1.

True about receptors EXCEPT

a) Selective
b) Have a non specific binding region
c)
Receptor interaction is not required to initiate a drugs
action
d) B & C
e) AOTA

c)
d)
e)

12. -blockers should not be given to patients with

a) Risk of Heart Failure
b) Asthma
c)
Hemolytic Anemia
d) A & B
e) B & C

2. True about Idiosyncratic reaction EXCEPT

a) Usually observed in patients in an event of a drug
overdose
b) Genetics differences in metabolism are a factor
c)
Opposite effect of a drug
d) Allergic reactions

13. Which of the following Drug-Side Effect pairings are CORRECT?

a) Amlodipine : Methemoglobinemia
b) Atenolol : Hyperlipidemia
c)
Vancomycin : Blackwater fever
d) Metronidazole : Metallic Taste

3. Drug that binds to a different receptor producing an effect

opposite to that produced by the drug is a
a) Chemical Antagonist
b) Physiological Antagonist
c)
Agonists
d) Pharmacological Antagonist

14. Drug of Choice for Trichomoniasis

a) Metronidazole
b) Pentamidine
c)
Mebendazole
d) Praziquantel

4. Phenytoin serum levels should be carefully monitored during

treatment because the dose of its therapeutic effect is close to the
dose of its toxic effect. Phenytoin has a
a) low therapeutic index
b) wide therapeutic window
c)
narrow therapeutic window
d) A & C
e) AOTA

15. Interferon Alfas antihepatitis activity are attributed to the

following mechanisms EXCEPT
a) Induces intracellular signals following binding to specific cell
membrane receptors, resulting in inhibition of viral penetration,
translation, transcription, protein processing, maturation and
release
b) decreases host expression of major histocompatibility complex
antigens
c)
enhances phagocytic activity of macrophages
d) augmentation of the proliferation and survival of cytotoxic T
cells

5. The time it takes for the amount or concentration of a drug to fall

to 50% of an earlier measurement
a) Clearance
b) Half-life
c)
Rate of excretion
d) Degredation
e) NOTA

16. Which of the following Generation-Drug pairings are CORRECT?

a) 2nd Gen : Cefepime
b) 3rd Gen : Cephalexin
c)
1st Gen : Cephalexin
d) 4th Gen : Cefazolin

6. True about a loading dose EXCEPT

a) drug concentration given if it is necessary to achieve the
target plasma levels rapidly
b) can be lower than the subsequent doses
c)
always higher than the maintenance dose
d) NOTA

17. Irreversible inhibitors of bacterial protein synthesis

a) Vancomycin
b) Streptomycin
c)
Penicillin
d) Ethambutol

7. Vasodilators reduce hypertension by the following mechanisms

EXCEPT
a) Opening potassium channels
b) Release of nitric oxide
c)
Blockage of Ca2+ channels
d) Opening of Ca2+ channels

18. The drug of choice for the eradication of dormant hypnozoite

liver forms of P. vivax and P. ovale
a) Chloroquine
b) Quinidine
c)
Quinine
d) Praziquantel
e) NOTA Primaquine

8. Agents that inhibit the conversion AngI to AngII EXCEPT

a) Lisinopril
b) Telmisartan
c)
Captopril
d) Losartan
e) A & C
f)
B&D

19. Azoles
a) Blocks fungal P450 enzymes
b) Forms pores in fungal membranes which contain ergosterol
c)
Interferes with Ergosterol synthesis
d) A & C
e) AOTA

9. Which of the following Class-Drug pairings are INCORRECT?

a) Diuretics : Furosemide
b) Vasodilators : Minoxidil
c)
Angiotensin Receptor Blocker : Candesartan
d) Calcium Channel Blocker : Clonidine
10. True about Ganciclovir EXCEPT
a) Phosphorylation is catalyzed by the virus- specified protein
kinase phosphotransferase UL97 in CMV- infected cells.
b) Acyclic guanosine derivative with clinical activity against
HSV-1, HSV-2 and VZV.
c)
Most common adverse effect is myelosuppression.
d) Phosphorylation is catalyzed by the virus- specified protein
kinase phosphotransferase
11. Adverse Effects of Nitrates
a) Tachycardia
b) Bradycardia

Methemoglobinemia
A&C
B&C

20. Which of the following Drug-Antidote pairings are correct?

a) Iron : Acetylcyteine
b) Atenolol : Insulin
c)
Felodipine : Calcium
d) Vicodin : Naloxone