اسئلة اختبارات البرومترك للصيدلة PDF

.
-------------------------------------------------------------------
1- Ondansetron HCL is used for :
a- Hypertension
b- Angina pectoris
c- Prophylaxis of migrain
d- Anti-emetic*
-------------------------------------------------------------------
2- All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except :
a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- optic neuritis
c- peripheral neuritis
* d- iron deficiency anemia
------------------------------------------------------------------- Ticlopidine
3- Ticlopidine is used for :
a- Anticoagulant
b- Antibiotic
c- anticholinergic
* d- Antiplatelets
------------------------------------------------------------------- fibrinolytic
4 All these drugs are fibrinolytic except :
*a- Dipyridamole
b- Steptokinase
c- urikinase
-------------------------------------------------------------------
5 All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
C- Cytabrin
d- Azothioprine
*e- Cyclophosphamide

:
6- All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except :
a- Selgitine HCL
b- Carbidopa
c- Pergolide
*d- Nedocromil Sod
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
7- all These cases not cure with thiazides except :
*a- Hypernatrimia
b- hyperglycemia
c- Hypokalaemia
d- hyperuricaemia
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
8 Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except
a- Ephedrine
b- Ledocaine
*c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline
-------------------------------------------------------------------: .I.V
9 Insulin which can be given I.V. is :
*a- Regular type
b- 30/70 type
c- NPH type
d- Non of the above
-------------------------------------------------------------------
10 Drug is used for Leishmania :
*a- Sod. Stiboglyconate
b- Sod. Cromoglyconate
c- Mebendazole
-------------------------------------------------------------------
11 All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :
*a- Zalcitabine
b-Lomefloxacin
c- Cefprazone
-------------------------------------------------------------------2

12 All These are natural Estrogens except :
*a- Mestronol
b- Oestrone
c- Oestriol
d- Oestradiol
------------------------------------------------------------------- Trimethoxazole
13 Co-Trimethoxazole contains ;
Trimethopirm + Sulphmethoxazole
-------------------------------------------------------------------
14 Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :
a- Nicotine
b- Cholestyramin
c- urikinase
d- Vit. A
-------------------------------------------------------------------
15 One of the following is not from Quinolone group :
a- Nalidixic aci
b- Quinine
c- Eoxacin
d- Norfloxacin
-------------------------------------------------------------------
16 One of the following is not for Epilepsy :
a- Clorizepam
b- Phenytoin
c- Primidone
d- Imipramine
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
17 All of these can be used for Leprosy except :
a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazinine
*d- INH
--------------------------------------------------------------------
:
18 Sumatriptan is used for :
a- Hypertension
* b- Treatment of migraine
c- Angina Pectoris
d- Control of Epilepsy
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
19 Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :
*a- Rifampcin
b- Cimetidine
c- Chloramphenicol
d- Vit. C
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
20 All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :
a- Ketotifen
b- Nedocromil Sod.
c- Sod. Cromoglycate
*d- Salbutamol
-------------------------------------------------------------------] [NSAH
:
21 All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating
antihistamine ] except :
a- Loratidine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astemizol
*d- Azotodin
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
22 All of the following are controlled drugs except :
a- Rivotril
*b- Epanutin
c- Sresolid
d- Diazepam
-------------------------------------------------------------------
: 23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :

a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
*d- Aluerin [ anti-spasmodic ]
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
24 Which one of the symptoms does not occur with
morphine :
* a- Diarrhea
b- Respiratory depression
c- Constipation
d- Vomiting
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
25 Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :
a- Naproxen
b- Colchicine
c- Codeine
*d- Prednisolone
-------------------------------------------------------------------
Myxodema
26 Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for
Myxodema
a- Carbimazole
b- iodine
*c- thyroxin sod
d- propyl thiouracil
-------------------------------------------------------------------
27 Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for Acne Vulgaris
-------------------------------------------------------------------28 Vit. A daily dose is 30,000 - 50,000 IU for the correction
of
deficiency and for therapy from 100,000 - 200,000 IU /
daily
:
29- The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae :
a- Chloramphenicol
b- Tetracycline
c- Gentamycin
*d- Metronidazole
-------------------------------------------------------------------
:
30 To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use :
a- Water
b- Salt Sol.
c- Saline
*d- Charcoal
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
31 Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :
a- Once / year
b- Twice / Year
*c- Three times / Year
-------------------------------------------------------------------: OTC
32 Which one is OTC drug :
* a- Simple analgesic
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin
-------------------------------------------------------------------
:
33 Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :
a- Rifampcin
b- Aspirin
*c- Vit. K
d- Verapamil
-------------------------------------------------------------------
34 One of the following is given once daily
a- Amorphous Insulin
*b- Protamine Zinc Insulin
c- Neutral insulin
d- Regular Insulin
------------------------------------------------------------------- .conc
:
35 The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma
depends on :
a- Direct proportion to the rate of administration
b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration
c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination
*d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination

-------------------------------------------------------------------:
36 All these are Anti-Coagulants except :
a- Warfarin
b- Ancord
c- Heparin
*d- Dipyridamol
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
37 All these are Anti-Platelets except :
a- Dipyridamo
b- Aspirin
*c- Streptokinase
d- Presantin
e- Ticlopidine
-------------------------------------------------------------------
38 Ferrograde is :
* a- Ferrous Sulphate
b- Ferrous Citrate
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Ferrous Fumarate
-------------------------------------------------------------------
39 Procainamide is :
a- Ca channel blocker
b- Nifedipine
c- Lisinopril
*d- Qunidine
------------------------------------------------------------------- .
40 What is the mechanism of action of Vit. K ?
Vit. K has an essential role in the synthesis of coagulation
factors by hepatic cells.
.

-------------------------------------------------------------------:
41 Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :
a- Hypokalamia
b- Hypercalcemia
c- Hyperuricamia
d- Hyponatrimia
e- Hyperglycemia
*f- Hypernatremia
-------------------------------------------------------------------
:
42 Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on
except :
a- Type of medication
b- Period of medication
* c- Patient sex
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
43 Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :
a- Kidney
b- Liver
* c- Both
d- None of the above
-------------------------------------------------------------------: .I.V Dobutamine
44 Dobutamine is given I.V. because :
*a- It is not stable in the gastric PH

b- It is needed in large quantities in case of oral route
c- It is eliminated very quickly
-------------------------------------------------------------------: trimetren Amilorid

45- Amilorid as trimetren causes :
a- CNS disturbance
*b- Hyperkalamia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]
-------------------------------------------------------------------
) OTC (
46- What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given
OTC ?
a- Captopril
*b- Warfarin
c- Chlorothiazide
d- Rifampcin
-------------------------------------------------------------------
47- Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse
* a- True
b- false
-------------------------------------------------------------------
48- Mention two Thiazide diuretics ?
1- Chlorothiazide 2- Hydrochlorothiazide
-------------------------------------------------------------------
49- What is the difference between QID & Q6H ?
4 QID = 4 times / day
6 Q6H = every after 6 hours
-------------------------------------------------------------------
50 What is the difference between the following antifungal ?
Miconazole = local & systemic
Amphotercin = parenteral only
Griseofulvin = oral
--------------------------------------------------------------------
:
51 Give the indication of the following drugs :
1- Gimfibrazole for hyperlipidaemia
2- Cisapride for gastro-oesophegyal reflux
3- Fluoxetin SSRI [ selective serotonin reuptake inh.]
( Antidepressant )
4- Carbimazole for hyperthyrodism
5- Imipramine Tricyclic anti-depressant
6- Ipratropium Br. Anti muscarinic as broncho-dilator
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
52 All are anti-metabolic except :
a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
c- Cytabrin
d- Azothiopin
*e- Cyclophosphamide
-------------------------------------------------------------------
53 Cefaclor is :
a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin
*b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin 2ND
c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin
d- None of the above
-------------------------------------------------------------------

54 Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?
a- Gentamycin
*b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin
--------------------------------------------------------------------
10
Teicoplanin
:
55 Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram
positive as :
*a- Vancomycin
b- Jamicacin
c- Gentamycin
d- Kanamycin
-------------------------------------------------------------------
56 Which one is not Tetracycline ?
a- Minocycline
b- Demeclocycline
c- Doxycycline
*d- Clindamycin
-------------------------------------------------------------------
57 Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?
a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
*d- Cinnarzine
------------------------------------------------------------------- Mesalazine
58- Mesalazine is used for the treatment & maintenance of
remission
of Ulcerative Colitis
------------------------------------------------------------------- 4
59- Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?

Vit. A, D ,E & K
-------------------------------------------------------------------60- Imipenam [ Carbapenam ]
It is the first Thiemamycin Beta - Lactam anti-biotic
-- Thiemamycin
11
.T.B
:
61- All These medications are used in treating T.B. except :
*a- Cyclosporin
b- INH
c- Cycloserin
d- Rifampcin
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
62- All These drugs are anti-cholinergic except :
a- Iprotropium
b- Atropine Sulphate
c- Benzatropine Methylate
*d- Dobutamin
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
63- All Of These are antibiotics except :
*a- Zalcitabin
b- Cefaprozil
c- loefloxacin
d- Cefopodoxin
-------------------------------------------------------------------
:
64- There is one drug is used for HIV :
*a- Zalcitabin
b- Kinasterdin
c- Cefaprozil
d- Enoxacin
-------------------------------------------------------------------Suprax
65- Which one is Suprax ?
*a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole
-------------------------------------------------------------------Sporanox
66- Which one is Sporanox ?
a- Cefixime
*b- Itraconazole
--------------------------------------------------------------------
12

67- All of These can be used in treating leprosy except :
a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazimine
*d- INH
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
68- One of these is not like the others :
a-Timolol Non selective
*b- Acebutalol Selective Beta Blocker
Acebutalol
c- Labetolol Non selective

d- Betaxolol Non selective
----------------------------------------------------------------
69- Which is not Aminoglycoside ?
a- Netilimicin
b- Tobramycin
c- Kanamycin
*d- Lymecyclin
-------------------------------------------------------------------
70- Betahistine HCL
Mieniere* a- For Mieniere disease
b- Antihistamine
c- Analgesic
d- a & b
------------------------------------------------------------------- HT35
71- Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist ?
a- Tropisetron
b- Ondansetron
*c- Domperidone [ Motilium ]
d- Granisetron
--------------------------------------------------------------------
13

72 Which is not oral anti-coagulant ?
a- Warfarin
*b- Enoxaprine
c- Phenidione
d- Nicoumolone

73 Which is correct ? Diazepam
a- Can cause muscle spasm
b- Is taken I.M. only
c- Is derivative from Morphine
*d- Is not used for long term

------------------------------------------------------------------- / 4
74 Maximum dose of Paracetamol is 4 Gm / day
-------------------------------------------------------------------: .T.B
75 The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is :
a- One week
b- Two months
c- One month
*d- 6 months
-------------------------------------------------------------------
] . V.C[
]CTZ[
76 Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist
acts centrally by blocking Vomiting Center [ V.C. ] and
peripherally acts on the Chemo-Receptor Trigger Zone [
CTZ ]
to be used as anti-emetic.
.
-------------------------------------------------
14
:
77 Which one is contra-indicated in pregnancy :
a- Sucralfate
b- Ethambutol
c- Chlorphenramine
*d- Ciprofloxacin
-------------------------------------------------------------------
78 What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug ?
Is the quantity of the active constituent of the drug
absorbed by the blood through the intestine or any other
route in a certain period of time .
OR : It is the conc. of the drug in the blood in a certain
period of time

.
.conc :

------------------------------------------------ .
79 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Hepatotoxicity ?
1- Paracetamol
2- Ketoconazol
3- Rifampcin
4- Quinolones
------------------------------------------------------------------- .
80 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Nephrotoxicity ?
Aminoglycosides as Gentamycin
-------------------------------------------------------------------
81 Give the anti-dote for each of the following :

a- Heparin Protamine Sulphate
b- Paracetamol Acetyl cystine
c- Warfarin Vit. K
d- Morphine Naloxone
--------------------------------------------------------------------
15
B12
82 What is the generic name of Vit. B 12 ?
Cyanocobolamine
-------------------------------------------------------------------
83 Zidovudine is used for HIV
--------------------------------------------------------------------

84 What is the meaning of poor patient compliance ?
The patient did not take the medication properly [ not
proper
dose, not proper time ] may be due to the dose regimen is
not
easy or the dose is high, or the side effects is clear
[
]

------------------------------------------------
85 Fluxotine is :
Prozac is selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor

-------------------------------------------------------------------
86 Omeprazole is
Losec is a proton pump inhibitor
Losec
---------------------------------------------------------

87 Mention two diseases cause Edema ?
1- Renal Failure
2- Congestive Heart failure
--------------------------------------------------------------------
16
--
88 Give examples of drug - drug interactions ?
1- Warfarin Aspirin
2- Insulin B-Blockers
3- Heparin Aspirin & Ampicillin
4- Warfarin Vit. K
5- Warfarin Phenobarbital
6- Spironolactone Digoxin
7- ACEI Pot. Sparing diuretics
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
89 Generic name of :
a-Vit. B1 Thiamine
b-Vit. B2 Riboflavin
c-Vit. B6 Pyridoxin
d-Vit. B12 Cyanocobolamine
-------------------------------------------------------------------
:
90 All of these are the components of Calamine lotion B.P.
except :
a- ZnO
b- calamine
c- Sod. Citrate
d- Bentonite
*e- Sod. Sulphate
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
91 Terbinafine is used topically for :
a- Eczema
b- Candida
* c- Fungal infections
-------------------------------------------------------------------
92 Which one is not contra-indicated in pregnancy ?
a- Captopril
b- Enalpril
17
c- Lisinopril
*d- Methyldopa
-------------------------------------------------------------------] [
93 PCP [ Pneumocystis Corini Pneumonia ]
a- Virus
b- Bacteria
*c- Parasite
d- Mycobacterum
--------------------------------------------------------------------

94 Which of the following is not antibiotic ?
a- Erythromycin
b- Cefprozil
c- Ceprodoxin
*d- Finasteride
-------------------------------------------------------------------
95 Which one is used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
[ BPHP ]
a- Flumazenil
b- Cefprozil
c- Mivacurim
*d- Finasteride
-------------------------------------------------------------------
96 All of these are third generation Cephalosporin except :
a- Cefixime
*b- Cefopodoxime
c- Ceftriaxone
d- Cefotaxime
-------------------------------------------------------------------
97- Which of the following is not mucolytic ?
a- Bromohexin
b- Carbocistene
c- Ambroxol
18
d- guaphenesin
*e- Dextromethorphan
-------------------------------------------------------------------
98- Which one is anti-platelet ?
*a- Ticlopidine
b- Desfluron
c- Aldesleukin
d- Atovaquon
-------------------------------------------------------------------:
99- All of these anti-neoplastic except :
a- Aldesleukin
b- Teniposide
c- Pentostatin
*d- Amlodipine
-------------------------------------------------------------------] [
100- Which is not Benzodiazepine ?
a- Temazepam
b- Nitrozepam
c- Loprazolam
d- Clozapine*
1( All These drugs are anti-viral except :

a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
G-CYCLOSPORIN*
----------------------------------------------------
2)Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is
decreased by :
a- Rifampcin
19
b- Aspirin
*c- Vit. K
d- VerapamiL
----------------------------------------------------
3(Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?
a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
*d- Cinnarzine
----------------------------------------------------:
4)All the following are controlled drugs
EXEPT:
a)stesolid
b)Diazepam
c)Imipenem*
d)primidon
---------------------------------------------------: Vasopressine
5(Vasopressine is used for treatment of :
a)Diabetes of insipidus*
b)Diabetes mellitus type I
c)Diabetes mellitus type II
d)Antihypertensive
----------------------------------------------------
6)Which one of the following is not

Tetracycline a)Minocycline
20
b)Doxycycline
c)Demeclocycline
d)Clindamycin
----------------------------------------------------:
7)Phenylephrine is used for :
a)Decongestant
b)Sympathomematic
c)Running nose
d)All of the above*
----------------------------------------------------
8(QOD MEAN
a)four tims daily
b)for four day*
c)after meals
----------------------------------------------------
9(ANTIDOT FOR PARACETAMOL
A)acetylcysteine*
b)atropine
c)iron
d)a and b
----------------------------------------------------
10(ANGIOTENSIN II ANTAGONIST
21
A)LOSARTAN*
LABETALOL
c)lumenal
---------------------------------------------------- Glucocrticoids
11(Glucocrticoids used in
a)running nose
b)bronchial asthma*
c)leprosy
----------------------------------------------------12(cefouroxime
a)first genration
b)second genration*
c)fourth genration
-----------------------------------------------------
13(Aspirin
a)aspirin with analgesic&anti_inflamatory
b)antipalelet
c)contraindicated for pregnancy
d)a and c only
e)all of the above*
---------------------------------------------------- Treatement
14(Treatement Glaucoma by
22
a)timolol
b)pilocarpine
c)atropin
d)non of the above
e)all of the above*
---------------------------------------------------- treate
15(acetyl cysteine treate poison
a)aspirin
b)heparin
c)paracetamol*
d)digoxin
----------------------------------------------------hosbital
16(digoxin no available in hosbital
a)0.57
b)250
c)0.25
d)750
----------------------------------------------------spairing
17(potassium spairing diuretics
a)mannitol
b)spironolacton*
c)amiloride
d)furesmide
---------------------------------------------------- ANTIEPILPTIC
18) ANTIEPILPTIC AGENTS
a)pheytoin
b)tegritol
23
c)luminal
d)all of the above*
----------------------------------------------------trede
19(clomipramine treade name
a)anafranil*
b)tofranil
c)mebaral
d)luminal
---------------------------------------------------- treade
20(treade name of benzodiazepine
a)amlodepine
b)diazepam*
c)zolpdem
d)temazepam
-----------------------------------------------------
21(Diazepam
a)antianxity
b)sedatives
c)hyponotics
d)all of thl above*
----------------------------------------------------22(diazepam
a)antianaxity
b)hponotics
c)non of the above
d) a and b correc*
24
---------------------------------------------------23( 1iv room

-1
2
* 3
----------------------------------------------------24)iv room
1- t p n
* 2 3----------------------------------------------------:
25)Not pure B-Blocker:
Trandate
--------------------------------------------------------------------:
26)which type of insulin taken orally:
Insulin not taken orally.
--------------------------------------------------------------------:
27)Regular insulin characters:
-clear
-colorless
-watery
-all of the above --------------------------------------------------------------------28)Cefotaxime:
3rd generation cephalosporin.
--------------------------------------------------------------------25
: 100
29)100 grain equal:
-0.65 g
-0.065 g
- -6.5 g
-non of the above
--------------------------------------------------------------------:
30)B-Blocker used for :
-angina
-hypertension
-hyperthyroidism
- all of them
--------------------------------------------------------------------
31)Fosinopril is:
Staril
-------------------------------------------------------------------- ..
:
32)fosinopril is the generic name .. and it's class
: ACE inhibitor
--------------------------------------------------------------------33)Enalapril:
Rentic Co-Rentic
..
34)Enalapril is the generic name .. and it's class
ACE inhibitor
--------------------------------------------------------------------:
35)which one of these drug cause constipation:
26
Morphine
--------------------------------------------------------------------:
36)All of these Anticoagulant except:
-heparin
-warfarin
-ancord
-clopidogrel
--------------------------------------------------------------------
37)Ticlid is:
Antiplatelet
**Ticlid = Ticlodipine ..
-------------------------------------------------------------------
:
38)The PH of eye is or ph suitable for eye
solution is :
From 6-8
--------------------------------------------------------------------
39)Zestril is :
Lisinopril
..
40)Lisinopril is the generic name .. and it's class

: ACE inhibitor
--------------------------------------------------------------------
41)All of these used as prophylactic in asthma
except:
-Ketotifen
-Nedocromil
27
-Sod. Cromoglycate
-Ventolin
--------------------------------------------------------------------: Protamin
42)Protamin Zinc insulin:
Taken once daily
--------------------------------------------------------------------: Sulphonylurea
43)Side effect of Sulphonylurea:
Hypoglycemia
--------------------------------------------------------------------: Cinnarizine
44)Cinnarizine used in:
Migraine headache
--------------------------------------------------------------------:
45)Adol Maximum dose for adult is:
4 grams or 4000 mg
-------------------------------------------------------------------
/ mg500
46)Percentage of Nacl 500mg w/w is:
0.9%
--------------------------------------------------------------------:
47)Used as Anti amoeba:
Anazol
-------------------------------------------------------------------- Anazol
48)Anazol is the trade name of
"metronedazole".
---------------------------------------------------------------------
28
:
49)The rapid onset of administration is:
I.V
--------------------------------------------------------------------

:
50)The meaning of drug that is absolutely
contraindicated in pregnancy by FDA :
Pregnancy Category X
--------------------------------------------------------------------
:
51)All of the following are used as cough
depressant EXCEPT :
a)Guaifenesin*
b)Dextromethorphane
c)Codiene Phospahte
d)Morphine hydrochloride
--------------------------------------------------------------------
52)Theophyllin is :
a)Bronchodilatorb*
b)DERMATITS
c)All of the above
-------------------------------------------------------------------- ANTIDOT
53(ANTIDOT FOR PARACETAMOL
a)acetylcysteine*
b)atropine
c)iron
29
d)a and b
--------------------------------------------------------------------
54(ANGIOTENSIN II ANTAGONIST
a)LOSARTAN*
b)LABETALOL
c)CAPTOPRIL
--------------------------------------------------------------------
55(Trade name Diazepam
a)valium*
b Narcan)
c)fentanyl
d)luminal
--------------------------------------------------------------------:
56(Phenylephrine is used for :
a)Decongestant
b)Sympathomematic
c)Running nose
d)All of the above*
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Treatement
57)Treatement Glaucoma by
a)timolol
b)pilocarpine
c)atropin
d)non of the above
e)all of the above*
---------------------------------------------------------------------
30
treate
58(acetyl cysteine treate poison
a)aspirin
b)heparin
c)paracetamol*
d)digoxin
--------------------------------------------------------------------hosbital
59(digoxin no available in hosbital
a)0.57
b)250
c)0.25
d)750
--------------------------------------------------------------------
60)ondansetron is used for
a-hypertension
b-angina pectoris
c-prophylaxis of migrain
d-anti-emetic
----------------------------------------------------
:
61)all these r side effects of chloramphenicol
except:
a-irreversible a plastic anemia
b-optic neuritis
c-perpheral neuritis
d-iron deficiency anemia
-----------------------------------------------------
31
ticlopidine
62)ticlopidine is used for
a-anticoagulan
b-antibiotic
c-anticholinergic
d-antiplateleta
--------------------------------------------------------------------
fibrinolytic
63)all these drugs r fibrinolytic except
a-dipyridamole
b-streptokinase
c-urikinase
--------------------------------------------------------
BOLIC
64) all these drugs CAUSE ANTI----BOLIC
EFFECT EXCEPT
A-METHOTREXATE
B-FLUROURACIL
C-CYTABRIN
D-AZOTHIOPRINE
E-CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE
----------------------------------------------------

65)ALL THESE DRUG CAN BE USED FOR
PARKINSONISM EXCEPT
A-SELGITINE HCL
B-CARBIDOPA
C-PERGOLIDE
D-NEDOCROMIL SOD
32
----------------------------------------------------
66)ALL THESE CASES NOT CURE WITH

THIAZIDE EXCEPT
A-HYPERNATRIMIA
B-HYPERGLYCEMIA
C-HYPOKALAEMIA
D-HYPERURICAEMIA
----------------------------------------------------
67)CARDIAC ARREST COULD BE MANAGED

BY THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT
A-EPHEDRINE
B-LEDOCAINE
C-PROPRANOLOL
D-NORMAL SALINE
-----------------------------------------------------
.I.V
68)INSULIN WICH CAN BE GIVEN I.V. IS
A-REGULAR TYPE
B-30\70 TYPE
C-NPH TYPE
D-NON OF THE ABOVE
-----------------------------------------------------
33
LESHMANIA
69)DRUG IS USED FOR LESHMANIA
A-SOD. STIBOGLYCONATE
B-SOD. CROMOGLYCONATE
C-MEBENDAZOLE
--------------------------------------------------------------------
BACTERIAL
70)ALL THESE DRUGS ARE ANTI0BACTERIAL
EXCEPT
A-ZALCITABINE
B-LOMEFLOXACIN
C-CEFPRAZONE
----------------------------------------------------
71ALL THESE R NATURAL ESTROGEN EXCEPT

A-MESTRONOL
B-OESTRONE
C-OESTRIOL
D-OESTRADIOL
-----------------------------------------------------

72)WICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING HAVE
VASODILATOR EFFECT
A-NICOTINE
B-CHOLESTYRAMIN
C-URIKINASE
D- VIT. A
34
----------------------------------------------------
73)ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT FROM

QUINOLONE GROUP
A-NALIDIXIC ACID
B-QUININE
C-EOXACIN
D-NORFLOXACIN
----------------------------------------------------
74)ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT FOR
EPILEPSY
A-CLORIZEPAM
B-PHENYTOIN
C-PRIMIDONE
D-IMIPRAMINE
----------------------------------------------------75(.
iv inj push
--------------------------------------------------------------------76(atenolol

tacchardiya
--------------------------------------------------------------------77(digoxen

tacchardiya??
--------------------------------------------------------------------78(tetracyclin

35
--------------------------------------------------------------79(gentamycin

ear ,eay,ointment
-------------------------------------------------------------------- (80
-------------------------------------------------------------------- (81
:1 23- w-o
:1 36
2 3- o-w
-------------------------------------------------------------------- 82(paste
:

: paste

-------------------------------------------------------------------- (83
iv
-------------------------------------------------------------------- (84
b blocker verpmil-------------------------------------------------------------------- 85(? antiplatlet
-------------------------------------------------------------------- (86

verpmel
--------------------------------------------------------------------??87(1grain

--------------------------------------------------------------------88(cascara

Sagrada
--------------------------------------------------------------------37
(89

.
: conc.

--------------------------------------------------------------------90(b blocker

cattropcintropc
--------------------------------------------------------------------91) adrengic receptor\
a1
b1
a2
b2
-------------------------------------------------------------------- (92
capper
--------------------------------------------------------------------resels )93
ph
enzym
bady flud

------------------------------------------------------------------- 94(%100
( ) I.V
-------------------------------------------------------------------- 95)impramen
Tofranil
38
--------------------------------------------------------------------96(
To Apamir
--------------------------------------------------------------------97(

--------------------------------------------------------------------98( regular

vial
impul
--------------------------------------------------------------------99) co_tremoxazol
tremethoprin ,sulfamethaxazol
--------------------------------------------------------------------100(sulfamethaxazol

co_tremoxazol
--------------------------------------------------------------------1-most of drugs are :
Weak electrolyte*
Non electrlolyte
Non ionic
Strong electrolyte
B+ C
2-90% of substance X solution , 50% of substance X solution , how mixing both to give 80% of
substance X solution ?
3: 1 **
1:3
10:30
5: 9
B+C
39
3-trade name of lisinopril

Zestril , zinopril
4- antipseudomonas drug :
metronidazole , nystatin , primaquine, **vancomycin ............
5- arrhythmia happened due to :

increase of Cardiac output
, increase in o2 demand
dialitation in myocardium
6-digoxin differ from digitoxin :

Half life
Excreted hepatically
Excreted unchanged in urine ***
7- In digoxin induced arrythmia , what is not recommonded??

stop digixin adminstration ,
phenytoin adminstration
give lidocaine
give digoxin immune fab
electrical cardio*****
8- which is not asthma properties :

Bronchodilator
Bronchospasm
Increase mucous secretion
Chest pain
9- example of antimetabolite anticancer ..
10- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :

Aldosterone
40
Growth hormone
Primary product
mineralocorticoids (eg, aldosterone)
glucocorticoids (eg, cortisolndrosterone)
weak androgens (eg, dehydroepiandrosterone)
11- immunosuppressant agent cannot used in organ transplantation :

Predisolone
12- which is not NSAID .
13- liquid weight = .. , volume = .. ,

What is specific gravity ?
14- about side effect of quinidine
15- all of following are side effects of methotrixate except :

Bone marrow depression
Alopecia
Nausea and vomiting
*****Drive sex gland
16- mechanism of action of antipsychotic drug :

Dopamine receptor inactivation
17-drug used in hypertension and migrane :

Clonidine****
Hydralazine
18- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :

bilateral renal artery stenosis
41
19- about cardioglycosidic effect :

-ve inotropic
+ve inotropic ****
Hypertension
Tackycardia
Bradycardia
20-all factors affect on distribution of drug except :

Tissue solubility
Protein binding
Molecular weight of drug
Type enzyme response of metabolism *****
21-all factors affect on renal clearance except :

Age
Sex****
Both
Disease state
22- ointment used for :

Carrier of drug
Emollient
***Both
Increase absorption
Increase distribution
23-charcol used as antidote coz :

Adsorption activity
24- in hypodynamic shock treatment :

Use dopamine *****
Use nicotine
Use aspirin
42
25-acyclovir used to :
Herbs simplex
26- all following are viral infections except :

Tuberculosis
27- about radiation
28- warfarin monitoring:

Platelet formation
INR
The prothrombin time (PT) is the primary assay used in monitoring warfarin
29- lady take chronic warfarin , which is not true

1- avoid aspirin containing prepration
2-avoid doubling dose from herself
3-balanced food with green leaves to avoid thrombosis
4-if she pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT******
5-take care about nasal bleeding
30- Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis ?

a-it is given to treat surgery associated infections
****b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection
c-should always be given regardless type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true
31- Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab

a-IL-1 blocker****
b-used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis c-may increase risk of infections
d-administered as IV infusion8
e-postadministration reactions include fever & chills
32- infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause :

a) shriniking of blood cell
b) hemolysis****
c) hyperglycemia
d) hypoglycemia
e) b + d
43
? 33- half life of drug is 7 days ,

..... 4 , , 3 , ,

34- The term shock signifies :
a-hyperperfusion
****b-hypoperfusion
c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia
e-non of the above
35- which of following is least sedative action ?

Diazepam
Estazolam
Triazolam
Temazepam ***
36- which drug has spasmolytic action?

Resirpine
Amphetamine
37-desmopressine used in
nocturnal enuresis
38-salbutamol is :
Beta 2 agonist
39- pentophyllin used for : peripheral vasodilator

Hypertension
Couph suppressantIndications
Pentofyllin is indicated in diseases, causing disorders in the peripheral perfusion, and in
diabetes, atherosclerotic and inflammatory disorders, including shank ulcers; gangrene; diabetic
angiopathy; intermittent claudication; Raynauds disease. In acute disorders of the brain
perfusion, including ischemic stroke and resultant conditions. Acute disorders of the retinal
blood supply.
40-2 mg \ L solution , according ppm :

2
44
0.002
0.000002
41- Pka for normal water in room temperature :

7
14
10^7
10^-14
10^14
42- normal water used for :

Eye preparption
Parentral preparation
Solution
Emultion
External preparation
43- ceftazidime :
3rd generation
44-about aminoglycoside , which is not true ?

Has gram ve activity
Less toxicity
Narrow therapeutic
Compatable with other drug
Usually IV , IM
45- about norepinephrine

not true
increasr B.P
vasoconstrictive
used in cardiogenic shock
effective orally'
S.C
45
46- PHARMACOKINETIC CONSTANT :

Zero order
1st order
2nd order
Mixed order
A+B
47- Which of the following is NOT predinsolone side effect ?

a-cataract
b-hypoglycemia****
c-skeletal muscle weakness d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections
48-- The latabbreviation for " After Meals " is :
a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c.
49-- The latabbreviation for " before meal :
50 - o.d....... Once a day
51- A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of kcl

exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution?
52- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true?

a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
d-b-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient ******
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women
53- The mechanism of action of dopamine
muscarinic antagonist
muscarinic agonist*****
nicotinic antagonist
nicotinic agonist
non of the above
54- The heart`s dominant pacemaker is :

a- AV nod
b- SA node***
46
c-pukinje fiber
d-internodal pathways
e-non of the above
55- about albuterol side effect
56- dosage form of nitroglycren when used in malignant hypertension ???

IV , IM , S.C , infusion , transdermal ****........
57-solutions are better than solid dosage form coz:

Accurate dose
Easy to handle
Morestable
****Faster action
B+C
58- ONE OF FOLLOWING NOT USED TO COVER BITTER

TASTE :
Film coat
Enteric coat
Granding of tablet *****
59-ABOUT CARDIAC GLYCOSIDE ..
60-which of following tricyclic antidepressant is tertiary amine?

Amitriptyline
61- antihypertensive used in pregnancy ?

Methyldopa
62- drug make urine red other than rifampicin ?
63-drug used for peptic ulcer ?

Losec
47
64- all are ACEI except .
65- drug infusion rate is 2mg\kg\hr , infused for 12 hours , for 70kg patient .. what is total
dose??
) qqd 5) , qd 4) , 4 times daily3) , pc 2) , o.n .......
lisinopril ..... 6) generic name of zinopril
. , 7) half life of drug is 7 days ,
..... 4 , 3 ,
8) diltiazim classifid as : ca channel blocker ....
9)B carotine is precursop of : retinol , thiamine , riboflavin , pyridoxine , calcefirol
10) electrical property which produce impulses called :
conduction , automaticity , velocity , excitability .........
11) another name of true solution :
homogeneous , heterogenous , emultion ...........
12) what is false about ophthalmic product using as single dose :
..... should contain preservative ...
13) solving liqiud in another liquid is called :
miscibility , immiscibility , disolving energy , solubility ......
14) how mg of substance X must added to 2000 gm of 10% substance X solution in order to
prepare 25% of substance x solution
a) 10000
b) 400
c) 40
d) 10
e) 0.4
..........
15) how microgram needed from drug , if 0.1 gm in ml , if 5 one tspfull doses contain 7.5 gm of
drug ???f
a) 0.0005
b) 0.5
c) 500
d) 1.5
e) 1500
... .... 1500 .....
16)
17)
18 )
19) infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause :
a) shriniking of blood cell
b) hemolysis
c) hyperglycemia
d) hypoglycemia
e) b + d
b .......
a..... ......... hypertonic 20)
21) when 1 part of substance require 10000 parts of solvent , it called :
very soluble , soluble , sparingly soluble , slighty soluble , insoluble ......
slighty .......
22) which solution is colloid solution ?? ringer solution
23) tests required fordiabetic patient :
a) oral glucose test
b) HBa1c
c) WBC count
d) a+ c
e) all of above
24) patient given rifampicin , what advice him :
urine discoloration will happened
25) denaturation will happened in body for which compunds????f
penicillin , protien , lipid , carbohydrate , ............
26) major metabolism proccess in GIT is
hydrolysis , acetylation , oxidation , conjucation ,
hydrolysis
27) in ovulation day , level of which is highest : progesterone , FSH , BOTH , LUTEINIZING
HORMONE ........
28) About side effects of hydralazine
48

29) about side effects of prozasin
30) dosage form of nitroglycren when used in malignant hypertension ???
IV , IM , S.C , infusion , transdermal ........
31) drug induced lupus like syndrom is associated with antihypertinsive ???
minixidil , hydralazine , dioxide , nitroprusside Na , acebutol .........
32) hypothirodism cause : weight gain , hypoglycemia , low body temp ...........
33) about ACE I mechanism of action as antihypertension ???
act on serotonin receptor , on dopamine receptor , inhibition of converting angiotensin I to
angiotensin II ........
34) About definition of first pass effect
, it increase with : increase rate of absorption , increase biotransformation ,both ,
increase pka
35) metal used in rheumatoid arthiritis : gold
36) drug cause or consider pressor
37) low density lipoprotien act as :
carrer cholestrol in plasma , transport fatty acid , good lipoprotein
stop digixin adminstration , phenytoin adminstration .............

39)about tonic clonic seziure :
occur in children , unconciousness , unvoluntry movement ....................
40)corticosteroid has strong antiinflmmatory effect?
cortisone , hydrocrtisone ...........................,
41) drug from NSAID but not given as OTC ?
brufen , naprosin , aspirin ............
42) antipseudomonas drug :
metronidazole , nystatin , primaquine ............
43) promethazone used in treatment of :
migrane and headache , nausea and vomiting , hypertension ..........
44) isoniazid :
treatment of TB ............
45) about tolerance associated with isosorbide dinitrate in angina patient............
46) phenytoin side effect
47) phenytoin mechanism of action
48) prazosin mechanism of action
49) in CHF:
decrease depolarization due to influx of K
----------- ---------------- ------ eflux of K
----------- repolarization ------- Ca ............

.........
50)
51) Enoxaprim dosage form :
IV POLUS , IV INFUSION , IM , TRANSDERMAL , SC
52) most described dosage solid form :
powder , tablet , soft capsule , hard capsule , both types of capsule .
53)angina drugs dosage form ......
54)Digoxin side effects.......
55)about hypertension drugs side effects all is true EXCEPT :
clonidine cause drycough
.....
56)
57)MECHANISM OF ACTION OF Dobamine ......
58)-------------- -- --------- -- histamine .......
... 59)
60) AND 61) about antiarrythmic drugs phases :
phase A1 , B1 , II , III , IV
62) AND 63) AND 64) about arrythmia phases
1- The major action of sodium chromoglycate is :
a-mast cell stabilization b-bronchodilator
c-prostaglandins modifier d-leukotrienes modifier e-non of the above
2-The action of histamine is :
a-capillary constriction b-elevation of blood pressure
c-stimulation of gastric secretion
d-skeletal muscle paralysis e-slowing the heart rate
49
3-One of the following antibiotics is resistant to penicillinase :

a-penicillin V
b-penicillin G
c-floxapen ( flucloxacillin )
d-ampicillin
e-amoxicillin
4- Inderal is :
a-similar in action to ergotamine
b-similar in action to tubocurarine
c-used as an antihistamine
d-pure b -adrenergic receptor blocker
a and b adrenergic receptor blockere5- Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of :
a-impaired fat absorption b-pulmonary emboli
c-tuberculosis d-neoplastic disorders
e-psoriasis
6- Which of the following is selective b1 blocker ?
a-labetalol but it is non selective b blocker
b-terazosine
c-cloridine d-captopril
e-verapamil
7- The latabbreviation for " After Meals " is :
8- The latin abbreviation for " Four Times Daily " is :
a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- q.i.d e- c.c.
9- The latin abbreviation for " Every Night " is :
a- a.c. b- o.n. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c.
10- Erythroped A :
a-is effective against G +ve Cocci >>and G ve bacteria
b-is a macrolide antibioticc-can increase g.i.t. motility
d-could be used in pregnant women if need
.... e-all of the above
.........
11- For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use :
a-salbutamol b-diphenhydramine
c-acetazolamide d-epinephrine
e-aminophylline
12- Allopurinol is used as :
a-analgesic agent b-uricosuric agent (as probenecid),
c-antiinflamatory agent d-antipyretic agent
e-agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption
Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, reducing the

conversion of
hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid and resulting in
direct inhibition
of purine biosynthesis due to elevated oxypurine
concentration (negative
feedback). Oxypurinol also inhibits xanthine oxidase. So
anyway you have
dramatically decreased uric acid concentrations, decreased
renal tubular
transport of uric acid, and then the side effect of increased
tubular
...... reabsorption of calcium.
13- Which of the following is NOT betamethasone side effect ?
a-cataract b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections
14- A disease which is due to viral infection :
a-poliomyelitis b-rabies
50
c-chicken pox d-herpes

e-all of the above15- The mechanism of action of atropine is :
a-muscarinic antagonist b-muscarinic agonist
c-nicotinic antagonist d-nicotinic agonist
e-non of the above
16- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is :
a-inotropy b-chronotropy
c-automaticity d-contractility
e-non of the above
17- The heart`s dominant pacemaker is :
a- AV node b- SA node
c-pukinje fiber d-internodal pathways
e-non of the above
18- Adenosine is used for :
a-ventricular arrythmias b-atrial bradycardia
c-supraventricular tachycardia
d-supraventricular bradycardia
e-non of the above
19- Adenosine P produces which of the following :
a-facial flushing
b-dyspnea c-marked tachycardia
d- a and b
e- a , b and c
...
20- Which of the following is responcible for buffering
a-magnesium b-chloride c-bicarbonates
d-potassium e-troponin
21- Respiratory acidosis is due to :
a- O2 removal b- O2 retention
c- CO2 removal d- CO2 retention
e-non of the above
22- Which of the following is NOT colloid solution ?
a-albumin 5% b-ringer`s solution
c-dextran d-beta starch
e-albumin 20%
23- The term shock signifies :
a-hyperperfusion b-hypoperfusion c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia e-non of the above
24- In treatment of shock , which of the following should be considered?
a-airway control b-IV of crystalloid solution
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
d-monitor heart rhythm e-all of the above
25- Which of the following is released by bacterial infection?(. by bacterial cell wall during
there growth)
a-endotoxin b-exotoxin c-antibiotics
d-cytotoxin e-non of the above
26- the amount of water in adult male is about:
a-25% b-60% c-80% d-10% e-17%
27- Which of the following are causes of oedema?
a-increase hydrostatic pressure
b-decrease oncotic pressure
c-increase capillary permeability
d- a and b e- a , b and c
28- Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be advised not to
consume food containing tyramine because this combination causes:
a-postural hypotension b-hallucinations
c-anaphylactic shock
d-muscle weakness and tremor
e-acute adrenergic crisis including sever hypertention
29- Concerning COX 2 inhibitors , which is NOT true?
a-they have lower risk gastric adverse reactions
b-good evidence about their effectiveness
c-cardiac toxicity is a recent concern of this class
d-they usually administrated twice daily
e-combination with non selective agents give more effective action30- In the treatment of
osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast
51
b-Ca and vit. D are essential

c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
[COLOR="red"]e-raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator[/COLOR]
31- Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?
a-allopurinol b-indomethacin c-colchicine d-probencid e-sulfinylpyrazone
32- Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?
a-minimal exercise b-low calcium intake
c-male gender d-family history
e-minimal exposure to sunlight
33- Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are :
a-lethergy & fatigue b-skin rash & headache
c-throbbing headache & dizziness
d-fluid retention hypotensione-ringing in the ears & blurred vision
34- Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab
a-IL-1 blockerb-used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis c-may increase risk of
infections
d-administered as IV infusione-postadministration reactions include fever & chills
35- A disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis:
a-gold preparations b-hydroxychloroquine
c-methotrexate d- a and b
e- a , b and c
36- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis :
a-slow ventricular response using verapamil
b-start lidocaine infusion
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine
d- a and b e- b and c

37- Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis ?
a-it is given to treat surgery associated infections
b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infectionc-should always be given regardless
type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true

38- Goals of diabetes mellitus management include :
a-reduce onset of complications
b-control symptoms of diabetes
c-near normal glycemic control and HBA1c
d- a and b e- a , b and c
39- When dosing insulin which of the following is true?
a-initial dose 0.6 u / kg / day split 2/3 a.m and 1/3 p.m
b-regular NPH ratio is 1 : 1 or 1 : 2
c-dose may need to be increased during acute illnessd- b and c e- a , b and c

40- What first line agent may be considered for an obese type 2 ?
a-glyburinid b-insulin c-metformin
d-nateglinid e-repaglinid
41- When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered :
a-WBC count with differential
b-oral glucose tolerance test c- HBA1c
d- a and b
e- b and c
42- A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will act as :
a-analgesic b-hypnotic c-diuretic
d-antihistaminic e-antiulcerant
43- The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:
a- 300-600 g
b- 1-5 mg
c- 15-60 mg
d- 300-600 mg e- 1-2 mg
44- The drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction is :
a-naloxone b-bethidine c-morphine
d-celecoxib e-naproxen
45- What is a major contraindication to the use of an OTC sympathomimetic drug
a-gastric ulcer b-uncontrolled hypotension
c-severe asthma d-rheumatoid arthritis
e-hypertension
52
46-Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy :

a- controlled studies fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the trimester and there is no
evidence of risk in later trimester
b- fetal risk NOT demonstrated in animal studies but there are no controlled studies in pregnant
women or animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect that was NOT confirmed in
controlled studies in women during trimester
c-either animal study have revealed adverse effect on the fetus and there are no controlled
human studies or studies in animal and women are not available
d- There is positive evidence of human fetal risk but the benefits of use in pregnant woman may
be acceptable despite the risk
47- What advice would you give to a patient prescribed rifampicin?
a-take this medication with food or milk
b-avoid multivitamine preparations during treatment
c-avoid taking paracetamol during treatment
d-possible discolouration of skin is of no importance
e-this medication may cause discolouration of urine
48- Correct method of parentral administration of potassium is :
a-fast I.V. injection
b-slow I.V. injectionc-I.M. injection
d-IP(intraperitoneal) injection
49- Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant pharmaceutical therapeutic doses ?
a-Na valproate b-phenytoin c-lithium
d-quinidine e-carbamazepine
50- Which route of administration would provide the most rapid onset of action response to
morphine ?
a-oral b-S.C. c-I.V. d-I.M. e-rectal
51- The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires :
a- K+ b- Na+ c- Ca++
d- CO3 e- acetate
52- Propranolol is often prescribed with hydralazine to
a-reduce the reflex tachycardia
b-prevent the accumulation of hydralazine
c-prevent systemic lupus ( SLE ) due to hydralazine
d-prevent oedema e-increase absorption of hydralazine
53- Fifty micrograms equals:
a-50000 ( nanogrames ) g b- 0.05 ( micrograms ) g
c- 0.0005 g
d- a and b
e- a and c
54- The ability of a liquid to dissolve is :
a-hydrophilicity b-miscibility
c-immiscibility d-solubility equilibrium
e-solvation energy
55- These are non aqueous pharmaceutical solutions:
a-otic soln. , mouth washes and nasal soln.
b-essences , collodions an elixirsc-gargles , douches and irrigation soln.
d-syrups , mucillages and collodions
e-enemas , liniments and spirits
56- A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this
solution?
a- 3.33
b- 0.15 c- 1.60 x 10 -4
d- 0.30
e-3.00 x 10 -4
57- Which of the following is NOT correct ?
a-glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy
b-GIT disturbance are common side effects of glycosidase inhibitors
c-start with small dose of oral agent and triturate up to 1-2 weeks
d-life style modification should not be enforced if an oral agent to be startede-lisepro is rapid
acting insulin to be dosed immediately before meals
58- In CHF management the following is not correct:
a-ACEIs such as lisinopril improves left ventricular function and reduces mortality
-blocker such as carvidailol may have beneficialb- effect in selected patient
c-spironolactone should be avoided because of the great risk of hypokalemiad-non drug therapy
includes appropriate fluid and dietary sodium-restriction
e-symptomatic improvement is one of the major assessment criteria for proper therapy
53

d-beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant
women
60- Which of the following is NOT a primary literature
a-gournal of pharmacy practice
b-applied therapeutic & clinical use of drugc-new England Journal of medicine
d-Loncet e- JAMA
....
61- Which of the following is NOT used in theophylline toxicity management :
a-symptomatic control of seizures with benzodiazepine
b-activated charcoal to enhance elimination
-blockerc- for tachycardia
d-control vomiting with metoclopramide
e-methylphenidate to reduce excessive sedation
62- Regarding the use of ACEIs :
a-associated hypokalemia could be avoided by giving K-supplement
b-effective in reducing proteinurea in diabetic patient
c-most common side effect is chronic dry coughd-a good first line treatment for hypertensive
diabetic
e-dose should be started low and triturated gradually upward in need
63- References to check compatibility of drugs in parentral administration:
a- MERCK Index
b-handbook on injectable drugs
c-micro comedix
d- a and b
...
e- b and c
64- Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity:
a-verify time of last time
b-check Mg and K levels and correct if neededc-monitor ECG
d-no antidote for digoxin e-supportive care
65- When a CNS depressant is prescribed , which of the following is NOT taken at the same time?
a-analgesic b-verapamil c-aspirin
d-diphenhydramine e-orange juice
66- The antimalarial to avoid glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase :
a-primaquine b-quinine c-chloroguanide

67-We can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl by taking.
68-The following is NOT characteristic of solution:
a-thermodynamically stable
b-composed of two or more component that exist in one phase
c-homogenous
d-the solvent and solute can be separated by filtratione-solute doesn`t precipitate as time
passes
The action of histamine is :
c-stimulation of gastric secretion *****
2- latabbreviation for " After Meals " is :
a- a.c.
b- a.a.
c- p.c. ***
d- i.c.
e- c.c.
3-- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is :
c-automaticity****
d-contractility
e-non of the above
54
a-magnesium
b-chloride
c-bicarbonates*****
d-potassium
e-troponin
5-- In treatment of shock , which of the following should not be considered?
a-airway control
b-IV of crystalloid solution
d-monitor heart rhythm
e-give antibiotic to treat infection*****
6-- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast****
e-raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator
7- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis is arterial fibrilation:
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine****
d- a and b
e- b and c
8 -The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:
a- 300-600 g
b- 1-5 mg
c- 15-60 mg
d- 300-600 mg****
e- 1-2 mg
d--blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient ****
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women
10- B carotine is precursor of :
a)retinol ****
b) thiamine
c)riboflavin
d)pyridoxine
e) calcefirol
11-antihypertensive produce tackycardia :
a)Hydralazone*****
b)Reserpine
c)Methyldopa
d)Atenolol
e)Clonidine
12-process require CYP450 :
a)OXIDATION
b)HYDROLYSIS
c)GLUCORONIDATION
d)DEAMINATION
e)SULFERATION
13-drug induced lupus like syndrom is associated with antihypertinsive ???
a) minixidil
b) phenytoin ***
c) dioxide
d) nitroprusside Na
e) acebutol
55
14- hypothirodism will increase :

a) body weight ****
b) body temp
c) lipid profile
15- low density lipoprotien act as :
a) Major carrer of cholestrol in plasma *****
b) transport fatty acid from cell membrane to cytoplasm,
c) good lipoprotien.........
16-patient has CHF given digoxin and thiazide and needed corticosteroid , which is best choice?
a) Cortisone
b) Hydrocortisoce
c) Prednisolone
17- expairy date of drug is 8\2010 that means , last day you can use drug is :
a) 31\8\2010..*****
b) 1\8\2010
c) 31\7\2010
18- digitoxin side effect :
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hypertension
19- elevated blood glucose is side effect of :
Digoxin..
20-amphetamine used to treat :
a) Defect concentration *****
b) Insomnia
21-- which is not asthma properties :
a) Bronchodilator*****
b) Bronchospasm
c) Increase mucous secretion
d) Chest pain
22-- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :
a) Aldosterone ******
b) Growth hormone
c) FSH
23- one of following is not alpha 1 agonist :
a) Clonidine
b) Alpha methyl noradrenaline******
c) Guanfacine
d) Guanabenz
e) Guanethidine
24- about side effect of quinidine :
Chichonism*******
25-all of following are side effects of methotrixate except:
a) Bone marrow depression
b) Alopecia
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) Stimulate sex drive ****
e) Alopecia
bilateral renal artery stenosis*****
27- Adsorption , which is not true :
a) Chemical property
b) Physical property
c) Reversible
56
d) Irreversible
e) A + d ****
28-all are antibiotic except :
Famcyclovir *****
29- heparin monitoring :
a) INR
b) PT
c) APTT****
30- about digitoxin , which is false :
a) Oral bioavaiability 100%
b) Protein binding 95%
c) Half life is 7 days
d) Mainly hepatic metabolism by lysosmal
31-all r Beta 2 agonist except :
a) Salbutamol
b) Alburanol
c) Fenoterol
d) salmeterol
e) Pindolol *****
32-Pkw for normal water in room temperature :
a) 7
b) 14****
c) 10^7
d) 10^-14
e) C + d
33- about norepinephrine , which is not true?
a) increasr B.P
b) vasoconstrictive
c) used in cardiogenic shock
d) effective orally'*****
e) S.C
34-- o.m.......
every morning******
35- one of following not used to cover bitter taste :

a) Enteric coat
b) Film coat
c) Enteric coat
d) Grinding of tablet ****
e) B + C
36- all contraindicated in pregnancy except :
a) ACEI
b) Methyldopa****
37- dose of drug in children is . Mg \ kg , what total dose for child 34.5 bound?

gm , mg

38-drug prescriped as
1 tablet contaion 1 mg bid ( 2 weeks) , what is total dose?
28 mg*****
39- tybe 2 anti arrythmic properties :
Inhibit sympathetic system by beta adrenergic
blockade ***
57
40-in injection of lidocaine , what drug added to increase effectiveness of lidocaine?

Epinephrine ..
41-about sterilization by filtration , which is false?
a) Cannot used for virus *****
b) Need special equipment
42-membrane filters with 0.22 micropores , which of following not removed by that?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus***
c) Fungi
d) A+c
e) B+c
43)volatile substance given by inhalation:
a) Halothane
b) Dextromethorphane.
44)in prescription
Substance A 15 parts
Substance B 30 parts
Substance C 150 parts
We neeed to prepare ointment 500 gm , what amount should we take from substance A ?
...... ..
15+30 + 150 = 195
,
(15 \195) * 100 =7.69 %
So , we need 7.69 % from all 500 gm
( 7.69 * 500 ) \ 100 = 38.46 gm
38.46 gm****
5 ...
45- we need to prepare 100 ml of 0.05% substance X solution how gm we need from
substance X ?
0.05 gm***
46- loop diuretics cause all the following except:
a) Hypokalamia.
b) Hyponatrimia.
c) Hypocalcemia..
d) Hypoglycemia.
e) Hypernatremia.****
47-two drugs has same active ingredient but difrent inactive ingredient , called:
a) Pharmaceutical equivelance
b) Bioequivelance
c) A + b
d) Pharmaceutical alternative
48-to compare between 2 drugs use:
a) Physical appearance
b) Weight
c) Pharmacokinetic parameters
d) Pharmacodynamic parameter
e) Taste
49) Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except:
a) Ephedrine.
b) Lidocine.
c) Normal saline.
d) Propranolol****
50)-Binding to plasma protein:
a- Increases half life.***
b- Decreases half life
58
51) The antidote of heparin is:

Protamin sulphate****
52)when gived gentamycin , which is should monitoring?
Creatinine clearance****
53-tricyclic antidepressant mechanism of action :
54-diazoxide side effect :
55-tegretol used in :
Trigeminal Neuralgia****
56-about sid effect of oral contraceptive except :
a) Depressoin
b) Hypertension
57-drug dependence which is true :
a) After discontinuation , patient has withdrawal symptoms
b) Patient progressively increase dose to get same action

58)drug used in ventricular arrhythmia :
a) Phynetoin ******
b) Quinidine
c) Digoxin
d) Procainamide
e) Verapamil
59)Enteric coated tablets:
Are dissolved in the intestine and not affected by the stomach juices*****
60) factors affecting on dissolution rate are :
a) Increase size of particles
b) Decrease size of particles
c) Increase surface area
d) Decrease surface area
e) B + C******
1
300 300 1000 10 500
( antibiotics)
cephalosporins
cefaclor belong
1generation cephalosponins
2generation cephalospsonins
3generation cephalosponins2
4generation cephalosponins
ciprofloxacillin
aminoglycosid
cephalosporins
quinolones
penicillins
(heart failure )
digoxine
t.i.d mean
three time daily
b.i.d
twice daily
4
...

59

atenolol belong
b blockers
b1 blockers
b2 blockers
b2 blockers
propranolol belong
b agonist,
b blockers
b2 blockers
b2 blockers
..
capoten generhc name
captopril
nifedipine trade name
adalat
simvastatin
zocor
acetazolamide used for
) glacoma(

tachycardia)
diazoxide
which of the following will cause constipation as side effect
augmentin
morphine
multiviamine
diphenhydramine
...
..
.. /
paracetamol
.. /2
Amoxicillin
)( /3
B-Blockers
/4
3.5_5
/5
++++ /6
zidovudine
60
/7
precautions
diclofenac 500 .. /8

Neostigmin /9

OTC /10
-Tegratol
-augmantin
-celebrex
amino glycoside /
:
Gentamycin
Amikacin
Tobramycin
Neomycin
%%%%%%%%%%
G+ /teicoplanin
Jamica
Gentamycin
Kanamycin
Vancomycincin
%%%%%%%%%%
tetracycline
Minocycline
Doxeycline
Demeclocline
Diltiazem
%%%%%%%%%%
calcium channel blocker
61
Amlodipine
Cinnarazine
Verapamil
Diltiazem
%%%%%%%%%%

A k e d
1 )(Inderal2 Atenolol ( )B-Blockers 3 Spironolactone ))Diuretcs 4 )(Amoxil 5 )(Methyldopa6 (Metronidazole)flagyl 7 B1 )(Thiamine 8 9 T.B 6 9 10 OTC 11 Antidote Warfarin)(Vitamin K 12 OTC 13 Capotine)(Captopril 14 Flagyl )(Metronidazole 15 H.I.V)(Zidovudine16 Prozac)(Fluxotine17 ORS 18 ( 8-2) 19 Rifampicin( ) 20 ( & 16.5-13.5 )15.5-12.521 q.i.d ( )22 Diclofenac Sodium ( )
23 ( )24 Prednsolone 1X Tid X 3 days
1X Bid X 3 days
1X qid X 3 days
(18)
25 Neostigmine ( )
26 Acyclovir ( ) 27 )(Ascorbic Acid 28 )(Mebendazole 29 % 100 () I.V62
30 ( ) 31 )( Precautions 32 ( ) 33 )(Vit.K,Vit.D,Vit.E,Vit.A 34 ( " 8 ") 35 ( ) 36 ( ) 37 Captopril ( 150 " 25 )

38 )(Vit.c,Vit.B 39 ( "Charcoal"( 40 ( TypeII) )( Sulphonyl urea 41 ( )Bronchodilator 42 () 43 )(Ciprofloxacine 44-Cefaclor Cephalosporine ( )
45 Voltaren ( Diclofenac Sodium )
46 Zantac ( Ranitidine )
47 ( ) 48 ( )49 Sumatriptan ( " " (50 Nitrofurantoin ( )U.T.I.51 Cimitidine ( ) 52 Ventolin " ( Sulbatamol )
53 ( )O.R.S 54 55 Thyroid Hormones ( Thyroxine)Sodium
56 Thyroid Hormones &( Carbimazole)Propylthioracil
57 Gliclazide ( Diamicron)
58 Nifedipine)( Adalat 59 Augmentin (Amoxicillin Clavulanate)potassium
60 Co-trimoxazol( Sulfamethoxazole-)Trimethoprim
61 Aminoglycoside 62 63 Clarihromycin)(Klacid64- Antidote )(Protamin Sulphate
63
65 Vit.B6 )(Pyridoxine66 Acetazolamide ( )Diamox

67 Susp,Sol,Syr,Cap,Drup,Oint 68 ( ) 69 70 ?""Bid,I.V,Amp.SOS71 Dextrose 5% ( 5 )10072 Aspirin )(Acetylsalicylic Acid 73 ( , , )
74 Metoclopramide ( Plasil, Prempiran)
75 ( Glycerin) 76 " Captopril,Cephlexin,Allopurinol,Capoten,Keflex,Zyloric
77 Penicillin 78 T.B G.I.T 79 59 ( = X 5/9 32
=(59-32) X 5 9=15 )
80 Lasix ( Frusemide )81 Simvastatin ( Zocor)
82 83 ( 8-2 , 25-15 )
84 O.R.S85 NSAIDs86 Metformin 87 Aspirin 88 89 Diltazem 90 AtenololBblockers 91 spironolocton? 92 methyldopa 93 ? Mannitol I.V . I.M
94 Amoxicillin95 metronidazoleFLAGYL? 96 ?metronidazole GARDIASIS 97-l ?vitamin k Warfarin
98 THIAMINE B1? 99- BRUFEN,ASPIRIN,VOLTAREN,
64
ADOL
T.B? 100SIMPLE ANALGESIC ( OTC)? 101Question # 1 (True/False) Increased preload usually leads to increased
contractility:
A) true
B) false
Question # 2 (True/False) Heart rate X Stroke Volume = cardiac output
A) true
B) false
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Effect of concurrent administration of
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents on antihypertensive properties of
beta-blockers:
A) enhanced antihypertensive effect
B) diminished antihypertensive effect
C) no effect
Question # 4 (Multiple Answer) Major classes of diuretics used in
hypertension management:
A) loop diuretics
B) osmotic diuretics
C) potassium sparing diuretics
D) thiazides
E) carbonic anhydrase inhibitor's
Question # 5 (Multiple Answer) Possible antihypertensive effects:
A) increased peripheral resistance
B) decreased afterload
C) increased preload
D) decrease contractility
E) all of the above
Question # 6 (Multiple Answer) Examples of selective beta1 adrenergic
receptor blockers:
A) propranolol (Inderal)
B) metoprolol (Lopressor)
C) atenolol (Tenormin)
D) acebutalol
E) albuterol (Ventolin,Proventil)
Question # 7 (Multiple Answer) Administration of anesthesia to patients
treated with antihypertensive drugs
A) increased likelihood of orthostatic hypotension
B) reduced systemic blood-pressure responses to acute blood loss
C) reduced systemic blood-pressure responses to body position changes
D) altered physiological response to sympathomimetic drugs
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Effect on renin levels of beta adrenergic
65
receptor blockers:
A) increased
B) decreased
Question # 9 (Multiple Answer) Neurogenic causes of systolic and diastolic
hypertension:
A) polyneuritis
B) elevated intracranial pressure
C) familial dysautonomia
D) polyarteritis nodosa
E) pheochromocytoma
Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Hypertension of unknown etiology-causes:
A) toxemia of pregnancy
B) acute intermittent porphyria
C) essential hypertension
Question # 11 (Multiple Answer) Antihypertensive drugs classified as
"adrenergic neuron blockers":
A) clonidine (Catapres)
B) guanethidine (Ismelin)
C) guanadrel (Hylorel) and
D) reserpine
E) guanabenz (Wytensin)
Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Selective blockers of alpha1 adrenergic
receptors:
A) propranolol (Inderal)
B) phentolamine (Regitine)
C) prazosin (Minipress)
D) atropine
E) neostigmine (Prostigmin)
Question # 13 (True/False) Cardiac Output X Peripheral Resistance =
Arterial Pressure
A) true
B) false
Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) Heart block with intermittent conduction;
increasingly prolonged PR interval; QRS < 0.12 seconds; QRS dropped in a
repeating pattern
A) first degree heart block
B) second-degree heart block -- Mobitz type I
C) second-degree heart block-Mobitz type II
D) third degree heart block
Question # 15 (Multiple Answer) Side effects associated with ganglionic
blocking drugs:
A) bladder dysfunction
B) xerostromia
66
C) paralytic ileus
D) blurred vision
Question # 16 (Multiple Answer) Endocrine causes of systolic and diastolic
hypertension:
A) polyneuritis
B) hypercalcemia
C) primary hyperaldosteronism
D) acromegaly
E) myxedema
Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Principal thiazide site of action:
A) late distal tubule and collecting duct
B) distal convoluted tubule
C) loop of Henle
Question # 18 (Multiple Answer) Clinical conditions that increase stroke
volume and which may cause systolic hypertension:
A) thyrotoxicosis
B) fever
C) aortic regurgitation
Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Ganglionic blockers might be used in this
condition because they reduce arterial blood pressure and the upslope of the
aortic pressure wave:
A) renal vascular stenosis
B) polyarteritis nodosa
C) dissecting aortic aneurysm
D) intermittent claudication
E) coronary insufficiency
Question # 20 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects of guanethidine (Ismelin)
and guanadrel (Hylorel):
A) symptomatic hypertension
B) sexual dysfunction in males
C) diarrhea
Question # 21 (Multiple Answer) Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity:
A) metoprolol (Lopressor)
B) pindolol (Visken)
C) acebutolol (Sectral)
D) propranolol (Inderal)
Question # 22 (Multiple Answer) Maintenance of antihypertensive drug
treatment during the perioperative period
A) Previously effective antihypertensive drug therapy should be continued
during the perioperative phase
B) The pharmacology of the particular antihypertensive drug should be
considered in the development of the anesthesia plan
Question # 23 (Multiple Answer) More likely to cause bronchospasm and
mask hypoglycemia:
67
A) metoprolol (Lopressor)
B) atenolol (Tenormin)
C) timolol (Blocadren)
D) pindolol (Visken)
Question # 24 (Multiple Answer) Concerning the baroreflex:
A) baroreceptor input goes to the tractus solitarius of medulla
B) excitation of the vagal centers is induced
C) negative inotropism results
D) positive chronotropism occurs
Question # 25 (Multiple Choice) Glucose intolerance and long-term
antihypertensive beta-blocker treatment-A) more likely to develop
B) less likely to develop
C) unrelated
Question # 26 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects associated with betaadrenergic receptor blockers:
A) bradycardia
B) bronchospasm
C) masking of hypoglycemia
D) impotence
E) sedation
Question # 27 (Multiple Answer) Centrally-acting sympatholytics:
A) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
B) guanabenz (Wytensin)
C) clonidine (Catapres)
D) methyldopa (Aldomet)
E) guanethidine (Ismelin)
Question # 28 (Multiple Choice) Effect on angiotensin II levels of beta
adrenergic receptor blockers:
A) increased
B) decreased
Question # 29 (Multiple Answer) Thiazide diuretics:
A) The initial blood-pressure reduction is due to a decrease in cardiac output
and extracellular volume
B) Long-term hypertensive effects of thiazides is due to reduced myocardial
contractility
C) Site of action -- ascending loop of Henle
D) are potassium-sparing
Question # 30 (Multiple Choice) Cardioselective beta-blockers bind to this
receptor subtype:
A) beta1
B) beta2
Question # 31 (Multiple Choice) Effect(s) of beta adrenergic blockers on
blood lipids:
68
A) decreased blood triglyceride levels

B) increased levels of HDL cholesterol
C) both
D) neither
1
Physiological properties of nitrates:
cause vasodilation by releasing potassium which activates guanylyl cyclase
primarily cause venular smooth muscle relaxation
act primarily through dilation of coronary arteries
increased myocardial preloaded
increased myocardial wall tension
2
Antianginal agent most likely to cause methemoglobinemia:
isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil, Sorbitrate)
propranolol (Inderal)
nitroglycerin
amyl nitrite
metoprolol (Lopressor)
3
Vasodilation by direct action on vascular smooth muscle
minoxidil (Loniten)
hydralazine (Apresoline)
nitroglycerin
all the above
4
Effective in management of variant (Prinzmetal's) angina:
69
nitroglycerin
diltiazem (Cardiazem)
A&C
B&C
5
Antianginal agents administered by inhalation:
nitroglycerin
phentolamine (Regitine)
amyl nitrite
captopril (Capoten)
6
Calcium channel blocker -- most effective vasodilator:
verapamil (Isoptin, Calan)
nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)
nicardipine (Cardene)
nimodipine (Nimotop)
7
Antianginal agent which decreases myocardial contractility (negative
inotropism)
amrinone (Inocor)
nitroglycerin
70
amyl nitrite
8
Calcium channel blocker most likely to decrease contractility, reduce
sinoatrial nodal impulse generation, and slow AV nodal conduction.
nicardipine (Cardene)
nimodipine (Nimotop)
9
Blocks tachycardia resulting from nitroglycerin administration
atropine
phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)
10
Side effect least likely to be seen with nitroglycerin:
hypertension
headache
dizziness
palpitations
Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) Advantages of oral clonidine (Catapres)
(preanesthetic medication):
A) enhances intrathecal morphine plus tetracaine postoperative analgesia
B) decreases inhaled anesthetic requirement
71
C) decreases injected and esthetic requirement

D) reduces reflex tachycardia caused by direct laryngoscopy for tracheal
intubation
E) increases plasma catecholamines; helps to maintain BP
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Acts as a competitive antagonist in both
alpha1 and beta1 adrenergic receptors; has intrinsic sympathomimetic effect
at beta2 adrenergic receptors:
A) clonidine (Catapres)
B) metoprolol (Lopressor)
C) acebutolol (Sectral)
D) labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)
E) atenolol (Tenormin)
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Vasodilator which produces methemoglobin
in the body
A) hydralazine (Apresoline)
B) minoxidil (Loniten)
C) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
Question # 4 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects associated with ACE
inhibitors:
A) angioedema
B) dry cough
C) rhinorrhea
D) proteinuria
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Management of excessive hypotensive
reaction probably caused by continued ACE inhibitor treatment
perioperatively:
A) crystalloid fluid infusion
B) sympathomimetic administration
C) both
D) neither
Question # 6 (Multiple Answer) Side effects associated with clonidine use
as analgesic:
A) respiratory depression
B) nausea
C) vomiting
D) delayed gastric emptying
E) none of the above
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Hydralazine (Apresoline) and minoxidil
(Loniten), administered as monotherapy, might be expected to produce:
A) water retention
B) cardiac stimulation (reflex-mediated)
C) both
D) neither
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Mechanism of antihypertensive action:
72
clonidine (Catapres) -A) peripheral alpha1 adrenergic receptor blocker

B) peripheral beta2 adrenergic receptor agonist
C) central alpha2 adrenergic agonist
D) central beta-adrenergic agonist
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Antihypertensive drug: hypertrichosis
A) methyldopa (Aldomet)
B) clonidine (Catapres)
C) diltiazem (Cardiazem)
D) minoxidil (Loniten)
E) propranolol (Inderal)
Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects of furosemide (Lasix):
A) gout
B) potassium depletion
C) ototoxicity
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Vasodilator identified as especially
effective in managing severe hypertension associated with renovascular
disease, transplant rejection, renal failure
B) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
C) minoxidil (Loniten)
Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects associated with
hydralazine (Apresoline) (given alone):
A) palpitations
B) fluid retention
C) angina
D) headache
E) hypotension
Question # 13 (True/False) Clonidine can be used for dose-dependent
analgesia (epidural)
A) true
B) false
Question # 14 (Multiple Answer) ACE inhibitors:first line treatment for
patients with -A) systemic hypertension
B) mitral regurgitation
C) congestive heart failure
Question # 15 (Multiple Answer) Clinical uses: nitroprusside sodium
(Nipride)
A) controlled hypotension during anesthesia and surgery
B) controlled hypotension during surgery -- likely to ensure adequate
cerebral perfusion
C) acute & chronic heart failure
D) hypertensive emergencies
73
E) aortic surgery; reduction of proximal hypertension associated with aortic

cross-clamping
Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) Vasodilation:hydralazine (Apresoline) -A) more pronounced effect on arterioles
B) more pronounced effect on venules
C) equal effect on arterioles and renewals
Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Relaxes both arterial and venous vascular
smooth muscle
B) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
C) minoxidil (Loniten)
Question # 18 (Multiple Choice) Direct acting, nonselective peripheral
vasodilator; 44% cyanide by weight
A) minoxidil (Loniten)
B) hydralazine (Apresoline)
C) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Class of antihypertensive drugs particularly
useful for management of low-renin hypertension:-- monotherapy
A) ACE inhibitors
B) loop diuretics
C) calcium channel blockers
Question # 20 (Multiple Answer) Examples of loop diuretics:
A) mannitol (Osmitrol)
B) bumetanide (Bumex)
C) flecainide (Tambocor)
D) triamterene (Dyrenium)
E) spironolactone (Aldactone)
Question # 21 (Multiple Answer) Antihypertensive vasodilators which
would be most readily used for chronic treatment:
A) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
B) minoxidil (Loniten)
C) hydralazine (Apresoline)
2
Some asthmatic patients exhibit aspirin sensitivity (and sensitivity to other
NSAIDS). Daily administration of aspirin causes desensitization not only to
aspirin also to other NSAIDS. This phenomenon is:
the placebo effect
cross-tolerance
efficacy
74
potency
3
A thirty-eight year old asthmatic who has been using beta adrenergic
agonists for several years began to experience arrhythmias, premature atrial
contractions. In order to suppress the arrhythmias, high-dose metoprolol
therapy was started. Suggest a likely consequence:
The cardioselective beta-blocker, metoprolol, alleviated the arrhythmia and

did not affect the patient's asthma symptoms
Since metoprolol is a beta agonist, the patient's arrhythmias worsened, but
symptoms of asthma improved.
The expiratory component of the patient's flow/volume curve was shortened.
Metoprolol increased airway obstruction, worsening the patient's asthma,
but improved the cardiac rhythm disorder.
4
Anti-asthma agent that acts in part by activating pulmonary beta-receptors
thus increasing cAMP
ipratropium
terbutaline
cromolyn
methoxamine
5
An asthmatic is prescribed an adrenergic agent. After administration, the
drug makes the patient tachycardiac and nervous. This drug was probably:
albuterol
isoproterenol
terbutaline
75
A&C
6
V/Q (ventilation/perfusion) mismatching which occurs in severe asthma
results in hypoxemia. Terbutaline inhalation inproves the V/Q ratio. Why?
Increased cardiac output increases pulmonary artery perfusion pressure in

the lung
Pulmonary vasodilation improves V/Q mismatching
Bronchiolar relaxation improves ventilation.
Actually, it is the use of supplimental oxygen that is more important than
terbutaline.
7
roperty combination
Correct drug
theophylline: hepatic oxidation and demethylation

albuterol: beta2 adrenergic blocker
ipratropium bromide: well-absorbed quaternary anticholinergic; associated
with dry mouth
Beclomethasone: enhances release of chemical mediators of bronchospasm
which diminishes effectiveness of beta-2 adrenergic agonists.
8
Corticosteroids and the treatment of asthma:
Corticosteroids relax smooth muscle
Corticosteroids inhibit the inflammatory response.
Corticosteroids reduce patient responsiveness to beta agonists
In acute asthma, corticosteroids increase airway obstruction; therefore
corticosteroids should only be used for chronic treatment.
9
Phosphodiesterase-inhibitor used in asthma therapy:
76
ipratropium bromide
aminophylline
metaproterenol
cyclosporine
10
Prophylactic antiasthmatic drug probably acts by preventing release of
bronchoconstrictive mediators from mast cells:
beclomethasone
cromolyn
metaproterenol
albuterol
1
Potassium sparing diuretic:
furosemide (Lasix)
triamterene (Dyrenium)
chlorothiazide (Diuril)
mannitol (Osmitrol)
torsemide (Demadex)
2
Increased urinary output in a congestive heart failure patient who has been
started on digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps) is most likely due to:
renovascular dilatation
increased renal perfusion
decreased post glomerular arteriolar tone
77
a direct effect on renal sodium transport

a decrease in vagal tone to the kidney
3
Potassium sparing diuretic:
bumetanide (Bumex)
amiloride (Midamor)
mannitol (Osmitrol)
furosemide (Lasix)
4
Primarily an arterial vasodilator that may be useful in management of
congestive heart failure:
minoxidil (Loniten)
lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril)
5
Digitalis-induced bradycardia in the normal heart is due to:
decreased conduction through the AV node
increased vagal tone
increased sympathetic tone
decrease in fluid load
peripheral vasodilation
6
Digitalis-effect on vascular resistance in congestive heart failure patients:
vascular resistance increases
78
vascular resistance decreases

7
Digitalis-induced diuresis in edematous patients is mainly due to:
renal vasodilation
increased post-glomerular arteriolar tone
increased cardiac output
decreased heart rate
blockade of the sodium-potassium transporter
8
Drug interaction that may reduce digitalis absorption:
quinidine gluconate (Quinaglute, Quinalan)
cholestyramine (Questran, Questran Light)
norepinephrine
9
An example of a positive inotropic drug that acts by inhibiting myocardial
phosphodiesterase.
triamcinolone (Aristocort)
amrinone (Inocor)
ouabain
tranylcypromine (Parnate)
dopamine (Intropin)
10
Cardiac effects of. digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps) include:
increased heart rate
increased automaticity
79
decreased velocity of contraction

increased conduction through the AV node
decreased cardiac output
11
Angiotensin II receptor antagonist:
captopril (Capoten)
losartin (Cozaar)
nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
12
Calcium channel blocker with marked negative inotropic cardiac effects:
amlodipine (Norvasc)
amrinone (Inocor)
labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)
13
Positive inotropic agent that not only stimulates beta-1, beta-2, alpha-1,
alpha-2 receptors but also acts as a vasodilator to reduce aortic impedance
(afterload).
isoproterenol (Isuprel)
norepinephrine
dopamine (Intropin)
dobutamine (Dobutrex)
80
phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
14
Loop diuretic useful both in acute and chronic management of congestive
heart failure:
chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
chlorhalidone (Hygroton)
bumetanide (Bumex)
ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)
spironolactone (Aldactone)
15
Digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps) clinical uses:
atrial fibrillation
atrial flutter
congestive heart failure
A&C
A, B & C
16
Useful in treating arrhythmias associated with digitalis toxicity:
lidocaine (Xylocaine)
potassium
both
neither
17
Effects of digitalis glycosides on the heart include:
increased conduction velocity through the AV node
81
decreased refractory period of the AV node

positive inotropic effects
positive chronotropic effects
A&C
18
Positive inotropic drug are not classified as a cardiac glycoside:
prazosin (Minipress)
amrinone (Inocor)
methacholine (Provocholine)
quinidine gluconate (Quinaglute, Quinalan)
1. Most common complication insulin therapy:
A. ? lipodystrophies
B. ? hypotension
C. ? gallstones
D. ? hypoglycemia
E. ? retinopathy
2. Effects associated with insulin- induced hypoglycemia:
A. ? tachycardia
B. ? palpitations
C. ? nausea
D. ? sweating
E. ? all of the above
3. Effective in the immediate management of the comatose, hypoglycemic
patient.
A. ? have the patient drink orange juice
B. ? provide IV infusion of 50% glucose solution
C. ? glucagon injection -- subcutaneous or intramuscular
D. ? B & C
82
E. ? A,B & C
4. Causes of hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient:
A. ? insulin overdosage
B. ? delay in eating (later than normal)
C. ? unusual physical activity
D. ? A & B
E. ? A,B & C
5. Blockade of signs of diabetic hypoglycemia:
A. ? diabetic neuropathy
B. ? metoprolol (Lopressor)
C. ? propranolol (Inderal)
D. ? B & C
E. ? A, B & C
6. Insulin allergy:
A. ? immediate response is IgG mediated
B. ? anaphylaxis may result
C. ? change in insulin species(e.g. from pure pork or human from beef)
D. ? B & C
E. ? A, B & C
7. Biguanide-- oral hypoglycemic drug:
A. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)
B. ? acarbose (Precose)
C. ? metformin (Glucophage)
D. ? troglitazone (Rezulin)
E. ? none of the above
8. Proposed mechanism(s) for hypoglycemic action of sulfonylureas:
A. ? enhancement of insulin release from pancreatic beta cells
B. ? increase of serum glucagon levels
C. ? potentiation of insulin effects at target tissues
D. ? A & B
E. ? A & C
9. Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic drug:receptor sites
83
A. ? muscarinic receptor
B. ? calcium channel
C. ? potassium channel
D. ? beta adrenergic receptor
E. ? alpha adrenergic receptor
10. Inhibitors of insulin release:
A. ? somatostatin
B. ? diazoxide (Hyperstat)
C. ? phenytoin (Dilantin)
D. ? vinblastine (Velban)
E. ? all of the above
11. Second generation sulfonylurea:
A. ? chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
B. ? tolazamide (Tolinase)
C. ? acetohexamide
D. ? glipizide (Glucotrol)
E. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)
12. Second-generation sulfonylurea approved for once-daily use as
monotherapy in management of Type II diabetes:
A. ? chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
B. ? glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta)
C. ? glipizide (Glucotrol)
D. ? glimepiride (Amaryl)
E. ? metformin (Glucophage)
13. Oral hypoglycemic agent most likely to be prescribed for patients with
refractory obesity and who exhibit insulin resistance syndrome: in
A. ? acetohexamide
B. ? chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
C. ? glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta)
D. ? metformin (Glucophage)
E. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)
14. Aldose reductase inhibitor:
A. ? metformin (Glucophage)
B. ? acetazolamide (Diamox)
84
C. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)
D. ? acarbose (Precose)
E. ? troglitazone (Rezulin)
15. Cardiac effects of glucagon:
A. ? positive inotropic; positive chronotropic
B. ? negative inotropic negative chronotropic
16. Immediate pharmacologic/metabolic consequence of glucagon infusion:
A. ? increase hepatic glycogen; decrease blood glucose
B. ? decrease blood glucose; decrease stored hepatic glycogen
C. ? increased blood glucose; decreased hepatic glycogen
D. ? decreased blood glucose; increase stored hepatic glycogen
E. ? none of the above
17. Glucagon effect(s)-- at pharmacologic doses:
A. ? promote insulin release from normal pancreatic B cells
B. ? promote catecholamine release from pheochromocytoma
C. ? promote calcitonin release from medullary carcinoma cells
D. ? A & B
E. ? A, B & C
18. Following very significant alpha and beta-adrenergic blocker
overdosage; most likely to promote increased inotropic and chronotropic
cardiac response
A. ? isoproterenol (Isuprel)
B. ? phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
C. ? glucagon
D. ? mecamylamine (Inversine)
E. ? none of the above would be effective
Exam 1 Coagulation
This is a self-grading exam. Answers are entered by clicking the button
corresponding to your selection. The examination is scored by clicking
'Grade Test' at the bottom of the form. Correct answers are found through
hyperlinks at the bottom of the page.
85

Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) Excessive anticoagulant effect in bleeding
due to warfarin can be reversed by:
A) stopping the drug
B) large doses of vitamin K
C) factor IX concentrates
D) cholestyramine
E) diuretics
Question # 2 (Multiple Answer) Protease inhibitor(s) that inactivators
coagulation proteins escaping from sites of vessel injury:
A) alpha2-macroglobulin
B) alpha2-antiplasmin
C) antithrombin III
D) alpha1 antiprotease
E) streptokinase
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Cutaneous necrosis was reduced protein C
activity occurs during the first weeks of therapy with:
A) streptokinase
B) abciximab
C) warfarin
D) ticlopidine
E) aspirin
Question # 4 (Multiple Answer) Coagulation Factor(s) targets of heparin:
A) fibrinogen
B) proaccelerin
C) prothrombin
D) Christmas factor
E) antihemophilic globulin (AHG)
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Thrombus type most likely to be formed in
low pressure veins
A) white thrombus
B) red thrombus
Question # 6 (True/False) Warfarin crosses the placental barrier:
A) true
B) false
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Synonym for factor VII:
A) proaccelerin
B) prothrombin
C) proconvertin
D) Christmas factor
E) Fibrin-stabilizing factor
Question # 8 (Multiple Answer) Fibrolytic drugs:
A) streptokinase
86
B) alteplase
C) reteplase
D) urokinase
E) cyclooxygenase
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Immediate hemostatic responds to the
damage vessel:
A) platelet adhesion
B) platelet aggregation
C) platelet viscous metamorphosis
D) vasospasm
E) white thrombus formation
Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Coumarin anticoagulants resulted in
biologically inactive forms of:
A) factor VII
B) factor IX
C) factor X
D) anticoagulant protein C
E) anticoagulant protein S
Question # 11 (Multiple Answer) Increases prothrombin time:
A) cimetadine
B) metronidazole
C) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
D) fluconazole
E) disulfram
Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) Mouse/human chimeric monoclonal
antibody -- blocks IIb/IIIb platelet receptor
A) ticlopidine
B) timolol
C) abciximab
D) eicosapentaenoic acid
E) streptokinase

1
Second generation sulfonylurea antidiabetic drug:
chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
Tolbutamide (Orinase)
glipizide (Glucotrol)
A&C
87
A, B & C
2
Clinically use(s) for glucagon:
management of severe hyperglycemia
beta adrenergic receptor poisoning
diagnostic uses
B&C
A&C
3
Major manifestations of diabetes:
metabolic disorders
inappropriate hyperglycemia
both
neither
4
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus:
Type I
Type II
5
Characteristics of Type I diabetes:
typically adult onset
low plasma glucagon
insulin nearly absent
pancreatic B cell is responsive to insulinogenic stimuli
88
6
In a patient with Type I diabetes, exogenous insulin is required to:
prevent ketosis
reverse hypoglucagonemia
reverses catabolic state
A&C
A, B & C
7
Symptoms Secondary to Hyperglycemia in a Type I Diabetic Patient
polyuria
polydipsia
polyphagia
A, B & C
none of the above
8
Cause(s) of metabolic effecct(s) associated with Type I diabetes:
relative or significant glucagon excess
an increase in glucagon/insulin ratio
excessive insulin concentration
A&B
A, B & C
9
IDDM: typical age of onset
89
less than 40 years of age

greater than 40 years of age
10
Acute complication: NIDDM
ketoacidosis
hyperosmolar coma
11
Plasma insulin concentration: NIDDM
low to absent
normal to high
12
IDDM: response to sulfonylurea drugs:
unresponsive
responsive
13
Characteristic(s)of Type II diabetes:
Group of milder forms of diabetes
Occurs mainly in children
Obesity: common risk factor
A&C
A, B & C
14
Clinical presentation: NIDDM
usually developed ketoacidosis
exhibits volume excess
90
CNS symptoms
exhibits hypo-osmolality
15
Hyperosmolar, nonketotic coma:
caused by sustained hyperglycemia diuresis when patients cannot drink
enough water to keep up with urinary fluid loss
complete manifestation occurs when volume depletion decreases urine
output
both
neither
16
Treatment of hyperosmolar coma states
large amounts of IV fluids
insulin
potassium salts
sodium bicarbonate
all the above
17
Type II diabetes treatment -weight reduction
diet
insulin
sulfonylurea drugs
all the both
18
91
Clinical use for short-acting insulin

IV treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
management of rapidly changing insulin requirements
both
neither
19
Tight glycemic control recommended:
for patients with advance renal disease

elderly
children under the age of seven years
none of the above
20
Most common complication of insulin treatment
excessive appetite
tachycardia, palpitations -- sympathetic overactivity
hypoglycemia
Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) More likely to affect the cytochrome P450

drug metabolizing system:
A) ranitidine (Zantac)
B) cimetidine (Tagamet)
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Only class of antiulcer drugs that can
eradicate Helicobacter pylori and cure associated gastritis:
A) sucralfate (Carafate)
B) colloidal bismuth
C) H2 blockers
D) Anticholinergic agents
92
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: melt-alkali syndrome:

A) aluminum hydroxide
B) magnesium hydroxide
C) calcium carbonate
D) sodium bicarbonate
Question # 4 (True/False) Reduces basal unstimulated gastric acid secretion;
enhanced mucosal resistance to injury-- prostaglandins (PGE1/PGE2)
A) true
B) false
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: effective, but associated with
systemic alkalosis
A) calcium carbonate
B) sodium bicarbonate
C) magnesium hydroxide
D) aluminum hydroxide
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: most likely to cause systemic
phosphate depletion:
A) sodium bicarbonate
B) calcium carbonate
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Monotherapy effectiveness in eradication of
H. pylori-- bismuth compounds
A) 5%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 90%
Question # 8 (Multiple Answer) Omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole
approved for clinical treatment of:
A) duodenal ulcer
B) erosive gastritis
C) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and other gastric acid hypersecretory states
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Side effect profile-- antiulcer medication:
urinary retention, blurred vision, xerostromia,:
A) ranitidine (Zantac)
B) atropine
C) nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)
D) sucralfate (Carafate)
Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Examplesof H2 (histamine receptor Type
II) antagonists:
A) cimetidine (Tagamet)
B) ranitidine (Zantac)
C) nizatidine (Axid)
D) famotidine (Pepcid)
93
E) terfenadine
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Mechanism of action: cytoprotection, binds
to the ulcer base, antibacterial effect:
A) metronidazole (Flagyl)
B) tetracycline (Achromycin)
C) bismuth compounds
D) ranitidine (Zantac)
E) omeprazole (Prilosec)
Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Drug(s) used iin eradication of
Helicobacter pylori infection:
A) bismuth compounds
B) metronidazole (Flagyl)
C) clarithromycin (Biaxin)
D) omeprazole (Prilosec)
E) amoxicillin (Amoxil Polymox)
Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) Most widely used antacid in treating ulcer
disease:
A) sodium bicarbonate
B) calcium carbonate
E) combination of aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide
Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) Treatment of gastric a disease: atropine
vs.H2-receptor blockers -- atropine is:
A) more effective than H2 receptor blockers
B) less effective than H2 receptor blockers
C) equally effective
Question # 15 (Multiple Choice) Drawbacks of "triple therapy" {bismuth
compounds + metronidazole (Flagyl) + tetracycline (Achromycin)}in
treating peptic ulcer disease:
A) patient compliance (2 week treatment = 200 tablets)
B) side effects
C) both
D) neither
Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: constipation
Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Most successful protocol for eradication of
H. pylori/treatment of peptic ulcer disease:
A) bismuth monotherapy
B) therapy using bismuth compounds, metronidazole (Flagyl), and
amoxicillin (Amoxil Polymox) in combination -triple therapy
C) bismuth compounds and amoxicillin (Amoxil Polymox)
D) all of the above equally effective
94
Question # 18 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: loose stools

C) both
D) neither
Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Eradication of H. pylori effectiveness for
bismuth compounds when using combination with antibiotics:
A) 5%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 80%
E) 95%
Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) In anesthesiology: high-risk patients for
aspiration pneumonitis:
A) patients with hiatus hernia
B) patients with esophageal reflux
C) patients with acute pain, "full stomach" -- emergency surgery
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Aspiration pneumonia less likely when:
A) metoclopramide (Reglan) is used alone
B) metoclopramide (Reglan) is combined with ranitidine (Zantac)
Question # 3 (Multiple Answer) Properties of metoclopramide (Reglan):
A) decreases upper gastrointestinal motility
B) decreases gastroesophageal sphincter tone
C) relaxes the pylorus
D) relaxes the duodenum
4-Pre-treatment with metoclopramide (Reglan) guarantees complete gastric
emptying:
A) true
B) false
5-Greatest increase in gastric fluid volume which may be associated with
antacid administration:
A) single dose antacid
B) multiple antacid dosing
C) repeated dosing with concurrent opioid administration (e.g. during labor)
6-Aspiration of gastric fluid containing particulate antacids may have
this/these consequences:
A) pulmonary edema
B) arterial hypoxemia
C) both
D) neither
7- Use of gastrokinetic drugs diminishes the need for correct, diligent
anesthetic techniques to protect the airway during anesthesia:
A) true
95
B) false
8-Metoclopramide (Reglan): may not be effective of increasing gastric
emptying following sodium citrate administration:
A) true
B) false
9-Omeprazole (Prilosec) and gastric acid suppression
A) effective if given by IV 30 minutes prior to induction
B) duration of action: about one day
C) both
D) neither
10- Effect on antacids on gastric fluid volume:
A) increases
B) decreases
C) no effect
12-Concerning nonparticulate antacids and their use in preoperative
medication:
A) may themselves produce pulmonary damage if aspiration gastric fluid
containing this type of an acid occurs
B) more effective than colloidal antacids suspensionsin increasing gastric
acid pH
C) both
D) neither
13-(Zofran) probably mediates its antiemetic effects by interacting with this
receptor system:
A) muscarinic, cholinergic
B) nicotinic, cholinergic
C) dopaminergic
D) serotonergic
E) GABA
14-In adults: relatively high risk of pulmonary complications if aspiration
volume is greater than 25 ml and pH < 2.5:
A) true
B) false
15-Physiological effects of metoclopramide (Reglan):
A) stimulates upper gastrointestinal motility
B) increases gastroesophageal sphincter tone
C) increases gastric fluid pH
D) increases gastric acid secretion
16-Drugs that may offset metoclopramide (Reglan) effect on the upper GI
tract:
A) opioids
B) concurrent atropine administration
C) both
D) neither
96
17- Greater "lag time" in increasing gastrointestinal pH:

A) antacids
B) H2 blockers
C) both about the same lifetime
18-Appropriate for preoperative antiemetic use:
A) droperidol (Inapsine)
B) metoclopramide (Reglan)
C) both
D) neither
19-Antiemetic drugs particularly useful for patients undergoing:
A) opthalmological surgery
B) laproscopic surgery
C) gynecologic procedures
1
This antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in patients with bilateral renal
artery stenosis:
clonidine (Catapres)
terazosin (Hytrin)
captopril (Capoten)
2
Antihypertensive drug typically used in patients with severe hypertension
and renal insufficiency; this agent produces significant fluid retention and
hypertrichosis.
methyldopa (Aldomet)
minoxidil (Loniten)
3
97
The drug of choice in management of hypertensive crisis when continuously

variable IV infusion is required.
diazoxide (Hyperstat)
4
A drug-induced lupus-like syndrome is associated with this antihypertensive
drug
minoxidil (Loniten)
acebutolol (Sectral)
5
Tachycardia due to hydralazine administration would be blocked by:
bumetanide (Bumex)
fosinopril (Monopril)
mecamylamine (Inversine)
minoxidil (Loniten)
6
A diabetic patient is prescribed a new medication to control mild
hypertension. The patient then becomes less aware of hypoglycemic
symptoms. The antihypertensive drug was most probably:
98
atenolol (Tenormin)
enalapril (Vasotec) and
7
Which drug would be least likely used in the initial pharmacological
treatment of mild hypertension?
amlodipine (Norvasc)
enalapril (Vasotec)
minoxidil (Loniten)
8
Which antihypertensive drug would be contraindicated if the patient were
taking tranylcypromine (Parnate)?
hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ, Esidrix, HydroDIURIL)
guanethidine (Ismelin)
labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)
9
Which drug would block the antihypertensive efficacy of guanadrel
(Hylorel)?
buspirone (BuSpar)
99
lorazepam (Ativan)
imipramine (Tofranil)
10
Lisinopril belongs to which class of antihypertensive drugs?
centrally-acting sympatholytic
beta-adrenoceptor antagonist
angiotensin II receptor antagonist
beta-adrenoceptor agonist
angiotensin II converting enzyme inhibitor
11
Most likely to be used for initial drug management of moderate hypertension
minoxidil (Loniten)
12
Antihypertensive agents -- side effect profile includes impaired glucose tolerance,
hypokalemia, increased serum lipids and increased renin secretion:
100

13
Effects of hydralazine (Apresoline):
increased renin levels
lupus-like syndrome
reflex bradycardia
hypertensive response if patient ingests food rich in tyramine
all of the above
14
Mechanisms by which blood-pressure may be reduced:
reduced cardiac output
increased vagus nerve activity
decreased central sympathetic outflow
reduced angiotensin II levels
all the above
15
Orthostatic hypotension:
minoxidil (Loniten)
imipramine (Tofranil)
all of the above
101
16
Antihypertensive drug least likely to cause orthostatic hypotension:
minoxidil (Loniten)
enalapril (Vasotec)
terazosin (Hytrin)
17
Vascular smooth muscle relaxation by means of calcium channel blockade:
captopril (Capoten)
18
Protects against tachycardia caused by minoxidil (Loniten) administration:
losartin (Cozaar)
19
Mechanism of antihypertensive action:inhibition of peptidyl dipeptidase
102

20
Antihypertensive agent that can produce a positive Coombs' test
clonidine (Catapres)
guanabenz (Wytensin)
guanfacine (Tenex)
1
First-line the defense against antigenic insult
adaptive immune system
innate immune system
2
Adaptive Immune Response(s):
antibody production
lymphocyte activation
both
neither
3
Generation of specific immunity requires antigen-presenting cells, APCs,
including:
B lymphocytes
macrophages
Langerhans cells
103
A&B
A,B & C
4
Produced by TH1 subsets of T helper lymphocytes:
interferon-gamma
interleukin-2
tumor necrosis factor beta
A&B
A, B & C
5
Typically associated with B cell proliferation and differentiation into
antibody-secreting plasma cells
interferon-gamma
IL-4 (interleukin 4)
IL-2 (interleukin 2)
all of the above
6
T helper lymphocytes -- regulate each other; this substance produced by
TH1cells inhibits TH2 cellular proliferation:
interleukin-2
interferon-gamma
IL-4
IL-6
104
7
Extracellular bacteria promote elaboration of:
TH1 cytokines
TH2 cytokines
8
Intracellular organisms (e.g. Mycobacterium) promote production of:
TH1 cytokines
TH2 cytokines
9
Activated cytotoxic T cells induce target cell death (virus-infected cells) by:
Fas-Fas ligand apotosis pathway
lytic granule enzymes
perforin
all of the above
10
Hypersensitivity: cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE on blood basophils
or tissue mast cells by antigen
Type I
Type II
Type III
11
Hemolytic disease of the newborn:
Immediate Hypersensitivity Type I
Delayed Hypersensitivity
Immediate Hypersensitivity Type II
105
Immediate Hypersensitivity Type III

12
Associated with elevated levels of antigen-antibody complexes, which cause
tissue damage; complement activation results in anaphylatoxic and
chemotactic activities:
13
Administration of penicillin to allergic patients:
14
Effective in eliminating infections caused by intracellular pathogens such as
Leishmania species:
15
Examples of autoimmune diseases
rheumatoid arthritis
insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
systemic lupus erythematosis
106
A&C
A, B & C
1
Example of first-class of hormonal agents noted to have lipolytic properties:
cyclosporine
prednisone (Deltasone)
tacrolimus
IFN-alpha
thalidomide
2
Glucocorticoid effects:
inhibition of leukotriene production
inhibition of prostaglandins
increased chemotaxis
A&B
A, B & C
3
Effective in lowering incidents of rejection in infectious complications in
transplant patients:
azathioprine (Imuran)
antilymphocyte antibodies
cyclosporine (Sandimmune, Neoral)
all the above
107
4
Tests of immunocompetency:-- measurements
in vitro IL-2 stimulation of lymphokine activated killer cell production
in vitro lymphocyte profilerative responses to mitogens
erythropoiesis
A&B
A, B & C
5
About two-thirds of children with early diabetic symptoms can discontinue
or reduce insulin treatment within about six weeks after starting treatment
with this drug:
tacrolimus
interferon
cyclosporine (Sandimmune, Neoral)
prednisone (Deltasone) and
thalidomide
6
This immunosuppressant antibiotic commonly approved for use in liver
transplantation, is 10 to 100 times more potent than cyclosporine in
inhibiting immune responses:
interferon-gamma
tacrolimus (FK 506)
A&B
A, B & C
7
108
Autoimmune (Type II) drug reaction:

penicillin
sulfonamides
iodides
phenytoin (Dilantin)
8
Implicated in initiation of hypersensitivity vasculitis; a Type III vasculitic
reaction:
sulfonamides
penicillin
thiouracil
anticonvulsants
all the above
9
Blockade of mediator release following exposure of sensitized tissue mast
cells or blood basophils to drugs that initiate Type I drug allergic reactions:
isoproterenol (Isuprel)
antihistamines
theophylline
A&C
A, B & C
10
Example of immunostimulatory cytokine that may be useful in cancer
immunotherapy
109
levamisole
BCG
IFN-alpha
IL-2
none of the above
11
For synthesized for treating parasitic infections, this drug is now FDA
approved for clinical use in the treatment of Dukes class C colorectal cancer
after surgery:
inosiplex
thymopoietin
levamisole
BCG
IGIV
12
Alkylating agent; destroys proliferating lymphoid cells; in low doses -- for
effective against autoimmune disorders including systemic lupus
erythematosus
azathioprine (Imuran)
methotrexate
cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
antilymphocyte globulin (ALG)
all the above
13
Cytotoxic agents with immunosuppressive properties:
110
cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
vincristine (Oncovin)
methotrexate
cytarabine (ARA-C)
all the above
14
Type 1 immediate hypersensitivity:
due to elevated levels of antigen-antibody complexes
stems from cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE on blood basophils or
tissue mast cells by antigen
follows from formation of antigen- antibody complexes between foreign
antigen and IgM or IgG immunoglobulins
tissue damage due to influx of antigen-nonspecific inflammatory cells
(macrophages and neutrophils)
15
Autoimmune disorder: associated with antibodies made against self DNA,
red blood cells, histones, platelets
rheumatoid arthritis
systemic lupus erythematosus
insulin dependent diabetes
Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Structural analog/antimetabolite: cytotoxic
immunosuppressive drug:
A) vincristine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) azathioprine
D) none of the above
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Immunomodulatory sedative drugs used in
the management of some forms of leprosy; also effective in managing skin
111
manifestations of lupus erythematosus

A) tacrolimus
B) cyclophosphamide
C) thalidomide
D) buproprion
E) diazepam
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Drug of choice in treating autoimmune
hemolytic anemia:
A) cyclophosphamide plus factor XIII
B) Rho(D) immune globulin
C) prednisone
D) OKT3 monoclonal antibody
E) cyclosporine
Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) Interferes with cell cycle of activated
lymphoid cells;example of the first class of hormonal agents recognized
have lympholytic properties:
A) cyclosporine
B) tacrolimus
C) IFN-alpha
D) dexamethasone
E) 15-desoxyspergualin
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Useful in management of idiopathic
thrombocytopenic purpura refractory to prednisone
A) dactinomycin
B) vincristine
C) cyclophosphamide
D) azathioprine
E) all of the above
6 -Drug of choice in treating hemolytic anemia of the newborn:
A) cyclosporine
B) prednisone
C) OKT3 monoclonal antibody
D) tacrolimus
E) Rho(D) immune globulin
7-Clinical uses of interferon:
A) cancer treatment
B) multiple sclerosis
C) both*
D) neither
8-Type 1 hypersensitivity: cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE on blood
basophils or tissue mast cells by antigen
A) true
B) false
9-immunomodulating agents:
112
A) thymosin
B) interferon beta
C) interferon-gamma
D) TNF alpha
E) all the above
10- Class 1 MHC molecules present mainly fragments of cellular antigens
A) true
B) false*
11-Inhibits antigen recognition of B-cell
A) prednisone
B) azathioprine
C) methotrexate
D) Rho(D) immune globulin
E) tacrolimus
12-Antilymphocyte antibodies:
A) binds to the surface of T cells
B) acts mainly on small, long-lived peripheral lymphocytes
C) may be used in induction of immunosuppression*
D) may be obtained by hybridoma technique for monoclonal antibody
generation
E) all of the above
13-Clinical uses of immunosuppressive drugs:
A) organ transplantation
B) hemolytic disease of the newborn
C) autoimmune disorders
D) A & C*
E) A, B & C
All the following are controlled drugs EXEPT :
a)stesolid
b)Diazepam
c)Imipenem*
d)primidon
Vasopressine is used for treatment of :
a)Diabetes of insipidus*
b)Diabetes mellitus type I
d)Antihypertensive
All of the following are used as cough depressant EXCEPT :
a)Guaifenesin*
b)Dextromethorphane
c)Codiene Phospahte
113
d)Morphine hydrochloride
Which one of the following is not Tetracycline :
a)Minocycline
b)Doxycycline
c)Demeclocycline
d)Clindamycin
Theophyllin is :
a)Bronchodilator*
c)DERMATITS
d)All of the above
QOD MEAN
a)four tims daily
b)for four day*
c)after meals
ANTIDOT FOR PARACETAMOL
A)acetylcysteine*
b)atropine
c)iron
d)a and b
ANGIOTENSIN II ANTAGONIST
A)LOSARTAN*
LABETALOL
C)CAPTOPRIL
Trade name Diazepam
a)valium*
b Narcan)
c)fentanyl
d)lumenal
Glucocrticoids used in
a)running nose
b)bronchial asthma*
c)leprosy
Phenylephrine is used for :
a)Decongestant
b)Sympathomematic
114
c)Running nose
d)All of the above*
cefouroxime
a)first genration
b)second genration*
c)fourth genration
Aspirin
aspirin with analgesic&anti_inflamatory
b)antipalelet
c)contraindicated for pregnancy
d)a and c only
e)all of the above*
Treatement Glaucoma by
a)timolol
b)pilocarpine
c)atropin
d)non of the above
e)all of the above*
acetyl cysteine treate poison
a)aspirin
b)heparin
c)paracetamol*
d)digoxin
digoxin no available in hosbital
a)0.57
b)250
c)0.25
d)750
: All of the following are macrolides EXEPT ) 1
a)Clarithromycin
b)Roxithromycin
c)Erythromycin
*d)Clindamycin
: of the following are used as Antiepileptic EXEPT All) 2
valproate . a)Sod
b)Carbamazepine
*c)Nedocromil
) 3 metronidazole is The main use of
*a)Antiamoebiasis
b)Antihelmintic
c)Antibiotc
d)Antimalaria
115
: diuretic which is used with captopril is The) 4

a)Aldacton
acid b)Ethacrynic
c)furesemide
*d)None of the above
: pre-anesthitic to Atropine is used as) 5
parasympathatic a)Give skeletal muscle relaxation as the effect of
*b)decrease salive
anesthetic c)Help the sleepin effect of
d)Treat the side effect of anesthetic
: of pharmacist work in hospital is The responsibility) 6
a)Admenstration of the drug
with patient b)deal
*c)deal with drug interaction
drug d)monitor affect of the
: protien bound drugs forming a compound which is) 7
*a)Inactive while the free part is active
part is inactive b)Highly active while the free
c)less active whike the free part is active
while the free part is more active d)active
: drugs EXEPT All the following are controlled) 8
a)stesolid
b)Diazepam
*c)Imipenem
d)primidon
: colitis is a side effect of Pseudomembrane) 9
a)Vancomycin
*b)Clindamycin
c)Reserpine
d)I.N.H
: Hypothermia is usually a side effect of Malignant ) 10
*a)Anaeshtesia
b)Azathropin
c)Phenytoin
d)Aspirin
: is used for treatment of Vasopressine ) 11
*a)Diabetes of insipidus
type I b)Diabetes mellitus
d)Antihypertensive
: following are used as cough depressant EXCEPT All of the ) 12
*a)Guaifenesin
b)Dextromethorphane
c)Codiene Phospahte
hydrochloride d)Morphine
: Which one of the following is taken orally ) 13
a)Estrogen
*b)Estrogen gluconate
c)Estrogen malate
: choice to treat Leishmaniasis Drug of) 14
*a)Sod. Stibogluconate
Cromoglycate . b)Sod
c)Metronidazole
116
d)Mebendazole
: agonist) is used for Sumatriptan (5-HT1) 15
a)Hypertention
*b)Migrane and headach
pectoris c)Angina
d)Epilipsy
: drugs is not used due to Hyperkalemia In patient with Renal disease one of these ) 16
a)Bu****nide
*b)Amiloride
c)Fursemide
acid d)Ethocrynic
: choice In patient who asking for a decongestant , which drug is the best ) 17
a)Terfenadine
b)Astimazole
c)Loratedine
*above d)All of the
: Allopuranol affects through enzyme action by ) 18
a)Decarboxylase inhibition
*b)Xanthine oxidase inhibition
c)Cycloxygenase inhibition
d)All of the above
: following is consider as enzyme inducer Which one of the ) 19
*a)Rifampicin
b)Chloramphinicol
c)cimetidine
d)Vit C
: new non-sedating antihistamine are related to The) 20
a)H2 - antagonists
*antagonists - b) H1
H2 antagonists & c)Both H1
above d)Non of the
: sulfonamides .. you should , When a patient comes to you with a pre******ion of penicilline ) 21
food a)Ask patient to avoid taking drug with
b)Ask him to avoid taking the drug with milk
*allergic to this drug c)Ask him if he is an
d)All of the above
: following is not Tetracycline Which one of the ) 22
a)Minocycline
b)Doxycycline
c)Demeclocycline
*d)Clindamycin
: should be treated with TB) 23
a)single drug to avoid resistance
shorten the therapy period b)Two drugs to
*microorganism c)three to four drugs to ensure eradication of
d)Non of the above
: Food poisoning is caused by ) 24
a)Virus
*b)Bacteria
c)Worms
d)Tinea
: following is the drug of choice for Hypothyrodisim Which one of the ) 25
a)Carbimazole
*b)Thyroxine
c)Iodine
d)Propylthiouracil
117
: one of these diuretics is more potent than the other Which) 26

a)Fursemide
b)Torasemide
acid c)Ethacrynic
*d)
bumetanide
: Phenylephrine is used for ) 27

a)Decongestant
b)Sympathomematic
c)Running nose
*d)All of the above
you .. patient comes to you with pre******ion pf INDERAL, and you note that he wheezing A) 28
.should
a)Give him the medicin
b)Be contact with him
*doctor to ask him about the pre******ion c)Call the
asthmatic d)Ask the patient if he
: Theophyllin is) 29
*a)Bronchodilator
agonist b)2
c)ANticholinergic
d)All of the above
: differ from Phenobarbital in Pentobarbital) 30
a)Longer duration
*action b)Faster in
c)a + b
d)not us
Pharmaceutical calculations
2- Autonomic nervous system
3- Cardiovascular system
4- Central nervous system
5- Abbrevations
2009-11
1-A patient of prolonged use of enalapril will show
a)increase in k b) decrease in k
2- in digitalis toxicity treatmen????
a)monitor level of k and Mg and correct them if needed
b) monitor ECG
c)ask about the last dose of digitalis
3- in digitalis toxicity give patient an element which is:
a) digoxine fab.immuone
b) Mg c) k
4- domperidone is used for nausea& vomiting

118
5- omeprazole is used for hyper acidity

6- atropine side effect
a) constipation b) diarrhea c) increase salive
7-All are side effect of methotrexate except????:
a)oral ulcer b)alopecia
c) d)
8-All are risk factors for osteoporosis except:
a)low Ca intake b)less exposure to sunlight
c)male gender
d)
9-Erythromycin antibiotic is:
a)slightly effective against Gm+ve
b)is an Aminoglycosides antibiotic
c) pregnant can not take it if it is necessary
d) pregnant can take it if it is necessary
10- Used as a decongestant is Phenylephrine
11- A side effect of enalapril:..???
a) glucose intolerance b) arterial renal stenosis
12-A patient of prolonged use of Spironolactone diuretic will
show
13- A Characteristic of shock is
a) vasoconstriction b) hyperperfusion
c) hypoperfusion
14- Not given to patient of asthma
a)inhaled corticosteroids b) B2 agonist
c)leukotrienes modulators d) B2 antagonist
15-make depletion of biogenic amines from stores
a) Reserpine b) Guanethidine c) Guanabenze
16- Vit. C.ascorbic a
17- carbidopa w levodopa :.
a) inhibition of levodopa decarboxylation
b) inhibition of levodopa oxidation
18- Cholestyramine..anti-hyperlipidemic
19- A patient has slightly increase in LDL is advised to all the
following except
a) initiation of drug ttt b) excersize
c) low fat intake
20- Thiopental is described as
a) ultrashort-acting barbiturate b) fast acting barbiturate
119
21-cushing -like syndrome is due to

a) adrenal hyperplasia b) adrenal hyporplasia
c) Hypothyroidism d) hyperthyroidism
21- essential hypertension may be due to
a) taccy cardia b) pheorcomocytoma
c)family factor
22- Morphine causes respiratory depression by
a) depression of respiratory center in brain
b) activation of respiratory center in brain
c) depression of CTZ receptors center in brain
d) activation of CTZ receptors center in brain
23- one part of a solute dissolved in 10,000 parts in of a
solvent.the solute described as:..???
a) high soluble b) slightly soluble
c) sparinegly y soluble d)insoluble
24- Reserpine not to be given to patient of Parkinsonism treated
by
a) levodopa b) Indomethacin
25-Calcium-channel blockers mode of action
a) increase the inward calcium to cells b) decrease the inward
calcium to cells
26-Propranolol.none selective b blocker
)(
27-terazosinalpha 1 blocker
??? All the following are effects of Captopril except: 28a) block the ACE
b) decrease the breakdown of bradykinin
c) inhibition of aldosterone
d)ttt of CHf
e)vasoconstriction
28-A drug has the same moity of another one but not necessary
to has the same dosage form or the same dose .the two drug are
be described as:
a) bioequivalents b) Pharmaceutical equivalents
c) Pharmaceutical alternatives..: make sure
29- First-pass metabolism depends on :?????
a) biotransformation rate b) biotransformation capacity
c) pKa of the drug
30- Pharmacokinetic constant is: ?????
a) Zero-order b) First-order c) 2nd-order
31-which is (are) electromagnetic waves?????
120
a)X-ray b) Beta- ray c) Gama- ray d)a+c

)(
32- in digoxin toxicity shows PR prolongation???? : make
sure
33- Coal tar used for ttt of
a)Fat malabsorption b)psoriasis
34- degradation of a solid drug into small fragment in a process
befpre absorption : make sure
a)desintigration b)dissolution c) a+ b
35-Aspartame used as.sweetener
36- ophthalmic preparations: make sure
a) solution, suspention and then ointment
b) solution, ointment and then suspention
c) suspention, solution and then ointment
d) suspention, ointment and then solution
e) ointment, solution and then suspention
37- Tetracaine is:
a) Local Anesthetics b)opoid analgesic
38- highly used solid dosage form is:
a) tablet b)poweder
c) Soft Gelatin Capsule d) hard gelatin capsules
39-A patient of prolonged use of thiazide diuretic will show
40- cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibition by.???
a) hydrolysis b) oxidation
41- All are clinically used opioids except:
a) morphine b) codeine
c) Heroin d) methyl morphine
42- Measurement of drug effect by
a) Pharmacodynamic parameter b) pharmacokinetics parameter
43- A patient shows hypersensitivity w , Ampicillin can take
a) Erythromycin b) Cephalexin
c) Cefixime d) Augmentin
44- has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity pindolol
45- effect of histamine:
a) Vasoconstriction b) increase in gastric secretion
46- pH is :
a) Measurement of acidity b) low in basic drugs
c) high in acidic drugs
47- Elevation of HLDL means
a) high risk of atherosclerosis b) low risk of atherosclerosis
48- Phase 0 of Arrhythmia: This phase is one of rapid depolar-
121
ization caused by the influx of Na

49- Phase 1 of Arrhythmia: initial depolarization is due to a
transient and active potassium efflux. Calcium begins to move
into the intracellular
50- Phase 2 of Arrhythmia: plateau Phase Calcium influx
continues and is balanced to some degree by potassium efflux
: Phases of Arrhythmia
Phases 3
51- All are effects of digoxin except:
a)inotropic effect b) chronotropic effect
c) increase AV conduction d)
52- Antacid has a Cathartic side effect is..?????
a)calcium carbonateb) magnesium hydroxide
c) Al .silicate d)
53- A salt is a 25 c temp. is soluble in benzene more than water
This salt is: : make sure
a)polar b) non-polar
c) hydrophilic d)
54- All are alpha 2 agonist except: ..?????
55-side effect of aldosterone..?????
a) dyspnea b) flushing
c) a+ b d)
2009-11-14 ) 55(
56- propranolol given w hydralazine toreduce reflex
Tachycardia
57-O.M.every morning
58-p r nwhen required
59-cyclizine is used for nausea& vomiting
60-warfarine antidote.vit.K
61- propranololnonselective b b
62-Q 4 h. every 4 hours
63- doxazosin is
a) postsynaptic alpha1 blocker b) presynaptic alpha1 blocker
64-main side effect of nitrites is..headache
65-volatile liquid drug given as inhaler.Amyl nitrite
66- Nifedipine is..CCB
67- Pancuronium isneuromuscular blocker
68-used for hypertension and migraineclonidine
Diuretic anti coagulant Otocid *ANS
adrenegic &muscarinic agonist &antagoonist
1- what is meaning (chiral) writte in lable on drug substance
122
2-symptoms of adenosen
3-side effect of adenosen
4- GMP) mean)
a-Good Manufactor Protocol
b-Good Manufactor Product
c-General Manufactor Protocol
d-General Manufactor Product
molal 5
6-(how many gm of water add to 5% KCL soln to make 180 gm of
solution(w\w
<...............5100 KCL
180< ...............X
KCL X= 9 gm

180 - 9 =171 gm
7- .Regarding to ophthalmic preparation when we use isoluble
substance it is
8- ...Regarding to freez dryer theory
9- according to steril method which of the following is false about
filtteration
able to filtter viscous substance
10- ACEI pharmacologicaly act as
11- Ca channel blocker act as
12- when you know the preservative used with anti biotic is not
suitable you make
a- use another one
b- add another to increase it is activity
c- use tow or more presrvative
d- a+c***
13- side effect&toxicity of digoxin
123
14- parkinsonism is due to degeneration of paroreceptor of

15- anti histaminic<....................claritin act as
16- phenothiazen act as
17- promethazen act as
18- about drugs that treat hyperthyrodism & its side effect
19- deltiazem act as
Ca channel blocker

a- block Ca to intracellular & its metabolism**
b- stimulateCa to intracellular & its metabolism
antiarrythmic class 1b is:

lidocain*
delpets the catecholamins's store :
reserpsin *
not dispensed without a prescription :
aspirin
baclofen
maalox
ibuprofen
doxycyclin

used as a nasal decongestant :
ephedrine and phenyephirin*
cyclocystine used as :
mucolytic*
124
how nitroglycerin work as anti angiana:

when the exp. date is november 2006 that means u can dispense
the product untill date :
1 november 2006
15 november 2006
31 novermber 2006
1 novermber 2007
15 novmber 2007

molarity
ppm
bioequivalence determine by factors of :
*1- pharmaceutical kinteics
2- pharmaceutical dynaimics
3- weight
...........................
when 2 producats have identical but not same active ingredients
are :
a-pharmaceutical alternatives
b- pharmaceutical equivalents
c- bioequivalent
c- biological
e- a and b
f - b and c
inderal is
(propranolol)whicl is adrenergic beta blocker
2_propranolol is
beta blocker
3_salbutamol is
selctive b1 agonist
4_which is false about nor epinephrin
a_ effictive orally
b_can used in cardiogenic shock
c_can used subcutanous
d_raise blood pressure
the answer is (a
125
5_which is the folowing block the alpha receptor in vains and arteries and amke v.d.
a_terazosin
b_minoxidil
c_propranolol
answer is a
6_syncop may occure with the 1st dose of the folowing
a_digoxin
b_salbutamol
c_prazosin
d_reserpin
e_ clonidin
answer is c
7_one of the fllowing used in asthmatic patient
answer is albuterol
8_the pharmacolpgical action of clofibrate is
decreas action of lipoprotienlipase enzyme
b_increase clolesterol synthis
c_decreas lipoprotien synthes
d_decrease cholesterol absorption
answer is c
9_one of the following has cathertic effect
a_ca carbonat
b_magnesium oxide
c_alimenium hydroxide
d_sodium bicarbonate
answer is b
10_loratidin is
a_ca channel blocker
b_ laxitave
c_antihistaminic
d_anti hypertension
answer is c
11_which of the following not anti bacterial
..........
12_which one is more effective agaienst traveller diarrhea
a_amoxiciilin
b_ciprofloxacin
c_sulphamethoxasol
d_erythromycin
126
i think amoxicillin is right
13_which is the following istrue about erythromycin

a_decrease the GIT motility
b_could be used in pregnant women if need
c_could not be used in pregnant women if need
d_less active against gram +ve cocci
answer is b
14_which one is active against psoudomonal
a_metronidasol
b_ampicillin
c_becampicilline
d_imipinem
anwere is d

_15_A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will act as :
a-analgesic
b-hypnotic
c-diuretic
answer b
16_ the action of TCA is
inhibit reuptak of noradrenalin and serotini
17_Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant pharmaceutical therapeutic
doses ?
a-Na valproate
b-phenytoin
c-lithium
answer is b
18_The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires :
a- K+
b- Na+
c- Ca++
answer is a
19_antihypertensive produce tackycardia :
a)Hydralazone
b)Reserpine
c)Methyldopa
d)Atenolol
e)Clonidine
answer is a
20_ the pharmacological action of nitroglycerin is
127
21_the action of digoxin can reduced with

a_ antacid
b_verapamil
hypokalemia
d_hypothirodism
e_hyperthyrodism
answer is a
22_ the main cause of digitalis toxicity is
a_diabetes milli
b_ hypertension
c_hepatitis
d_renal faliure
i think d
23_digitalis arrhythmia can be treated with
a_lidocain
b_quinidin
c_procainamide
d_propranolol
answer is a
24_which one used in ventricular arrhthmia with heart block
answer is phynetoin
25_the action of antiarrhythmic drug classs 1A is
a_rapid the repo;arization of phase 0
b_delay the repolarization of phase 3
answer is b
26_which one is antiarrythmic class 1A
a_phynetoin
b_disopyramide
c_propranolol
d_verapamil
e_propafenon
answer is b
27_which one doesnt affect platellet in the body
a _ aspirin
b_dipyridamol
c_acetyl salcylic
d_captopril
e_clopidogril
answer is d
28_action of theophyllin
a_vasocostrector
b_ bronvhodilator
128
c_anti arrythmia
answer is b
29_anti cancer derived from venca is_
a_cyclophosamide
b_flourouracil
c_doxurubcin
d_ cicplastin
i think d
30_ alkylating agent used as anticancer
a_methotrexate
b_ mercaptopurin
c_5_flourouracil
d_cyclophosphamide
answer is d
31_ascorpic acid is
a_vit A
b_ vit C
c_ vit E
answer is b
32_reserpin shouldnt be used in parkinsonism patient talking..........
33_one of the following not NSAID

a_ naprocyn
b_indocid
c_ticotil
d_
34_pentoxifillin used as
35 _ which one used to trigeminal neuralgia
answer is tegretol
phynetoin

5
1_ how many doses in abottle contain 90 gram and the dose is 75mg
answer
129
number of dose = 90/0.75=120

2_A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of nacl
exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution
answer
molarity= number of moles/volume in liter
number of moles=weightin gram/molecular weight
M.W.of NaCL=MW ob Na(23.5+MW of Cl (35=58.5
then number of mole= 17.5/58.5=0 .3
molarity = 0.3/2=0.15
3_the solution contain 9ppm of NaCl the the concevtration of the compound in the
solution
a_0.9
b_.09
c_.009
d_.0009
e_.00009
0.009
.
4_ how much amount of water need to add to 250 ml of solution os 1/500 of
benzonium clorid to bacome 1/2000
a_0.125 L
b_0.250 L
c_0.4 L
d_2 L
e_ 4 L
0.4

ceutics and clinical

1_the statement (put in cold place ) mean acoording to USP
a_ in the freezer
b_in refrigerator
c_ temp between(10_20 c)f
d_ a&c
130
e_ b&c
c
e
2_all factors affect on distribution of drug except :

a_Tissue solubility
b_Protein binding
c_Molecular weight of drug
d_Type enzyme response of metabolism
answer is d
3_ONE OF FOLLOWING NOT USED TO COVER BITTER
TASTE :
a_Film coat
b_Enteric coat
c_Granding of tablet
answer is c
4_major metabolism proccess in GIT is
a_hydrolysis
,b_ acetylation
c_oxidation
d_ conjucation
answer a
5_the amount of water in adult male is about:
a-25%
b-60%
c-80%
d-10%
e-17%
answer is b
6_process require CYP450 :
a)OXIDATION
b)HYDROLYSIS
c)GLUCORONIDATION
d)DEAMINATION
131
e)SULFERATION
oxidation
7_Adsorption , which is not true :
c) Reversible
d) Irreversible
e) A + d
answer is e
8_acording to 1st order kinetics t1/2 equal
a_k
b_1/k
c_k+1
d_2k+1
e_ 639/k
answer is e
9_the responce of the drug not affected by
a_mental status
b_genetic
c_binding to plasma ptn
d_lipophilicity of the drug

10_
) (

11_
)( ) (
12_
13_about steady state concentration during IV adminestration

a_directly ptoportional to volume of distribution
b_inversly proportional to volume of distribution
c_directly ptoportional to infusion rate
d_ inversly proportional to total body clearance
e_ c&d
answer is e
14_disentegration of drug to small molecule is
132
a_ reduction
b_ sublimation
c_ solubility
a
the way for 1st pass metabolism_15
from mesentric vain to portal vain
16_ which of the following decreas gastric emptying rate
a_ metoclopramid
b_ atropin
c_ hypothyroism
d_a&b
e_b&c
answer is e
1-The action of histamine is :

c-stimulation of gastric secretion *****
2- latabbreviation for " After Meals " is :
a- a.c.
b- a.a.
c- p.c. ***
d- i.c.
e- c.c.
3-- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is :
c-automaticity****
d-contractility
e-non of the above
a-magnesium
b-chloride
c-bicarbonates*****
d-potassium
e-troponin
5-- In treatment of shock , which of the following should not be
considered?
a-airway control
b-IV of crystalloid solution
133

d-monitor heart rhythm
e-give antibiotic to treat infection*****
6-- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is NOT
true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast****
e-raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator
7- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial
diagnosis is arterial fibrilation:
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine****
d- a and b
e- b and c
8 -The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:
a- 300-600 g
b- 1-5 mg
c- 15-60 mg
d- 300-600 mg****
e- 1-2 mg
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve
absorption
-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient ****de- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women
10- B carotine is precursor of :
a)retinol ****
b) thiamine
c)riboflavin
d)pyridoxine
e) calcefirol
11-antihypertensive produce tackycardia :
a)Hydralazone*****
b)Reserpine
c)Methyldopa
134
d)Atenolol
e)Clonidine
12-process require CYP450 :
a)OXIDATION
b)HYDROLYSIS
c)GLUCORONIDATION
d)DEAMINATION
e)SULFERATION
13-drug induced lupus like syndrom is associated with
antihypertinsive ???
a) minixidil
b) phenytoin ***
c) dioxide
d) nitroprusside Na
e) acebutol
14- hypothirodism will increase :
a) body weight ****
b) body temp
c) lipid profile
15- low density lipoprotien act as :
a) Major carrer of cholestrol in plasma *****
b) transport fatty acid from cell membrane to cytoplasm,
c) good lipoprotien.........
16-patient has CHF given digoxin and thiazide and needed
corticosteroid , which is best choice?
a) Cortisone
b) Hydrocortisoce
c) Prednisolone
17- expairy date of drug is 8\2010 that means , last day you can use
drug is :
a) 31\8\2010..*****
b) 1\8\2010
c) 31\7\2010
18- digitoxin side effect :
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hypertension
19- elevated blood glucose is side effect of :
135
Digoxin..
20-amphetamine used to treat :
a) Defect concentration *****
b) Insomnia
21-- which is not asthma properties :
a) Bronchodilator*****
b) Bronchospasm
c) Increase mucous secretion
d) Chest pain
22-- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :
a) Aldosterone ******
b) Growth hormone
c) FSH
23- one of following is not alpha 1 agonist :
a) Clonidine
b) Alpha methyl noradrenaline******
c) Guanfacine
d) Guanabenz
e) Guanethidine
24- about side effect of quinidine :
Chichonism*******
25-all of following are side effects of methotrixate except:
a) Bone marrow depression
b) Alopecia
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) Stimulate sex drive ****
e) Alopecia
bilateral renal artery stenosis*****
27- Adsorption , which is not true :
c) Reversible
d) Irreversible
e) A + d ****
28-all are antibiotic except :
Famcyclovir *****
136
29- heparin monitoring :

a) INR
b) PT
c) APTT****
30- about digitoxin , which is false :
a) Oral bioavaiability 100%
b) Protein binding 95%
c) Half life is 7 days
d) Mainly hepatic metabolism by lysosmal
31-all r Beta 2 agonist except :
a) Salbutamol
b) Alburanol
c) Fenoterol
d) salmeterol
e) Pindolol *****
32-Pkw for normal water in room temperature :

a) 7
b) 14****
c) 10^7
d) 10^-14
e) C + d
33- about norepinephrine , which is not true?
a) increasr B.P
b) vasoconstrictive
c) used in cardiogenic shock
d) effective orally'*****
e) S.C
34-- o.m.......
every morning******
35- one of following not used to cover bitter taste :

a) Enteric coat
b) Film coat
c) Enteric coat
d) Grinding of tablet ****
e) B + C
137
36- all contraindicated in pregnancy except :

a) ACEI
b) Methyldopa****
37- dose of drug in children is . Mg \ kg , what total dose for
child 34.5 bound?

gm , mg

38-drug prescriped as
1 tablet contaion 1 mg bid ( 2 weeks) , what is total dose?
28 mg*****
39- tybe 2 anti arrythmic properties :
Inhibit sympathetic system by beta adrenergic
blockade ***
40-in injection of lidocaine , what drug added to increase
effectiveness of lidocaine?
Epinephrine ..
41-about sterilization by filtration , which is false?

a) Cannot used for virus *****
b) Need special equipment
42-membrane filters with 0.22 micropores , which of following not
removed by that?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus***
c) Fungi
d) A+c
e) B+c
43)volatile substance given by inhalation:
a) Halothane
b) Dextromethorphane.
44)in prescription
Substance A 15 parts
Substance B 30 parts
Substance C 150 parts
We neeed to prepare ointment 500 gm , what amount should we
take from substance A ?
...... ..
138
15+30 + 150 = 195

,
(15 \195) * 100 =7.69 %
So , we need 7.69 % from all 500 gm
( 7.69 * 500 ) \ 100 = 38.46 gm
38.46 gm****
5 ...
45- we need to prepare 100 ml of 0.05% substance X solution

how gm we need from substance X ?
0.05 gm***
46- loop diuretics cause all the following except:
a) Hypokalamia.
b) Hyponatrimia.
c) Hypocalcemia..
d) Hypoglycemia.
e) Hypernatremia.****
47-two drugs has same active ingredient but difrent inactive
ingredient , called:
a) Pharmaceutical equivelance
b) Bioequivelance
c) A + b
d) Pharmaceutical alternative
48-to compare between 2 drugs use:
a) Physical appearance
b) Weight
c) Pharmacokinetic parameters
d) Pharmacodynamic parameter
e) Taste
49) Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except:
a) Ephedrine.
b) Lidocine.
c) Normal saline.
d) Propranolol****
50)-Binding to plasma protein:
a- Increases half life.***
b- Decreases half life
51) The antidote of heparin is:
139
Protamin sulphate****
52)when gived gentamycin , which is should monitoring?
Creatinine clearance****
53-tricyclic antidepressant mechanism of action :
54-diazoxide side effect :
55-tegretol used in :
Trigeminal Neuralgia****
56-about sid effect of oral contraceptive except :
a) Depressoin
b) Hypertension
57-drug dependence which is true :
a) After discontinuation , patient has withdrawal symptoms
b) Patient progressively increase dose to get same action

58)drug used in ventricular arrhythmia :
a) Phynetoin ******
b) Quinidine
c) Digoxin
d) Procainamide
e) Verapamil
59)Enteric coated tablets:
Are dissolved in the intestine and not affected by the stomach
juices*****
60) factors affecting on dissolution rate are :
a) Increase size of particles
b) Decrease size of particles
c) Increase surface area
d) Decrease surface area
e) B + C******
1-Yedeek molarity for ex 6.32x10^-6 M and m.wt. for sucrose
432.4g/mole we yetlob concentration by ppm
Ans. You must know that Molarity= no. of mole / volume (L)
Ana eftaradt en 6.32x10^-6 = 6.32x10^-6 / 1 liter
We olt en 1 mole --------> 432.4 g (m.wt)
6.32x10^-6-----> x g
X=0.002732 g
140
We tab3an e7na 3arfeen en 1ppm= 1mg/liter

So that concentration by ppm = 0.002732 x 1000 = 2.73 ppm
Ana tab3an mesh faker el arqam bel zabt bas yareet tekon el fekra
wasalet.
2-Yedeek prescription maktoob feha
-Timolo e.d
-Mitte 15 ml
- gtt iod bid
We yedek e7tyarat ana e7tart:
Instill 1 drop in the right eye two times daily
3- Yedek trade name we yes2al da beta3 eh ana e7tart Cilazapril
la2an kol el ACEI elly kan gayebhom ana kont 3aref el trade name
beta3hom ella da
4- Not alpha 2 agonist in CNS:
-clonidine
- guanethidine >>>>
- guanfacine
5- chiral indicate:
- optical activity>>>>
- chelation properties
Kan tab3an fe e7tyarat tanya bas ana kateb elly kont shakek
fehom we el ba2y bo3ad gedan 3an el sa7
6-digitalis toxicity precipitated byana e7tart hypokalemia
7- in hypertension emergency which antihypertensive not use
Benhom kan nifedipine ana e7arto bas wade7 enoo 3alat
8- cyproheptadine is
-antihisaminic
- Antipsychotic
9- ergot alkaloids used for
-uterine contraction
10- posterior pitutary galand excrete .oxytocin
1- drug which have the same site of action of penicillin

a-tetracycline
b-cephalexin
c-chloramephinechol
d-amphotericin
2- provac drug
a- anticoagulant
b-antibiotic
c-antiplatlets
d-..
3- salbutamol
141
a-bronchodilator
4-phenyephrin
a- alpha &beta acion
b- alpha action
c-beta action
d-nicotinic
e-mucascarinic
5-phentolamine (ask for receptors) as question4
6-category C FDA pregnancy drugs
7-declofenac used in gout
a-anti-inflammatory and analgesic only
b-uricosuric agent
c-prevent excessive damage of joints
8-allopuruinol
a- uricosuric agent
b-increase absorption of uric a in tubules
9-side effect of nitrate....
10-claritin anti..
11-patient has apenicillin allergy suitable antibiotic
a-penicillin
b-cephalexin
c-erythromycin
d-cloxacillin
e-augmentin(clavulinic )
12-tyramine+ACEI .
13-membrane filters with 0.22 micropores , which of following not
removed by that?
14-heparin mechanism to prevent clot
..
15- heparin test
..
16-ophthalmic common traditional in market
a-solution-oint-suspension
b-solution- susp-oint
c-susp-oint solution
d-all are common the same
17- needed to be sterile
a-parentral
b-syrup
c-ophalamic prep.
d-a&c
18-hypertonic solution make
1-shrinkage of blood cell
2-hemolysis
3-hyperglycemia
4-hypoglycemia
5-a&c
142
19- adenosine cause

Flushing dyspnea
20- obse diabetic take firstly metformin
21- o.d means
22- a.c means
23-t.d means
24- about aminglcosides what is false
25-vitamin c for adult female
a-25mg
b-40mg
c-90mg
26-which of the following not antifungal
27-guanthedin SE
a-prevent ejaculation
b-sever hypotension
c-
28- bioavilability
29-process of drug metabolism in intestine
a-hydrolsis
b-oxid
c-glucouroniatin
d-
30-digoxin
Increase contractility of myocardium
31-clonidine
3233- acid base law
a-henry's
b-mivhelis menten
c- frank
d34- not from blood cells
a- reticleucyte
35-omperazole
Decrease acidity
36-Which of the following is not betamethasone side effect ?
a-cataract
b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness
d-sodium retention
37The mechanism of action of atropine is15
a-muscarinic antagonist b-muscarinic agonist
c-nicotinic antagonist d-nicotinic agonist
e-non of the above
38-We can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl2 by taking
a-12g solute in 100ml solvent
143
b-12mg solute in 1000ml solvent

c-12g solute in 1ooml solvent
d-12mg solute in 100ml solvent
38- what is tertiary amine of TCA..
39-vit A not used with
a-scurvy
b-night blindness
c-pregnancy
d-..
40-_process require CYP450 :
a)oxidation
b)hydrolsis
c)
41-heparin monitoring :
a) INR
b) PT
c) APTT
how much amount of water added to 250 ml of solution as 1/500 of
benzonium clorid to be 1/2000
a_0.125 L
b_0.250 L
c_0.4 L
d_2 L
e_ 4 L

4 2000/1 500/1
1
2
molality
The Molal concentration of 0.559 M is (Mwt=331.23 &
density=1.157g/ml) is
Note::
side effects of hydralazine
Common side-effects include:
Diarrhea
Compensatory tachycardia due to baroreceptor reflex
Headache
Loss of appetite
Nausea or vomiting
Depression
144
Pounding heartbeat
Drug-Induced Lupus Erythematosus
WBCs::
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Lymphocyte
Monocyte
Macrophage
Dendritic cells
145

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.

5 All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except :

: 23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :

-------------------------------------------------------------------: trimetren Amilorid

59- Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?

c- Labetolol Non selective

81 Give the anti-dote for each of the following :

1( All These drugs are anti-viral except :

6)Which one of the following is not

---------------------------------------------------23( 1iv room

40)Lisinopril is the generic name .. and it's class

66)ALL THESE CASES NOT CURE WITH

67)CARDIAC ARREST COULD BE MANAGED

71ALL THESE R NATURAL ESTROGEN EXCEPT

73)ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT FROM

3-trade name of lisinopril

5- arrhythmia happened due to :

6-digoxin differ from digitoxin :

7- In digoxin induced arrythmia , what is not recommonded??

8- which is not asthma properties :

9- example of antimetabolite anticancer ..

10- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :

11- immunosuppressant agent cannot used in organ transplantation :

12- which is not NSAID .

13- liquid weight = .. , volume = .. ,

14- about side effect of quinidine

15- all of following are side effects of methotrixate except :

16- mechanism of action of antipsychotic drug :

17-drug used in hypertension and migrane :

18- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :

19- about cardioglycosidic effect :

20-all factors affect on distribution of drug except :

21-all factors affect on renal clearance except :

22- ointment used for :

23-charcol used as antidote coz :

24- in hypodynamic shock treatment :

26- all following are viral infections except :

27- about radiation

28- warfarin monitoring:

29- lady take chronic warfarin , which is not true

30- Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis ?

31- Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab

32- infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause :

? 33- half life of drug is 7 days ,

35- which of following is least sedative action ?

36- which drug has spasmolytic action?

39- pentophyllin used for : peripheral vasodilator

40-2 mg \ L solution , according ppm :

41- Pka for normal water in room temperature :

42- normal water used for :

44-about aminoglycoside , which is not true ?

45- about norepinephrine

46- PHARMACOKINETIC CONSTANT :

47- Which of the following is NOT predinsolone side effect ?

50 - o.d....... Once a day

51- A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of kcl

52- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true?

54- The heart`s dominant pacemaker is :