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Bio XII Botany
Bio XII Botany
Bio XII Botany
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
3.
4.
5.
(c) cells
(c) Morgan
(d) Correns
(c) Johansson
(d) Griffith
(c) Correns
6.
______ postulated three laws that are known as Mendels laws of inheritance.
(a) Tschermark
(b) De Vries
(c) Correns
(d) all of these
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
(c) biennial
(d) Pea
(d) epiphytic
(d) 7
(d) Allele
12.
13.
Mendel did not consider _____ trait for his hybridization experiments?
(a) colour of flower (b) size of flower
(c) colour of cotyledons(d) both a and b
14.
Which of the following character did Mendel not use for this breeding experiment with Pisum
sativum?
(a) Pod colour
(b) Pod shape
(c) Leaf shape
(d) Plant height
15.
16.
Genes controlling seven traits in pea studied by Mendel were actually located on
(a) different chromosomes
(b) same chromosomes, but apart from each other
(c) same chromosome, closely linked
(d) either a or b
17.
18.
Mendel allowed the hybrid tall of F1 to self fertilize. This process is called
(a) back crossing
(b) test crossing
(c) selfing
(d) hybridization.
19.
The success of Mendels hybridization experiments was due to the fact that
(a) he chose the right material
(b) he studies one character at a time
(c) there was no linkage in the characters he studied
(d) all of these
20.
21.
(c) 1900
(d) 1926
(d) polygenes
22.
The traits that are transmitted from the parents to their offspring are called
(a) anatomical
(b) morphological
(c) hereditary
(d) reproductive
23.
An allele that expresses its trait even in heterozygous condition is called _______ allele.
(a) dominant
(b) recessive
(c) multiple
(d) lethal
24.
Out of the two contrasting characters of a single trait, the one which suppressed in the F1 generation
is called______.
(a) recessive
(b) dominant
(c) homozygous
(d) allele
25.
26.
(d) hybrid
The genetic constitution of an organism with respect to a single character or a set of characters is
called the ______.
(a) genotype
(b) phenotype
(c) hybrid
(d) alleleomorph
27.
28.
A diagram that is used to show possibilities of combination in a particular cross is named after
_________.
(a) Mendel
(b) Punnett
(c) Bateson
(d) Morgan
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
(d) recessive
(d) recessive
(d) both a or c
(b) heterozygous
(d) phenotypic
(c) dominant
(d) phenotypic
35.
36.
(b) F2 generation
(c) F3 generation
(d) F4 generation.
37.
The cross that is made between two parents that differ in a single pair of contrasting characters is
known as a
(a) dihybrid cross
(b) monohybrid ratio
(c) monohybrid cross
(d) trihybrid cross.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
(b) Linkage
(d) Mutations
46.
47.
Heterozygous tall plant is selfed. It produces both tall and dwarf plants. This confirms which of the
Mendels laws?
(a) Law of dominance
(b) Law of segregation
(c) Law of independent assortment
(d) Incomplete dominance
48.
(d) b or c
49.
How many different kinds of gametes a plant having the genotype AABbCC will produce?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Nine
(d) Two
50.
51.
(d) 5.
52.
(d) 4:1
53.
A cross between a homozygous tall pea plant and homozygous dwarf pea plant, results in ____
progeny in F1.
(a) tall
(b) dwarf
(c) neither tall nor dwarf
(d) none of these
54.
55.
A homozygous pea plants having axillary coloured flowers is crossed with a pea plant having
terminal white flowers. What will be the result of F1 progeny?
(a) All axillary coloured
(b) All terminal coloured
(c) All axillary white
(d) All terminal white.
56.
Heterozygous tall (Tt) is crossed with homozygous tall (TT). Percentage of heterozygous tall in the
progeny would be
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
57.
58.
In monohybrid cross, the ratio of homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive individuals in
F2 -generation is _________.
(a) 1 : 2 : 1
(b) 2 : 1 / 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 1 / 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 1
59.
(d) 3/16
60.
What result did Mendel get when he allowed F1 hybrid (Tt) to inbreed to raise F2 generation?
(a) 75% tall and 25% dwarf
(b) 50% tall and 50% dwarf
(c) 25% tall and 75% tall
(d) 100% tall.
61.
In garden pea plants, what will be the phenotypic yellow: green ratio when YyrR is self pollinated.
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 4 : 1
62.
63.
(d)
3
16
64.
A pure yellow wrinkled variety of pea plant is crossed with a pure green round variety What will be
the result in F1 generation?
(a) All yellow round
(b) All green wrinkled
(c) all yellow wrinkled
(d) mixed type
65.
66.
A cross that is made between a F1 hybrid and either of its homozygous parents is called a
(a) test cross
(b) out cross
(c) back cross
(d) monohybrid cross.
_____is a test cross.
(a) Aa aa
(b) AA aa
(c) AA Aa
(d) AA AA
67.
68.
A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with homozygous dwarf pea plant. What will be the
phenotypic ratio of the offspring in this cross?
(a) 3:1
(b) 4:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 9:3:3:1
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
In Mirabilis jalapa when homozygous red flowered and white flowered plants are crossed, all F1
plants have pink coloured flowers. In F2 produced by selfing of F1 Plants, red, pink, white flowered
plants would appear respectively in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 0 : 1
(d) 1 : 2 : 1
75.
76.
77.
More than two alternative forms of a gene in a population occupying same locus on a chromosome
or its homologue are called
(a) Multiple alleles
(b) Polygenes
(c) Oncogenes
(d) None of these
78.
79.
80.
______ different
(c) 4,4
(d) 6,6
(c) multiple
81.
A man with blood group A marries a women with blood group B and their first child is having blood
group B. What is the genotype of child?
(a) I B I O
(b) I O I O
(c) I A I O
(d) I B I B
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
(d) Watson
87.
88.
(d) aaBbCc
89.
90.
When one gene pair hides the effect of other pair, this phenomena is referred as
(a) Mutation
(b) Epistasis
(c) Dominance
(d) Pleiotropy
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
(c) IB and i
(d) 15:1
96.
97.
(d) strap
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
(c) Mendel
(d) Bateson
2.
X-ray crystallographic studies which led to discovery of DNA structure were carried by _______ .
(a) Maurice Wilkins (b) Rosalind Franklin (c) Watson, Crick
(d) Both (a) and (b)
3.
(c) C6H12O6
(c) Thymine
Nucleotide is ___________ .
(a) base sugar - phosphate
(c) sugar phosphate
4.
5.
6.
7.
(d) sugar
(b)
A +G
=1
T +C
(c) A + G
8.
9.
(c) Uracil
(d) Adenine
(c) guanine
(d) thymine
(c) T, G
10.
11.
12.
(d) T and A
13.
14.
In a nucleotide nitrogen based is attached to __________ carbon of sugar molecule by ______ bond.
(a) 2 nd, glycosidic
(b) 1 st , glycosidic
(c) 5th, phosphodiester (d) 5th glycosidic
15.
16.
(d) 4.3 m
(d) 64 A
(d) CA
(d) 2000
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
Identify correct statements :(i) DNA strands are complementary and parallel
(ii) DNA strands are coiled around an imaginary central axis.
(iii) DNA strands are complementary and antiparallel.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
22.
23.
(c) nodoc
24.
25.
If the base sequence is 5 CAG AGG GAA UAC CCA 3 , it is a segment of ____________ .
'
(a) DNA
'
(c) tRNA
26.
27.
(c) glycine
28.
(d) leucine
29.
30.
(d) 10-20%
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
(c) 50%
(c) UGA
(c) codogen
36.
37.
(d) hnRNA
38.
39.
40.
(c) rRNA
(d) U
(d) UAC
41.
Identify wrong statement :(a) DHU arm of tRNA has amino acyl binding loop.
(b) Middle arm of tRNA has anticodon loop.
(c) DHU arm of tRNA has ribosomal binding loop.
(d) tRNA is also called as soluble RNA.
42.
(c) codon
(b) anticodon
(d) aminoacyl synthatase binding loop.
43.
44.
45.
A smaller subunit of ribosome has a binding site for mRNA and larger subunit has two binding sites
for ___________ molecules.
(a) DNA
(b) tRNA
(c) Restriction enzyme (d) None of these
46.
47.
(d) AACCGUGU
48.
49.
All the four types of DNA nucleotides are found in nucleoplasm in the form of their __________ .
(a) triphosphates
(b) monophosphates
(c) biphosphates
(d) Both (a) or (c)
50.
51.
Identify the process of activation of nucleotides :(a) dAMP + ATP dATP + AMP
(b) dTMP + ATP dTTP + AMP
(c) dCMP + ATP dCTP + AMP
(d) all of these
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
(d) gamma
62.
63.
___________ isotope was used in an experiment which proved semiconservative way of DNA
replication.
(a) N15
(b) P32
(c) S35
(d) C12
64.
(d) ligase
65.
A DNA molecule is E. coli labeled with N15, is allowed to replicate in a medium containing N14.
After one generation of replication, two daughter molecules will _____________ .
(a) be similar in density but differ from that of parent DNA.
(b) differ in density as well as from that of parent DNA.
(c) have same density as that of parent DNA.
(d) differ in density but resemble parent DNA.
66.
67.
68.
69.
(p)
(q)
(r)
(s)
Column II
activation of nucleotide
synthesis of DNA strand
DNA unwinding protein
joins DNA fragments.
70.
71.
72.
Spores of ____________ were exposed to _______ causing mutation in DNA, by Beadle and
Tatum.
(a) Neurospora crassa, chemical mutagens
(b) Neurospora crassa, X-rays
(c) Aspergillus, X-rays
(d) Aspergillus, chemical mutagens
73.
Translation
(a) DNA
RNA
Proteins
Translation
(b) DNA
Proteins
Translation
Translation
Translation
Transcription
(c) DNA
RNA
Proteins
(d) DNA
RNA
Proteins
74.
Each codon codes for a specific amino acid was suggested by __________ .
(a) Crick
(b) Watson
(c) George Gamow
(d) HG Khorana
75.
76.
Among 64 codons, ______ are termination codons and ___________ are sense codons.
(a) 4, 60
(b) 3, 61
(c) 5, 59
(d) 2, 62
77.
(a) Nirenberg
(b) Crick
(c) Creighton
(d) HG Khorana
78.
79.
In genetic code, a doublet codon system would have made ___________ types of codons possible.
(a) 64
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) 24
80.
(d) poly C
(d) tRNA
81.
82.
83.
84.
(d) AUG
85.
____________ bases in mRNA would be present for a polypeptide chain of 40 amino acids.
(a) 120
(b) 160
(c) 80
(d) 40
86.
87.
(c) proteins
(d) rRNA
(d) mRNA
88.
Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order during transcription is called
__________ .
(a) transformation
(b) splicing
(c) capping
(d) tailing
89.
90.
91.
(c) replicative
93.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Column II
Wilkins, Franklin
Beadle and Tatum
Watson and Crick
Vernon Ingram
94.
95.
96.
Initiation and termination factors for transcription process are ______ and ______ respectively.
(a) sigma, rho
(b) rho, sigma
(c) R1, R2
(d) R1,S
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
Only the AA1-tRNA complex binds at __________ site directly while all other incoming tRNA
complexes get attached first at ___________ site.
(a) P, A
(b) A, P
(c) P, E
(d) A, E
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
(c) ribosome
(d) plastid
111.
112.
113.
114.
(d) 10 -5
117.
118.
119.
120.
(c) chromatids
(d) 1/2
(d) 140
(c) 10
121.
The beads on string structure gets condensed into ---- fibre, which is _____ nm in diameter.
(a) solenoid, 10
(b) solenoid, 30
(c) nucleosome, 10
(d) nucleosome, 30
122.
(d) 100
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
(c) virulent
129.
______ proved that the transforming principle is DNA for first time using test tube assay.
(a) Avery
(b) Macleod
(c) McCarty
(d) all of these
130.
131.
(c) RNA
132.
133.
134.
(c) Wilkins
(d) Mendel
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c )
(b)
(d)
2. (d)
7. (d)
12. (a)
17. (a)
22. (b)
27. (b)
32. (a)
37. (c)
42. (b)
47. (a)
52. (c)
57. (d)
62. (b)
67. (d)
72. (b)
77. (b)
82. (b)
87. (d)
92. (a)
97. (a)
102. (c)
107. (b)
112. (a)
117. (b)
122. (a)
127. (d)
132. (d)
3. (b)
8. (b)
13. (b)
18. (b)
23. (a)
28. (b)
33. (c)
38. (b)
43. (c)
48. (a)
53. (d)
58. (a)
63. (a)
68. (a)
73. (a)
78. (a)
83. (d)
88. (b)
93. (c)
98. (d)
103. (a)
108. (a)
113. (b)
118. (c)
123. (b)
128. (d)
133. (a)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
109.
114.
119.
124.
129.
134.
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
110.
115.
120.
125.
130.
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
2.
3.
Tool is used by Stanley Cohen and Herber Boyer in rDNA technology was / were
(a) antibiotic resistance gene
(b) plasmid of Salmonella
(c) E. coli
(d) all of these
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
(c) Shigella
(d) Diplococcus
The cell or organism from which the required gene is taken is called
(a) plasmid
(b) cloning vector
(c) donor
(d) vector
(c) eDNA
(c) endonucleases
(d) transcriptase
12.
13.
14.
15.
(c) transduction
(d) conjugation
(d) conjugation
(d) bacteria
(c) yeast
16.
17.
Alu sequence is a
(a) plasmid
18.
(b) cosmid
(c) transposon
(d) phage
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
Restriction enzymes
(a) are endonucleases which cleaves DNA at specific sites
(b) make DNA complementary to an existing DNA or RNA
(c) cut or join DNA fragments
(d) are required in vectorless direct gene transfer
26.
(d) bioenzymes
(d) type IV
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
Fragments of DNA formed after treatment with endonucleases are separated by the technique of
(a) polymerase chain reaction
(b) southern blotting
(c) colony hybridization
(d) gel electrophoresis
32.
_________is a collection of all clones of DNA fragments representing the complete genome of an
organism.
(a) cDNA library
(b) Genomic library
(c) PCR
(d) Tissue culture
33.
cDNA is the
(a) chemical DNA
34.
35.
(c) r-RNA
36.
37.
38.
(d) Eco RI
(c) 74C
(d) 100C
(c) 90C
(d) 25C
39.
40.
41.
(d) attaching
(c) 10 seconds
(d) 3 to 5 minutes
42.
43.
44.
45.
Bt cotton is a
(a) transgenic plant
46.
Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been developed by inserting a piece of DNA from
(a) an insect
(b) wild relative of Cotton
(c) a soil bacterium
(d) a virus
47.
The gene which was used to produce insect resistant cotton plant, was taken from
(a) Anabaena azollae
(b) Agrobacteriurn tuinefaciens
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis
48.
(d) protein
49.
50.
(d) crp
Ti plasmid is found in
(a) Agrobacteriurn (b) Escherichia
(d) Rhizobium
(c) Nitrosomonas
51.
52.
53.
The transgenic plant Flavr savr tomato carries an artificial gene for
(a) delaying ripening process
(b) insect resistance
(c) added flavours
(d) both (a) and (c)
54.
55.
56.
57.
The right granted by government to an inventor to prevent other from commercially using his
invention is
(a) patent
(b) biopiracy
(c) bioethic
(d) biowar
58.
Which of the following combinations of risk are associated with genetically modified organism?
(i) contamination of gene pools of wild varieties
(ii) allergic reaction
(iii) escape of hazardous GM microbes from lab.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i),(ii),(iii)
59.
Restriction endonucleases used widely in recombinant DNA technology are obtained from
(a) plasmids
(b) bacterial cells
(c) bacteriophages
(d) all prokaryotic cells
60.
61.
YAC is a
(a) virus
(c) genetic modified organism
(b) vector
(d) host cell
62.
In rDNA technology, desired gene containing bacterial colony can be identified using
(a) vectors
(b) marker
(c) stain
(d) plasmid
63.
Sticky end produced by restriction endonuclease is GAATTC then which of the following DNA
segment will form rDNA?
(a) CTAAAG
(b) GUUAAC
(c) CTTAAG
(d) CTTAAC
64.
(d) Plasmids
65.
66.
67.
During construction of gene library, large DNA molecules are inserted into host by
(a) plasmids
(b) cosmids
(c) bacteriophage
(d) both (a) and (b)
68.
69.
70.
71.
(c) Polymerase
(d) bacteria
(d) 40.0 kb
(c) 45.5 kb
Nuclease enzyme which begins its attack from a free end of DNA is
(a) polymerase
(b) exonuclease
(c) endonuclease
(d) kinase
72.
73.
74.
75.
(c) GCTTAA
CGAATT
(d) GTTCAA
CAAGTT
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
Genetic engineering would not have been possible if which of the following were not known?
(a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA synthetase
(c) DNA ligase
(d) Reverse transcriptase
83.
84.
(d) Spirillum
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
(c) bacteria
(d) virus
Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait
(a) High lysine (essential amino acid) content (b) Insect resistance
(c) High protein content
(d) High vitamin-A content
(d)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
2.
3.
Increased vigour of a hybrid, over the parents resulting from the crossing of genetically unlike
organisms is called _______________ .
(a) mutant
(b) heterosis
(c) polyploid
(d) none of these
4.
___________ is removal of stamens from the flowers of plant chosen as female parent.
(a) emasculation
(b) selection
(c) harvesting
(d) bagging
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Emasculection is not required when plant selected as female parent bears _________ flowers.
(a) Bisexual
(b) Unisexual
(c) Neuter
(d) Regular
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
(d) Chennai
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
Remarkable increase in wheat production from ________ million tones to _________ million tones
was achieved during period of 1960-2000.
(a) 11, 75
(b) 35, 89.5
(c) 5, 55
(d) None of these
22.
During period of 1960-2000, rice production increased from ________million tones to ________
million tonnes.
(a) 11, 75
(b) 25, 75
(c) 35, 89.5
(d) None of these
23.
24.
(d) Japan
(d) Ludhiana
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
(d) maize
32.
___________ species of sugarcane is high yielding and with high sugar content.
(a) S. barberi
(b) S. officinarum
(c) Sharbati sonora
(d) P. sawni
33.
34.
Late blight of potato and black rot of crucifers are ________ and _______ diseases respectively.
(a) fungal, bacterial (b) bacterial, fungal
(c) fungal, viral
(d) viral fungal
35.
Pusa shubhra and Pusa sadabahar are varieties of ________ and ________ respectively.
(a) Chilli, Cauliflower
(b) Cauliflower, Chilli
(c) Chilli, Bhindi
(d) Cauliflower, Bhindi
36.
__________ is a wheat variety resistant to Hill bunt, leaf rust, stripe rust.
(a) Sonora 64
(b) Kalyansona
(c) Padma
(d) Himgiri
37.
(d) Himgiri
38.
39.
40.
Smooth leaved and nectar less cotton varieties are not infected by _____________
(a) fruit borer
(b) boll worms
(c) aphids
(d) stem borer
41.
(c) bhindi
(d) brassica
42.
Moong bean varieties resistant to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew are developed by
____________ .
(a) Introduction
(b) mutation breeding (c) hybridization
(d) none of these
43.
44.
(b) bajra
(c) maize
45.
Maize variety which is not affected by maize stem borers has following characters.
(a) low nitrogen and sugar content, high aspartic acid.
(b) low nitrogen and sugar content, high glutamic acid.
(c) low nitrogen content and high sugar-aspartic acid.
(d) high nitrogen, less aspartic acid.
46.
47.
(c)
Stem borer
(d) Bhindi
48.
49.
50.
51.
(d) Thailand
52.
53.
(d) sugarcane
(d) jowar
54.
55.
56.
Saccharum officinarum did not grow successfully in north India because of ____________ .
(a) Lack of irrigation
(b) Soil infertility
(c) It was susceptible to all serious crop disease (d) Both (a), (b).
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
A part or tissue excised from plant for tissue culture is called _____________ .
(a) Callus
(b) Clone
(c) Explant
(d) None of these
64.
65.
66.
67.
Sterilization methods used is tissue culture include (a) dry sterilization (b) alcohol sterilization (c) wet sterilization
68.
69.
Identify correct statement :(a) Explants are sterilized using 70% hydrogen peroxide.
(b) Explants are sterilized using 70% ethyl alcohol.
(c) Explants are sterilized using 10% sodium hypochlorite.
(d) Both (a), (c).
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
___________ can be grown as waste water from potato processing unit as a source of SCP.
(a) Chara
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Spirulina
(d) both (a), (b)
79.
80.
81.
Healthy plants can be recovered from diseased by tissue culture technique using __________ as
explants.
(a) shoot apical meristem
(b) root apical meristen
(c) collenchymas
(d) none of these
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
(d) 43
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
(c) Brassoraphanus
(d) Mentha
Agar-agar is a _______.
(a) monosaccharide (b) polysaccharide
(c) disaccharide
(d) protein
(c) lipids
(d) fats
92.
93.
Selection
(b)
hybridization
(c)
totipotency
94.
95.
Pomato is a ________.
(a)
mutant
(b)
96.
somatic hybrid
(c)
SCP source
(d)
mutation breeding
(d)
none of these
(d)
fusogenic agent
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
1.
2.
(c) H2S
(d) Hydrogen
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
The conversion of monomers into organic acid during biogas production is done by
(a) Anaerobic bacteria
(b) Acidogenic bacteria
(c) Methanogenic bacteria
(d) None of these
8.
9.
10.
11.
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Bacillus
12.
Which bacteria is responsible for the nitrogen fixation in association with the root of Alnus
(a) Azotobacter
(b) Frankia
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Bacillus
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
(d) Deuteromycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
(c) Cornborers
(c) Mites
(d) Pea
(c) Beer
(c) Fungus
(b) Waksman
(d) Fijikorai
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
(d) Erythromycin
(d) Trichoderma
(c) Rhizopus sp
Curd and Butter milk are made with the help of bacteria
(a) Lactobacillus
(b) Bacillus
(c) Pseudomonas
Invertase is extracted from
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Rhizopus sp
(b) Sclerotiana
(d) Trichoderma konigi
(d) Clostridium
(d) Fusarium
(c) Pea
47.
48.
(d) Azotobacter
(c) Potassium
(c) Neomycin
(d) Erythromycin
49.
50.
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: PHOTOSYNTHESIS
TOPIC: PHOTOSYNTHESIS
1.
(d) Nitrosomonas
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
(c) Arnon
(d) Calvin
Who proved that Photolysis of water take place during light reaction
(a) Robert Hill
(b) Arnon
(c) Calvin
(d) None
(c) Peristromeum
(d) Plastomere
8.
9.
(d) Plastidome
10.
Photosynthetic pigments are located in the specific area of the Chloroplast which is called
(a) Grana
(b) Stroma
(c) Stromal lamella
(d) Quantosome
11.
Who proved that two pigment systems PSI and PSII are present.
(a) Arnon
(b) Hill
(c) Calvin
12.
13.
Chlorophyll is
(a) Soluble in water
(c) Soluble in both
(c) Chlorophyll c
(d) Chlorophyll d
14.
15.
16.
Photorespiration is
(a) Occurs in C3 plants
(c) Take place in high O2 concentration
(c) Both
17.
In CAM plants what is the source of CO2 during daytime when stomata is closed
(a) Malic Acid
(b) Aspartic Acid
(c) Pyrunic Acid
(d) Oxalo Acetic Acid
18.
19.
In CAM plants
(a) C4 cycle occurs during night
(b) Stomata is closed during day time
(c) Acid concentration increases during night and decreases during day
(d) All of these.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
(d) 40%
(d) Bensen
26.
27.
28.
ATP synthesis during light reaction take place during passage of electron from
(a) Ferrodoxin to cytochrome b6
(b) Cytochrome b6 to cytochrome f
(c) Cytochrome f to plastocyanine
(d) Plastocyanine to pigment system I
29.
30.
How many ATPs are used for the fixation of one molecule for CO2 through Calvin Cycle.
(a) 1ATP
(b) 2ATP
(c) 3ATP
(d) 4ATP
31.
32.
(b) C4 plant
(d) Both C3 and C4 plants
(d) Aldolase
33.
34.
35.
36.
(b) Agranal
(d) All of these
37.
38.
(c) Amaranthus
(c) Chlorophyll c
(d) Chlorophyll d
(c) Plastoquinone
39.
40.
41.
42.
(d)None of these
43.
How many quantum of energy is required for the evolution of one molecule of oxygen during
photosynthesis
(a) 2 quantum
(b) 4 quantum
(c) 5 quantum
(d) 8 quantum
44.
(c) Ferrodoxin
(c) Chlorophyll c
(d) Chlorophyll d
Fucoxanthine is present in
(a) Green Algae
(b) Brown Algae
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
(d) 4 ATP
O2 is released due to
(a) Photolysis of water
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Hill
(d) Calvin
(d) Aldolase
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
Xanthophyll is
(a) Oxygenated carotene
(c) Accessory pigment
(d) Anthocyanine
(c) 390-760 nm
(d) 400-700 nm
Which elements are present in PSII which help in the splitting of water
(a) Fe, Mn Na
(b) Fe, Na, Mg
(c) Ca, Cl- and Mn
(c) 660 nm
(d) 720 nm
(c) 700 nm
(d) 720 nm
(c) Niel
68.
69.
70.
(d) Calvin
(d) Amaranthus
71.
72.
73.
Chemiosmotic theory explains the formation of which compound due to hydrogen ion gradient
across the thylakoid membrane
(a) NADPH
(b) ATP
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
74.
(c) Hill
75.
(d) Mitchel
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
(b) Animals
(d) None of these
(d) Carotenoids
81.
How many NADPH2 are required for the fixation of 1 molecule of Co2 during C3 Cycle
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 12
82.
(c) 30 ATP
(d) 20 ATP
(c) 30
(d) 32
83.
84.
85.
Which pigment is part of reaction centre and also considered as the universal pigment?
(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Chlorophyll c
(d) Carotenoids
86.
Photosynthesis is maximum in
(a) Red Light
(b) Green Light
87.
88.
(c) Mitochondria
89.
90.
91.
(d) Aldolase
(d) Mg
(c) Mn
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(d)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: RESPIRATION
TOPIC: RESPIRATION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
(c) NADP
(d) AMP
(c) 70 S
(d) 80 S
(d) 4 ATP
6.
In muscle cells of higher organisms which acid is formed during excessive exercise
(a) Pyruvic Acid
(b) Lactic Acid
(c) Acetic Acid
(d) Uric Acid
7.
(c) Ribosome
8.
Which compound is the connecting link between Glycolysis and Krebs cycle
(a) AcetylcoA
(b) Pyruvic Acid
(c) Oxalo Acetic Acid
(d) 3 Phosphoglyceraldehyde
9.
10.
11.
(c) 6 ATP
(d) 8 ATP
(d) Zu++
12.
How many ATPs are formed by one glucose molecule through electron transport chain?
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 34
13.
(d) 4
14.
Acetyl decarboxylation lead to the formation of how many ATPs through electron transport chain.
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12
15.
Respiration is
(a) Anabolic process (b) Catabolic process
(c) 1
(c) 1
(c) 1
(c) Fe
(d) S
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
(d) Oxygen
22.
23.
(d) 8 ATP
(d) 8
(d) 4
(d) 8 ATP
24.
25.
26.
(c) 6 ATP
27.
Decarboxylation of Pyruvic Acid to produce Acetaldehyde take place in the presence of which
element
(a) Fe
(b) Co
(c) Mn
(d) Zn
28.
How many ATPs are formed through substrate level of phosphorylation from 1 glucose molecule
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
29.
How many GTPs are formed directly through one Krebs Cycle without electron transport chain
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
30.
Which is the most preferred source of energy for most of the organisms
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
Acetyl co A is
(a) 2C compound
(d) 5C compound
31.
(b) 3C compound
(c) 4C compound
32.
How many ATPs are formed through electron transport chain from 1NADH2?
(a) 1ATP
(b) 2ATP
(c) 3ATP
(d) 4ATP
33.
How many ATPs are formed through Electron transport chain from 1 molecule of FADH2?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
34.
35.
Cytochrome contain
(a) Cu
(b) Zn
(c) Fe
(d) Mn
36.
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of fructose 1.6 biphosphate in 3 PGAL
(a) Aldolase
(b) Phosphotriose isomerase
(c) Phosphorycral dehyde dehydrogenase
(d) Phospho gycerokinase
37.
38.
39.
(b) Enolase
(d) Phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase
40.
41.
42.
43.
(c) Mg
(d) Mn
44.
How many ATPs are formed by one Krebss cycle through electron transport chain.
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
45.
46.
47.
48.
(c) Zymase
(d) Sucrase
(d) Algae
(d) 8
(d) 38 ATP
49.
50.
51.
(c) 1
(d)
(d) Infinity
52.
53.
54.
How many GTP is synthesized through substrate level phosphorylation in Krebs cycle.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
55.
(d) 4
56.
(c) 2
(d) 4
57.
58.
How many NADPH2 are formed by Acetyl Decarboxylation from one glucose molecule.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
59.
60.
(d) Ca
Answer
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(c) Yeast
(c) Amoeba
(d) Penicillium
Conidia is produced by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Amoeba
(c) Penicillium
(d) Phytophthora
(c) Leaf
(b) Asparagus
(d) Dahlia
(c) Leaf
(d) Asparagus
10.
11.
12.
Flower is a modified
(a) Stem
(b) Leaf
13.
14.
(d) Thalamus
(d) Filament
(c) Stigma
15.
Which layer has the fibrous thickening which help in the dispersal of spores
(a) Epidermis
(b) Endothecium
(c) Middle layer
(d) Tapetum
16.
(d) Tapetum
(d) Tapetum
Tuber is a modified
(a) Root
(c) Leaf
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
(b) Stem
Intine is made up of
(a) Cellulose
(b) Pectin
(c) Lignin
(c) Ova
(d) Nucellus
(d) 4
(c) Micropyle
(d) Chalaza
(c) 3
(d) 4
Endosperm in angiosperm is
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
28.
29.
(b) Nucellus
(d) Both Endosperm and Nucellus
30.
How many meiotic division take place during the formation of 100 seeds
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 125
31.
(c) Trisporic
(d) Terasporic
Polar cell is
(a) Uninucleated
(c) Trinucleated
(d) Tetranucleated
32.
(b) Binucleated
33.
Transfer of pollen grain from anther of one plant to the stigma of the different flower of the same
plant is called
(a) Geitonogamy
(b) Xenogamy
(c) Autogamy
(d) Allogamy
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
(d) Bird
(c) Dahlia
(d) Cycas
(d) Asparagus
(d) Corolla
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
(d) Hydrotropic
(c) Tritegmic
Protogyny is found in
(a) Sunflower
(b) Michelia
(c) Castor
(d) Papaya
(d) Sunflower
(d) Mango
Polyembryony is found in
(a) Citrus fruits
(b) Banana
(d) Rhizophora
(c) Guava
(d) Guava
(d) Rutaceae
(c) Gymnosperms
51.
52.
Hydrophily is found in
(a) Vallisneria
(b) Zostera
53.
54.
55.
(c) Ceratophyllum
(d) Bat
(d) Ornithophily
(c) Chiroterophily
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
(c) Insect
(c) Bougainvillea
Stigma is sticky in
(a) Jasmine
(c) Cestrum
(c) Bougainvillea
(d) Rose
(c) Insect
(d) Bird
(b) Rose
(d) Bat
63.
Fertilization in which pollentube enters through the middle of the ovule is called (a) Porogamy
(b) Mesogamy
(c) Chalazogamy
(d) None of these
64.
(c) Cucurbita
(c) Sunflower
(d) Casuarina
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
(d) Pea
(c) Ceratophyllum
(d) Lotus
Polyembryony is found in
(a) Citrus
(b) Mango
(c) Opuntia
(c) Maize
(d) Sunflower
Gynostegium is found in
(a) Calotropis
(b) Sunflower
(c) Salvia
(d) Primula
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
1.
___________ is a functional unit of nature, where organisms interact with each other and their
surroundings.
(a) Environment
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Zonation
(d) Stratification
2.
(d) environment
3.
4.
5.
6.
(d) omnivores
7.
Zonation is _______________.
(a) a spatial pattern which occurs vertically
(b) a spatial pattern which occurs transversely
(c) a spatial pattern which occurs horizontally along the ground
(d) a spatial pattern which occurs linearly.
8.
The spatial pattern which occurs vertically, determined by height of organisms is called ________.
(a) spatial niche
(b) zonation
(c) stratification
(d) net productivity
9.
10.
The amount of organic matter (biomass) accumulated in any unit time is called __________.
(a) structure of an ecosystem
(b) function of an ecosystem
(c) spatial pattern of an ecosystem
(d) productivity of an ecosystem
11.
The rate at which the solar energy is converted and stored by the producers is called _________.
(a) primary productivity
(b) secondary productivity
(c) tertiary productivity
(d) net productivity
12.
The total rate of photosynthesis including the organic matter used up in respiration during definite
period is known as _______________.
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) net primary productivity
(c) secondary productivity
(d) none of the above
13.
14.
The balance between photosynthesis and respiration and other plant losses as death is referred
as _________.
(a) Gross primary productivity
(b) Secondary productivity
(c) Net primary productivity
(d) Net productivity
15.
The rate of storage of organic matter not used by consumers is termed as (a) Gross primary productivity
(b) Net secondary productivity
(c) Net productivity
(d) Secondary productivity
16.
17.
18.
Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as salts, this
process is called _____________.
(a) mineralization
(b) humification
(c) leaching
(d) fragmentation
19.
20.
21.
22.
(d) productivity
23.
24.
(d) 0.02%
(d) 10%
25.
26.
Which of the following factors are important while understanding the process of energy flow?
(i) The efficiency of producers in absorption and conversion of solar energy
(ii) Use of converted solar energy by consumers.
(iii) The total input of energy in form of food and its efficiency of assimilation.
(iv) The loss of energy through respiration, heat and excretion.
(v) The gross net production
(a) (ii) and (iv) are important
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) are important
27.
Out of the total quantity of global carbon, ____________ is found dissolved in oceans.
(a) 35%
(b) 49%
(c) 71%
(d) 50%
28.
29.
The fossil fuels can be ___________ and __________ in future for releasing CO2 in the atmosphere.
(a) mined, burned
(b) fragmented, leached
(c) leached, mineralized
(d) burned, mineralized
30.
31.
Overabundance of phosphorous in coastal areas and at the mouth of rivers causing overgrowth of
algae which results in the depletion of oxygen and killing of aquatic life is called ___________.
(a) mineralization
(b) eutrophication
(c) leaching
(d) humification
32.
The sum total of all the population in a given habitat is called ___________.
(a) community
(b) ecosystem
(c) biological interactions
(d) adaptations
33.
34.
35.
The amount of __________ determines the pattern of ecological succession in the given area.
(a) soil
(b) water
(c) trees
(d) minerals
36.
37.
38.
(d) Nitrogen
39.
When pesticides are applied to protect crop plants from pests and diseases, only about ________ of
the spray preparation hits the target.
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 25%
40.
According to the report presented by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of United Nations,
__________ is the chief medium for infiltration of pesticides to ground water
(a) soil
(b) water
(c) air
(d) plants
41.
(d) BHA
(d) eutrophication
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
Polyblend is ___________.
(a) a type of rubber
(b) a type of cement
(c) a fine powder of recycled and modified plastic
(d) an artificial fibre
47.
Which gases other than CO2, can absorb infrared radiations reflected from earths surface?
(a) Methane
(b) Nitrogen oxides
(c) Chlorofluorocarbon (d) All of the above
48.
The heating-up of earths atmosphere due to trapped infrared rays reflected from earths surface by
atmospheric gases is called ___________.
(a) green house effect
(b) pollution
(c) bioconcentration
(d) respiration
49.
(d) NH3
50.
A/An ___________ treaty was signed in 1987 to control the emission of ozone depleting substances,
mainly CFCs.
(a) Earth summit
(b) African environment
(c) Montreal protocol
(d) Indian forest
51.
The permanent removal, decrease or deterioration of forests and woodlands is called ___________.
(a) deforestation
(b) afforestation
(c) reforestation
(d) forestation
52.
53.
54.
(d) agroforestation
55.
Plantation of trees in barren and unexploited land to improve environment is known as __________.
(a) reforestation
(b) deforestation
(c) afforestation
(d) agroforestation
56.
57.
(d) 1 st January
The Government of India has introduced the concept of ___________ to work closely and effectively
with local communities for protecting forests.
(a) Group Forest Management (GFM)
(b) Joint Forest Management (JFM)
(c) Communities Forest Management (CFM) (d) People Forest Management (PFM)
58.
59.
60.
In an ecosystem, there is flow of energy at different trophic levels. This is as follows ___________.
(a) Primary consumers-Secondary consumers Decomposers-Producers
(b) Producers- Primary consumers- Secondary consumers- Tertiary consumers- Decomposers
(c) Producers- Decomposers- Primary consumers- Tertiary consumers- Secondary consumers
(d) Producers- Primary consumers- Tertiary consumers- Secondary consumers- Decomposers
61.
Growth of lichens on the rocks and growth of mosses followed by herbs, shrubs and trees is
considered as ___________.
(a) primary succession
(b) secondary succession
(c) hydrarch succession
(d) xerarch succession
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
The pyramid of energy is the best representation of an ecosystem because it indicates ___________.
(a) number of all plants and animals
(b) total energy present in an ecosystem
(c) the rate of energy flow through the food chain
(d) none of these
68.
The transfer of energy from one organism to another in a natural community establishes _________.
(a) food chains
(b) biological control
(c) natural barriers
(d) all the above
69.
(d) decomposition
(d) T1
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
Bioaccumulation causes due to non-biodegradable substance called (a) organo chlorine pesticides
(b) organo phosphate insecticides
(c) plants and animals in ecosystem with abundant resources
(d) photography
75.
Which citizen role is important from the following in case of waste management ?
(a) Categorization of waste into bio-degradable, non-biodegradable and recyclable waste.
(b) Every independent house or condominium of apartments should have a pit for domestic wastes
(c) Every citizen should try to reduce garbage generation and minimize the use of nonbiodegradable products.
(d) All of the above
76.
(d) Endosulfan
77.
78.
79.
80.
(d) Nitrification
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
The branch of biology that deals with the study of interaction between organisms and environment is
called _________ .
(a) physiology
(b) morphology
(c) ecology
(d) ecosystem
88.
(d) crystalloids
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
(d) Fungi
(c) Grinnel
(d) Clements
(d) Heterotrophs
(d) lichens
97.
98.
99.
100.
(d) Lichens
101.
102.
(d) forest
103.
104.
105.
Total amount of living material at the various trophic levels of a food chain is depicted by pyramids
of __________ .
(a) number
(b) energy
(c) biomass
(d) all of these
106.
107.
The food chain in which microorganisms break down the energy rich compounds is called _______.
(a) parasitic food chain
(b) detritus food chain
(c) humification
(d) mineralization
108.
109.
110.
111.
Inverted pyramid of biomass can be traced in one of the following ecosystems _________.
(a) rain forest
(b) desert
(c) ocean
(d) tundra
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
(c) natural
(d) hydrological
117.
If there was no CO2 in the earths atmosphere, the temperature of earths surface would be ______ .
(a) same as present (b) less than present
(c) more as present
(d) none of these
118.
If we completely remove decomposers from an ecosystem its functioning will be adversely affected
because ________ .
(a) energy flow will be blocked
(b) herbivores will not receive solar energy
(c) mineral movement will be blocked
(d) the rate of decomposition will be high
119.
Which of the following ecosystems has the highest gross primary productivity?
(a) Grassland
(b) Coral reef
(c) Mangrooves
(d) Tropical rain forest
120.
121.
122.
(d) Decomposition
123.
124.
(d) Wolf
125.
The type of ecosystem with the highest mean plant productivity is ________ .
(a) temperate grassland
(b) tropical rain forest
(c) desert
(d) tundra
126.
(d) carnivores
127.
128.
(c) Volvox
(d) Nostoc
129.
During the process of ecological succession, the changes that take place in communities are ______.
(a) orderly and sequential
(b) random
(c) very quick
(d) not influenced by environment
130.
131.
(d) altitude
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
102.
107.
112.
117.
122.
127.
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
103.
108.
113.
118.
123.
128.
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
109.
114.
119.
124.
129.
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
110.
115.
120.
125.
130.
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
1.
According to scientists, the Big Bang occurred approximately ___________ years ago.
(a) 100 million
(b) 100 thousand
(c) 1 billion
(d) 15 billion
2.
(c) protobiogenesis
(d) autobiogenesis
(d) Aristotle
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
(d) M. Calvin
8.
The accepted model of protobiogenesis suggests that the information in the first organism flowed
from
(a) amino acid to protein
(b) protein to amino acid
(c) nucleic acid to protein
(d) vitamin to protein
9.
10.
11.
12.
(d) polymer
13.
14.
15.
The nucleic acid along with inorganic and organic molecules formed the first form of life called
(a) prokaryotes
(b) protenoids
(c) protobionts
(d) chemoautotrophs
16.
Sydney Fox heated the amino acids which polymerized into protein like droplets called
(a) microspheres
(b) protenoids
(c) coacervates
(d) amino acids
17.
According to Oparin and Fox, which biomolecules are said to be the fore runners of the first form of
life on earth?
(a) Coacervates
(b) Microspheres
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Eubionts
18.
Urey and Millers spark discharge apparatus is a closed system of glass except
(a) water boiling flask
(b) tungsten electrodes
(c) vaccum pump
(d) cooling jacket
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
The proportion of an allele in the gene pool as compared with other alleles at the same locus is called
(a) gene frequency (b) genetic population (c) gene pool
(d) gene variation
27.
28.
Transfer of genes between population that differ genetically from one another is called
(a) gene frequency (b) gene flow
(c) gene pool
(d) gene mutation
29.
30.
Isolation results in
(a) migration of species
(c) reproductive isolation
31.
32.
When an original population is separated into two or more groups by environmental factors such as
river, mountain, ocean, forest is called
(a) geographical isolation
(b) reproductive isolation
(c) habitat isolation
(d) ethological isolation
33.
Organisms living in the same region but occupy different habitat is called
(a) seasonal isolation
(b) habitat isolation
(c) ethological isolation
(d) mechanical isolation
34.
In seasonal isolation
(a) members of a population attain sexual maturity at different times
(b) members of a population occupy different habitat
(c) members of two population have different mating behaviours
(d) members of two population have differences in the structure of their reproductive organs.
35.
Members of two population having differences in the structure of their reproductive organs is called
(a) mechanical isolation
(b) reproductive isolation
(c) geographical isolation
(d) ethological isolation
36.
The mechanism of post-mating in which, sperm transfer takes place but egg is not fertilized is
referred as
(a) hybrid sterility
(b) hybrid mortality
(c) gamete mortality (d) zygote mortality
37.
38.
39.
A form of fossil in which, an impression of the body parts left on the soft mud of the oceanic floor is
called
(a) actual remains
(b) moulds
(c) casts
(d) mud fossil
40.
41.
(c) Archaeopteryx
42.
(d) Anthropoidea
43.
(d) Kettlewell
44.
45.
46.
Organs which are structurally similar but functionally dissimilar are called
(a) homologous organs
(b) analogous organs
(c) vestigial organs
(d) non-homologous organs
47.
48.
49.
50.
(c) recombination
51.
Arrangement of eras, periods and epochs on the time scale in an order of evolution of organism is
called
(a) geology
(b) geological times
(c) geological time scale
(d) both (b) and (c)
52.
(d) pliocene
(d) palaeozoic
53.
54.
55.
There are two alleles A and a with frequencies p and q respectively. According to the HardyWeinbergs principle, the frequency of Aa allele will be
(a) p 2
(b) q 2
(c) 2pq
(d) 2 p 2 q2
56.
Primates include
(a) apes and man
(b) monkeys, apes and man
(c) lorises, lemurs and tarsiers
(d) lorises, lemurs, tarsiers, monkeys, apes and man
57.
58.
59.
60.
(b) gibbons
(c) orangutan
Cercopithecoide includes
(a) old world monkeys
(c) apes and man
61.
62.
Major differences between New world and old world monkeys are in
(a) type of nose
(b) length of tail
(c) distribution in the world
(d) all of these
63.
Which of the following includes both the apes and the humans but not the monkey?
(a) Cercopithecoidea (b) Hominoids
(c) Anthropoids
(d) Prosimians
64.
A diastema in upper jaw between incisor and canines which accommodates elongated canies of the
lower jaw is a characteristic feature of
(a) man
(b) lemurs
(c) apes
(d) tarsiers
65.
66.
Which of the following characters show phylogenetic relationship between apes and man?
(a) Broad chest due to flattening of sternum
(b) Ability of sound production
(c) Absence of tail
(d) All of the above
67.
68.
Propliopithecus lived in
(a) Oligocene epoch
(c) early Pliocene epoch
(d) Proconsul
69.
From which part of the world first fossils of Dryopithecus are discovered?
(a) Lake Victoria of Africa
(b) Fayam deposits of Egypt
(c) Siwalik Hills
(d) Tanzania
70.
Ramapithecus lived in
(a) late Miocene and early Pliocene epoch
(c) early holocene and late pleistocene
71.
72.
(d) Australopithecus
73.
74.
(c) Sinanthropus
75.
76.
77.
78.
(d) Australopithecus
79.
80.
81.
Which of the fossil man given below, was expert in making tool, weapons, paintings etc.?
(a) Java ape man
(b) Peking man
(c) Rhodesian man
(d) Cro-Magnon man
82.
83.
84.
(c) atavism
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
The most significant character of a man from the evolution point of view is
(a) foramen magnum shifted forward
(b) larger cranial capacity
(c) face is orthognathous
(d) all of these
96.
97.
98.
Formation of which complex molecules was noticed by Urey and Miller when they subjected
substances like NH3, CH4 and H2O to electric discharge?
(a) H2SO4
(b) Amino acids
(c) NH2
(d) HCl
99.
100.
101.
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
In prokaryotes _________ .
(a) chromosomes can be circular as well as linear within the same cell.
(b) are always linear and made up of DNA
(c) chromosome is single and made up of circular DNA
(d) chromosomes can be either circular or linear but never both within the same organism.
2.
3.
4.
4n represents _________ .
(a) one set of chromosome
(c) three sets of chromosome
5.
6.
7.
8.
(d) tetraploid
(d) 0.3 to 30 m
(d) 1 to 3 m
9.
10.
Telomere _________ .
(a) helds the chromatids together
(b) forms nucleolus
(c) prevents the sticking of chromosomal ends (d) helps during division
11.
(c) V-shaped
12.
13.
14.
15.
The phenomenon of inheritance in which chromosomes separate by crossing over is called _______ .
(a) complete linkage (b) incomplete linkage (c) autosomal linkage (d) partial linkage
16.
17.
18.
(c) diplotene
(d) leptotene
19.
20.
(b) recessive
(d) incompletely dominant
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
(c) polyploid
(d) haploid
(d) B and D
28.
29.
The disease caused due to the quantitative abnormality of polypeptide chain of globin
chain synthesis is _________ .
(a) Downs syndrome
(b) Thalassemia
(c) Turners syndrome
(d) Klinefelters syndrome
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
When two genes are situated very close together in a chromosome _________ .
(a) the percentage of crossing over between them is very high
(b) hardly any cross overs are detected.
(c) no crossing over can ever take place between them
(d) only double cross overs can take place between them.
40.
41.
42.
43.
When Morgan hybridzed yellow bodied white eyed female to brown bodied red eyed males and
intercrossed their progeny, what was his observation?
(a) The two genes segregated independently
(b) The two genes did not segregate independently
(c) F2 ratio deviated from 9:3:3:1
(d) Both (b) and (c)
44.
Usually the recessive character is expressed only when present in a double recessive condition.
However, single recessive gene can express itself in human beings when the gene is present on
_________ .
(a) the X-chromosome of the female
(b) the X-chromosome of the male
(c) any autosome
(d) the Y-chromosome of the male
45.
A holandric gene is known for hypertrichosis (long hairs on ears). When a man with hairy ears
marries a normal woman, what percentage of their daughters would be expected to have hairy ears?
(a) 100%
(b) 0%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%
46.
A colour blind man, whose both the parents had normal vision and whose paternal and maternal
grandparents had normal vision, probably inherited the gene for colour blindness from his
_________ .
(a) maternal or paternal grandmother
(b) maternal or paternal father
(c) father
(d) mother
47.
Colour blindness is a disease usually affecting man, but the factor for it is always transmitted to the
children by woman. This is because particular factor is located on a/an _________ .
(a) X chromosome (b) Y chromosome
(c) autosome
(d) both (a) and (b)
48.
A marriage between normal visioned man and colour-blind woman will produce offspring as
_________ .
(a) normal males and carrier daughters
(b) colour blind sons and carrier daughters
(c) colour blind sons and 50% carrier daughters
(d) 50% of sons colour blind and 50% of daughters carrier
49.
A colourblind man (XcY) has a colourblind sister (XcXc) and a normal brother (XY). What is
genotype of father and mother?
(a) XcY, XcXc
(b) XY, XcXc
(c) XcY, XcX
(d) XY, XcX
50.
The gene for haemophila is located on the X chromosome. It is impossible for a _________ .
(a) haemophilic father to pass the gene to his daughter
(b) haemophilic father to pass the gene to his son
(c) carrier mother to pass the gene to her daughter
(d) carrier mother to pass the gene to her son
51.
A woman has her haemophilic brother and normal parents. She marries a man who has no history of
haemophilia in his family. What is the possibility of her children having his disease?
(a) 50% of the sons may be haemophilic
(b) 50% of the total generation is haemophilic
(c) 50% of the daughters may be haemophilic (d) All the progeny will be haemophilic.
52.
(d) chromosomes
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
If a lady who is a carrier for haemophilia marries a normal man, their children will include
_________ .
(a) 100% normal sons.
(b) 50% of sons normal and 50% of daughters carrier.
(c) 100% haemophilic sons and 50% carrier daughters.
(d) all haemophilic sons and all haemophilic daughters.
59.
(d) chromatid
60.
Drosophila melanogastor has 8 chromosomes in somatic cell. How many linkage groups will be
there?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 5
61.
A normal woman, who has a colour blind father married a normal man. The son would be _______ .
(a) 75% colour blind (b) 50% colour blind
(c) All normal
(d) All colour blind
62.
One of the parents of a cross has mutations in mitochondrion. In this cross, that parent is taken as
male. During segregation of F2 progenies, that mutation is found in ___________ .
(a) one third of the progenies
(b) none of the progenies
(c) all the progenies
(d) 50% of the progenies
63.
64.
The most common type of haemophilia results from the congenital absence of _________ .
(a) factor II
(b) factor V
(c) factor VIII
(d) factor X
65.
A sudden or spontaneous change in the structure and action of a particular gene is called _________ .
(a) mutation
(b) allelomorph
(c) linkage
(d) variation
66.
During cell division there is sometimes failure of separation of sister chromatids. This event is called
_______ .
(a) interference
(b) non disjunction
(c) segregation
(d) fusion
67.
68.
(d) monosomy
(d) 11
(d) clotting
69.
70.
71.
(c) chromosome
(d) cytokinesis
72.
73.
(d) thalassemia
74.
A normal man has a colour blind brother and a colour blind sister. Therefore, the genotype of parent
is __________ .
(a) XcXC crossed with XcY
(b) XcXc crossed with XCY
(c) XcXC crossed with XCY
(d) XCXC crossed with XCY
75.
When a normal male marries a carrier female, in the offsprings, what will be the percentage of colour
blind carrier daughters?
(a) 100%
(b) 75%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%
76.
(c) Drosophila
(d) birds
77.
78.
79.
Hemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because __________ .
(a) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy
(b) this disease is due to Y-linked recessive mutation
(c) this disease is due to X-linked recessive mutant
(d) this disease is due to X-linked dominant gene
80.
81.
A man and a woman who do not show any apparent sign of certain disease have children among
which some of the sons suffer from the given disease but the daughters remain unaffected. Which of
the following mode of inheritance can be expected?
(a) Sex linked dominant
(b) Sex linked recessive
(c) Sex limited recessive
(d) Autosomal dominant
82.
Epicanthus skin fold above eyes and transverse palmar crease are typical symptoms of __________.
(a) Cri-du-chat syndrome
(b) Klinefelters syndrome
(c) Downs syndrome
(d) Turners syndrome
83.
(d) Crick
84.
Which one of the following symbols are used for representing chromosomes of birds?
(a) ZZ-ZW
(b) XX-XY
(c) XO-XX
(d) ZZ-WW
85.
86.
87.
(d) tetraploid
88.
A normal zygote of human being has 46 chromosomes. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in a
tetraploid zygote will be __________ .
(a) 23
(b) 46
(c) 69
(d) 92
89.
90.
91.
(c) diploidy
(d) euploidy
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
It is essential that the anaphase I of meiosis I forms the gamete that is __________ .
(a) aneuploid
(b) polyploid
(c) diploid
(d) haploid
98.
One of the following does not have XX-XY sex chromosomes ____________ .
(a) cock
(b) man
(c) fruit fly
(d) plants
99.
In human, males have less number of genes in the genome because __________ .
(a) autosomes are less
(b) sex chromosomes are X and Y
(c) Y chromosome is shorter than X chromosome
(d) non disjunction occurs during segregation
100.
101.
When a Klinefelters syndrome develops, one of the gametes contributing in its formation has
________ number of chromosomes.
(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 46
102.
The number of chromosomes in somatic cell of a person suffering with Turners syndrome is
___________ .
(a) 47
(b) 46
(c) 45
(d) 44
103.
The number of sex chromosomes in a person suffering from Downs syndrome is ________ .
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
104.
The number of sex chromosomes in a somatic cell of female suffering from Downs and Turners
syndromes is ____________ .
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
105.
The number of chromosomes in somatic cell of an individual suffering from Downs and
Klinefelters syndromes is __________ .
(a) 49
(b) 48
(c) 47
(d) 46
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
102.
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
103.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
1.
(d) ribosome
2.
The technique developed to identify a person with the help of DNA restriction analysis is known as
__________ .
(a) DNA profiling
(b) DNA fingerprinting (c) Tissue culture
(d) Both (a) and (b)
3.
VNTR is __________ .
(a) Variable Number of Thymine Repeats
(c) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
4.
Transfer of DNA bands from agarose gel to nitrocellulose or nylon membrane is __________ .
(a) Southern blotting (b) Western blotting
(c) Northern blotting (d) Eastern blotting
5.
6.
(d) 1998
7.
8.
9.
10.
(c) 12500 kb
(d) 569 kb
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
People who do not produce the necessary amount of insulin suffer from a disease called _________ .
(a) diabetes insipidus (b) diabetes mellitus
(c) juvenile diabetes (d) none of the above
16.
17.
18.
DNA sample hybridized with DNA probe when kept in contact with X-ray film results into
__________ .
(a) photographic image of radioactive probe
(b) photographic image of DNA bands due to radioactive probe
(c) photographic image of nylon membrane
(d) both (a) and (b)
19.
20.
21.
22.
Insulin extracted and purified from the pancreas of cattle and pigs functions well in the human body
because __________ .
(a) the chemical structure of insulin in these animals is slightly different from human insulin.
(b) the structure of cells of pancreas of these animals and human are same.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
Variable Number Tandem Repeats in the DNA molecule are highly useful in _________.
(a) monoclonal antibody production
(b) stem cell culture
(c) recombinant DNA technology
(d) DNA fngerprinting
29.
(d) VNTRs
(d) cellulose
30.
31.
In India, the radioactive DNA probe is obtained form banded krait. In krait, the sex chromosome is
_______ .
(a) XX-XY
(b) ZZ-ZW
(c) XY-YY
(d) ZW-WW
32.
33.
(c) Physical
(d) Sequence
(d) fish
34.
35.
Technique developed to identify a person with the help of DNA is called ________ .
(a) genomics
(b) fingerprinting
(c) genetics
(d) HGP
36.
(d) 97
37.
38.
The unusual sequences that are repeated several times are called __________ .
(a) VNTRs
(b) RFLP
(c) PCR
(d) HGP
39.
(d) PCR
(d) electrophoresis
(d) bactericide
40.
41.
42.
43.
(d) D peptide
(d) 22
44.
In early treatment of diabetes, insulin was extracted from pancreas of slaughtered _________ .
(a) cattle
(b) dog
(c) horse
(d) chick
45.
(d) fungus
(d) gyrase
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
In India, Dr. Lalji Singh obtained the radioactive DNA probe from __________ .
(a) mouse
(b) guinea pig
(c) snake
(d) bacteria
53.
(d) zygote
54.
55.
56.
(d) 1
57.
58.
59.
The organism Arabidopsis thaliana used in mapping and sequencing of genome is ________ .
(a) angiosperm
(b) gymnosperm
(c) algae
(d) fungi
60.
(d) glucose
61.
62.
When glucose molecule builds up in the blood, the cell is deprived of ___________ .
(a) proteins
(b) amino acid
(c) energy
(d) enzyme
63.
64.
65.
(c) Rosie
(d) Sandy
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
(d)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIth
CHAPTER
1.
2.
3.
The protective chemicals produced by immune cells in response to antigens are called
(a) antibody
(b) immunogen
(c) infectious agent
(d) all of the above
4.
The term immunology is derived from latin word immunis which means _______
(a) fright
(b) flight
(c) fight
(d) freedom
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother milk to
infant is called
(a) Artificial acquired passive immunity
(b) Natural acquired passive immunity
(c) Natural acquired active immunity
(d) Artificial acquired active immunity
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
(d) lacs
T lymphocytes generate
(a) cell medIated immunity
(c) cellular immunity
(c) performs
(d) histamines
19.
The cells which suppress the entire immune system from its attack in the same body are known as
(a) helper T-cells
(b) killer B-cells
(c) suppressor cells
(d) suppressor T-cells
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
(c) immunoglobulins
(d) gamaglobulins
(d) hinge
26.
27.
Antibodies are
(a) multivalent
(b) bivalent
(c) univalent
(d) trivalent
(d) Serology
28.
29.
30.
(d) Kitasato
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
(d) Autoimmunity
The term which means eating at the side of or at the same table is
(a) Host
(b) Parasite
(c) Organism
(d) Infection
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
(c) hepatocyst
(b) schizonts
(d) sporozoites
(d) gametocytes
(c) hepatomegaly
(d) 9
47.
48.
After mating of male and female filarial worm, the female gives birth to
(a) merozoites
(b) microfilariae
(c) nymph
(d) caterpillar
(d) tongue
49.
50.
51.
(d) Typhoid
52.
53.
54.
55.
(c) intestine
56.
57.
58.
59.
(d) V
(d) cellulose
60.
Gastric fever, abdominal typhus, infantile intermittent fever, slow fever, nervous fever are the names
of
(a) malaria
(b) dengue
(c) typhoid
(d) Ascariasis
61.
High fever, appearance of rose spots, intestinal perforation or hemorrhage and delusions are typical
symptoms of
(a) influenza
(b) typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) tuberculosis
62.
63.
(c) Typhoid
(d) Filariasis
64.
(d) malaria
65.
Which of the following disease is a leading cause of death of young, old and chronically ill?
(a) Polio
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Malaria
(d) Typhoid
66.
67.
(d) protozoal
(d) Malaria
68.
69.
70.
71.
When cell manages to divide and grow making new blood vessels to feed itself in a process called
(a) invasion
(b) angiogenesis
(c) metastasis
(d) benign
72.
73.
(c) lymphomas
74.
In melanoma there is
(a) rapid increasing in number of WBCs
(b) a change in a wart or mole on the skin
(c) white patches inside the mouth or white patch on the tongue
(d) a lump on the breast
75.
76.
77.
(c) Defence
(d) Adenomas
(d) Leukemias
(d) sensory
(d) Mumps
A small group of patients which develop AIDS very slowly or never at all are called
(a) non-progressors (b) opportunistic
(c) HIV positive
(d) none of these
78.
79.
80.
(c) diacetylmorphine
(d) ethylamide
81.
82.
83.
84.
(b) Claviceps
Interferons are
(a) released by cells against viruses
(c) antibodies
(c) Fusarium
(d) Nostoc
85.
Which component of LPS complex of Salmonella typhi is responsible for the host immune response?
(a) Lipid A
(b) O - antigen
(c) A - antigen
(d) Polysaccharide core
86.
Pneumonia is
(a) bacterial
87.
88.
(b) viral
(c) fungal
(d) Merozoites
89.
90.
(c) Opioid
91.
92.
Injecting antibodies against rabies pathogens obtained from hyperimmunised horses will generate
(a) artificial acquired active immunity
(b) artificial acquired passive immunity
(c) natural acquired active immunity
(d) natural- acquired passive immunity
93.
(c) histocytes
Epistaxis means
(a) bleeding nose
(c) decrease in circulating WBC
(c) hair
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
(d) skin
99.
A person has lost weight rapidly, he has prolonged fever and enlargement of lymph, glands. Which
disease is he suffering from?
(a) AIDS
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Tuberculosis
100.
Ability of the body to defend itself against microbial pathogens, toxins and transplanted tissues is
called
(a) acquired immunity
(b) innate immunity
(c) specific immunity
(d) both (a) and (c)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
(d)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: ANIMAL HUSBANDRY
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(c) cattle
(c) cocks
9.
10.
11.
(d) 90%
(d) horse
(d) plymouths
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
A group of animals having common ancestors and showing similar characters like general
appearance, features, size, configuration is termed as
(a) breed
(b) kingdom
(c) family
(d) genus
19.
The process of mating two closely related individuals within the same breed for 4 to 6 generations is
called
(a) heterosis
(b) self breeding
(c) inbreeding
(d) hybridization
20.
Inbreeding helps in
(a) accumulation of superior genes.
(b) elimination of harmful or less desirable genes by selection
(c) increasing heterozygosity
(d) both (a) and (b)
21.
The process of mating of unrelated animals of the same breeds but having no common ancestor for 4
to 6 generation is called
(a) inbreeding
(b) out-breeding
(c) selfbreeding
(d) heterosis
22.
The process of mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either
side of mating partners upto 4 to 6 generation is called.
(a) out-crossing
(b) inbreeding
(c) out-breedng
(d) cross breeding
23.
The process of mating of superior male of one breed with superior female of another breed is called
___________ .
(a) out-crossing
(b) inbreeding
(c) out breeding
(d) cross breeding
24.
The process of mating between male and female animals of two different related species is called
____________ .
(a) cross-breeding
(b) interspecific hybridization
(c) out-crossing
(d) out breeding
25.
26.
In MOET technology, in each reproductive cycle of cow ___________ eggs mature simultaneously
(a) 1 to 2
(b) 2 to 4
(c) 6 to 8
(d) 8 to 10
27.
28.
29.
30.
Bee keeping in the crop fields of ______________ helps in increasing the productivity tremendously.
(a) sunflower, mustard, safflower
(b) chilly, cabbage, cucumber
(c) gourds, legumes, fruits
(d) all of the above
31.
Inland aquatic area of our country covers about __________ lakh acres
(a) 10-20
(b) 20-35
(c) 40-50
(d) 60-80
(d) 7500
32.
33.
(c) polyculture
34.
Fish can be preserved for longer duration by which of the following methods?
(a) Chilling, freezing, freeze drying
(b) Sun drying, smoke drying
(c) Salting, canning
(d) All of the above
35.
36.
_____________ and _____________ have market value all over the world.
(a) Prawns, lobsters
(b) Bombay duck, sardine
(c) Rohu, catla
(d) Mirgala, pomphret
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
(c) viscous
(b) pure
(d) dense
Lac is used in
(a) bangles, toys, woodwork
(c) wax, isinglass, glue
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
(d) green
49.
_____________ is native insect of India and produces 85% of total lac in the world.
(a) Apis dorsata
(b) Tacchardia lacca
(c) cockroach
(d) ant
50.
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
(a)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: CIRCULATION
TOPIC: CIRCULATION
1.
Blood contains
(a) 45% plasma and 55% corpuscles
(b) 55% plasma and 45% corpuscles
(c) 60% corpuscles and 40% plasma
(d) 40% corpuscles and 60% plasma
2.
3.
4.
(d) liver
(d) anaemia
5.
(c) leucopenia
6.
7.
8.
Leucocytes are wandering cells capable of coming out of blood capillaries by amoeboid movement
called
(a) cyclosis
(b) diapedesis
(c) phagocytosis
(d) mitosis
9.
(c) 10 to 12 m
(d) 15 to 20 m
10.
11.
(c) leucopoiesis
(d) polycythemia
12.
Granulocyte contains
(a) granular cytoplasm with lobed nucleus
(b) granular cytoplasm with kidney shaped nucleus.
(c) cytoplasm without granules with lobed nucleus.
(d) cytoplasm without granules with unlobed nucleus.
13.
(c) basophils
(d) acidophils
(c) polycythemia
(d) erythrocythemia
Lymphocyte produces
(a) heparin
(b) antibodies
(c) histamine
(c) Basophils
(d) Neutrophils
(c) Monocytes
(d) Lymphocytes
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
(d) histamine
19.
20.
(c) mesodermal
Epicardium is composed of
(a) endothelium
(b) exothelium
(c) mesothelium
(c) myocardium
(d) endocardium
21.
22.
23.
(d) ectomesodermal
24.
25.
26.
27.
(d) bicuspid
How many caval veins open into the right auricle in man?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
28.
The opening of the upper chamber of the heart into the lower chamber is known as
(a) sino-auricular aperture
(b) atrio-ventricular aperture
(c) artio-ventricular septum
(d) atrio-ventricular node
29.
30.
31.
The inner surface of the ventricle is thrown into a series of irregular muscular ridges called.
(a) columnae carnae (b) trabeculae carnae
(c) chordae tendinae (d) Both (a) and (b)
32.
33.
34.
(c) MAP
35.
A rhythmic contraction and relaxation of heart during one heart beat is called.
(a) heart rate
(b) cardiac cycle
(c) pulse rate
(d) stroke volume
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
During inspiration, heart rate increase and during expiration it falls. This phenomenon is known as
(a) tachycardia
(b) bradycardia
(c) murmur
(d) sinus arrhythmias
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
The circuit in which the cardiac cycle results in the movement of blood out of the ventricles.
(a) pulmonary circuit (b) systemic circuit
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) cardiac circuit
46.
During each heart beat ventricles pump about 70 ml of blood. This is called
(a) heart rate
(b) stroke volume
(c) cardiac output
(d) pulse rate
47.
(d) ischemia
The __________ at the wrist is most commonly used to feel the pulse.
(a) coronary artery (b) radial artery
(c) pulmonary artery
48.
49.
51.
52.
53.
54.
(d) intestine
(c) arteries
Hypertension is caused by
(a) alcohol
(b) smoking
(c) obesity
(d) lungs
55.
56.
Hypertension is a result of increase in systolic arterial blood pressure more than ________ and
diastolic pressure more than _________
(a) 150 mm Hg, 80 mm Hg
(b) 140 mm Hg, 90 mm Hg
(c) 100 mm Hg, 70 mm Hg
(d) 120 mm Hg, 100 mm Hg
57.
Anginal pain usually starts in the centre of the chest and spreads
(a) towards lower abdomen
(b) down the left hind limb
(c) down the left arm
(d) down the right arm
58.
59.
A graphic record of electrical variation produced by the heart during one heart beat or cardiac cycle
is called
(a) electrocardiogram
(b) cardiogram
(c) pulse graph
(d) all of the above
60.
Father of Electrocardiography is
61.
62.
63.
64.
T- wave is a
(a) broad upward wave
(c) small upward wave
T-wave represents
(a) ventricular contraction
(c) ventricular relaxation
(c) Ni battery
65.
66.
67.
68.
(c) WBCs
69.
70.
71.
(d) platelets
72.
The lymphatic vessels coming from the ______________ are milky in appearance.
(a) stomach
(b) heart
(c) intestine
(d) liver
73.
The lymphatic vessels coming from intestine are milky in appearance due to absorbed
(a) glucose
(b) amino acids
(c) fats
(d) vitamins
74.
75.
(c) groin
76.
77.
(c) neutral
(c) Fibrinogen
78.
79.
80.
(d) Hepatic
81.
__________ lies in the wall of right auricle below the opening of superior vena cava.
(a) Sinoatrial node
(b) Atrio-Ventricular node
(c) Bundle of His
(d) Purkinje fibres
82.
83.
84.
______________ differentiate into macrophages or scavenger cells which remove the damages and
dead cells to clean the body.
(a) Monocytes
(b) Lymphocytes
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Basophils
85.
Blood platelets are produced in the red bone marrow from a type of giant myeloid cells called
(a) megakaryocytes (b) erythrocytes
(c) leucocytes
(d) monoblasts
86.
87.
When mitral valve closes, the blood does not flow back into the
(a) right auricle
(b) left auricle
(c) right ventricle
(d) aorta
88.
While fibrous threads which extend from the papillary muscles and prevent the back flow of blood is
called
(a) columnae carneae (b) chordae tendinae
(c) papillary muscles (d) smooth muscles
89.
The specialized tissue concerned with the stimulation and the regulation of heart beat is
(a) connective tissue (b) epithelial tissue
(c) nodal tissue
(d) none of these
90.
When the S.A. node is stimulated, the chambers of the heart which contract are the
(a) right auricle and right ventricle
(b) left auricle and left ventricle
(c) left ventricle and right ventricle
(d) right and left auricles
91.
92.
93.
(d) aorta
94.
Valves are found in veins to check the backflow of the blood flowing under
(a) low pressure
(b) high pressure
(c) no pressure
(d) very high pressure
95.
When the blood flows from heart to rest of the organs and back to heart, it is referred as
(a) systemic circulation
(b) pulmonary circulation
(c) open circulation
(d) single circulation
96.
97.
98.
The pressure which the blood exerts on the wall of the arteries when the ventricles are maximally
relaxed is called
(a) systolic blood pressure
(b) diastolic blood pressure
(c) pulse pressure
(d) none of these
99.
100.
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(d) Spleen
(d) 50 ml
(d) guanotelic
Urea is
(a) very toxic
(d) 100 ml
(d) no
(d) 100 ml
10.
Which one of the following contains uric acid as the chief nitrogenous waste?
(a) Frog
(b) Pigeon
(c) Cockroach
(d) both (b) and (c)
11.
12.
13.
(d) osteoporosis
14.
In man kidneys are present on either side of vertebral column at the level of
(a) 10th thoracic to 3rd lumbar vertebrae
(b) 12th thoracic to 5th lumbar vertebrae
th
rd
(c) 12 thoracic 3 lumbar vertebrae
(d) 10th thoracic to 5th lumbar vertebrae
15.
Kidneys of man
(a) have both side concave
(b) have outer side convex and inner side concave
(c) have outer side concave and inner side convex
(d) have both side convex
16.
(b) Osmoregulation
(d) Salt balance
17.
18.
Renal medulla is
(a) below the cortex (b) light red coloured
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
(c) striated
(d) 6 o 20
(c) calyx
(d) 20 cm
(c) cortex
(d) pelvis
26.
27.
28.
29.
Which of the two structures of nephron are present in the cortex of kidney?
(a) Collecting duct and glomerulus
(b) Henles loops and convoluted tubules
(c) Malpighian body and convoluted tubules
(d) Henles loop and duct of Belini
30.
Which enzyme in the JG cells help to raise blood pressure if it drops suddenly?
(a) Gastrin
(b) Renin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Amylase
31.
32.
Which of the following substances are unable to filter through glomerular capillaries?
(a) Glucose
(b) Blood cells
(c) Large fat molecules (d) both (b) and (c)
33.
34.
(d) 30 mm Hg
(c) 70 Hg
(d) 10 mm Hg
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
Which one of the following substance is actively secreted into the glomerular filtrate of the kidney
tubule?
(a) Potassium ions (b) Amino acids
(c) Sodium ions
(d) Chloride ions
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
(c) oliguria
(d) proteinuria
(d) urea
(d) Potassium
(c) Calcitriol
(d) Nephrolithiasis
48.
Urea splitting bacteria produce ____________ in people suffering with urinary tract infections.
(a) calcium stones
(b) struvite stones
(c) phosphate stones (d) oxalate stones
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
(d) BCOP
55.
The condition in which water excretion increases due to the ncreased excretion of Na+ in urine is
called
(a) urolithiasis
(b) nephrolithiasis
(c) natriuresis
(d) antinatriuresis
56.
What accumulates in dangerous proportion in the blood of person whose kidney is not working
properly?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Urea
(d) Lysine
57.
58.
The lungs are considered as excretory organs because of their ablity to eliminate
(a) CO2
(b) volatile substances such as chloroform
(c) CO2 and moisture during expiration
(d) CO2 and fumes of hot food
59.
The space between the parietal and visceral layer of Bowmans capsule is
(a) urinary space
(b) proximal end
(c) distal end
(d) none of the above
60.
(d) 2 litres
(d) Acromegaly
61.
62.
(c) Oliguria
63.
64.
(d) creatinine
(c) uricotelic
(d) ureotelic
65.
66.
67.
68.
Uric acid and guanine are the excretory products and are members of
(a) purine
(b) pyrmidine
(c) both (a) and (b)
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
(d) 106
(b) Glomerulus
(d) None of these
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
Which is not reabsorbed from the filtrate to send back to the blood at the proximal tubule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Na+
(c) Plasma proteins
(d) Water
81.
(d) creatinine
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
(c) polyuria
89.
90.
(d) pyuria
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
(d) Creatinine
It Henles loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following statement is correct?
(a) There will be no urine formation.
(b) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
(c) The urine will be more concentrated.
(d) The urine will be more dilute.
98.
99.
100.
(d)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(c)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
The main function of the cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain and central canal of spinal
cord is
(a) to maintain constant temperature inside.
(b) to absorb any mechanical shocks.
(c) to supply O2 to brain.
(d) all of the above
9.
The brain develops to its full size at the age of __________ years.
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
(b) Telencephalon
(d) Metencephalon
Cerebrum constitutes
(a) 15 % of entire weight of the brain.
(c) 85 % of entire weight of the brain.
15.
16.
Pallium is
(a) lateral wall of diencephalon
(c) floorwall of paracoel.
17.
18.
In cerebral hemisphere, masses of grey matter located in white matter are called
(a) basal nuclei
(b) thalami
(c) corpora striata
(d) optic chiasma
19.
20.
21.
(d) diencephalons
22.
The diencephalon lies below the ________ and above the _________ respectively.
(a) corpus callosum; mid brain
(b) pons varolii; mid brain
(c) cerebellum; mid brain
(d) mid brain; hind brain
23.
(d) metacoel
24.
The roof of diencephalon which gives an upward projection of pineal body is called
(a) thalamus
(b) epithalamus
(c) hypothalamus
(d) none of these
25.
26.
(c) hypothalamus
27.
28.
29.
All sensory impulses except olfactory, entering the cerebrum must pass through
(a) spinal cord
(b) medulla oblongata (c) hypothalamus
(d) thalamus
30.
________ is the relay centre for motor and sensory impulses between spinal cord, brain stem and
various areas of cerebral cortex.
(a) Rhinencephalon
(b) Telencephalon
(c) Diencephalon
(d) Metencephalon change option
31.
Mid brain is the middle part of the brain and situated between
(a) diencephalon and pons varolii.
(b) pons varolii and medulla oblongata.
(c) cerebral hemisphere.
(d) hypothalamus and epithalamus.
32.
33.
34.
In daily routine, standing and walking is controlled by which part of the brain?
(a) Frontal lobe
(b) Temporal lobe
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebrum
35.
(d) pallium
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
(d) mixed
(c) tongue
(c) Vagus
(d) Occulomotor
(c) occulomotor
(d) trigeminal
(c) trachea
(d) tongue
48.
Movement of shoulder muscle and neck is controlled by which of the following nerve?
(a) Vagus
(b) Hypoglossal
(c) Spinal accessory
(d) Glossopharyngeal
49.
50.
51.
(c) 12 pairs
52.
53.
54.
55.
Neuron is surrounded by
(a) intracellular fluid (b) extracellular fluid
(d) 1 pair
(d) endorphin
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
When more than two neurons are involved, the reflexes are termed as
(a) simple reflexes
(b) monosynaptic reflexes
(c) polysynaptic reflexes
(d) neuron reflexes
63.
A part of the body which receives the stimulus and converts it into impulse is called
(a) afferent neuron (b) receptor organ
(c) effector organ
(d) effector organ
64.
(c) exteroreceptors
(b) Thermoreceptors
(d) both (a) and (b)
(c) Enteroreceptors
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
(d) organoreceptors
(d) Baroreceptors
(c) Thermoreceptors
(d) Mechanoreceptors
(d) smell
(c) cold
(d) warmth
The receptors located in the tendons, muscles and joints are called
(a) exteroceptors
(b) proprioceptors
(c) interoceptors
Enteroreceptors are sensitive to
(a) hunger, thirst
(c) pH, osmotic changes
(d) statoreceptors
75.
A pair of broad bean-sized organ of nose which is an extension of the brain limbic system is called
(a) optic bulb
(b) tango bulb
(c) tactile bulb
(d) olfactory bulb
76.
________ is present in muscles and joints and gives information about the position of parts of the
body in space and the forces acting on them.
(a) fimell sensor
(b) Thirst sensor
(c) Stretch sensor
(d) Hunger sensor
77.
(d) 5
78.
How many types of cones are present which are responsible for colour differentiation?
(a) Only one
(b) 7 types for seven fundamental colours
(c) 3 types
(d) 4 types
79.
Aqueous humor is
(a) a transparent gelatinous fluid present in aqueous chamber.
(b) a thin watery fluid present in aqueous chamber.
(c) a thick opaque gelatinous fluid present in aqueous chamber.
(d) a thin colourful fluid present in aqueous chamber.
80.
The larger space between the lens and the retina is termed as
(a) aqueous chamber (b) optic chamber
(c) vitreous chamber
81.
82.
The light rays from the object pass through _______ and _______ .
(a) cornea, lens
(b) rods, cones
(c) orbits, sctera
83.
84.
85.
(c) incus
86.
(d) stapes
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
Which effect would be produced, if the corpus callosum of the mammalian brain is removed?
(a) Loss of sensory input to the cerebral hemispheres.
(b) Failure to co-ordinate right and left sides of the body.
(c) Overactivity of the posterior pituitary.
(d) Loss of control of the motor responses of the body.
97.
98.
The central sulcus of the cerebral hemisphere has motor area and sensory area
(a) in its front and behind respectively.
(b) behind and in front respectively.
(c) in the front.
(d) both behind the central sulcus.
99.
100.
The part of the hind brain that is responsible for hand-eye co-ordination is the
(a) pons varolii
(b) hippocampus
(c) cerebellum
(d) medulla oblongata
101.
102.
103.
(c) cerebrum
(b) it is hollow.
(d) its grey matter is outside.
(c) vagus
(d) trigeminal
(d) Trochlear
(d) 10
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
(d) diencephalon
109.
110.
(d) mesenteric
111.
112.
The part of brain which has control over the endocrine system is
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Thalamus
(d) Epithalamus
(c) pituitary
Pituitary gland is
(a) ectodermal
(c) mesodermal
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
(b) endodermal
(d) 100
122.
_______ is the swollen median part of the hypothalamus where infundibulum gets attached
(a) Median eminence (b) Infundibulum
(c) Pars nervosa
(d) Pars intermedia
123.
(c) ICSH
124.
(d) STH
125.
A short individual, fairly well proportionate, who is mentally normal and shows under secretion of
growth hormone. This stage is called
(a) Lorain type
(b) Frohlic type
(c) Acromegaly
(d) Gigantism
126.
TSH is regulated by
(a) TRF
(c) LTH
(d) FSH
127.
(b) ACTH
128.
Function of ACTH is to
(a) stimulate pituitary
(b) stimulate the adrenal cortex to produce hormones
(c) suppress the activity of adrenal cortex
(d) stimulate thyroid
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
Which of these hormones from pituitary is responsible for development of mammary glands,
secretion of milk after birth and functioning of corpus luteum during pregancy?
(a) Prolactin
(b) Oxytocin
(c) LH
(d) FSH
134.
Which hormone initiates and regulates lactation in female after child birth?
(a) Progesterone
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Prolactin
(d) Both (a) and (b)
135.
136.
Oestrogen is secreted by
(a) germinal epithelium of ovary
(c) corpus albicans
Spermatogenesis is stimulated by
(a) STH
(b) TSH
(c) FSH
137.
138.
139.
(d) MSH
140.
High level of progesterone in female signals negative feedback to pituitary and stops secretion of
(a) LH
(b) Oestrogens
(c) LTH
(d) ACTH
141.
In males, high level of testosterone in blood gives negative feedback signal to pituitary and stops the
secretion of
(a) Steroids
(b) LTH
(c) ICSH
(d) FSH
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
(c) polydipsia
(d) antidiuresis
(d) Progesterone
(d) adrenal
(c) pituitary
(d) Below 5 gm
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
(d) isthmus
Storage gland is
(a) pancreas
(b) testis
(c) thyroid
(d) adrenal
T4 stands for
(a) thyroid
(b) tetrad
(c) thyroxine
(d) thyrocalcitonin
(c) tyrosine
(d) tryptophan
156.
157.
158.
Hypothyroidism leads to
(a) mental retardation
(c) sluggishness
(c) gigantism
159.
(d) goitre
160.
When blood calcium level becomes very high, the hormone that is secreted would be
(a) thyrocalcitonin (b) parathormone
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) adrenaline
161.
(c) somatostastin
(d) thymosins
162.
163.
(d) vasopressin
164.
Which hormone of the adrenal gland plays an important role in the growth of axial hair, pubic hair
and facial hair during puberty?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Mineralocorticoids (c) Glucocorticoids
(d) Androgenic steroids
165.
(d) Noradrenaline
166.
167.
Which pair of hormones are responsible for papillary dilation, piloerection, sweating, increased heart
beat?
(a) Aldosterone and cortisol
(b) Thyroxin and calcitonin
(c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
(d) Oxytocin and coherin
168.
Glucagon stimulates
(a) glycogenolysis
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
(b) gluconeogenesis
(c) glycogenesis
(d) -cells
(d) myxoedema
(c) cretinism
(d)
(a) ovaries
(b) testes
(c) uterus
174.
175.
(c) cholecystokinin
176.
177.
_______ acts on pancreas and gall bladder and stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile
juice respectively.
(a) CCK
(b) GID
(c) ANF
(d) ACTH
178.
A peptide hormone secreted by an atrial wall of the heart when blood pressure increases is
(a) vassopressin
(b) pepsinogen
(c) atrial natriuretic factor
(d) erythropoietin
179.
180.
181.
(d) Effector
182.
183.
184.
185.
(c) pancreas
(d) liver
186.
187.
Vasopressin is related to
(a) quick digestion
(c) concentration of urine
188.
189.
190.
(c) menstruation
(d) menopause
191.
Just after conclusion of parturition and baby, what is useful and needed for motherly role is
(a) prolactin and oxytocin
(b) oxytocin and relaxin
(c) prolactin and relaxin
(d) vasopressin and oxytocin
192.
193.
Cretinism and pituitary dwarfism differ from each other with respect to
(a) mental retardation
(b) physical retardation
(c) sexual retardation
(d) both (a) and (c)
194.
195.
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) adrenal
196.
197.
(d) Pituitary
(d) vasopressin
198.
199.
(c) parathormone
(d) LH
200.
Which of the following hormones maintain proper ratio of sodium and potassium in blood?
(a) Aldosterone
(b) Progesterone
(c) Testosterone
(d) ADH
201.
Insulin promotes
(a) glycogenesis
(b) glycolysis
(c) glyconeogenesis
(d) glycogenolysis
202.
Urine in the condition of diabetes insipidus, compared with that in diabetes mellitus, is
(a) more dilute with less sugar.
(b) more concentrated with more sugar
(c) more concentrated with no sugar.
(d) more dilute without sugar.
203.
The same gland, producing two hormones belonging to the same chemical group acting on the same
proximate principle of food but producing opposite effects, is
(a) thyroid
(b) pancreas
(c) adrenal cortex
(d) none of these
204.
205.
Oogenesis is controlled by
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) TSH
206.
207.
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
101.
106.
111.
116.
121.
126.
131.
136.
141.
146.
151.
156.
161.
166.
171.
176.
181.
186.
191.
196.
201.
206.
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
102.
107.
112.
117.
122.
127.
132.
137.
142.
147.
152.
157.
162.
167.
172.
177.
182.
187.
192.
197.
202.
207.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
103.
108.
113.
118.
123.
128.
133.
138.
143.
148.
153.
158.
163.
168.
173.
178.
183.
188.
193.
198.
203.
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
109.
114.
119.
124.
129.
134.
139.
144.
149.
154.
159.
164.
169.
174.
179.
184.
189.
194.
199.
204.
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
110.
115.
120.
125.
130.
135.
140.
145.
150.
155.
160.
165.
170.
175.
180.
185.
190.
195.
200.
205.
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: HUMAN REPRODUCTION
TOPIC:
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
(c) testes
7.
Dartos tunic muscles which lies in the subcutaneous tissue of scrotum is a layer of
(a) skeletal muscles
(b) smooth muscles
(c) cardiac muscles
(d) both skeletal and smooth muscles
8.
Scrotum acts as
(a) electroregulator
9.
10.
11.
(b) hydroregulator
(c) thermoregulator
(d) regulator
(d) ectomesodermal
(c) endodermal
12.
13.
14.
Failure of testis to descend from abdomen into scrotum leads to sterility called
(a) castration
(b) cryptorchidism
(c) mesorchium
(d) hypothyroidism
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
(d) 1-4
(d) bird
(d) progesterone
Epididymis
(a) receives sperms from testis
(c) helps maturation of sperms
(c) ureters
28.
29.
30.
(c) fructose
31.
(d) glycoprotein
32.
33.
Which accessory sex gland consists of 20-30 separate lobes and secrete about 30% of semen?
(a) Seminal vesicles (b) Prostate gland
(c) Cowpers gland
(d) Bulbo-urethral gland
34.
35.
36.
37.
(d) 300 10 3
38.
39.
40.
(d) vagina
(d) hymen
(d) hymen
41.
Vestibule is
(a) right and left longitudinal folds of labia minora
(b) fleshy elevation above the labia majora
(c) median vertical depression of vulva enclosing vagina and urethral opening
(d) a thin layer of mucous membrane
42.
43.
The ducts which carry milk from mammary glands to nipple are called
(a) lactiferous sinuses
(b) lactiferous ducts
(c) areola
(d) ejaculatory duct
44.
The base of the nipple shows dark brown rounded area called
(a) clitoris
(b) areola
(c) hymen
(d) vestibule
45.
46.
47.
Oogonia arise from _________ of the yolk sac and migrate to ovaries during embryonic
development.
(a) mesoderm
(b) ectoderm
(c) endoderm
(d) coelom
48.
(d) 1 million
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
(c) 5 18 cms
(d) 18 20 cms
(c) Mesosalpinx
(d) Perimetrium
(c) ampulla
Fertilization occurs in
(a) cervix
(b) infundibulum
(c) uterus
56.
57.
(d) Infundibulum
(d) endometrium
58.
In human, broader end of uterus which is connected to the fallopian tube is called
(a) fundus
(b) body
(c) cervix
(d) fornix
59.
Perimetrium is
(a) the outer wall of uterus derived from peritoneum
(b) middle thick muscular layer of smooth muscles of uterus
(c) inner layer of uterus
(d) none of the above
60.
(c) 12 15 cm long
61.
62.
(d) 3 5 cm long
63.
64.
65.
66.
(c) 5 days
(d) 6 days
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
(d) 72 - 80
73.
74.
If pregnancy has taken place, corpus luteum is maintained by receiving message in the form of
hormone
(a) gonadotropin
(b) chorionic gonadotropin
(c) FSH
(d) LH
75.
76.
The term embryo is used in human beings for about _____ weeks after fertilization
(a) 6 - 8
(b) 4 - 5
(c) 1 - 4
(d) 8 - 10
77.
78.
(d) conical
(d) 1
79.
(c) 10
80.
81.
(c) lysosomes
Nebenkern represents
(a) mitochondrial spiral of sperm
(c) centriole of sperm
Human egg is
(a) microlecithal
(c) alecithal
(d) centrolecithal
(c) centriole
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
(b) mesolecithal
(d) nucleus
The ovum of a mammal is enclosed in thin, transparent and non-cellular layer called
(a) germinal epithelium
(b) vitelline membrane
(c) zona pellucida
(d) zona radiata
90.
91.
92.
93.
(c) hyaluronidase
94.
95.
Amphimixis means
(a) fusion of ovum and sperm
(c) formation of II polar body
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
(d) morula
(d) 72
(d) 72
(d) Gastrula
(c) Blastula
(d) 7 - 8
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
After the formation of endoderm, the embryonic knob becomes columnar to form
(a) amniotic cavity (b) embryonic disc
(c) embryonic coelom (d) chorion
107.
108.
The proliferated cells which detach from the embryonic cells and spread between trophoblast and
endoderm forms
(a) mesoderm
(b) ectoderm
(c) embryonic coelom (d) amnion
109.
110.
Inner mesoderm covering the primary yolk sac and wall of amniotic cavity is termed as
(a) parietal extra embryonic mesoderm
(b) visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
(c) external mesoderm
(d) both (a) and (b)
111.
Chorion consists of
(a) trophoblast lined by parietal extra embryonic mesoderm
(b) trophoblast lined by visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
(c) amniogenic cells covered by visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
(d) amniogenic cells covered by parietal extra embryonic mesoderm
112.
Amnion consists of
(a) amniogenic cells covered by parietal extra embryonic mesoderm
(b) amniogenic cells covered by visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
(c) trophoblast lined by visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
(d) both (a) and (b)
113.
114.
(d) gametogenesis
115.
Human pregnancy lasts for _____ days from the start of the last menstrual cycle
(a) 266
(b) 300
(c) 280
(d) 255
116.
117.
118.
(d) disc
119.
The chorionic villi receive blood from the embryo by _____ and return it by _______.
(a) umbilical vein, umbilical artery
(b) renal vein, renal artery
(c) umibilical artery, umbilical vein
(d) coronary artery, coronary vein
120.
The placenta is fully formed by the end of the _____ month and lasts throughout pregnancy.
(a) 1 st
(b) 2 nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
121.
(d) GH
122.
123.
The foetal hormone accumulate in the mothers blood till they cause
(a) increase in progesterone and prostaglandins
(b) a decrease in progesterone and increase in prostaglandins
(c) an increase in progesterone and decrease in prostaglandins
(d) decrease in progesterone and prostaglandins
124.
(d) oxytocin
(c) 4 to 6 kg
(d) 3.5 to 5 kg
(c) 45 min
(d) 60 min
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
(d) 5
130.
131.
Which important component is present in colostrum which helps in developing resistance for new
born baby?
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Antibodies
(c) Proteins
(d) Minerals
132.
What is the main objective of Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programmes?
(a) To create awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects
(b) To provide facilities and support for building a reproductively healthy society
(c) To improve the health of women
(d) Both (a) and (b)
133.
The temporary method safe period is based on which of the following aspect?
(a) Ovulation occurs on the 14 th day of menstrual cycle
(b) Ovum survives for about 2 days
(c) Sperms remain alive for about 3 days
(d) All of the above
134.
The temporary method of birth control which involves withdrawal of the penis by the male before
ejaculation is
(a) rhythm method (b) coitus interruptus
(c) spermicides
(d) ICD
135.
136.
A birth control method which is fitted on the cerix in the females vagina is
(a) IUCD
(b) diaphragm and cervical cap
(c) condom
(d) oral contraceptive pills
137.
139.
140.
Syphillis is caused by
(a) Streptococcus gonorrhoeae
(c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
Gonorrhoea is caused by a
(a) Treponema pallidum
(c) Candida utilis
(d) 2 - 6
(d) 10 - 20
(d) 7 - 21
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
Answer
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
101.
106.
111.
116.
121.
126.
131.
136.
141.
146.
151.
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
102.
107.
112.
117.
122.
127.
132.
137.
142.
147.
152.
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
103.
108.
113.
118.
123.
128.
133.
138.
143.
148.
153.
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
109.
114.
119.
124.
129.
134.
139.
144.
149.
154.
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
110.
115.
120.
125.
130.
135.
140.
145.
150.
155.
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
An interaction between organisms or species in which the fitness of one overpowers the presence of
another is called ____________ .
(a) mutualism
(b) commensalism
(c) competition
(d) parasitism
2.
Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the
competitively inferior will be eliminated eventually. This statement is ____________ .
(a) Charles Darwins Survival of the Fittest theory
(b) Theory of organic evolution
(c) Gauses competitive exclusion principle
(d) Mutation theory
3.
4.
The apparent competition occurs indirectly between two species which ____________ .
(a) compete for space
(b) have a common prey
(c) fight for the same resources
(d) share the same resources in the same area
5.
Competition between the individuals of two separate species for sharing the same resources in the
same area is called ____________ .
(a) interference competition
(b) apparent competition
(c) intra specific competition
(d) inter specific competition
6.
7.
8.
9.
The citrus blackfly parasitoid, Encarsia perplexa, unmated female of which lay haploid eggs which
result in the development of male offsprings. Here Encarsia perplexa is ____________ .
(a) kleptoparasite
(b) endoparasite
(c) adelphoparasite
(d) ectoparasite
10.
11.
12.
1000
13.
14.
Population having large number of individuals of the pre-productive age group is called
____________ .
(a) growing population
(b) steady population
(c) declining population
(d) reproductive isolation
15.
Population having large number of post reproductive and small number of pre-reproductive age
group is called ____________ .
(a) growing population
(b) steady population
(c) declining population
(d) reproductive isolation
16.
17.
Species whose members are few and live in small geographical areas are called ____ species.
(a) endangered
(b) vulnerable
(c) rare
(d) indeterminate
18.
19.
20.
21.
Burning of coal from electric power plants release gases containing ____________ .
(a) two-third of SO2 (b) two-third of CO2
(c) two-third of CO
(d) two-third of NO2
22.
23.
NEERI is ____________ .
(a) National Ethological and Ecological Research Institute
(b) National Eugenics and Ecological Research Institute
(c) National Ecological and Environment Research Institute
(d) National Environmental Engineering Research Institute
24.
Kolkata has the highest _______ pollution during peak traffic hours.
(a) sulphur dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) O3
(d) suspended particulate matter
25.
26.
27.
28.
__________ empowers to suspend the registration of vehicles which are emitting pollutant beyond a
certain specified limit
(a) Bombay Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 1984
(b) Maharashtra Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 1984
(c) Bombay Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 1990
(d) Maharashtra Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 1990
29.
Addition of an excess material or heat to water which is harmful to humans, animals or desirable
aquatic life is called ____________ .
(a) water pollution (b) air pollution
(c) soil pollution
(d) noise pollution
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
Which one of the following is a matching pair of certain organism(s) and the kind of association?
(a) Shark and sucker fish mutualism
(b) Sea anemone and snail-commensalism
(c) Algae and fungi parasitism
(d) Leguminous plant and Rhizobium amensalism
35.
Which is the following example tells that the prey population has evolved various defences to
survive?
(a) Monarch butterfly is not preyed upon by birds due to its bad taste resulting from poisonous
secretion
(b) Tigers feeding on deer
(c) Encarsia perplexa lay haploid eggs which develop into male offsprings.
(d) Plasmodium living in the salivary glands of female Anopheles mosquito
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
The taxa which are likely to move into the endangered category if causative factors continue to
operate is called ____________ .
(a) endangered
(b) intermediate
(c) vulnerable
(d) rare
44.
45.
Automobiles and industries are the chief source of pollutants such as ____________ .
(a) oxides of carbon (b) oxides of sulphur
(c) oxides of nitrogen (d) all of these
46.
47.
48.
Which of the following statements about inter specific competition are true?
(i) It is a competition between same species for same resources in an ecosystem
(ii) It alters populations, communities and the evolution of interacting species
(iii) The competition between leopards and lions for the same feed or prey is an example of
interspecific competition
(iv) It is a competition between same species for space
(a) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true
49.
50.
(d) 1951
51.
Which of the following adaptations help the animal to escape easily from its enemy?
(a) Fossorial
(b) Cursorial
(c) Arboreal
(d) Desert
52.
53.
(c) parasitism
(d) competition
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
A mutually beneficial association which is necessary for the survival of both the partners is called
____________ .
(a) symbiosis
(b) commensalism
(c) parasitism
(d) mutualism
59.
60.
In which of the following associations, one of the species gets benefit and the other is unaffected?
(a) Commensalism (b) Mutualism
(c) Symbiosis
(d) Parasitism
61.
(d) predation
(c) commensalism
(d) mutualism
62.
63.
64.
65.
Individuals of one species occupying a particular geographic area at a given time form
____________ .
(a) community
(b) population
(c) species
(d) biome
66.
(d) demography
67.
68.
69.
If natality and mortality of a population are nearly same, it will be termed as ____________ .
(a) declining population
(b) expanding population
(c) stable population
(d) none of these
70.
71.
(c) Camouflage
(d) Competition
72.
A direct food relation between two species of animals in which one animal kills and feeds on another
is referred to as ____________ .
(a) scavenging
(b) predation
(c) parasitism
(d) symbiosis
73.
In the year 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy was caused by the leakage of ____________ .
(a) CO
(b) SO2
(c) NO2
(d) Methyl isocyanate
74.
75.
76.
Smog is a combination of
(a) fire and water
(b) smoke and fog
77.
78.
79.
80.
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(d)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)