Joe Dinius

HW1

PHYS 515B
September 6, 2008

1. Jackson 11.3:
Show explicitly that two successive Lorentz transformations in the same direction are
equivalent to a single Lorentz transformation with a velocity
v=

v1 + v2
1 + v1c2v2

Solution. WLOG, construct transformations in x-direction with velocities v1 and v2 .

Define
vi
i =
c
1
i = p
i = 1, 2
1 i2
The transformations then become

1
1 1 0 0
2
2 2
1 1

0
0

2
1
2 2
A2 =
A1 =
0

0
1 0
0
0
0
0
0 1
0
0

0
0
1
0

0
0

0
1

Taking the matrix product A2 A1 , the net Lorentz transformation is

1 2 (1 + 1 2 ) 1 2 (1 + 2 ) 0 0
net
net net
1 2 (1 + 2 ) 1 2 (1 + 1 2 ) 0 0 net net
net
=
Anet =

0
0
1 0
0
0
0
0
0 1
0
0

0
0
1
0

0
0

0
1

Working out the (messy) algebra yields

net = 1 2 (1 + 1 2 )
1
1
=p
= q
2
v1 +v2
2
1 net
1 ( c(1+
v1 v2 )
c2

net
( = ) vnet

v1 + v2
vnet
=
v1 v2 =
c(1 + c2 )
c
v1 + v2
=
(1 + v1c2v2 )

2. Jackson 11.9 a and b:

An infinitesimal Lorentz transformation and its inverse can be written as
x0 = (g +  )x
x = (g + 0 )x0
1

(1)
(2)

where  and 0 are infinitesimal.

a.) Show from the definition of the inverse that 0 =  .
Solution. Start with eqn. (1) and take Lorentz transformation
x00 = (g + 0 )x0
= (g + 0 )g x0
= (g + 0 )g (g +  )x
We can now manipulate the last line above to get the equality
x00 = (g + 0 )g (g +  )g x .

(3)

Now use the definition of the inverse

x00 = x .

(4)

Compare (3) to (4):

(g + 0 )g (g +  )g
[ (g +  ) + 0 (g +  )]g
[g +  + 0 ( + g  )]g
(g +  + 0 + 0 g  )g

=
=
=
=

The last step leads to a slight difficulty. However, due the infinitesimal size of elements
of the -tensors we are justified in dropping terms that are quadratic or higher, i.e.
0 g  0. Now, the final step is:
= + g ( + 0 )
Change index to
= + g ( + 0 )
For the equality to hold, 0 = 

b.) Show from the preservation of the norm that  =  .

Solution. Start with the norm condition for Lorentz transformations and then do
tensor operations using relations given from (1) and (2) :
x x =
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=

x0 x0
(g +  )x x0
(g +  )x g x0
(g +  )x g (g +  )x
(g +  )[g (g +  )]x g x
(g +  )[ + g  ]g x x
(g +  )[g + g  g ]x x
( +  g +  g )x x
x x + ( g +  g )x x
2

Change indices to and to

= x x + ( g +  g )x x
= x x + ( +  )g x x
= x x + ( +  )x x
In order for the equality to hold,  = 

3. Find the matrix for the Lorentz transformation consisting of a boost vx in the xdirection followed by a boost vy in the y-direction. Show that the boost performed in
the revise order (first vy and then vx ) would give a different transformation.
Solution. Define the quantities
vx
c
vy
=
c

1 =
2

1
1 = p
1 12
1
2 = p
1 22
Define the Lorentz transformation

1
1 1
1 1
1
A1 =
0
0
0
0

matrices

0 0
2
0 2 2

0 0
0
2
0
A2 =

1 0
2 2 0
1
0 1
0
0
0

Performing vx boost first yields the transformation

1 2
1 1 2 2 2
1 1
1
0
A21 = A2 A1 =
1 1 2 1 2 1 2
2
0
0
0

0
0

0
1

Performing vy boost first yields the transformation

1 2
1 1 2 1 2
1 1 2
1
1 2 1 2
A12 = A1 A2 =
2 2
0
2
0
0
0

0
0

0
1

0
0

0
1

Clearly, the two transformations are not identical. However, A12 = (A21 )T .

4. The Lorentz tranformation from frame O to O0 is

x0 = A x
where A has components
1
A0 0 = q
1

v2
c2
vj

A0 j = Aj 0 = q c
1
Aj k = Ak j

v2
c2

vj vk
= jk + 2
v

q
1

1
v2
c2

where v is the velocity of O0 with respect to O.

For covariant vector, the transformation is
x0 = A x
Find A .
Solution.
x0

=
g x0 = g A
( = ) A x = g A x
( = ) A g x = g A x
( = ) A g g = g A g
( = ) A = g A g

Using the definition for g

g = g

1 0
0
0
0 1 0
0

=
0 0 1 0
0 0
0 1

Performing the multiplications in (46) shows that all matrix entries will be the same
except for
j

A0 = Aj = A

= A

vj
c

=q
1

v2
c2

The total transformation can be described by

1
A0 0 = q
1
A0

v2
c2
vj
c

= Aj = q
1

Aj k = Ak j

v2
c2

vj vk
= jk + 2
v

1
q
1

1
v2
c2