A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

1
Marks: --/1

5,700 kg.
20,000 kg.
10,000 kg.
7,000 kg.
Check Answer

A flight engineer is required to be part of the flight crew if:

Marks: --/1

The aeroplane has three engines or more.

Flight time is expected to be more than 8 hours.
If there is a Flight Engineer station on the flight deck and the duty of that station
cannot be satisfactorily performed by another flight crew member.
If there is a Flight Engineer station on the flight deck.
Check Answer

3
Marks: --/1

A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the indicated weather conditions at the destination or a
nominated alternate will be:
At the intended time of arrival, and within a reasonable period of time before and
after the nominated time, better than the operating minima for the aerodrome use.
Throughout the period of the flight, at or above the minima for aerodrome use.
At the intended time of arrival equal to or better than the aerodrome operating
minima.
At departure time, equal to or above the operating minima for aerodrome use.
Check Answer

A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required must be approved by:

Marks: --/1

State of the manufacturer.

No such book is required to be approved by an authority.
State of operations.
State of the operator.
Check Answer

A Mach meter is to be fitted to the aeroplane:

Marks: --/1

In areas where speed is reported using Mach no.

When aeroplane speed limitations are expressed as a Mach no.
For SST operations only.
Where flight conditions are referenced to ISA.
Check Answer

When a maintenance release has been issued for a flight, how long should the form be retained by the

6
Marks: --/1

When a maintenance release has been issued for a flight, how long should the form be retained by the
operator?
6 months.
1 month
3 months.
12 months.
Check Answer

7
Marks: --/1

A pilot in command:
1. Must comply with any ATC instruction immediately.
2. Is only responsible for the safety of the aircraft when airborne.
3. May deviate from the Rules of the Air in an emergency.
4. May only deviate from complying with Rules of the Air in order to comply with an ATC instruction.
5. May request a revised ATC clearance if the clearance received is unsatisfactory.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
3, 4 & 5.
3 & 5.
1, 3, 4 & 5.
All of the above.
Check Answer

A pilot is not to act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot unless:

Marks: --/1

He has completed 3 flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or approved

simulator of the type to be used in the previous 90 days.
He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in any aircraft or approved simulator
within the previous 60 days.
He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in an aeroplane or approved simulator
of the same type to be used within the previous 90 days.
He has completed 3 flights as pilot in an aeroplane or simulator of the same type to
be used within the previous 30 days.
Check Answer

9
Marks: --/1

A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to taxiing fot take-off. To which
document would the pilot refer?
Technical Log.
Aeroplane Flight Manual
Minimum Equipment List.
Configuration Deviation List.
Check Answer

10

Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required?

Marks: --/1

25,000ft
15,000ft

32,000ft
10,000ft

Check Answer

11

Above what altitude is a radiation indicator required to be carried?

Marks: --/1

29,000ft.
66,000ft.
49,000ft.
39,000ft.
Check Answer

12
Marks: --/1

Above what altitude is stored breathing oxygen required for the crew and all passengers in an
unpressurised aircraft ?
11,000ft
13,000ft
10,000ft
12,000ft
Check Answer

13
Marks: --/1

According to ICAO Annex 6 a flight shall not be commenced in accordance with instrument flight rules
unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or at
an aerodrome of alternate destination are at the predicted time of:
Arrival and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time equal to or
better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
Arrival (ETA) equal to or better than the areodrome operating minima.
Arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use.
Check Answer

14
Marks: --/1

According to ICAO Annex 6 if a 255 seat aeroplane is carrying 251 passengers the required medical
supplies to be carried is?
Four First Aid Kits and One Medical Kit.
Three Nurses and one Doctor.
One First Aid Kit and Four Medical Kits.
Three First Aid Kits and One Medical Kit.
Check Answer

15

According to ICAO Annex 6 what is the minimum time between pilot proficiency checks ?

Marks: --/1

4 months
5 months

3 months
6 months
Check Answer

16
Marks: --/1

Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) are based on several factors which combination of the following are
factors assessed in defining AOM?
1. Runway length
2. Crew composition
3. Means used to report meteorological conditions
4. Obstacles in the go around and approach areas
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
1, 3 & 4.
1 & 4.
1, 2 & 4.
1, 2, 3 & 4.
Check Answer

17

Aerodrome operating minima are required to be specified for:

Marks: --/1

Each of the aerodromes to be used in operations.

Aerodromes where no convenient alternate exists.
Only departure and destination aerodromes.
Aerodromes to be used in IMC.
Check Answer

18
Marks: --/1

After an accident the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original
recordings for a minimum period of:
45 days
90 days
60 days
30 days.
Check Answer

19
Marks: --/1

An operator has to ensure that instrument procedures are used. When may a commander deviate from
those procedures?
When cleared by JAA.
When cleared by ATC.
When cleared by the Operator
When cleared by the Authority
Check Answer

20

An unpressurised flight where the cabin altitude is greater than 10,000ft will be required to carry stored

20
Marks: --/1

An unpressurised flight where the cabin altitude is greater than 10,000ft will be required to carry stored
breathing oxygen to supply :
All crew and passengers plus 10% for any period in excess of 30 minutes that the
compartments are between 10,000ft. and 13,000ft.
The crew and the passengers for any period that the atmospheric pressure in
compartments will be more than 620 hPa.
All of the cabin crew for 10 minutes
All crew members and 10% of the passengers for any period in excess of 30
minutes that the compartments are between 10,000ft and 13,000ft.
Check Answer

21

Annexes to the Chicago Convention contain:

Marks: --/1

Recommendations and Means of Compliance.

Standards and Regulatory Procedures.
Search and Rescue Procedures.
Standards and Recommended Practices.
Check Answer

22

Are you as the Pilot in Command permitted to switch off a flight recorder?

Marks: --/1

Yes if you want to talk privately to the First Officer.

Yes but only after an incident or accident.
No because it will automatically reset itself and the previous recording will be lost.
No it is illegal to switch it off.
Check Answer

23

At take off the mass of an aeroplane shall be

Marks: --/1

Such that the take off run can be completed or safely abandoned up to Vr.
Not more than the flight manual maximum for the specific conditions.
Less than that which would enable compliance with any noise abatement
procedure.
Not more than maximum landing mass.
Check Answer

24

At what level do Reduced Vertical Separation Minima operations start?

Marks: --/1

FL245.
FL270.
FL290.
FL410.
Check Answer

25

Before commencing a flight pilots and crew members are to be familiar with the laws regulations and

25
Marks: --/1

Before commencing a flight pilots and crew members are to be familiar with the laws regulations and
procedures applicable to the airspace in which they are flying. Who is responsible for ensuring compliance
?
The Operator
Individual crew members
The Operations Officer
The Pilot in Command
Check Answer

26
Marks: --/1

Before flight the Pilot is required to carry out certain acceptance checks.
Which of the combination of the following are checks that must be carried out?
1. The aeroplane is airworthy
2. Instruments and equipment for the flight are installed and sufficient.
3 Mass and C of G are within limits.
4. Load is distributed and secured properly.
5. Aeroplane limitations can be complied with.
6 .Maintenance release has been issued.
7. The Operational Flight Plan is in a fireproof container in the aeroplane.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
4, 5 and 6
3, 4, 5 and 6
All the above except 1
All the above except 7.
Check Answer

27

Can a proficiency check be carried out in a simulator?

Marks: --/1

No because it includes piloting technique it must be in an aeroplane.

No simulators may only be used for type rating tests
Yes but a confirmation check ride in an aeroplane is required
Yes but only for the parts of the check for which the simulator is approved by the
Authority of the State of the Operator.
Check Answer

28

Destination alternate for a turbojet - what is the required fuel overhead?

Marks: --/1

30 minutes at endurance speed.

2 hours at 1,500ft in standard conditions.
30 minutes at 1,500ft in standard conditions.
30 minutes at cruise speed.
Check Answer

29
Marks: --/1

During the flightcrew pre-flight checks on a public transport flight a piece of equipment fails. In order to
determine if it is safe to proceed :
The Pilot in Command will consult the MEL in order to determine if the

unserviceability can be accepted for the flight

The Pilot in Command will consult the MMEL for guidance
Pilot in Command will contact the Operator for a technical opinion on the
unserviceability
The ground engineer should confirm the fault and decide if the aeroplane can
continue
Check Answer

30

FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:

Marks: --/1

48 hours of operation.
The whole flight.
25 hours of operation.
30 hours of operation.
Check Answer

31

Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

Marks: --/1

Only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the
interest of safety.
From take-off to landing.
While at their station.
Only during take-off and landing.
Check Answer

32

Flight crew should have their seat belts fastened:

Marks: --/1

From take-off to landing.

On take-off and landing and when deemed necessary by the pilot-in-command in
the interests of flight safety.
On take-off and landing only.
When at their stations.
Check Answer

33
Marks: --/1

Following an incident which contravenes local procedures or regulations of a state other than it's own state
the action is :
The Operator is required to notify the State of the Operator within 10 days
The PIC must notify the local Authority in writing within 7 days
The PIC must advise ATS immediately but no further action is required
The PIC must submit any such required report to the local Authority with a copy to
the State of the Operator (normally within 10 days)
Check Answer

34

For a two engine aeroplane operating to the `engine-out' limitations when are life jackets required?

Marks: --/1

If deemed necessary by the Authority.

100nm from land.

Beyond gliding distance from land.
50nm from land.
Check Answer

35
Marks: --/1

For an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate :

An aeroplane having two power units can be more than a distance of 1 hour's flying
An aeroplane having two power units can be not more than one hour's flying
distance at the single engine cruise speed at 1,500ft ISA
An aeroplane having three or more engines can be not more than two hours flying
time away at the all engine cruise speed in ISA
An aeroplane having three or more engines can be not more than a distance equal
to two hour's flying time at the `one engine-out' cruise speed
Check Answer

36

For how long are completed flight preparation forms to be retained?

Marks: --/1

3 months.
2 years.
6 months.
1 year.
Check Answer

37

How is a pre-flight inspection defined?

Marks: --/1

The before flight inspection to look for factors needing final rectification.
The commander's or first officer's walk round before a flight.
The inspection carried out before flight to ensure that the aeroplane is fit for flight.
The final inspection by the maintenance personnel.
Check Answer

38

How may the Visual Approach be correctly described?

Marks: --/1

An approach which includes a visual circuit

An approach when the use of instruments is not the method of reference.
An approach where the conditions preclude an instrument approach.
An approach when part or all of the instrument approach is carried out visually with
reference to the terrain.
Check Answer

39

How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed according to ICAO Annex 6?

Marks: --/1

Twice a year.
Every 6 to 8 months
Every 6 months.

Every 4 to 6 months
Check Answer

40

How should break-in points always be marked on aeroplanes?

Marks: --/1

Red and yellow markings every 2 metres

Yellow corner markings on a white background
Red and yellow corner markings with intermediate lines in gaps greater than 2
metres.
Corner markings coloured red or yellow with intermediate lines where outline is
greater than 2 metres in length
Check Answer

41

ICAO Annex 6 requirements for an aeroplane to be able to depart on an IFR flight are :

Marks: --/1

If the conditions at the destination aerodrome are forecast to be below aerodrome

operating minima two Alternates are required which must be forecast to be within
limits for the intended time of use
that the conditions forecast for the destination aerodrome will be above the
aerodrome operating minima on arrival
Both b and c are correct
that the conditions at the destination or at the Destination Alternate are forecast to
be at or above the aerodrome operating minima at the time of intended time of
arrival
Check Answer

42

If a report of a violation is required to whom is the report to be copied in addition to the primary addressee?

Marks: --/1

The Operator.
The Authority of the State of the Operator.
The Authority of the State in which the violation took place.
The ATCU in the State where the violation took place.
Check Answer

43

If an operator establishes a minimum flight altitude for a route that altitude is to be:

Marks: --/1

Not lower than any altitude prescribed by the Authority of the State being over
flown.
Not less than 10,000ft agl.
Adhered to whilst flying IFR.
At least 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within 10nm of track.
Check Answer

44

If the commander of an aeroplane violates any rule regulation or local procedure

Marks: --/1

He/she is to report the matter to the local Authority by the quickest means
available.
He/she is to report the matter immediately unless no other aeroplane is involved.

He/she is to report the matter immediately only if flying under IFR.

He/she is to report the matter to the Authority in the State of registration
immediately.
Check Answer

45
Marks: --/1

If the latest meteorological visibility is reported to be below the minimum required for a non-precision
approach by which criterion must the approach be aborted?
Outer marker.
1,000ft above the ARP.
Final Approach Fix.
Inner marker.
Check Answer

46
Marks: --/1

If the VSO of an aeroplane at its maximum certificated landing mass is 111kts to which category does it
belong?
B.
C
D
A.
Check Answer

47

If there is unauthorised use of equipment that affects the aeroplane's system the commander:

Marks: --/1

May authorise its use for the whole flight.

May authorise its use at his discretion.
Must not authorise its use.
May authorise its use for take-off and landing.
Check Answer

48
Marks: --/1

If you are planning to fly in an unpressurised aircraft at FL120 how much stored breathing oxygen must be
carried on board
Enough for 10% of the passengers and all the crew for the time when the cabin
pressure is above 700hPa
Enough for the crew and all the passengers for any period when the cabin pressure
is between 700hPa and 620hPa.
Enough for 10% of the passengers and all the crew.
Enough for all the crew and 10% of the passengers for any period exceeding 30
minutes provided the cabin altitude does not exceed 13,000ft.
Check Answer

49
Marks: --/1

If you were to fly along a route for which the minimum flight altitude has not been specified where would you
find information concerning the approved method of calculation?
In the Operations Manual.
In JAR OPS-1.

In Annex 2.
In the AIP.
Check Answer

50

In accordance with ICAO Annex 6 when must life rafts and pyrotechnics be carried?

Marks: --/1

60 mins at cruising speed or 200 nm from land whichever is the lesser.

30 mins at cruising speed or 100 nm from land whichever is the greater.
When flying at a distance greater than 50 nm from land.
120 mins at cruising speed or 400 nm from land whichever is the lesser.
Check Answer

51
Marks: --/1

In accordance with ICAO Annex 6 at take off time you are told that your nominated destination alternate is
below minima. Under what circumstances can you take off?
If it is forecasting to be equal to or above the minima at ETA.
You cannot; it must be above minima at take-off.
The destination has 2 separate runways.
Providing the final portion of the flight is to be conducted under VFR.
Check Answer

52
Marks: --/1

In accordance with ICAO Annex 6 if there are 150 passenger seats on an aeroplane how many first aid kits
are required?
1.
2
4
3.
Check Answer

53

In accordance with ICOA 6 to act as Pilot in Command of an aeroplane he/she must have :

Marks: --/1

made at least three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane within the preceding 90
days
made at least three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the same type within
the preceding 90 days
made at least three take-offs or landings in an aeroplane within the preceding 90
days
made at least three take-offs or landings in an aeroplane of the same type or an
approved simulator within the preceding 90 days
Check Answer

54
Marks: --/1

In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima what of the following needs to be considered?

1. Crew composition.
2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information.
3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area.
4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway.

5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
2, 3, 4 & 5.
1, 2, 4 & 5.
1, 2 & 3.
All of the above.
Check Answer

55
Marks: --/1

In order to preserve the integrity of a navigation system a design philosophy is employed; what is that
philosophy?
Reliance on ground based navigation aids is to be minimised.
Gross navigation error is not to exceed 2nm
A failure in one piece of equipment will not cause a failure in another.
A full manual reversion system is incorporated in case of failure.
Check Answer

56

In what circumstance can the requirements of a destination alternate be dispensed with?

Marks: --/1

There is sufficient fuel on board to return to the departure airfield.

The weather along the whole route is forecast VMC until the ETA.
The destination is too isolated for a suitable alternate.
The landing can be made visually
Check Answer

57

In which manual is the Minimum Equipment List included?

Marks: --/1

The Aeroplane Flight Manual.

In the Maintenance Documents.
In the Operations Officer's documents.
The Operations Manual
Check Answer

58

Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

Marks: --/1

Journey logbook.
Flight manual.
Operational flight plan.
Operations manual.
Check Answer

59

It is a requirement that if a piece of navigation equipment fails

Marks: --/1

ATC must be informed.

The pilot-in-command will not have to refer to the MEL.

A replacement item must be carried as a spare.
The failure will not cause another piece of equipment to fail
Check Answer

60
Marks: --/1

It is recommended that a weather warning radar (AWR) be carried in areas where thunderstorms are likely
to exist :
In all aeroplanes at night.
In pressurised aeroplanes at night or in IMC.
In all aeroplanes in IMC.
In all aeroplanes carrying passengers in IMC
Check Answer

61

Life jackets are required when overflying water:

Marks: --/1

300 nm from land.

400 nm from land.
100 nm from land.
50 nm from land.
Check Answer

62
Marks: --/1

Of the following people who specifically may have access to the flight deck?
1. A pilot positioning for a flight.
2. A person permitted according to the Operations Manual.
3. Wives of flight crew
4. Cabin crew members.
5. Representatives of the Authority.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
1, 2, & 5
2, 3 & 5.
2, 4 & 5.
1, 2 & 4.
Check Answer

63
Marks: --/1

On an ILS you are told that the visibility has dropped below company minima. When must you abort the
approach?
Outer Marker.
Inner Marker.
Start of the glide-slope descent.
FAF
Check Answer

64
Marks: --/1

On board a pressurised aircraft a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen
reserve enabling all crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of
cabin depressurisation for the whole flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
10,000ft.
11,000ft.
13,000ft.
12,000ft.
Check Answer

65

Over what period is the journey logbook required to provide a continuous record?

Marks: --/1

3 months.
30 days.
1 year.
6 months.
Check Answer

66

Part of the safety equipment requirement carried on all land aeroplanes on long range over-water fights is :

Marks: --/1

A sea anchor
A floating device equipped with an ELT
Life rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board at more than a distance
corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed (1 power unit inoperative) or 400
nms whichever is the lesser away from land suitable for an emergency landing.
Life rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board at more than a distance
corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed (all engines operating) or 400 nms
whichever is the lesser away from land suitable for an emergency landing.
Check Answer

67

Procedures for search and rescue are to be found in which document?

Marks: --/1

Operating Manual
Operations Manual.
Flight Safety Programmes.
Journey logbook.
Check Answer

68

Refuelling an aircraft with passengers embarking or disembarking is:

Marks: --/1

Permitted only if all stairs are in position.

Permitted only if the flight deck crew is on board.
Permitted only if communications are maintained with the ground crew.
Not permitted
Check Answer

69

The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated:

69

The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated:

Marks: --/1

In each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.

When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
During climb and descent.
During take-off and landing.
Check Answer

70
Marks: --/1

The authority of a State in which an aerodrome is located is required to produce calculated minima for the
use of that aerodrome.
Why then is the Operator required to specify Aerodrome Operating Minima for all the aerodromes likely to
be used as destinations or alternates?
Because the minima specified by the State is only basic information.
The State minima do not take into account crew competence.
The State minima are based on obstacle clearance AMSL and the aircrews require
data referenced to aerodrome elevation
It is not possible to calculate DH (A) from OCL data.
Check Answer

71
Marks: --/1

The Chicago Convention Annex which is applicable to the operation of aeroplanes in commercial air
transport is:
Annex 6.
Annex 1.
Annex 2.
Annex 9.
Check Answer

72
Marks: --/1

The document that prescribes specific requirements applicable to member states for the operation of any
civil commercial air transport aeroplane is:
ICAO Annex 2.
JAR OPS-1.
ICAO Annex 6.
The UK AIP.
Check Answer

73

The JAR-OPS document is based on:

Marks: --/1

A JAA guide line.

ICAO Annex 6.
Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR).
Rules of the Air.
Check Answer

74

The MEL is drawn up by:

74

The MEL is drawn up by:

Marks: --/1

The manufacturer's aircraft list.

The operator and may be more restrictive than the MMEL.
The operator and can be less restrictive than the MMEL.
The state of registration and can be more restrictive than the MMEL.
Check Answer

75

The MEL is:

Marks: --/1

A list of equipment in an aircraft that may affect the airworthiness

Meteorological Environment Limitation instructions from ECAC regarding conditions
mentioned in the certificate of environment approval of the aircraft.
A set of instructions which specifies the conditions under which a flight may
commence if some of the aircraft equipment is unserviceable
A message from the national civil aviation authority about conditions that may affect
the safety of flight.
Check Answer

76

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the:

Marks: --/1

Aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.

Airline operator.
Civil Aviation Authority of the European states.
Manufacturer.
Check Answer

77
Marks: --/1

The minimum fuel required by ICAO Annex 6 to be carried by a turbo-jet aeroplane on arrival at an isolated
destination is :
60 minutes plus enough for a hold for 30 minutes at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome
2 hours at normal cruise consumption
2 hours plus enough for a hold for 15 minutes at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome
60 minutes
Check Answer

78

The MMEL is compiled by:

Marks: --/1

The authority of the state of registration.

The aeroplane operator.
The aeroplane manufacturer
The authority of the state of manufacture.
Check Answer

79

The MMEL is drawn up by the:

79

The MMEL is drawn up by the:

Marks: --/1

Designers and may be less restrictive than the MMEL.

Operator and may be less restrictive than the MMEL
Designer and may be more restrictive than the MEL.
Designers and may be less restrictive than the MEL.
Check Answer

80

The pressure in the standard atmosphere at 13,000ft is :

Marks: --/1

620 hPa
720 hPa
420 hPa
520 hPa
Check Answer

81
Marks: --/1

The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be
less than:
3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
90 days.
6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
90 days.
6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
6 months.
3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
6 months.
Check Answer

82

The VFR minima for flight in Class B airspace above FL 100 are?

Marks: --/1

5 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.

5 km forward visibility 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500m laterally clear of cloud
8 km forward visibility 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500m laterally clear of cloud.
8 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
Check Answer

83
Marks: --/1

The visibility is just about on minima. Your DH for an ILS to runway 26L is 200ft based on an OCH of 120ft.
You have made a `Pan Pan' call because you have carried out a precautionary shut down of the No3
engine.
A report from an aeroplane that has just taken off gave a cloud ceiling of 150ft.
What is the lowest height to which you are permitted to descend in order to obtain visual references for
landing?
120 ft.
200 ft
150 ft
As low as is required to get the visual reference

Check Answer

84

Through what angle can the regulatory green navigation light of an aircraft be seen?

Marks: --/1

140
90
70
110
Check Answer

85

Through what angle can the regulatory white navigation light of an aircraft be seen?

Marks: --/1

90
70
10
140
Check Answer

86

To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:

Marks: --/1

Been at the controls as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days.

Operated the flight controls as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days.
Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently.
Operated the flight controls during three take-off and landings as PIC or co-pilot on
type in the last 90 days.
Check Answer

87

To qualify as a commander a pilot must have completed:

Marks: --/1

3 take offs and 3 landings in the last 6 months.

3 take offs and 3 landings in the last 90 days.
6 take offs and 6 landings in the last 6 months.
6 take offs and 6 landings in the last 90 days.
Check Answer

88

Type 1 & Type 2 FDRs must continuously record for at least the last:

Marks: --/1

48 hours of operation.
The whole flight.
25 hours of operation.
30 hours of operation.
Check Answer

89

Type I & II FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:

89

Type I & II FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:

Marks: --/1

48 hours of operation.
25 hours of operation
30 hours of operation.
The whole flight.
Check Answer

90

Under what circumstances must an aeroplane have a Mach meter fitted?

Marks: --/1

If the aircraft was registered on or after 1 Apr 88 and has a MTMA greater than
5,700Kg.
If it is required to fly in areas where speed is defined in Mach no.
When aircraft speed limitations are expressed as a Mach no.
If it has the capability of flying faster than Mach 1.0.
Check Answer

91

Use of which piece of equipment from the following list is required to be included in the passenger brief?

Marks: --/1

First aid kits

Break in areas
Portable oxygen kits.
Oxygen dispensing equipment.
Check Answer

92

What correctly describes the contents of the aircraft operating manual?

Marks: --/1

The operational flight plan normal and abnormal operating procedures MEL.
Checklists system details emergency procedures normal and abnormal operating
procedure
MEL checklists system details the operational flight plan.
Emergency procedures training requirements system details aeroplane
performance
Check Answer

93

What is a flight data recorder required to do?

Marks: --/1

Record continuously during flight.

Record all communications on the flight deck.
Record all 32 parameters
Record all radio transmission from aircraft over 5,700 kg MTMA.
Check Answer

94

What is ASDA?

Marks: --/1

A local supermarket.
The Aircraft Specific Decision Altitude.

The Acceleration/Stop Distance Acceptable.

The distance within which an aircraft must stop in the event of an aborted take-off.
Check Answer

95

What is not required for the operator to consider for the routes and areas of its operations?

Marks: --/1

Meteorological services
Appropriate maps and charts.
Safe forced landing surfaces for all aeroplanes.
Aeroplane performance with regard to minimum flight altitude.
Check Answer

96

What is recommended to be included in the Journey Log Book?

Marks: --/1

Aeroplane registration names of crew members date of arrival signature of person

in charge.
Incidents duty assignments of crew emergency equipment date.
Aeroplane nationality fuel calculations place of departure observations.
Hours of flight time of departure nature of flight flight duty limitations.
Check Answer

97

What is required for navigation in IMC?

Marks: --/1

Radio and navigation equipment for guidance until the visual point.
Anti-icing equipment.
One VHF box and one HF box.
A serviceable weather radar.
Check Answer

98

What is the correct definition for Minimum Descent Height?

Marks: --/1

The specified altitude on a non-precision approach or circling approach below

which descent must not be made without visual reference.
The specified altitude on a precision approach or circling approach below which
descent must not be made without visual reference.
The specified height on a non-precision approach or circling approach below which
descent must not be made without visual reference.
The specified height on a precision approach or circling approach below which
descent must not be made without visual reference.
Check Answer

99

What is the currency requirement for appointment as Pilot in Command?

Marks: --/1

Three take-offs and landings in the same type in the past 90 days.
Three IFR take-offs and landings in the last three months.
1,500 hours on type and not more than 100 hours in the last 28 days.

Two night landings in the last month

Check Answer

100
Marks: --/1

What is the oxygen requirement altitude for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an unpressurised
aircraft?
11,000ft
13,000ft
12,000ft
10,000ft
Check Answer

101

What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?

Marks: --/1

120 mins or 400 nm whichever is less where the areoplane is operated in

compliance with the en-route "engine out" criteria.
120 mins flying time at the normal cruise speed.
50 nm from land.
30 mins or 120 nm whichever is less.
Check Answer

102

What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

Marks: --/1

Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes.

Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority.
Have facilities for all maintenance.
Have registered offices in all countries of operations.
Check Answer

103

What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before April 1998?

Marks: --/1

Record the last 48 hours of flight.

Record for the duration of the flight.
Record last 30 mins of flight.
Record the last 25 hours of operation.
Check Answer

104

What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?

Marks: --/1

All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight.

All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications.
The failure of one piece does not affect another.
If one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available.
Check Answer

105

What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?

Marks: --/1

All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight

If an item of equipment fails the aeroplane can still be navigated to the required
specification
If one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available.
All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications.
Check Answer

106

What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?

Marks: --/1

Flying technique emergency procedures and IFR.

Simulator flying skills.
The ability to conform with set procedures.
The ability to land safely.
Check Answer

107

When are all flight crewmembers required to have their seat belts fastened?

Marks: --/1

In an emergency.
Always - unless absence is necessary to satisfy physiological needs.
For take off and landing.
When at their duty station.
Check Answer

108

When does an aeroplane require an HF radio system?

Marks: --/1

When flying in areas where HF frequencies are specified for ATC communications
At night or when flying over remote areas.
When flying above FL55 in the Gander OCA.
When flying below the level for VHF communications.
Check Answer

109

When flying over the sea what is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?

Marks: --/1

60 mins flying time at the one engine out cruise speed.

50 nm from land or beyond gliding distance for a single-engined aeroplane.
30 mins or 120 nm from land whichever is less.
120 mins or 400 nm from land whichever is less
Check Answer

110

When is a pilot permitted to dispense with the shoulder straps of the safety harness?

Marks: --/1

Above safety altitude

In the cruise phase
If the shoulder straps interfere with his duties.

At all times other than take-off and landing.

Check Answer

111

When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?

Marks: --/1

The threshold is less than 2m above the aerodrome elevation.

The threshold is more than 2m above the aerodrome elevation.
The threshold is more than 2m below the aerodrome elevation.
The threshold is less than 2m below the aerodrome elevation.
Check Answer

112
Marks: --/1

When planning an IFR flight for a turbojet and a destination alternate is required - what is the required fuel
overhead?
30 minutes at 1,500 ft in standard conditions for approach and landing.
2 hours at 1,500 ft in standard conditions.
30 minutes at cruise speed.
Fly via any predetermined point and remain airborne for 30 minutes at endurance
speed.
Check Answer

113

When refueling is being conducted with passengers embarking/disembarking :

Marks: --/1

communications must be maintained between the ground crew and a qualified crew
member on board
refueling is strictly forbidden whilst passengers are embarking/disembarking
all flight crew must be on board
a loading bridge must be in position at 2 of the aeroplane's exits and smoking is
prohibited
Check Answer

114

Where are the contents of the operational flight plan detailed?

Marks: --/1

The operations manual

The aircraft flight manual.
The journey log book.
The operating manual
Check Answer

115

Where is general information about the carriage of Dangerous Goods to be found ?

Marks: --/1

The AFM
The Operations Manual
JAR FCL
ICAO Annex 6
Check Answer

116

Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found?

Marks: --/1

Operations Manual.
Operating Manual.
Mass and Balance Manual.
Aeroplane Flight Manual.
Check Answer

117

Which aircraft are required to carry a Ground Proximity Warning System?

Marks: --/1

A Turbojet aircraft registered on 1 Jan 2000 for the carriage of 9 passengers.

All turbine engined aeroplane with a MTMA greater than 5,700Kg or authorised to
carry more than 9 passengers.
A turbojet aircraft registered on 1 Jul 99 with a MTMA of 5,700Kg
Any aeroplane with a MTMA greater than 15,000Kg.
Check Answer

118
Marks: --/1

Which combination of the following are items for which completed flight operations forms are required prior
to flight?
1. The aeroplane is airworthy.
2. The operating limits can be complied with.
3. The load is secured safely and properly distributed.
4. The refuelling certificate has been completed.
5. Standards relating to flight operational planning have been complied with.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3 and 5.
All the above
1, 2, 3 and 4
1 and 3.
Check Answer

119

Which document is the JAA authoritative reference for operational procedures for commercial air transport?

Marks: --/1

The UK AIP
ICAO Annex 6
JAR OPS-1.
ICAO Annex 2.
Check Answer

120
Marks: --/1

Which document provides the basic structure for Standards and Recommended Practices of Commercial
Air Operators?
JAR OPS-1
ICAO Annex 6

ICAO Annex 2
The UK AIP.
Check Answer

121
Marks: --/1

Which of the following are operators' responsibilities?

1. Employees must comply with the laws of the country in which operations are being conducted.
2. Cabin crew must be familiar with laws regulations and procedures applicable to the airspace.
3. Pilots and other flight crew members are familiar with aerodromes and navigation facilities to be used.
4. Commanders have all essential information concerning Search and Rescue services.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
1, 2 & 4.
All of the above
2, 3 & 4.
1, 3 & 4.
Check Answer

122

Which of the following are valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome?

Marks: --/1

A distance equal to two hours or less flying time at 'one engine out' cruise speed for
a four engined aeroplane.
Not less than two hours flying distance for a twin engined aeroplane.
Not more than one hour's flying distance for an aeroplane with one engine out.
Not less than two hours flying distance for a three engined aeroplane with one
engine out.
Check Answer

123

Which of the following criteria must the landing mass of an aeroplane comply with?

Marks: --/1

Clear all approach obstacles and stop within the length of the runway (including the
overrun).
Allow a continuous descent on a 3 glide path with cruise power set (no drag
enhancers used).
Land and stop within the LDA.
Allow a fast turn off lane to be used at a speed up to 60kts
Check Answer

124

Which of the following is a requirement of the Operating Manual?

Marks: --/1

It is acceptable for it to refer to other documents.

It must contain normal abnormal and emergency operating procedures.
It must contain all the information required by ICAO Annex 8.
It must include aeroplane performance specifications.
Check Answer

125

Which of the following is critical in noise abatement procedures?

125

Which of the following is critical in noise abatement procedures?

Marks: --/1

Take-off mass.
Aircraft weight category.
Maximum climb angle.
Use of re-heat (afterburners).
Check Answer

126

Which of the following is required to be on board for the area over which the flight is flown?

Marks: --/1

Information concerning the local Search and Rescue service.

A local navigator in areas designated as remote
Topographical maps indicating the position of every aerodrome worldwide.
A supply of local currency.
Check Answer

127
Marks: --/1

Which of the following is to be taken into account when approving the methods for calculating the minimum
flight altitude?
Composition of the flight crew.
Types of the altimeters fitted to the aeroplane.
Obstacles in the missed approach area.
Airspace restrictions
Check Answer

128
Marks: --/1

Which of the following parameters shall a Type II FDR record have?

1. Time.
2. Radio altitude.
3. Pitch attitude.
4. Pilot input to the primary controls.
5. Heading.
6. Angle of attack.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
None of the above.
All of the above.
1, 3 & 5.
2, 4 & 6.
Check Answer

129
Marks: --/1

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the mass limitations of an aeroplane at the start of
the take-off run?
The mass shall not exceed that at which the limitations for take-off en-route flying
and landing can be complied with.
The maximum ramp weight less the mass of the fuel used for start-up and taxi.
The mass shall not be greater than maximum possible take-off mass with one

engine inoperative.
The mass shall not exceed the maximum emergency landing mass (without
jettison).
Check Answer

130

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the take-off mass of an aeroplane?

Marks: --/1

It shall be such that the aeroplane can be safely stopped on the runway in the event
of a failure of the critical engine on the take-off run.
It must not exceed the flight manual maximum calculations for the specified
conditions.
It shall be such that at the destination it shall be not less than the landing mass
It must be calculated in accordance with noise abatement criteria whatever the
conditions.
Check Answer

131

Whilst flying a turbo-jet aeroplane how much holding fuel must be carried when planning to fly to a

Marks: --/1

destination with an alternate?

45 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
30 minutes at 1,500ft above the destination
30 minutes at 1,500ft above the alternate in standard temperature conditions.
30 minutes at 1,500ft above the alternate plus 15% of flight time at normal cruise
consumption.
Check Answer

132

Who accepts the MEL?

Marks: --/1

The state of the designers.

The state of the operator.
The state of the manufacturers.
The state where the flight takes place.
Check Answer

133
Marks: --/1

Who checks before flight that the aircraft's mass is such that the flight can be safely made and that any
transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
The aeroplane commander.
The operator.
The mechanic on board or in his absence the co-pilot.
The company's cargo technicians.
Check Answer

134

Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?

Marks: --/1

The operator and in the Flight Manual.

The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual.

The operator and in the Operations Manual.

The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual.
Check Answer

135

Who has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?

Marks: --/1

State of Registration.
Operator
State of the operator.
Pilot in Command (P.I.C.)
Check Answer

136

Who is required to raise a report concerning violations of rules and regulations by an aircraft?

Marks: --/1

The Operator.
The Authority of the State of Registration.
The Air Traffic Controller concerned.
The Pilot in Command
Check Answer

137

Who is responsible for checking that an aircraft's load is properly distributed and secured before flight?

Marks: --/1

Cargo loader.
The pilot-in-command
Mechanic or co-pilot in his absence.
Operator.
Check Answer

138

Who is responsible for compiling the MEL?

Marks: --/1

The authority of the State of Registration.

The Authority of the State of manufacture.
The Operator.
The aeroplane manufacturer.
Check Answer

139

Who is responsible for completing the journey logbook?

Marks: --/1

A qualified crewmember.
A pilot.
Any member of the flight crew.
The Pilot in Command.
Check Answer

140

Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight ?

140

Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight ?

Marks: --/1

The Pilot in Command

The State of the Operator
The Operator
The Senior Maintenance Manager
Check Answer

141
Marks: --/1

Who is responsible for ensuring that the passengers are informed about items of safety equipment
designed for collective use?
The First Officer.
The flight attendants.
The Pilot in Command.
The Operator.
Check Answer

142

Who is responsible for obtaining an appropriate clearance before initiating changes to a flight plan?

Marks: --/1

The Operator
The pilot in command.
The Air Traffic Controller
The first officer.
Check Answer

143

Who is responsible for operational control?

Marks: --/1

The Authority of the State of Registration.

The Commander.
The Operator or his nominated representative.
The ramp supervisor.
Check Answer

144
Marks: --/1

Who is responsible for the provision of additional aeroplane information in the event of a SAR incident
involving the aeroplane?
The aeroplane manufacturer.
The Air Traffic Control centre in the FIR of departure
The Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher.
The Pilot in Command
Check Answer

145

Who is the operator to provide an Operations Manual for?

Marks: --/1

For the Authority.

Operations staff.

All company personnel.

Only for flight crew
Check Answer

146

Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?

Marks: --/1

The Operator.
The State of Registration.
The Pilot in Command.
The Authority.
Check Answer

147

Who issues and updates the MEL?

Marks: --/1

The authority.
The manufacturer.
The designer.
The operator.
Check Answer

148
Marks: --/1

Who must be informed in addition to the State in which the aircraft is operating when an aircraft has been
subjected to unlawful interference ?
JAA
State of Manufacture
The State of Design
The State of the Operator
Check Answer

149
Marks: --/1

Who must ensure that any given aircraft malfunction complies with the MEL and therefore allows the aircraft
to fly?
The pilot in command
The operator.
The flight engineer or the on board mechanic if present.
A representative of the company that owns the aircraft.
Check Answer

150
Marks: --/1

Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the amendments to keep it up to
date?
Owner of aircraft.
Aircraft operator.
ATS authority of the state of registry.
Aircraft manufacturer.

Check Answer

151

Why is there a need for a Minimum Equipment List?

Marks: --/1

To enable minor defects to be ignored thus allowing the aircraft to be flown.

So that a flight may be despatched with unserviceable instruments systems or
equipment
To prevent a failure in one system having a `knock-on' effect to other systems.
The systems of the aircraft are so complex therefore the PIC needs a reference
document to ascertain the effect of unserviceabilities
Check Answer

152

With regard to the law of a country in which operations are being conducted Operators are responsible for:

Marks: --/1

Advising ICAO that compliance with national law is not possible.

Ensuring that where National Law is at variance with ICAO procedures the
Operations Manual contains details of notified differences.
Ensuring that all employees know they must comply with the law of that country.
Ensuring that the Authority of that state is advised that where applicable the
operator's employees would not be complying with national law.
Check Answer

153
Marks: --/1

You are flying in accordance with ICAO Annex 6 and you took a pilot proficiency test in early January. The
training captain details you for a similar test in May would this sufficient to qualify as a separate test?
Yes because it will be a minimum of four months since your last test.
Yes the only requirement is for 2 tests a year.
No to be valid there must be 6 months between tests.
Yes as a JAR operator ICAO Annex 6 requirements do not apply.
Check Answer

154
Marks: --/1

You are planning a commercial air transport flight in an aircraft with two engines. What is the maximum
distance from the aerodrome of departure that a take off alternate is permitted to be to cater for the case of
an engine failure shortly after take off?
2 hours flying time at the one engine out cruising speed.
100nm.
1 hour's flying time at the one engine out cruising speed
193km.
Check Answer

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