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MBLEx Study Questions Exam 1
MBLEx Study Questions Exam 1
MBLEx Study Questions Exam 1
25. Which muscle flexes the elbow, supinates the forearm, and flexes the shoulder?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Deltoid
C. Trapezius
D. Biceps brachii
26. Which muscle originates at the posterior iliac crest?
A. Deltoid
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
D. Quadratus lumborum
27. Which muscle of the right forearm would be used to turn a screwdriver clockwise?
A. Brachialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Supinator
D. Gluteus minimus
28. Which muscle extends and laterally rotates the hip, and flexes the knee?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Biceps femoris
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Palmaris longus
29. What type of contraction occurs when one lowers a book onto a table?
A. Concentric
B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Eccentric
D. Isometric
30. Which muscle would predominantly have fast twitch fibers?
A. Erector spinae
B. Soleus
C. Deltoid
D. Transversospinalis
31. What happens in an isotonic muscle contraction?
A. The length of the muscle changes
B. The length of the muscle does not change
C. The muscle lengthens but does not shorten
D. The muscle shortens but does not lengthen
32. Which is a ball and socket joint?
A. Hip
B. Thumb
C. Knee
D. Elbow
33. What is inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon?
A. Tenosynovitis
B. Mitosis
C. Fibrosis
D. Edema
34. What is a congenital disease?
A. A disease that deteriorates
B. A disease spread by mold or yeast
C. A disease with no known cause
D. A disease present at birth
35. What refers to a disease of short duration?
A. Malignant
B. Chronic
C. Acute
D. Metastatic
36. What is the expected outcome of a disease?
A. Diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Pathology
D. Etiology
37. What refers to the decreasing size of tissue?
A. Atrophy
B. Entrainment
C. Hypertrophy
D. Ambulatory
51. If a client is functioning from parasympathetic nervous system dominance, what would be an appropriate initial stroke?
A. Gentle rocking
B. Kneading
C. Brisk effleurage
D. Tapotement
52. What is the external application of cold for therapeutic purposes?
A. Hydrotherapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Thermotherapy
D. Hunting response
53. What is the R.I.C.E.S. First Aid principle?
A. Rest, Immersion, Compression, Elevation and Sponging
B. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, and Stabilization
C. Rest, Ice, Compression, Energy and Sponging
D. Resistance, Immersion, Contrasting, Elevation and Sponging
54. What is the maximum temperature that the skin can tolerate for a hot bath?
A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0 degrees Celsius
B. 77 degrees Fahrenheit or 25 degrees Celsius
C. 115 degrees Fahrenheit or 46 degrees Celsius
D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit or 60 degrees Celsius
55. Which is the best transition stroke?
A. Friction
B. Tapotement
C. Petrissage
D. Effleurage
56. Which reduces scar tissue?
A. Kneading
B. Gliding
C. Cross fiber friction
D. Cupping
57. What is a physical effect of massage?
A. Relieves muscle cramps and spasms
B. Improves circulation of blood and lymph
C. Enhances removal of metabolic waste
D. All of the above
58. What is a direct physical effect of massage?
A. Reflexive effect
B. Mechanical effect
C. Psychological effect
D. All of the above
59. What is an effect of massage on the skin?
A. Reddening and warming of skin
B. Decreased activity of sweat and oil glands
C. Decreased circulation to the skin
D. All of the above
60. What has beneficial effects similar to exercise?
A. Active joint movements
B. Passive joint movements
C. Friction
D. Effleurage
61. What stimulates the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Pre-event sports massage
B. 15-minute chair massage
C. Short, invigorating massage
D. All of the above
62. Which stroke is generally applied first?
A. Vibration
B. Superficial gliding
C. Percussion
D. Friction
63. Which stroke is appropriate for treating a baseball pitcher with a sore arm?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
C. Cross-fiber friction
D. Percussion
64. Which stroke is not a type of friction?
A. Transverse
B. Cross fiber
C. Cupping
D. Circular
65. Which stretching technique has the client stretch into resistance and apply light contraction?
A. Ballistic stretching
B. Unassisted static stretching
C. Assisted static stretching
D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI)
66. What technique on the leg would create mobility at the hip joint?
A. Effleurage
B. Rocking
C. Reiki
D. Gliding
67. Which stroke would be best for a ticklish client?
A. Light effleurage
B. Nerve strokes
C. Feather strokes
D. Compression
68. Which is not advisable for pregnancy massage in the second and third trimesters?
A. Light effleurage
B. Lying prone
C. Side-lying position
D. Supine position
69. What is initially induced by cryotherapy?
A. Vasodilation
B. Rest
C. Diathermy
D. Vasoconstriction
70. What is appropriate for a client with chronic constipation?
A. Stimulate peristaltic contraction of the large intestine
B. Prescribe herbal remedies
C. Reschedule the massage
D. Perform the massage but avoid the abdomen
71. If a client has a forward head position, what is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Lengthen and stretch SCM and anterior scalene
B. Lengthen and stretch upper trapezius and splenius
C. Lengthen and stretch adductors and iliotibial tract
D. Shorten erector spinae
72. If a client has toeing out when walking, what is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Stretch the metatarsophalangeal joints
B. Stretch the plantar flexor muscles
C. Stretch the biceps femoris
D. Stretch the latissimus dorsi
73. What is done if a client has thoracic outlet syndrome?
A. Lengthen serratus anterior and soleus
B. Lengthen latissimus dorsi and teres major
C. Lengthen scalenes, SCMs, pecs, and neck extensors
D. Lengthen biceps and triceps brachii
74. What would trigger points along the psoas, quadratus lumborum, and hamstrings contribute to?
A. Brachial plexus impingement
B. Sciatica
C. Tension headaches
D. Low back pain
75. Where on the SOAP chart are referrals documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
102. What are lines that separate, limits, barriers, borders, and edges?
A. Informed consent
B. Boundaries
C. Medical advice
D. None of the above
103. What is needed before working on a minor?
A. Psychological counseling
B. Parental consent
C. Contract
D. None of the above
104. What is name-dropping?
A. Confidentiality violation
B. Practicing beyond scope of practice
C. Violation of law
D. None of the above
105. What is appropriate for a therapist to do when seeing a client in a public place?
A. Ask how the last massage was
B. Do not bring up anything about the massage
C. Ask when the therapist can expect payment
D. None of the above
106. What is appropriate when a client says they are going to stop taking their prescription medication now?
A. Suggest the client discuss it with their primary care provider
B. Tell the client it is OK to stop taking the medication
C. Answer A and B are correct
D. None of the above
107. Massaging a family member involves what type of issue?
A. Financial impropriety
B. Scope of practice
C. Dual relationship
D. None of the above
108. Who licenses?
A. The government
B. Associations
C. Answer A and B are correct
D. None of the above
109. Guidance on which topic is typically not found in a code of ethics?
A. Client relationships
B. Professionalism
C. Tax
D. Scope of practice
110. What is appropriate for the therapist to discuss with the client?
A. Finances
B. Gossip
C. Personal issues
D. That the therapist has a cold
111. What is the most appropriate response if a client asks to be touched in a sexual manner?
A. Act as if nothing happened
B. Call 911
C. Remain professional and explain the services
D. Provide a referral
112. What is inappropriate activity during a massage session that would be considered misconduct
involving sexual contact?
A. Touching breasts for nontherapeutic purposes
B. Intercourse
C. Both A and B are correct
D. None of the above
113. A therapist having discomfort in what area would indicate the massage table is probably too high?
A. Upper back
B. Arms
C. Shoulders
D. All of the above