CET PHYSICS 2014

VERSION CODE: B 1
A person is driving a vehicle at uniform speed of 5 ms-1 on a level curved track of radius 5 m.
The coefficient of static friction between tyres and road is 0.1. Will the person slip while
taking the turn with the same speed? Take g = 10 ms-2.
(1) A person will slip if v2 = 5m2s-2
(2) A person will slip if v2 > 5m2s-2
(3) A person will slip if v2 < 5m2s-2
(4) A person will not slip if v2 > 5m2s-2
Ans: (2)
1.

vmax =

rg

vmax =

0.1 5 10 = 5

or

2
vmax
= 5 m2/s2

Person or vehicle will slip if the velocity is more than

5 m/s

A stone is thrown vertically at a speed of 30 ms-1 taking an angle of 45o with the horizontal.
What is the maximum height reached by the stone? Take g = 10 ms-2.
(1) 30 m
(2) 22.5 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 10 m
Ans: (2)

2.

H=

v 2 sin 2
2g

302 sin 2 (45)

2 10
H = 22.5m
H=

3.

A force F = 5i + 2 j 5k acts on a particle whose position vector is r = i 2 j + k . What is the

torque about the origin?
(1) 8i + 10 j + 12k

(2) 8i + 10 j 12k

(3) 8i 10 j 8k

(4) 10i 10 j k

Ans: (1)

i
j
k
= r F = 1 2 1 = i (10 2) j (5 5) + k (2 + 10) = 8i + 10 j + 12k
5 2 5
4.

What is a period of revolution of earth satellite? Ignore the height of satellite above the
surface of earth.
Given: (1) The value of gravitational acceleration g = 10 ms-2.
(2) Radius of earth RE = 6400 km. Take = 3.14.
(1) 85 minutes
(2) 156 minutes
(3) 87.73 minutes
(4) 90 minutes
Ans: (3)

R
T = 2
= 2
g

6400 103
10

T = 5024 s = 83.73 min

5.

A period of geostationary satellite is

(1) 24 h
Ans: (1)

(2) 12 h

(3)30 h

(4) 48 h

6.

What is the source temperature of the Carnot engine required to get 70% efficiency? Given
sink temperature = 27oC.
(1) 1000 oC
(2) 90 oC
(3) 270 oC
(4) 727 oC
Ans: (4)

= 1

T2
T1

0.7 = 1

273 + 27
300
= 1
T1
T1

300
= 0.3
T1
T1 = 1000 K = 727 0C
A 10 kg metal block is attached to a spring of spring constant 1000 Nm-1. A block is displaced
from equilibrium position by 10 cm and released. The maximum acceleration of the block is
(1) 10 ms-2
(2) 100 ms-2
(3) 200 ms-2
(4) 0.1 ms-2
Ans: (1)

7.

=
amax

k
1000
=
= 10 rad / s
m
10
= 2 A = 102 0.1

amax = 10m / s 2
A metallic wire of 1 m length has a mass of 10 x 10-3 kg. If a tension of 100 N is applied to a
wire, what is the speed of transverse wave?
(1) 100 ms-1
(2) 10 ms-1
(3) 200 ms-1
(4) 0.1 ms-1
Ans: (1)
8.

mass 10 103
=
= 10 103 kg / m
Linear density m =
length
1
v=

T
100
=
= 100 m / s
m
10 103

A train is approaching towards a platform with a speed of 10 ms-1 while blowing a whistle of
frequency 340 Hz. What is the frequency of whistle heard by s stationary observer on the
platform? Given speed of sound = 340 ms-1.
(1) 330 Hz
(2) 350 Hz
(3) 340 Hz
(4) 360 Hz
Ans: (2)
9.

V
340
f| =
f =
340 = 350.3 Hz
340 10
V Vs

10. A rotating wheel changes angular speed from 1800 rpm to 3000 rpm in 20 s. What is the
angular acceleration assuming to be uniform?
(1) 60 rad s-2
(2) 90 rad s-2
(3) 2 rad s-2
(4) 40 rad s-2
Ans: (3)

1800
= 60 rad / s
60
3000
2 = 2 f 2 = 2
= 100 rad / s
60
t = 20s
100 60 40
= 2 1=
=
= 2 rad / s 2
t
20
20

1 = 2 f1 = 2

11. A flow of liquid is streamline if the Reynold number is

(1) less than 1000
(2) greater than 1000
(3) between 2000 to 3000
(4) between 4000 to 5000
Ans: (1)
12. A pipe of 30 cm long and open at both the ends produces harmonics. Which harmonic mode
of pipe resonates a 1.1 kHz source? Given speed of sound in air = 330 ms-1.
(1) Fifth harmonic
(2) Fourth harmonic (3) Third harmonic
(4) Second harmonic
Ans: (4)

f n = n f1
v
fn = n
2
330
1,100 = n
2 0.30
n=2
13. In anomalous expansion of water, at what temperature, the density of water is maximum?
(2) < 4oC
(3) > 4oC
(4) 10oC
(1) 4oC
Ans: (1)
14. An aeroplane executes a horizontal loop at a speed of 720 kmph with its wings banked at
45o. What is the radius of the loop? Take g = 10 ms-2.
(1) 4 km
(2) 4.5 km
(3) 7.2 km
(4) 2 km
Ans: (1)
v = 720 km/hr = 200 m/s
tan =

v2
v2
2002
or r =
=
= 4km .
rg
g tan 10 1

15. A body having a moment of inertia about its axis of rotation equal to 3 kg m2 is rotating with
angular velocity of 3 rad s-1. Kinetic energy of this rotating body is same as that of a body of
mass 27 kg moving with a velocity v. The value of v is
(1) 1 ms-1
(2) 0.5 ms-1
(3) 2 ms-1
(4) 1.5 ms-1
Ans: (1)

1 2 1 2
mv = I
2
2
1
1
27 v 2 = 3 32
2
2
v = 1m / s
3

16. A cycle tyre bursts suddenly. What is the type of this process?
(1) Isothermal
(2) Adiabatic
(3) Isochoric
Ans: (2)

(4) Isobaric

17. An object is placed at 20 cm in front of a concave mirror produces three times magnified real
image. What is the focal length of the concave mirror?
(1) 15 cm
(2) 6.6 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 7.5 cm
Ans: (1)

m=

f
f
3 =
( all real images are inverted)
f u
f (20)

3 f + 60 = f
f = 15cm
Since mirror is concave f = 15cm
18. A focal length of a lens is 10 cm. What is power of a lens in dioptre?
(1) 0.1 D
(2) 10 D
(3) 15 D
(4) D
Ans: (2)

P=

1
1
=
= 10 D
f 0.1

19. A microscope is having objective of focal length 1 cm and eyepiece of focal length 6 cm. If
tube length is 30 cm and image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision, what is the
magnification produced by the microscope? Take D = 25 cm.
(1) 6
(2) 150
(3) 25
(4) 125
Ans: (2)

L
D
1 +
f0
fe
30 25
= 1 + = 155 150
1
6

M=

20. A fringe width of a certain interference pattern is = 0.002 cm. What is the distance of 5th
dark fringe from centre?
(2) 11 x 10-2 cm
(3) 1.1 x 10-2 cm
(4) 3.28 x 106 cm
(1) 1 x 10-2 cm
Ans: (None of the above answers are correct)

xn = (2n + 1)
th

For 5

D
2d

= (2n + 1)

dark fringe, n = 4

9
9
x5 = = 2 103
2
2
= 9 103 cm

= 0.002 cm
= 2 x 10-3 cm

21. Diameter of the objective of a telescope is 200 cm. What is the resolving power of a
0

telescope? Take wavelength of light = 5000 A .

(1) 6.56 x 106
(2) 3.28 x 105
(3) 1 x 106
Ans: (4)
RP =

(4) 3.28 x 106

D
2
4
=
=
106 = 3.28 106
6
1.22 1.22 0.5 10
1.22
4

22. A polarized light of intensity I0 is passed through another polarizer whose pass axis makes an
angle of 60o with the pass axis of the former. What is the intensity of emergent polarized
light from second polarizer?
(1) I = I0
(2) I = I0/6
(3) I = I0/5
(4) I0/4
Ans: (4)

I = I 0 cos 2 = I 0 cos 2 60 =

I0
4

23. What is the de Broglie wavelength of the electron accelerated through a potential difference
of 100 volt?
0

(1) 12.27 A
Ans: (2)

(2) 1.227 A

(3) 0.1227 A

(4) 0.001227 A

0
12.27 12.27
=
= 1.227 A
100
V

24. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons depends only on

(1) potential
(2) frequency
(3) incident angle
(4) pressure
Ans: (2)
25. Which of the following spectral series of hydrogen atom is lying in visible range of
electromagnetic wave?
(1) Paschen series
(2) Pfund series
(3) Lyman series
(4) Balmer series
Ans: (4)
26. What is the energy of the electron revolving in third orbit expressed in eV?
(1) 1.51 eV
(2) 3.4 eV
(3) 4.53 eV
(4) 4 eV
Ans: (1)

En =

13.6
13.6
= 2 = 1.51eV
2
n
(3)

27. The relation between half life (T) and decay constant () is
(1) T = 1

(2) T =

1
2

(3) T = loge 2

(4) = log 2T

Ans: (3)

T=

0.693

T = 0.693 T = log e 2

28. A force between two protons is same as the force between proton and neutron. The nature of
the force is
(1) Weak nuclear force
(2) Strong nuclear force
(3) Electrical force
(4) Gravitational force
Ans: (2)
29. In n type semiconductor, electrons are majority charge carriers but it does not show any
negative charge. The reason is
(1) electrons are stationary
(2) electrons neutralize with holes
(3) mobility of electrons is extremely small (4) atom is electrically neutral
5

Ans: (4)
30. For the given digital circuit, write the truth table and identify the logic gate it represents:
(1) OR-Gate
A
(2) NOR-Gate
(3) NAND-Gate
Y
(4) AND-Gate
B
A

Ans: (4)

A + B = A.B

Y
B

31. If -current gain of a transistor is 0.98. What is the value of -current gain of the transistor?
(1) 0.49
(2) 49
(3) 4.9
(4) 5
Ans: (2)

0.98
=
= 49
1 0.02

32. A tuned amplifier circuit is used to generate a carrier frequency of 2 MHz for the amplitude
modulation. The value of
(1)

1
2 106

(2)

LC is
1
2 10

(3)

1
3 106

(4)

1
4 106

Ans: (4)

f =

1
2 LC

LC =

1
2 f

1
1
=
6
2 2 10
4 106

33. If a charge on the body is 1 nC, then how many electrons are present on the body?
(2) 6.25 109
(3) 6.25 1027
(4) 6.25 1028
(1) 1.6 1019
Ans: (2)

q 1109
= 6.25 10+9
q = ne n = =
9
e 1.6 10
34. Two equal and opposite charges of masses m1 and m2 are accelerated in an uniform electric
field through the same distance. What is the ratio of their accelerations if their ratio of
masses is
(1)

m1
= 0.5?
m2

a1
= 0.5
a2

(2)

a1
=1
a2

(3)

a1
=2
a2

(4)

a1
=3
a2

Ans: (3)
Force is same in magnitude for both

a1 F / m1 m2
=2
=
=
a2 F / m2 m1
6

35. What is the nature of Gaussian surface involved in Gauss law of electrostatic?
(1) Scalar
(2) Electrical
(3) Magnetic
(4) Vector
Ans: (4)
Area vector
36. What is the electric potential at a distance of 9 cm from 3 nC?
(1) 270 V
(2) 3 V
(3) 300 V
Ans: (3)

v = 9 109
v=

(4) 30 V

q
r

9 109 3 109
= 300V
9 102

37. A voltmeter reads 4V when connected to a parallel plate capacitor with air as a dielectric.
When a dielectric slab is introduced between plates for the same configuration, voltmeter
reads 2V. What is the dielectric constant of the material?
(1) 0.5
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 10
Ans: (2)
V
4
r = a = = 2
Vm
2
38. A spherical conductor of radius 2 cm is uniformly charged with 3 nC. What is the electric field
at a distance of 3 cm from the centre of the sphere?
(1) 3 206 V m-1
(2) 3 V m-1
(3) 3 104 V m-1
(4) 3 10-4 V m-1
Ans: (3)

E = 9 109
E=

q
r2

9 109 3 109
= 3 104 V/m
(3 102 ) 2

39. A carbon film resistor has colour code Green Black Violet Gold. The value of the resistor is
(1) 50 M
(2) 500 M
(3) 500 5% M
(4) 500 10% M
Ans: (3)
50 x 107 5% = 500 x 106 5% = 500 5% M
40. Two resistors of resistances 2 and 6 are connected in parallel. This combination is then
connected to a battery of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.5 . What is the current flowing
through the battery?
(1) 4 A

(2)

4
A
3

(3)

4
A
17

(4) 1 A

Ans: (4)

R1 R2
R1 + R2
26
= 1.5
(2 + 6)
E
2
I=
=
= 1A
R p + r 1.5 + 0.5
Rp =

41. The equivalent resistance of two resistors connected in series is 6 and their parallel
equivalent resistance is
(1) 4, 6
Ans: (3)
R1 + R2 = 6

4
. What are the values of resistances?
3

(2) 8, 1

(3) 4, 2

(4) 6, 2

R1 R2
4
= R1 R2 = 8 R1 = 2, R2 = 4
R1 + R2 3
42. In a potentiometer experiment of a cell of emf 1.25 V gives balancing length of 30 cm. If the
cell is replaced by another cell, balancing length of 30 cm. If the cell is replaced by another
cell, balancing length is found to be 40 cm. What is the emf of second cell?
(1) 1.57 V
Ans: (2)
E1 L1
E1 L2

(2) 1.67 V

(3) 1.47 V

(4) 1.37V

E1 L1
1.25 30
5
=

=
E2 = = 1.67 V
E2 L2
E2
40
3
43. A charged particle experiences magnetic force in the presence of magnetic field. Which of the
following statement is correct?
(1) The particle is moving and magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity
(2) The particle is moving and magnetic field is parallel to velocity
(3) The particle is stationary and magnetic field is perpendicular
(4) The particle is stationary and magnetic field is parallel
Ans: (1)
No force acts in other cases.
44. If a velocity has both perpendicular and parallel components while moving through a
magnetic field, what is the path followed by a charged particle?
(1) Circular
(2) Elliptical
(3) Linear
(4) Helical
Ans: (4)
Parallel component drags the particle to side and perpendicular component gives circular
path. Hence the path is helical.
45. A solenoid has length 0.4 cm, radius 1 cm and 400 turns of wire. If a current of 5 A is passed
through this solenoid, what is the magnetic field inside the solenoid?
(1) 6.28 x 10-4T
(2) 6.28 x 10-3 T
(3) 6.28 x 10-7 T
(4) 6.28 x 10-6 T
Ans: (None of the above answers are correct)

B = 0 nI

( n = N / L)

= 4 3.14 107

400
5
0.4 102

= 0.628 T
(No correct answer available)

46. A gyromagnetic ratio of the electron revolving in a circular orbit of hydrogen atom is
8.8 x 1010 C kg-1. What is the mass of the electron? Given charge of the electron
= 1.6 x 10-19C.
(1) 1 x 10-29 kg

(2) 0.1 x 10-29 kg

(3) 1.1 x 10-29 kg

(4)

1
x 10-29 kg
11

Ans: (4)

e
2m

e
1.6 1019
1
=
= 1029 kg
10
2( / L) 2 8.8 10
11

m=

47. What is the value of shunt reistance required to convert a galvanometer of resistance 100
into an ammeter of range 1A?
Given: Full scale deflection of the galvanometer is 5 mA.
(1)

9.95

(2)

9.95

(3) 0.5

(4) 0.05

Ans: (1)

5 103 102
0.5
5
5
=
=
=
=

S=
3
3
1 5 10
1 5 10
10 0.05 9.95
I Ig
I gG

48. A circular coil of radius 10 cm and 100 turns carries a current 1 A. What is the magnetic
moment of the coil?
(3) 3.142 A m2
(4) 3 A m2
(1) 3.142 x 104 A m2 (2) 104 A m2
Ans: (3)
M = NIA = NIr2 = 102 x 1 x 3.142 x 10-2 = 3.142 Am2
49. A susceptibility of a certain magnetic material is 400. What is the class of the magnetic
material?
(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic
(3) Ferromagnetic
(4) Ferroelectric
Ans: (3)

50. A solenoid of inductance 2H carries a current 1 A. What is the magnetic energy stored in a
solenoid?
(1) 2 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 5 J
Ans: (2)

1 2 1
LI = 2 1 = 1J
2
2

U=

51. A multimeter reads a voltage of a certain A.C. source as 100 V. What is the peak value of
voltage of A.C. source?
(1) 200 V
(2) 100 V
(3) 141.4 V
(4) 400 V
Ans: (3)

V0 = 2 Vrms = 1.414 100 = 141.4 V

52. A series LCR circuit contains inductance 5 mH, capacitance 2 F and resistance 10 . If a
frequency A.C. source is varied, what is the frequency at which maximum power is
dissipated?
(1)

105

Hz

(2)

105

Hz

(3)

x 105 Hz

(4)

x 103 Hz
9

Ans: (4)

f0 =

2 LC

1
2 5 103 2 106

104 5 103
Hz
=

53. A step down transformer has 50 turns on secondary and 1000 turns on primary winding. If a
transformer is connected to 220 V 1 A A.C. source, what is output current of the transformer?
(1)

1
A
20

(2) 20 A

(3) 100 A

(4) 2 A

Ans: (2)

N s Vs
=
N p Vp
V
50
= s
1000 220
Vs = 11V
Vs I s = V p I p
11 I s = 220 1
I s = 20 A
54. The average power dissipated in A.C. circuit is 2 watt. If a current flowing through a circuit is
2 A impedance is 1 , what is the power factor of the AC circuit?
1
(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4)
2
Ans: (1)

P = VI cos = I 2 Z cos
P
2
cos = 2 =
= 0.5
I Z 4 1
55. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz travels through a space along x direction.
If the electric field vector at a certain point in space is 6 V m-1, what is the magnetic field
vector at that point?
(1) 2 x 10-3 T

(2)

1
x 10-8 T
2

(3) 2 T

(4)

1
T
2

Ans: (1)
E/B = C
B = E/C =

6
= 2 108 T
8
3 10

56. Two capacitors of 10 PF and 20 PF are connected to 200 V and 100 V sources respectively.
If they are connected by the wire, what is the common potential of the capacitors?
(1) 133.3 volt
(2) 150 volt
(3) 300 volt
(4) 400 volt
Ans: (1)

V=

C1V1 + C2V2 10 200 + 20 100

=
= 133.3V
C1 + C2
10 + 20

10

57. A physical quantity Q is found to depend on observables x, y and z, obeying relation

Q=

x 3 y2
. The percentage error in the measurements of x, y and z are 1%, 2% and 4%
z

respectively. What is percentage error in the quantity Q?

(1) 4%
(2) 3%
(3) 11%
Ans: (3)

(4) 1%

Q
x
y z
=3 +2
+
= 3 1 + 2 2 + 4 = 11%
Q
x
y
z
58. What of the following is not a vector quantity?
(1) Weight
(2) Nuclear spin
(3) Momentum
Ans: (4)

(4) Potential energy

59. A car moves form A to B with a speed of 30 kmph and from B to A with a speed of 20 kmph.
What is the average speed of the car?
(1) 25 kmph
(2) 24 kmph
(3) 50 kmph
(4) 10 kmph
Ans: (2)

vav =

2v1v2 2 30 20
=
= 24 kmph
v1 + v2
30 + 20

60. A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration for t s. It travels a distance x1
in first half of time and x2 in next half of time, then
(2) x2 = 2x1
(3) x2 = 3x1
(4) x2 = 4x1
(1) x2 = x1
Ans: (3)

x2 x1
------ (1)
t2
1
x1 = at 2 ( u = 0)
2
In (1) 3x1 = x2

a=

11

CET CHEMISTRY 2014

VERSION CODE: C 2

1.

Match the reactant in Column I with the reaction in Column II.

I

II

(i)

Acetic acid

(a)

Stephen

(ii)

Sodium phenate

(b)

Friedel Crafts

(iii)

Methyl cyanide

(c)

HVZ

(iv)

Toluene

(d)

Kolbes

(1) i c, ii a, iii d, iv b
(2) i d, ii b, iii c, iv a
(3) i b, ii c, iii a, iv d
(4) i c, ii d, iii a, iv b
Ans: (4)
Acetic acid HVZ, sodium phenate Kolbes, Methyl cyanide Stephen, Toluene Fridelcrafts.
2.

The statement that is NOT correct is

(1) Hypophosphorous acid reduces silver nitrate to silver
(2) In solid state PCl5 exists as [PCl4]+ [PCl6](3) Pure phosphine is non-inflammable
(4) Phosphorous acid on heating disproportionates to give metaphosphoric acid and
phosphine
Ans: (3)
Pure phosphine is non inflameable. It catches fire when heated to 423 K.
3.

In which one of the pairs of ion given, there is an ion that forms a co-ordination compound
with both aqueous sodium hydroxide and ammonia and an other ion that forms a coordination compound only with aqueous sodium hydroxide?
(1) Pb+2, Cu+2
(2) Zn+2, Al+3
(3) Cu+2, Zn+2
(4) Al+3, Cu+2
Ans: (2)
Zn+2 forms coordination compound with NaOH to give Na2[Zn(OH)4] and with ammonia it
gives [Zn(NH3)4]2+ while Aluminium only forms complex with NaOH to give Na[Al(OH)4]
4.

A crystalline solid X reacts with dil HCl to liberate a gas Y. Y decolourises acidified KMnO4.
When a gas Z is slowly passed into an aqueous solution of Y, colloidal sulphur is obtained X
and Z could be, respectively
(1) Na2S, SO3
(2) Na2SO4, H2S
(3) Na2SO3, H2S
(4) Na2SO4, SO2
Ans: (3)
Na2SO3 + 2HCl 2NaCl + H2O + SO2
H2O + SO2 H2SO3
H2SO3 + 2H2S 3S + 3H2O

An aromatic compound A (C7H9N) on reacting with NaNO2/HCl at 0o C forms benzyl alcohol

and nitrogen gas. The number of isomers possible for the compound A is
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 6
Ans: (1)
5.

NaNO / HCl

2
C6H5CH2OH + N2
The Aromatic compound is C6H5CH2NH2
o

0 C

The isomers of benzyl zmine are

CH3
CH - NH
2

CH3

CH3

NH - CH3
and

NH2

H2N

NH2
The statement that is NOT correct is
(1) A furnace lined with Haematitie is used to convert cast iron to wrought iron
(2) Collectors enhance the wettability of mineral particles during froth flotation
(3) In vapour phase refining, metal should form a volatile compound
(4) Copper from its low grade ores is extracted by hydrometallurgy
Ans: (2)
Collectors enhance the non wettability of mineral acids during froth floatation.

6.

A solution of 1.25 g of P in 50 g of water lowers freezing point by 0.3o C. Molar mass of P is

94. Kf (water) = 1.86 K kg mol-1. The degree of association of P in water is
(1) 80%
(2) 60%
(3) 65%
(4) 75%
Ans: (1)
1.25 g of P in 50 g of H2O 25g in 1000 g of H2O
Molality = 25/94
t = i Kp m
7.

0.3 = i 1.86
i=
=

8.

25
94

94 0.3
= 0.6064
1.86 25
i 1 0.6064 1 0.3936
= 0.787 = 78.7%
=
=
1
1
0.5
1
1
2
n

Volume occupied by single CsCl ion pair in a crystal is 7.014 10-23 cm3. The smallest Cs
Cs internuclear distance is equal to length of the side of the cube corresponding to volume of
one CsCl ion pair. The smallest Cs to Cs internuclear distance is nearly
o

(1) 4.4 A
Ans: (3)
a3 = 7.014 10-23
a=
9.

(2) 4.3 A

(3) 4 A

(4) 4.5 A

70.14 1024 = 4.124 10-8 cm = 4.124 A

For Cr2O72 + 14H+ + 6e- 2Cr+3 + 7H2O; Eo = 1.33 V At [Cr2 O72 ] = 4.5 millimole, [Cr+3] =
15 millimole, E is 1.067 V. The pH of the solution is nearly equal to
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 4

Ans: (1)
For Cr2O72 + 14H+ + 6e- 2Cr+3 + 7H2O
E = Eo -

[Cr +3 ]2 [ H 2O ]7
2.303RT
log
nF
[Cr2O72 ][ H + ]14

1.067 = 1.33 -0.263 = -

0.059
(15 10 3 )2 (1)7
log
6
(4.5 10 3 )[ H + ]14

0.059
225 10 6
log
6
(4.5 10 3 )( H + )14

-0.263 = -0.0098 [log 50 log (H+)14]

0.263
25.1377
= 1.6990 + 14 pH 26.83 1.6990 =
= 1.7955
0.0098
14
10. 1.78 g of an optically active L-amino acid (A) is treated with NaNO2/HCl at 0o C. 448 cm3 of
nitrogen was at STP is evolved. A sample of protein has 0.25% of this amino acid by mass.
The molar mass of the protein is
(1) 36,500 g mol-1
(2) 34,500 g mol-1
(3) 35,400 g mol-1
(4) 35,600 g mol-1
Ans: (4)
1.78 g - 448 cm3
?
- 22400 cm3
Mol mass of L-amino acid =

1.78 22400
= 89
448

Mol mass of protein is

100 - 0.25
?
- 89
=

100 89
= 35,600 g/mol
0.25

11. 10 g of a mixture of BaO and CaO requires 100 cm3 of 2.5 M HCl to react completely. The
percentage of calcium oxide in the mixture is approximately
(Given : molar mass of BaO = 153)
(1) 52.6
(2) 55.1
(3) 44.9
(4) 47.4
Ans: (1)
Let the mass of CaO = xg and BaO = 10 xg

10 x x 100 2.5
+
=
76.5 28
1000

[As the Eq mass of BaO =

153
56
= 76.5 CaO =
= 28]
2
2

280 28X + 76.5X = 0.25 (76.5) (28)

48.5x = 535.5 280
48.5x = 255.5
x=

255.5
= 5.26
48.5

Percentage of CaO =

5.26
100 = 52.6
10

12. The ratio of heats liberated at 298 K from the combustion of one kg of coke and by burning
water gas obtained from kg of coke is (Assume coke to be 100% carbon).
(Given enthalpies of combustion of CO2, CO and H2 as 393.5 kJ, 285 kJ, 285 kJ respectively
all at 298 K).
(1) 0.79 : 1
(2) 0.69 : 1
(3) 0.86 : 1
(4) 0.96 : 1
Ans: (2)
1 kg of coke =

1000
= 83.33 moles
12

C + O2 CO2 = 83.33 393.5 kJ

C + H2O CO + H2
CO + H2 + O2 CO2 + H2O
83.33 285 + 83.33 285
= 83.33 (570)
The ratio is 83.33 393.5 : 83.33 570
393.5 : 570
1 : 1.44 0.69 : 1
13. Impure copper containing Fe, Au, Ag as impurities is electrolytically refined. A current of 140
A for 482.5 s decreased the mass of the anode by 22.26 g and increased the mass of cathode
by 22.011 g. Percentage of iron in impure copper is
(Given molar mass Fe = 55.5 g mol-1, molar mass Cu = 63.54 g mol-1)
(1) 0.95
(2) 0.85
(3) 0.97
(4) 0.90
Ans: (4)
The amount of impurity = 22.26 22.011
= 0.259 g
Amount of Cu should have been deposited by a current of
140 a & 482.5 s current = 140 482.5 = 67,550 C ? Cku
96,500 C 31.77 g of Cu
67,500 C 22.239 g pure Cu
But only 22.011 of cathode mass has increased
22.239 22.011 =0.228 g
Instead of 0.228 g of Cu the amount of Fe oxidised
0.228 31.77
? - 27.75

0.228 27.75
= 0.199 g
31.77
0.199
100
% of Fe =
22.26
=

= 0.89 0.90
14. 25 cm3 of oxalic acid completely neutralised 0.064 g of sodium hydroxide. Molarity of the
oxalic acid solution is
(1) 0.064
(2) 0.045
(3) 0.015
(4) 0.032
Ans: (4)
Oxalic acid

25 N 0.064
=
1000
40
0.064 1000
N=
= 0.064
40 25

Molarity =

0.064
= 0.032
2
4

15. The statement that is NOT correct is

(1) Angular quantum number signifies the shape of the orbital
(2) Energies of stationary states in hydrogen like atoms is inversely proportional to the
square of the principal quantum number
(3) Total number of nodes for 3s orbital is three.
(4) The radius of the first orbit of He+ is half that of the first orbit of hydrogen atom.
Ans: (3)
Total number of nodes for 3s orbital = n 1 = 2
16. For the equilibrium:
CaCO3 (s) U CaO (s) + CO2 (g) ; Kp = 1.64 atm at 1000 K
50 g of CaCO3 in a 10 litre closed vessel is heated to 1000 K. Percentage of CaCO3 that
remains unreacted at equilibrium is (Given R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1)
(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 60
(4) 20
Ans: (3)
CaCO3 U CaO + CO2
Kp = pCO2
No. of moles = n
1.64 10 = 0.082 1000 n
n=

1.64 10
= 0.2
0.082 1000

No of moles of CO2 = 0.2

50 g of CaCO3 = 0.5 mole of CaCO3 gives 0.2 mole of CO2
percentage of CaCO3 unreacted = 0.3 mole = 60%
17. Conversion of oxygen into ozone is non-spontaneous at
(1) all temperature
(2) high temperature (3) room temperature (4) low temperature
Ans: (2)
Ozone is not stable at high temperature. It decomposers to give
2O3 3O2. Hence, the reverse reaction is non spontaneous at high temperature.
18. Density of carbon monoxide is maximum at
(1) 2 atm and 600 K
(2) 0.5 atm and 273 K
(3) 6 atm and 1092 K
(4) 4 atm and 500 K
Ans: (4)
d=

PM
P
P
as M R are count
ratio decides density
ratio is highest for 4 atm 500 K
RT
T
T

19. The acid strength of active methylene group

(a) CH3COCH2COOC2H5
(c) C2H5OOCCH2COOC2H5 decreases as
(1) a > c > b
(2) a > b > c
Ans: (2)
The acid strength of active methylene group
O
O
O
O
H3C

CH2

CH3

>

H3C

CH2

in
(b) CH3COCH2COCH3
(3) b > a > c

(4) c > a > b

is
O
OC2H5

> H5C2

O
CH2

OC2H5

Because ester group has O R group which decreases electron withdrawing nature of
carbonyl group.
5

20. A metallic oxide reacts with water to from its hydroxide, hydrogen peroxide and also liberates
oxygen. The metallic oxide could be
(1) CaO
(2) KO2
(3) Li2O
(4) Na2O2
Ans: (2)
2KO2 + 2H2O 2KOH + H2O2 + O2
Ozonolysi
21. X
Y+Z
(Re ductive )

Y can be obtained by Etards reaction, Z undergoes disproportionation reaction with

concentrated alkali. X could be
C CH
CH CH2
(1)
(2)

(3)

CH3

CH CH CH3

(4)

CH C
CH3

Ans: (2)
As Y is obtained from Etards reaction, Y is
Z undergoes Cannizzaros reaction. Hence Z is HCHO
X is
CH = CH2

CHO

CHO

O3

HCHO

H2O/Zn

22. Gold Sol is not

(1) a macro molecular colloid
(2) a lyophobic colloid
(3) a multimolecualr colloid
(4) negatively charged colloid
Ans: (1)
Gold sol is not a macromolecular colloid. Eg: Polymers, Starch, proteins enzymes etc.
23. Carbocation as an intermediate is likely to be formed in the reaction:
hv
(1) Propene + Cl2
2 chloropropane
OH
(2) Acetone + HCN
acetonecyanohydrin

(3) Ethylbromide + Aq KOH

ethyl alcohol
Anhy. AlCl / HCl

2-methyl pentane
(4) Hexane

Ans: (4)
Hexane

An. AlCl3/HCl

H 3C

CH CH 2

CH 2

CH 3 (2-methyl pentane)

CH 3

This involves hydride shift and methyl shift resulting in more stable carbocation.
24. For an ideal binary liquid mixture
(1) S(mix) = 0; G(mix) = 0
(3) V(mix) = 0; G(mix) > 0

(2) H(mix) = 0; S(mix) < 0

(4) S(mix) > 0; G(mix) < 0
6

Ans: (4)
For an ideal binary mixture Hmix = 0, Vmix = 0
But G < 0 and S > 0
25. For hydrogen oxygen fuel cell at one atm and 298 K

H 2( g ) +

1
O2( g ) H 2O( A ) ; G o = 240 kJ
2

Eo for the cell is approximately, (Given F = 96,500 C)

(1) 2.48 V
(2) 1.24 V
(3) 2.5 V
Ans: (2)
Go = -nFEo
-240 kJ = -2 96500 Eo
Eo =

(4) 1.26 V

240000
= 1.24 V
193000

26. Which one of these is not known?

(1) CuCl2
(2) CuI2
Ans: (2)
2CuI2 Cu2I2 + I2
Cupric iodide changes to Cu2I2 and I2

(3) CuF2

(4) CuBr2

27. The correct statement is

(1) The earlier members of lanthanoid series resemble calcium in their chemical properties.
(2) The extent of actinoid contraction is almost the same as lanthanoid contraction.
(3) In general, lanthanoid and actinoids do not show variable oxidation states
(4) Ce+4 in aqueous solution is not known
Ans: (2)
The extent of Lanthanoid Contraction ( 1.4 pm) which is almost similar to actinoid
contraction ( 17 pm)
28. P

1.CH 3 MgBr
2.H 3O

1. dil.NaOH
4-methylpent-3-en-2-one
2.

P is
(1) propanone
Ans: (3)
H3C

CH3MgBr

(2) ethanamine

H3C

C
CH3

N MgBr

(3) ethanenitrile

H3O+

H3C

(4) ethanal

dil. NaOH
O
H3C

CH3
C

O
CH C

CH3

CH3

29. When CH2 = CH O CH2 CH3 reacts with one mole of HI, one of the products formed is
(1) ethane
(2) ethanol
(3) iodoethene
(4) ethanal
Ans: (4)
H I
H2C CH OH
H3C
CHO
CH3CH2I
H2C CH O CH2 CH3

30. 0.44 g of a monohydric alcohol when added to methylmagnesium iodide in ether liberates at
S.T.P., 112 cm3 of methane. With PCC the same alcohol forms a carbonyl compound that
answers silver mirror test. The monohydric alcohol is
(1) H3C CH CH2 CH3
(2) (CH3)3C CH2OH
OH

(3) H3C

CH

CH2

CH2

(4) (CH3)2CH CH2OH

CH3

OH

Ans: (3)

CH3MgI

Molecular mass of alcohol =

ROH

CH4

Mg
3

OR

0.44 g

112 cm

22400 cm

0.44 22400
= 88
112

If the alcohol with PCC gives a carbonyl compound, the alcohol must be 2o alcohol. Hence,
answer is either (1) or (3). But as the molecular mass is 88, the answer is (3).
31.
H

CH3MgBr

'A'

(2) 2-methylbutan-3-ol
(4) Pentan-2-ol

CH3 O

H3O+

The IUPAC name of B is

(1) 3-methylbutan-2-ol
(3) 2-methylbutan-2-ol
Ans: (1)

ether

CH3MgBr

ether

H3C C
H

MgBr
H

H2O/H+

CH3 OH
H3C C

CH3

CH3

O
CH3 OH
H3C CH
4

CH

CH3

3-methylbutan-2-ol

32. For Freundilich isotherm a graph of log

x
is plotted against log P. The slope of the line and
m

its y-axis intercept, respectively corresponds to

(1)

1
,k
n

(2) log

1
,k
n

slope =

1
n

Ans: (3)

(3)

1
, log k
n

(4) log

1
, log k
n

log x/m
Intercept = log k
log P

1
Vs k for a reaction gives the slope -1 x 104 K. The energy of activation for the
T

33. A plot of

reaction is
(Given R = 8.314 K-1 mol-1)
(1) 8314 J mol-1
(2) 1.202 kJ mol-1

(3) 12.02 J mol-1

(4) 83.14 kJ mol-1
1
1
However question is wrong as the plot is
vs k instead of
vs ln k.
T
T
Ans: (4)
ln k Vs

1
T

Ea
R
Ea
1 104 =
Ea = 8.314 104 = 83140 J = 83.14 kJ
8.314
34. The IUPAC name of the complex ion formed when gold dissolves in aquaregia is
(1) tetrachloridoaurate (III)
(2) tetrachloridoaurate (I)
(3) tetrachloridoaurate (II)
(4) dichloridoaurate (III)
Ans: (1)
H[AuCl4]
Tetrachloridoaurate (III)
35. The correct sequence of reactions to be performed to convert benzene into m-bromoaniline is
(1) nitration, reduction, bromination
(2) bromination, nitration, reduction
(3) nitration, bromination, reduction
(4) reduction, nitration, bromination
Ans: (3)
-Slope =

NO2

Step 1
HNO3 - H2SO4

NH2

NO2

Br2H2O

Sn/Conc. HCl

Step - 2

NO2

Br

Step 1 Nitration
Step 2 Bromination
Step 3 Reduction
OH

36.

C6H5COCl/ base

Nitration
X

Y (major product)

(1)

Y is

(2)
NO 2

COO

(3)

HO

COO

NO 2

(4)
O 2N

COO

Ans: (1)
OH

O 2N

COO

NO 2

OOCC6H5
C6H5COCl/base

Nitration

O 2N

OOC
9

37.

A( g )
P( g ) + Q( g ) + R( g ) , follows first order kinetics with a half life of 69.3 s at 500oC.

Starting from the gas A enclosed in a container at 500oC and at a pressure of 0.4 atm, the
total pressure of the system after 230 s will be
(1) 1.15 atm
(2) 1.32 atm
(3) 1.22 atm
(4) 1.12 atm
Ans: (4)

230
= 3.33 half lives
69.3
90% completion
A(g) P(g) + Q(g) + R(g)
1-0.9
0.9 0.9 0.9
= 0.1
Total pressure = 0.1 + 0.9 +0.9 + 0.9
= 2.8
1 - 0.4
2.8 - ?
2.8 0.4 = 1.12 atm

A( g )
38. MnO2 + HCl
573 K
A( g ) + F2( excess )
B( g )

B(l ) + U ( s ) C( g ) + D( g )
The gases A, B, C and D are respectively
(1) Cl2, ClF, UF6, ClF3
(3) O2, OF2, U2O3, O2F2
Ans: (2)

(2) Cl2, ClF3, UF6, ClF

(4) O2, O2F2, U2O3, OF2

MnO2 + 4HCl
Cl2 + MnCl2 + 2H2O
(A)
Cl2 + F2 (excess) ClF3 (B)
UF6 + 3ClF
3ClF3 + U(5)
(C)
(D)
A = Cl2
B = ClF3
C = UF6
D = ClF
39. Acetophenone cannot be prepared easily starting from
(1) C6H5CH(OH)CH3
(2) C6H5CH3
(4) C6H6
(3) C6H5C CH
Ans: (2)
O
OH
(O)
H5 C 6
C
CH3
H 5 C6
CH CH3

O
C6H5C

CH

C6 H 5

Hg+2, H2SO4

CH3COCl

H 5C 6

Anhy
AlCl3

CH3

C6H5COCH3

10

40. One mole of ammonia was completely absorbed in one litre solution each of (a) 1 M HCl,
(b) 1 M CH3COOH and (c) 1 M H2SO4 at 298 K.
The decreasing order for the pH of the resulting solutions is
(Given Kb(NH3) = 4.74)
[pKb (NH3) 4.7 Question is wrong]
(1) b > c > a
(2) a > b > c
(3) b > a > c
(d) c > b > a
Ans: (3)
41. 5.5 mg of nitrogen gas dissolves in 180 g of water at 273 K and one atm pressure due to
nitrogen gas. The mole fraction of nitrogen in 180 g of water at 5 atm nitrogen pressure is
approximately
(1) 1 10-6
(2) 1 10-5
(3) 1 10-3
(4) 1 10-4
Ans: (4)
5.5 mg in 180 g 1 atm
5 atm pressure requires 5.5 mg 5 = 27.5 mg of N2
27.5 103
103
28
Mole fraction of N2 =
= 1 10-4
=
180
10
18
42. 50 cm3 of 0.04 M K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium oxidizes a sample of H2S gas to sulphur. Volume
of 0.03 M KMnO4 required to oxidize the same amount of H2S gas to sulphur, in acidic
medium is
(1) 60 cm3
(2) 80 cm3
(3) 90 cm3
d) 120 cm3
Ans: (2)
0.04 M K2Cr2O7 = 0.24 N K2Cr2O7
0.03 M KMnO4 = 0.15 N KMn4
0.24 50 = 0.15 V2

0.24 50
= 80 ml
0.15
43. The compound that reacts the fastest with sodium methoxide is
Cl
Cl
Cl
NO2
(1)
(2)
(3)
V2 =

Cl

(4)
NO 2

NO2

NO2
Ans: (3)
As electron withdrawing group strengthens C-Cl bond, the reaction rate decreases

44. The pair of compounds having identical shapes for their molecules is
(1) CH4, SF4
(2) BCl2, ClF3
(3) XeF2, ZnCl2
(4) SO2, CO2
Ans: (3)
In SN2 reaction, no rearrangement takes place as inversion of configuration takes place
45. Conductivity of a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt AB at 298 K is 1.85 10-5 S m-1.
Solubility product of the salt AB at 298 K is
o
Given m
(AB) = 140 10-4 S m2 mol-1

(1) 5.7 10-12

(2) 1.32 10-12

(3) 7.5 10-12

(4) 1.74 10-12

11

Ans: (4)
So =
S=

o
k
1.85 10 5
=
1000 m
1000 140 10 4

S = 1.3 10-6
Ksp = S2 = (1.3 10-6)2
= 1.69 10-12
46. An incorrect statement with respect to SN1 and SN2 mechanisms for alkyl halide is
(1) A strong nucleophile in an aprotic solvent increases the rate or favours SN2 reaction.
(2) Competing reaction for an SN2 reaction is rearrangement.
(3) SN1 reactions can be catalysed by some Lewis acids.
(4) A weak nucleophile and a protic solvent increases the rate or favours SN1 reaction.
Ans: (2)
47. Butylated hydroxyl toluene as a food additive acts as
(1) antioxidant
(2) flayouring agent (3) colouring agent
Ans: (1)
BHA and BHT are used as antioxidants

(4) emulsifier

48. Terylene is NOT a

(1) copolymer
(2) polyester finbre
(3) chain growth polymer
(4) step growth polymer
Ans: (3)
Examples for chain growth polymer, Polyethylene, PVC polypropylene etc.
49. The correct statement is
(1) Cyclohexadiene and cyclohexene cannot be isolated with ease during controlled
hydrogenation of benzene.
(2) One mole each of benzene and hydrogen when reacted gives 1/3 mole of cyclohexane and
2/3 mole unreacted hydrogen.
(3) Hydrogenation of benzene to cyclohexane is an endothermic process.
(4) It is easier to hydrogenate benzene when compared to cyclohexene.
Ans: (1)
50. Among the elements from atomic number 1 to 36, the number of elements which have an
unpaired electron in their s subshell is
(1)
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 9
Ans: (3)
1
1H 1s
2
1
3Li 1s 2s
2
2
6
1
11Na 1s 2s 2p 3s
2
2
6
2
6
1
19K 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
2
2
6
2
6
1
5
24Cr 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d
2
2
6
2
6
1
10
29Cu 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d

12

51. The statement that is NOT correct is

(1) Compressibility factor measures the deviation of real gas from ideal behaviour.
(2) Van der Waals constant a measures extent of intermolecular attractive forces for real
gases.
(3) Critical temperature is the lowest temperature at which liquefaction of a gas first occurs.
(4) Boyle point depends on the nature of real gas.
Ans: (3)
52. The correct arrangement for the ions in the increasing order of their radii is
(1) Na+, Cl-1, Ca+2
(2) Ca+2, K+, S-2
(3) Na+, Al+3, Be+2
(4) Cl-, F-, S-2
Ans: (2)
Ca+2, K+ and S-2 are isoelectronic species, size depends on number of protons.
S

Ca

Atomic No

16

19

20

No. of protons

16

19

20

No. of electrons

16

19

20

-2

S
No. of electrons

18

Ca+2

18

18

As the number of protons increases size decreases.

53. The correct arrangement of the species in the decreasing order of the bond length between
carbon and oxygen in them is
(1) CO, CO2, HCO2 , CO32

(2) Ca+2, K+, S-2

(3) CO32 , HCO2 , CO2, CO

(4) CO, CO32 , CO2, HCO2

Ans: (3)
The type of bond gives a relative measure of the bond length.
Triple bond shortest bond
Double bond Intermediate between single and double bond
Single bond longest bond
54. The species that is not hydrolysed in water is
(1) P4O10
(2) BaO2
(3) Mg3N2
Ans: (2)
P4O10 + 6H2O 4H3PO4
Mg3N2 + 6H2O 3 Mg (OH)2 + 2NH3
CaC2 + 2H2O Ca (OH)2 + C2H2

(4) CaC2

55. For the properties mentioned, the correct trend for the different species is in
(1) strength as Lewis acid BCl3 > AlCl3 > GaCl3
(2) inert pair effect Al > Ga > In
(3) oxidising property Al+3 > In+3 > Tl+3
(4) first ionization enthalpy B > Al > Tl
Ans: (4)

13

56. A correct statement is

(1) [Co(NH3)6]+2 is paramagnetic.
(2) [MnBr4]-2 is tetrahedral
(3) [CoBr2(en)2]- exhibits linkage isomerism. (4) [Ni(NH3)6]+2 is an inner orbital complex.
Ans: (1)
IN [Co(NH3)6]+2 Co+2 - 4so3d7
Electronic configuration - 18Ar

[Co(NH3)6]+2 : [18Ar]

sp3 d2

57. Iodoform reaction is answered by all, except

(1) CH3

CH

CH2

COOH

(2) CH3C HO

CH3

(2) CH3 CH2 OH

Ans: (4)

(4) CH3 CH2 CH2OH

[O ]
CH3CH2CH2 OH
CH3CH2CHO

Iodoform reaction is answered by carbonyl compounds having H3C

group.

58. A crystalline solid XY3 has ccp arrangement for its element Y. X occupies
(1) 66% of tetrahedral voids
(2) 33% of tetrahedral voids
(3) 66% of octahedral voids
(4) 33% of octahedral voids
Ans: (4)
In ccp arrangement, a unit cell has 4 particles of Y. To keep formula XY3, number of x
4
= 1.33. As ccp has 4 octahedral sites, the percentage of X partices occupying
particles are
3
1.33
100 = 33%
octahedral sites =
4
59. C H COOH 1. NH3 P NaOBr Q 1. Conc. H2SO4
'R'
6 5
2.
2. heat to 460 K
R is
(1) o-bromo sulphanilic acid
(2) sulphanilamide
(3) sulphanilic acid
(4) p-bromo sulphanilamide
Ans: (3)
COONH4
COOH
CONH2
H2N
H2N
NH3

NaOBr

Conc. H2SO4
, 460 C

SO3H
60. The statement that is NOT correct is
(1) Aldose or ketose sugars in alkaline medium do not isomerise.
(2) Carbohydrates are optically active.
(3) Penta acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine.
(4) Lactose has glycosidic linkage between C4 of glucose and C1 of galactose unit.
Ans: (1)

14

CET MATHEMATICS 2014

VERSION CODE: C 2
1.

Which one of the following is not correct for the features of exponential function given by f
(x) = bx where b > 1?
(1) For very large negative values of x, the function is very close to 0.
(2) The domain of the function is R, the set of real numbers.
(3) The point (1, 0) is always on the graph of the function.
(4) The range of the function is the set of all positive real numbers.
Ans: (3)
.. (1)
Consider y = bx
Clearly (1, 0) doesnt satisfy (1)
2.

If y = (1 + x) (1 + x2) (1 + x4), then

(1) 20
Ans: (2)

dy
at x = 1 is
dx

(2) 28

(3) 1

(4) 0

dy
= (1 + x) (1 + x2) 4x3 + (1 + x2) (1 + x4) + (1 + x4) (1 + x) 2x
dx

dy
= (1 + 1) (1 + 12) 4 + (1 + 1) (1 + 1) + (1 + 1) (1 + 1) 2
dx x =1
= 16 + 4 + 8 = 28
[Aliter : use logarithmic differentiation]
If y = (tan1x)2, then (x2 + 1)2 y2 + 2x (x2 + 1) y1 is equal to
(1) 4
(2) 0
(3) 2
Ans: (3)
3.

(4) 1

2 tan 1 x
y| (1 + x2) = 2 tan-1 x
1 + x2
2
(1 + x2) y|| + y| (2x) =
1 + x2
(1 + x2)2 y|| + 2x (1 + x2) y| = 2
4. If f (x) = x3 and g (x) = x3 4x in 2 x 2, then consider the statements:
(a) f (x) and g (x) satisfy mean value theorem
(b) f (x) and g (x) both satisfy Rolles theorem
(c) Only g (x) satisfies Rolles theorem.
Of these statements
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (a) alone is correct
(3) None is correct
(4) (a) and (c) are correct
Ans: (4)
f (x) and g (x) are both continuous is [-2, 2] and differentiable is (-2, 2)
f (x) and g (x) satisfy Mean Value Theorem
Now f (-2) = -8, f (2) = 8 f (-2) f (2) | g(1) = g(-2)
f (x) doesnt satisfy Rolles theorem
5. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
y| =

(1) Mathematics is interesting

(3)

2 is irrational

(2)

3 is a prime

(4) The sun is a star

1

Ans: (2)

3 is prime is the false statement. Note that the question is not, which of the following is
not a statement? in which case (1) would have been clearly the answer.
Here we have to identify a statement which is not correct. i.e., a statement whose truth value
is false. Hence (2) is the answer.
f (x ) 2
6. If the function f (x) satisfies lim 2
= , then lim f (x) =
x 1 x 1
x 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 3
Ans: (2)
Method of inspection
f (x ) 2
Clearly if lim f ( x ) = 1 or 0 or 3, then lim 2
doesnt exist, contradicting
x 1
x 1 x 1
lim
x 1

7.

f (x ) 2
=
x2 1

The tangent to the curve y = x3 + 1 at (1, 2) makes an angle with y axis, then the value of
tan is
(1)

1
3

(2) 3

(3) 3

Ans: (1)
Clearly = 90 +
= 90 +
tan = tan (90 + )
= - cot

(4)

1
3

dy
= 3x 2
=3
(1,2)
dx
1
Required = - cot = 3

Now tan =

In the diagram above, is to be considered as the angle made by tangent with y axis and not
.[e.g When we say angle made by a line with x axis, it is the angle measured from x-axis to
the line in anticlockwise direction, unless mentioned otherwise].
y

Here we consider as the angle made by the line with +ve x-axis and not |]
8.

If the function f (x) defined by f (x) =

(1) 100 f (0)

(2) 100
Ans: (3)
f| (x) = 1 + x + x2 + . + x99
f| (0) = 1

x100 x 99
x2
+
+ ......... +
+ x + 1 , then f (0) =
100 99
2

(3) 1

(4) 1

9.

If f (x) = f ( + e x) and

f ( x ) dx =
e

(1) - e

(2)

2
, then
e +

+e
2

x f (x )

dx is equal to

(3) 1

(4)

e
2

Ans: (3)

I = xf ( x ) dx = ( e + x ) f ( e + x ) dx

= ( e + x ) f ( x ) dx = ( e + ) f ( x ) I

2I = (e + )

2
I =1
e +

10. If linear function f (x) and g (x) satisfy

(3x 1) cos x + (1 2x ) sin x dx = f (x) cos x + g (x) sin x + C, then
(1) f (x) = 3 (x 1)
Ans: (3)

(2) f (x) = 3x 5

(3) g (x) = 3 (x 1)

(4) g (x) = 3 + x

[(3x 1) cos x + (1 2x )sin] dx = f ( x ) cos x + g ( x )sin x + C

= (3x 1)sin x sin x.3dx + (1 2n)( cos x ) + cos x ( 2) dx
=
=
=

(3x 1) sin x + 3 cos x cos x + 2x cos x 2 sin x + C

(3x 1 2) sin x + (2 + 2x) cos x + C
3 (x 1) sin x + 2 (x + 1) cos x + C
f (x) = 2 (x + 1), g (x) = 3 (x 1)
/4

11. The value of the integral

log ( sec tan ) d is

/4

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans: (1)
The value of

/4

log (sec tan ) d = 0

/4

log (sec - tan ) is an odd function

if f () = log (sec - tan )
then, f (-) = log [sec + tan ]
= -log (sec - tan ) = -f()
12.

sin 2x

sin2 x + 2 cos2 x

dx =

(2) log (1 + cos2 x) + C

(1) log (1 + sin2x) + C
2
(3) log (1 + cos x) + C
d) log (1 + tan2 x) + C
Ans: (3)
sin 2x
sin 2x
dx sin2 x = 1 cos2 x
=

2
2
sin x + 2 cos x
1 + cos2 x
put cos2x = t , 1 + cos2 x = t
-2 cos x sin x dx = dt
or sin 2x dx = -dt
= -

dt
= - log t + c = - log (1 + cos2 x) + C
t

13. Let S be the set of all real numbers. A relation R has been defined on S by aRb |a b|
1, then R is
(1) symmetric and transitive but not reflexive
(2) reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
(3) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
(4) an equivalence relation
Ans: (3)
a R b |a b| 1,
a R a = |a a| = 0 1 R is reflexive
if a R b |a b| 1
then b R a |b a| 1, |a b| 1, which is true. R is symmetric
But R is not transitive, take a = 1, b = 2
Then |a b| = |1 2| = 1= 1
Let b = 2 and c = 3 |b c| = |2 3|= 1
But a R c |a c| = |1 3| = 2 > 1
14. For any two real numbers, an operation defined by a b = 1 + ab is
(1) neither commutative nor associative
(2) commutative but not associative
(3) both commutative and associative
(4) associative but not commutative
Ans: (2)
a * b = 1 + ab
Now a * b = 1 + ab
b * a = 1 + ba = 1 + ab = a * b
* is commutative
(a * b) * c = (1 + ab) * c = 1 + (1 + ab) c = 1 + c + abc
but a * (b * c) = a * (1 + bc) = 1 + a (1 + bc) = 1 + a + abc
(a * b) * c a * (b * c)
* is not associate
n +1
if n is odd

15. Let f : N N defined by f (n) = 2

then f is
n if n is even
2

(1) onto but not one-one

(3) neither one-one nor onto
Ans: (1)
f:f:NN

n + 1
if
2
f (n) =
n
if
2

(2) one-one and onto

(3) one-one but not onto

n is odd
n is even

Now for n = 1, f (1) =

And if n = 2, f (2) =

1 +1
=1
2

2
=1
2

f (1) = f (2), But 1 2.

f (x) is not one-one
4

n +1
if n is odd
2
n +1
if y =
then n = 2y 1, y
2
n
n
also, f (x) =
if n is even i.e., y =
or n = 2y y
2
2
f (x) =

f (x) is onto
16. Suppose f (x) = (x + 1)2 for x 1. If g (x) is a function whose graph is the reflection of the
graph of f (x) in the line y = x, then g (x) =
1
x > 1
(2) x - 1
(3) x + 1
(4) x 1
(1)
( x + 1 )2
Ans: (4)
f (x) = (x + 1)2 for x -1 g (x) is the reflection of f (x) in the line y = x, then g (x) is the
inverse of f (x)
let y = (x + 1)2

y =x+1

x=

y 1

i.e., f -1 (y) =

y 1

x 1

or g (x) =

17. The domain of the function f (x) =

3

(1) , 2
2

cos x is

(2) 0,
2

(3) ,
2 2

(4) 0, , 2
2 2

Ans: (*)
f (x) =

cos x cos x 0

0 cos x 1 x is in I quad or IV quad

i.e., x varies from 0 to

also from

(in I quadrant)

3
to 2, cos x
2

is 0

,2 , cos x > 0
In = 0,
2 2

, also is the domain of the function. Infact ,2 and 0, are also
2

2 2
2

However,

domains since cos x > 0 when x belongs to either of these two intervals.
18. In a class of 60 students, 25 students play cricket and 20 students play tennis and 10
students play both the games, then the number of students who play neither is
(1) 45
(2) 0
(3) 25
(4) 35
Ans: (3)
n () = 60
n (C) = 25
n (T) = 20
|
n (C T) = 10 then n (C T) = ?
n (C T) = n (C) + n (T) n (C T) = 25 + 20 10 = 35
n (C T)| = n (n) n (C T)
= 60 35 = 25
5

19. Given 0 x

x
1
1 x2
then the value of tan sin 1
+

2
2
2

(1) 1

(2)

1
sin x is

(3) 1

(4)

1
3

Ans: (1)

0x

1
2

x
1 x2
tan sin 1
+

2
2

x + 1 x 2
= tan sin

1
is
sin
x

sin
x

put sin-1 x = or x = sin

sin + cos

given = tan sin 1

= tan sin sin +
4
2

tan +

= tan =1
4
4

20. The value of sin (2 sin1 0.8) is equal to

(1) 0.48
(2) sin 1.2o
Ans: (4)
The value of sin (2 sin-1 (0.8)) is
Let sin-1 0.8 = sin = 0.8
cos =

(3) sin 1.6o

(4) 0.96

1 sin 2 = 0.6

given exp = sin 2 = 2 sin cos

= 2 0.8 0.6
= 1.6 0.6
= 0.96
21. If A is 3 x 4 matrix and B is a matrix such that AB and BA are both defined, then B is of the
type
(1) 4 x 4
(2) 3 x 4
(3) 4 x 3
(4) 3 x 3
Ans: (2)

1 2 4

22. The symmetric part of the matrix A = 6 8 2 is

2 2 7

0 2 1

(1) 2 0 2
1 2 0

1 4 3

(2) 2 8 0
3 0 7

0 2 1

0 2
(3) 2
1 2 0

1 4 3

(4) 4 8 0
3 0 7

Ans: (4)
Symmetric part of A =

1
( A + A|)
2

1 2 4 1 6 2
1 4 3
1

= 6 8 2 + 2 8 2 = 4 8 0
2
3 0 7

2 2 7 4 2 7
6

23. If A is a matrix of order 3, such that A (adj A) = 10 I, then |adj A| =

(1) 1
(2) 10
(3) 100
(4) 10 I
Ans: (3)
We know A . Adj A = |A| I
Clearly |A| = 10
|Adj A| = |A|3 1 = |A|2 = 102 = 100
24. Consider the following statements:
(a) If any two rows or columns of a determinant are identical, then the value of the
determinant is zero
(b) If the corresponding rows and columns of a determinant are interchanged, then the value
of determinant does not change.
(c) If any two rows (or columns) of a determinant are interchanged, then the value of the
determinant changes in sign.
Which of these are correct?
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (c)
Ans: (3)
Since each option is correct options (1), (2), (3), (4) are all correct answers.

2 0 0

25. The inverse of the matrix A = 0 3 0 is

0 0 4
2 0 0
1

0 3 0
(1)

24
0 0 4

2 0 0

(2) 0 3 0
0 0 4

1 0 0
1

0 1 0
(3)

24
0 0 1

1
2

(4) 0

0
1
3
0

1
4

Ans: (4)

a 0 0

If A = 0 b 0 , A-1
0 0 c

1
a

= 0

0
b

1
0
c
0

When a 0, b 0, c 0

x +2 x +3 x +a
26. If a, b and c are in A.P., then the value of x + 4 x + 5 x + b is
x +6 x +7 x +c
(1) 0
Ans: (1)

(2) x (a + b + c)

(3) a + b + c

(4) 9x2 + a + b + c

R11 = R1 R2 , R21 = R2 R3

2
2

2
2

a b
bc

x +6 x +7 x +c
= R1 R2 since a b = b c
( a, b, c are in AP b a = c b)
7

27. The local minimum value of the function f| given by f (x) = 3 + |x|, x R is
(1) -1
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 0
1,
x
>
0

Ans: (1 & 3) or (2)

f (x )
1, < 0
Clearly when x > 0, local minimum = 1
y
When x < 0, local minimum = -1
1
option (1) and (3) both are true
x
-1
However, if the question was given as The local minimum value of the function f given by
f (x) = 3 + |x|, x R is, then (3) is correct answer. It is clear from the graph of the
function y = |x| + 3. Eventhough it is not differentiable at x = 3, it still has a relative
minimum.
y

3
2
1

28. A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in circles at the speed of 5 cm/sec. At
that instant, when the radius of circular wave is 8 cm, how fast is the enclosed area
increasing?
(1) 6cm2/s

(2) 8cm2/s

(3)

8
cm2/s
3

(4) 80cm2/s

Ans: (4)

dr
= 5 cm/sec
dt
dA
dr
A = r2
= .2r
= 2.(8). 5 = 80cm2/sec
dt
dt
29. A gardener is digging a plot of land. As he gets tired, he works more slowly. After t minutes
2
he is digging at a rate of
square metres per minute. How long will it take him to dig an
t
area of 40 square metres?
(1) 100 minutes
(2) 10 minutes
(3) 30 minutes
(4) 40 minutes
Ans: (1)
dA 2
2
Given,
dA =
dt
=
dt
t
t
Given

A = 2.2

t +C

Where t = 0, C = 0
4 t = 40 t = 100

30. The area of the region bounded by the lines y = mx, x = 1, x = 2, and x axis is 6 sq. units,
then m is
(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4
Ans: (4)
y = mx
2

Area = mxdx = 6
1

x2
= 6 m (22 12) = 12
2 1

3m = 12 m = 4
31. Area of the region bounded by two parabolas y = x2 and x = y2 is
(1)

1
4

(2)

1
3

(3) 4

(4) 3

Ans: (2)
y2 = 4ax, x2 = 4by is
Required =

4a.4b
3

1.1 1
=
3
3

32. The order and degree of the differential equation y = x

(1) 1, 2
Ans: (1)

(2) 1, 3

dy
2
is
+
dx dy
dx

(3) 2, 1

(4) 1, 1

dy
dy
y = x
+2
dx
dx
order = 1, degree = 2

dy y
+ = 3x is
dx x
c
(3) y = x 2
x

33. The general solution of the differential equation

(1) y = x

c
x

(2) y = x +

c
x

(4) y = x 2 +

c
x

Ans: (4 & 3)

dy
+ y = 3x 2
dx
dy
( xy ) = 3x 2
dx
d( xy ) = 3x 2dx (*)
on int egrate,
x

xy = x 3 + C
C
x
Infact, after integrating (*) one may also write
y = x2 +

xy = x3 C
y = x2

C
x

34. The distance of the point P (a, b, c) from the x-axis is

(1)

a 2 + b2

(2)

b2 + c 2

(3) a

(4)

a 2 + c2

Ans: (2)
P (a, b, c), A (a, 0, 0)
Distance =

02 + b2 + c2 = b2 + c2

35. Equation of the plane perpendicular to the line

(2, 3, 4) is
(1) 2x + 3y + z = 17
(3) 3x + 2y + z = 16
Ans: (4)

x y z
= = and passing through the point
1 2 3

(2) x + 2y + 3z = 9
(4) x + 2y + 3z = 20

x y z
= =
1 2 3
Direction ratio of normal to the plane is 1, 2, 3.
Eq is 1x + 2y + 3z + d = 0.

Since plane is perpendicular to

Passes through the point (2, 3, 4) 2 + 6 + 12 + d = 0

d = -20
Eq is x + 2y + 3z = 20

x 2 y 3 z 4
=
=
is parallel to the plane
3
4
5
(1) 2x + 3y + 4z = 0
(2) 3x + 4y + 5z = 7
(3) 2x + y 2z = 0
(4) x + y + z = 2
Ans: (3)
D.R of line = 3, 4, 5
Line and plane are parallel
normal to plane and line are perpendicular
a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
For plane 2x + y 2z = 0
3 (2) + 4(1) 2(5) = 0
2x + y 2z = 0
36. The line

37. The angle between two diagonals of a cube is

1
3

(1) cos-1

(2) 30o

(3) cos-1

(4) 45o

Ans: (1)
Consider a diagonal with each side 1. Now BC and OA are diagonals.
Angle between diagonals = Angle between OA and BC .

OA = (1, 1, 1) (0, 0, 0) = (1, 1,1)

C(0, 1, 1)

BC = (0, 1, 1) (1, 0, 0) = (-1, 1,1)

1(1) + 1(1) + (1)(1)

Now cos =

1 +1 +1
2

(1) + 1 + 1
2

1
3

A(1, 1, 1)
O

B
(1, 0, 0)
10

38. Lines

x 2 y 3 z 4
x 1 y 4 z 5
=
=
=
=
and
are coplanar if
K
1
1
K
2
1

(1) K = 2
Ans: (2)

(2) K = 0

x2 x1
a1

y2 y1
b1

a2

b2

(3) K = 3

(4) K = -1

z2 z1
c1 = 0
c2

1 2 4 3 5 4
1
1
k = 0
k

1 1 1
1 1 k = 0
k

k=0
39. A and B are two events such that P (A) 0, P (B/A) if
(i) A is a subset of B
(ii) A B = are respectively
(1) 1, 1
(2) 0 and 1
(3) 0, 0
Ans: (4)
P(B | A) =

(4) 1, 0

P( A B)
P( A)

P(B | A) = 0
Since P(A) 0,

P(A) = 1 (Inspection)

A B =

P(A) = 1, P(A B) =0

40. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of obtaining a total score of 5 is
(1)

1
9

(2)

1
18

(3)

1
36

(4)

1
12

Ans: (1)
O (s) = 36
E = {(1, 4), (4, 1), (2,3) , (3, 2)}
P(E) = 4/36 = 1/9
41. If the events A and B are independent if P (A|) =

2
2
and P (B|) = , then P (A B) is equal
3
7

to
(1)

4
21

(2)

5
21

(3)

1
21

(4)

3
21

Ans: (2)
P (A B) = P(A) . P(B )

(independent events)

= [1- P(A|)] [1- P(B|)]

= [1 2/3] [1 2/7]
=

1 5 5 1 5 5
. =
. =
3 7 21 3 7 21
11

42. A box contains 100 bulbs, out of which 10 are defective. A sample of 5 bulbs is drawn. The
probability that none is defective is
5

9
(1)
10

1
(2)
10

9
(3)
10

1
(4)
2

Ans: (3)

10
= 0.1 q = 0.9 n = 5
100
p( x) = 5Cx (0.1) x (0.9)5 x
p=

9
p(0) = 5C0 (0.1)0 (0.9)5 =
10

43. The area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides are i + k and 2i + j + k is
(1) 3

(2)

(3) 4

(4)

Ans: (4)
Area = a b

i j k
= 1 0 1 = i + j + k
2 1 1

1+1+1 = 3 1+1+1 = 3

area =

44. If a and b are two unit vectors inclined at an angle

(1) equal to
Ans: (2)

(2) greater than 1

, then the value of a + b is

(3) equal to 0

(4) less than 1

(3) 2 a b c

(4) 2

| a | =| b |= 1, = / 3
| a + b |2 = | a | 2 + | b |2 +2(| a |. | b | cos )
= 1 + 1 + 2.1.1.1/ 2 = 3
=| a + b |= 3
| a + b |> 1

45. The value of a b b c c a is equal to

(1) 0

(2) 1

Ans: (1)

a b b a c a

= a b b c c a

= a b b c b a c c + c a

12


= a b b c b a+ c a

cc = 0

a . b c a . b a + a . c a b . b c + b . b a b . c a

= a b c - 0 + 0 0 + 0 - a b

=0
46. If x + y 2, x 0, y 0 the point at which maximum value of 3x + 2y attained will be
(1) (0, 2)

(2) (0, 0)

(3) (2, 0)

1 1
,
2 2

(4)

Ans: (3)
Corner points are (0, 0), (2, 0) (0, 2)
Max. of 2x + 3y is 6 at (2, 0)
47. If sin = sin , then
(1)

is any multiple of

and

is any odd multiple of .

2
2
2
+

is any odd multiple of
and
is any multiple of .
(2)
2
2
2
+

(3)
is any multiple of
and
is any even multiple of .
2
2
2
+

is any even multiple of
and
is any odd multiple of .
(4)
2
2
2

Ans: (*)
sin = sin
sin - sin = 0

+
2 cos
sin
=0
2 2
+

is odd multiple of
and
is any multiple of should be
It is not necessary that
2
2
2
simultaneously hold good for the above equation to be true. Hence the correct answer should
be

+
2

= odd multiple of / 2 or

48. If tan x =
(1) -

1
10

= any multiple of

3
3
x
,<x<
, then the value of cos
is
4
2
2
3
1
(2)

(3)

10

10

(4) -

3
10

Ans: (1)
Tan x = 3/4
cos x = - 4/5
1+ cos x = 2 cos2 (x/2)
1 4/5 = 2 cos2 (x/2)

1
1
= cos 2 ( x / 2) cos (x/2) = 10
10

1
10
13

49. In a triangle ABC, a [b cos C c cos B] =

(1) 0
(2) a2
Ans: (3)
a[b cos C c cos B]
(b cos C + c cos B) (b cos C - c cos B)
b2 cos2 C c2 cos2 B
b2 (1 sin2 C) c2 (1 sin2 B)

(3) b2 - c2

(4) b2

c2 2
b2
c 1 2
b 1
2
4R
4R
2

b2c 2
c 2b 2
c2 2
b2
2
c +
=b 1
c 1 2
4R2
4R2 4R 2
4R
2

= b2 c2
50. If and are two different complex numbers with || = 1, then

is equal to

1
(1)

1
2

(2) 0

(3) 1

(4) 1

Ans: (1)
Take, = 0, = 1
Then

1 0
=
=1
1 0
1

51. The set A = {x :|2x + 3| < 7} is equal to the set

(1) D = {x : 0 < x + 5 < 7}
(2) B = {x : - 3 < x < 7}
(3) E = {x : - 7 < x < 7}
(4) C = {x : - 13 < 2x < 4}
Ans: (1)
|2x + 3| < 7 -7 < 2x +3 < 7
-10 < 2x < 4
-5 < x < 2
0<x+5<7
52. How many 5 digit telephone numbers can be constructed using the digits 0 to 9, if each
number starts with 67 and no digit appears more than once?
(1) 335
(2) 336
(3) 338
(4) 337
Ans: (2)
3 digits from 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8, 9 (arrangement of 8 digits taking 3 at a time
8
P3 = 720 = 8 x 7 x 6 = 42 x 8 = 336
53. If 21st and 22nd terms in the expansion of (1 + x)44 are equal, then x is equal to
(1)

8
7

(2)

21
22

(3)

7
8

(4)

23
24

Ans: (3)
44

C20 x = C21 x x =
20

44

44

21

44

C20
C21

(44 21)!21! 23! 21! 21 7

=
=
=
.
(44 20)!20! 24! 20! 24 8

14

54. Consider an infinite geometric series with first term a and common ratio r. If the sum is 4

3
, then
4
4
3
(2) a =
,r=
7
7

and the second term is

(1) a = 2, r =

3
8

(3) a =

3
1
,r=
2
2

(4) a = 3, r =

1
4

Ans: (4)

a
4
1 r
a = 4 44
4r = 4 a
4=

check with options

55. A straight lien passes through the points (5, 0) and (0, 3). The length of perpendicular form
the point (4, 4) on the line is
(1)

15

17
2

(2)

34

(3)

17
2

(4)

17
2

Ans: (4)

3 0
y0 =
( x 5)
5
5 y = 3 x 15
d=

3(4) + 5(4) 15
32 + 52

17
17
=
2
34

56. Equation of circle with centre (-a, -b) and radius

(1) x2 + y2 + 2ax + 2by + 2b2 = 0
(3) x2 + y2 - 2ax - 2by + 2b2 = 0
Ans: (1)
Only (1) has centre (a, b)

a 2 b2 is

(2) x2 + y2 - 2ax - 2by - 2b2 = 0

(4) x2 + y2 - 2ax + 2by + 2a2 = 0

57. The area of the triangle formed by the lines joining the vertex of the parabola x2 = 12y to the
ends of Latus rectum is
(1) 20 sq. units
(2) 18 sq. units
(3) 17 sq. units
(4) 19 sq. units
Ans: (1)

x 2 = 12 y 4a = 12 a = 3
1
area of triangle = (base) ( height)
2
1
1
(4 | a |)(| a |) = (12)(3) = 18
2
2
58. If the coefficient of variation and standard deviation are 60 and 21 respectively, the
arithmetic mean of distribution is
(1) 60
(2) 30
(3) 35
(4) 21
Ans: (3)
coefficient of variation =

60 =

100

21
.100 x = 35
x
15

Y
59. The function represented by the following graph is
(1) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
(2) Differentiable but not continuous at x = 1
(3) Continuous and differentiable at x = 1
(4) Neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 1

2
1
0

Ans: (1)

f ( x) =| x 1|
3sin x

60. If f (x) = 5x
2K

(1)

10

x 0

is continuous at x = 0, then the value of K is

x =0
(2)

3
10

(3)

3
2

(4)

3
5

Ans: (2)

3sin x
lim
= 2k
x 0
5x
3
sin x
lim
= 2k
5 x0 x
3
= 2k
5
k = 3 /10

16