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Final Dms 2010 Finish
Final Dms 2010 Finish
Final Dms 2010 Finish
Question 1-3
Mr Maesaroh,68 y/o ,LBP,PE=Kyphotic posture and there are no
signs of inflammation ,infecton and trauma.
1.According to Kapadji,their purpose of anterior and posterior
spine at physiologic curves is
A. Stabilize the linear ligament.
B.Protect the spinal cord and spine nerve
C.Support the weight of the body superior to the level of the pelvis
D.Increace vertebrae collumn resistence to axial compression
E.Posture and Locomotion
2.Pain increase in standing,sitting,walking.In standing position,the
lumbar spine is normally in a position of lordoisis.In the erect
sitting position:
A.The lumbar curve (LC) increase, pelvis and sacrum rotated to
anterior
B.The lumbar curve (LC) decrease,pelvis and sacrum rotated to
posterior
c.The lumbar curve (LC) increase,pelvis n sacrum rotate to
posterior
d.LC decrease ,pelvis n sacrum rotate to anterior
e.LC stable,pelvis n sacrum rotate to posterior
3.She often does washing and cleaning activities in crooked
position.When normal subject stands n slowly reflexes the trunk,a
lateral view of the spinous process of the thorcic area reveals:
A.A folding of posterior convexity without flat areas or
angulation.
b.A folding of a posterior convexity with flattened areas or
angulation.
c.an unfolding of posterior convexity without flat areas or
angulation.
d.an unfolding of a posterior convexity with flat areas or
angulation.
e.an unfolding of a posterior convexity n folding of anterior
convexity.
4. She does often washing & cleaning activities in crooked position.
What is the function of Rectus Abdominis & Psoas major.?
A.trunk flexion
B.trunk extension
C. trunk lateral bending
D.trunk rotation
E. trunk stabilization
10) Shes been notified not to bend her knee / do any kind of
activities in beding knee position. How much the force within the
knee joint while standing in flexion position (according to
Schmidt)?
a) Force increase 0.8 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
b) Force increase 1.2 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
c) Force increase 1.8 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
d) Force increase 2.2 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
e) Force increase 2.6 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
11.
12.
13.
7. Another angle occuring in the femur is called the angle of anteversion which is in the range from?
A. 10-12
B. 10-15
C. 11-12
D. 12-14
E. 13-15
8. Mr. Suhendar, 25 years old is suffering with ankylosing
spondylitis. His major problem beside the lower back pain and back
stiffness is the Sacro-Iliac Joint Arthritis. According to Kapandji, the
motion of sacro-iliac joint is:
A. Up & down gliding
B. Anterior & posterior movement of ilia
C. Anterior & posterior movement ofsacrum
D. Nutation & counter nutation
E. Rotation at range 2-8
Question 9 10
Mrs. Maesaroh 65 y/o suffered with right knee OA, had been
underwent physiotherapy treatment and did quadriceps
strengthening exercise
9)The purpose of patella to enhance quadriceps strength in
extension by
B.
C.
D.
E.
14.
15.
B.
C.
D.
E.
20.
16.
For 17-18
A 55 y.o man have skin nodule in face head. This nodule small,
firm, with have central cores from white keratinous material.
Microscopic feature is characteristic with round eosinophilic bodies
in the nuclei of keratinocytes.
17.
18.
c. Pharyngeal arch 3
d. Pharyngeal arch 4
e. Pharyngeal arch 5
32. Cleft lip and cleft palate are distinct malformations based on
their embryological formation, even though they often occur
together.
d. Maxillary prominences
e. mandibular prominence
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Ankyloglossia
Anterior cleft palate
Posterior cleft palate
Thyroglossal duct cyst
Unilateral cleft lip
34. The development of the palate from the primary and secondary
palate fuse at the incisive foramen to form definitive palate.
Which of the following is secondary palate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Mandibulary prominence
Philtrum of the lip
Palatine shelves
Palatine raphe
Intermaxillary segment
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
d.
e.
39. The tympanic cavity contains three ossicles of the middle ear,
malleus, incus, stapes, tympanic membrane and auditory tube.
Which of the following statements is the most likely the tympanic
cavity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
It is of mesodermal origin
It developes from the tubotympanic recess
The malleus and incus develops from pharyngeal arch
2
The stapes develops from pharyngeal arch 1
It communicates with the cochlear duct
43. The mesodermal swelling median tongue bud and distal tongue
buds develop in the floor of the pharynx at pharyngeal arch 1 and
the distal tongue buds overgrow the median tongue bud and fuse
in the midline, forming the oral part of the tongue and innervation
by cranial nerve. Which CN in specially taste sensation from oral
part of tongue?
A. V
B. VII
C. IX
D. X
E. XII
Question 44-47
You are second year medical student in traumatology emergency
room. You are introducing to mr.dudi, 35 yo with multiple injuries
due to a bar fight. The police brought him to emergency
department in a bad general condition with impaired
consciousness.
44. what mr. dodi suffered?
a. mild head injury
b. concussion
c. contusion
d. axonal shearing lesion
e. epidural hematoma
a. Microcephaly
b. Oxycephaly
c. Plagiocephaly
d. Scapocephay
e. Acrocephaly
41. Which of the following is most likely results from fusion and
shortening of cervical vertebrae?
A. Spina bifida
B. Klippel Feil Syndrome
C. Achondroplasia
D. Scapocephaly
E. Treacher Collins Syndrome
42. The skeletal muscle derived from paraxial mesoderm, which
gives rise to somites and somitomeres. Which is most likely gives
rise to flexor muscle of neck and vertebral column and intercostal
muscles?
A. cervical somites C3-C5
B. occipital somites
C. Epimere
D. Hypomere
E. Preotic somites
e. propionibacterium sp
52. what is the mechanism of action of the treatment given by the
doctor?
a. antiseptic
b. comedolytic
c. antimicrobial
d. antiandrogen
e. decrease the sebum production
For question number 53 to 54, refer to scenario below:
a 6-year-old child was taken by his mother to a primary health care
with chief complain of painful pustules on the scalp and face since
3 days ago. The dermatological status revealed skin lesions with
regional distribution, on the frontal area of the scalp and
forehead,presented as 5 numbers of pustules.
53. what was the laboratory examination needed to confirm the
diagnosis in this patient?
a. Tzanck smear
b. Gram stain smear
c. KOH examination
d. Ziehl Nielsen examination
e. Wet mount preparation with NaCl
a. tinea corporis
b. herpes zoster
c. psoriasis vulgaris
d. nummular dermatitis
e. seborrheic dermatitis
56. the doctor concluded that there was a disorder of keratinocyte
differentiation in this case. Which part of the epidermis had an
active mitosis?
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
57. the doctor concluded that there was a disorder of keratinocyte
differentiation in this case. What is the normal transit time for a
basal cell, from the time it loses contact with basal layer to the
time it enters the stratum corneum?
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 28 days
d. 36 days
e. 46 days
For question number 58 to 60, refer to scenario below:
54. which skin structure listed below was most possible involved fo
the patients skin disorder?
a. hair follicle
b. eccrine glands
c. sebaceous unit
d. spinous layer of epidermis
e. granular layer of epidermis
d.Actin
e.ATP
A.Troponin
b.Tropomyosin
c.Myosin
96. A 13yo junior high school student complained about pain and
swelling at her right ankle joint after fell down during sport activity
at her school. She was still able to walk, but painfully.
What is the most common mechanism of this injury?
a.inversion type twist
b.eversion type twist
c.pronation type twist
d.supination type twist
e.extension type twist
97. Which of the following is the most appropriate radiological
exam at minimum requirement to rule out concomitant fracture of
this condition?
a.AP projection of the ankle joint
b.Lateral projection of the ankle joint
c.AP and lateral projection of the ankle joint
d.AP, lateral, and mortice projection of the ankle joint
e.AP, lateral, and tangential projection of the anklejoint
98. How long is the most sufficient period of immobilization as a
treatment for this condition?
a.1 week
b.2 week
c.3 week
d.4 week
e.5 week
99.which of the following is the most common predisposing factor
of this condition
a. lack of positioning
b. lack of strengthening
c. lack of stretching
d. lack of conditioning
100.A 9 yo boy came to a dentist for a routine dental exam and
possible cause of the caries. What bac causes this
a.streptococcus haemolyticus
b.streptococcus mutants
c. staphylococcus epidermidis
d.staphylococcus areus
e. staphylococcus haemolyticus
101. Some bacteria produce an internal structure known as
endospore. This structure is produce by the vegetative cells by
process called sporogenesis. WOTF are the most likely bacteria
produce such structure
a. Mycobacterium tubercolusis
d. Diphteroid
b. Chlamydia trachomatic
e. Propionibacterium
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Clostridium tetani
105. These bacteria are normal flora of the skin and mucous
membrane, but sometimes they may produce serious disease such
as endocarditis. What bacteria most likely cause such disease?
e. Proteus vulgaris
a. Propionibacterium
102. A 32-years old man suffered from abscess formation of the oil
secreting gland of the upper right eyelid for two days. The most
common cause of this disease is
b. Alfa streptococcus
a. Propionibacterium acne
d. Micrococcus
b. Haemophilus aegypticus
e. Diphteroid
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Corynebacterium sp
e. Candida albicans
103. The skin and the mucous membrane always harbor some
microorganism, some of them are the resident flora, a relatively
fixed type of microorganism regularly found in the area. WOTF
organism not fit to that category
c. Peptostreptococcus
a. Mefenamic acid
a. Staphylococcus sp
b. Phenylbutazon
b. Streptococcus sp
c. Acetosal
c. Propionibacterium
d. Meloxicam
d. Mycobacterium
e. Methampiron
e. Diphteroid
104. Most of normal flora of the skin are gram (+) bacteria, but
some are gram (-). WOTF organism fit into the second category
a. Staphylococcus sp
Abdomen is the side effect of drug that he took for relieving his
b. Staphylococcus sp
What is the most likely drug that taken by the patient and causes
c. Staphylococcus sp
a.
Mefenamic acid
b.
c.
d.
e.
Paracetamol
Acetosal
Celecoxib
Fenoprofen
Phenylbutazon
Salicylic acid
Indomethazin
Paracetamol
Na-diclofenac
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
d. Sodium
e. Calcium
110. Frequently vasocontrictors are combined with local anasthetic
to delay absorption of the anesthetic from its injection site.
What is the most widely employed agent?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Dopamin
Phenylephrine
Levonordephrine
Coccaine
Epinephrine
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
S.s.d.d.applic
S.b.d.d.applic
S.t.d.d.applic
S.q.d.d.applic
S.d.i.d.applic
-keratin
collagen
elastin
hyaluronic acid
myosin
actin
126. The terms thick and thin refer to the relative thickness of the:
A. Entire integument
B. Cutaneous and subcutaneous layers
C. Epidermis only
D. Dermis only
127. which of the following makes no significant contribution of
skin color?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Keratin
C. Melanin
D. Carotene
E. Vitamin A
10
133.
D.
E.
134.
Keratin
Elastin
137.
138.
C.
D.
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e. interstitial growth
146. a typical bone has which of the following major sets of blood
vessels?
a. primary,secondary, and tertiary
b. haversian, volkmanns and connecting
c. epiphyseal, metaphyseal and diaphyseal
d. nutrient, metaphyseal and periosteal
e. arterail, venous, capillary
147. Which of the following thyroid gland hormone encourages ca
dispersion into bone and inhibits osteoclast activity?
a. growth hormone
b. somatostatin
c. calcitonin
d. thyroid hormone
e. calcium
A .Plantar joint
B.Suture
C.synovial joint
D symphysis
E syndstosis
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C.
D.
E.
Proliferation phase
Remodelling phase
Maturation phase
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D.
E.
Scaphoid
Calcaneus
a. glenohumeral ligaments
b. acromioclavicular ligament
d. coracoclavicular ligaments
A. Axillary nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Radial nerve
E. Ulnar nerve
192. A 24-year-old man is noted to have a midshaft humeral
fracture after falling from a scaffold.Which of the is the following
muscle tests would you perform to test the integrity of the radial
nerve?
a. axillary nerve
e. coracohumeral ligaments
199) Your patient with hip dislocation is also exhibiting weakness
of extension of the thigh at the hip joint. This would indicate
possible damage to the :
b. musculocutaneous nerve
A.flexion of forearm at elbow joint
A. Femoral nerve
c. vagus nerve
B. Obturator nerve
d. radial nerve
E. Saphenous nerve
200) Your patient has the ankle joint injury. You concerned that
your patients medial deltoid ligament may have been torn from its
proximal attachment.
Which of the following would you palpate for tenderness ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The calcaneus
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