive ions move
towards the cathode and negative ions towards the anode. What will happen if the cathode is pulled
out of solution?
a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode and negative ions will stop moving
b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the positive ions will stop moving
c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the anode
d. None of these movements will take place
152. What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn
+2
(IM) ll Cu
+2
(IM); Cu (E for Zn
+2
l Zn = -
.76; E for Cu
+2
l Cu = +0.34)
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
b. 0.34 (-0.76) = +1.10V
c. 0.34 (-0.76) = +0.42V
d. 0.76 (+0.34) = -1.10V
153. One Faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed in series containing
solutions of Ag
+
, Ni
+2
and Cr
+3
respectively. The amount of Ag (At.Wt. 108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr (At.
Wt. 52) deposited will be:
Silver Nickel Chromium
a. 108g 29.5g 17.5g
b. 108g 59g 52.0g
c. 108g 108g 108g
d. 108g 117.5g 166g
154. Given standard electrode potentials
E
Fe++ + 2e Fe -0.440V
Fe+++ + 3e Fe -0.036V
The standard electrode potential (E) for Fe+++ + e Fe++ is
a. 0.476V
b. 0.404V
c. +0.404V
d. +0.771V
155. The magnitude of the individual half cell potentials are given
(i) CO2+ + 2e Co 0.28V
(ii) Hg2+ + 2e 2Hg 0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the metallic electrode Co is found
to be ve and Hg electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign for the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
128
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. ve for half cell (ii)
156. When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue color of the solution is lost
after some time. This is due to
a. reduction of Cu
++
b. oxidation of CuSO4
c. formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu
++
157. Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of
a. sodium b. lead
c. copper d. gold
158. The mathematical statement of Gibbs phase rule is
a. F = C-P+2 b. C = F-P+2
c. C = F-P+1 d. P = C+F+2
159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts of the heterogeneous system
in equilibrium are called
a. phases b. components
c. degrees of freedom d. none of the above
160. What is the degree of freedom of a system consisting of a gaseous mixture of carbon dioxide and
nitrogen?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
161. How many phases are present in the water system?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and methyl alcohol?
a. 3 b. 1
c. 1 d. 0
163. How many components are necessary to define the following equilibrium?
CaCO3
CaO + CO2
Solid solid gas
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
165. The incongruent melting point is so called
a. peritectic temperature
b. meritectic temperature
c. transition temperature
d. all of the above
129