Immune and Lymphoid System

1. Introduction
a. What two systems does the lymphatic system use?
i. Circulatory and endocrine
b. What are the three cell types commonly associated with the lymphatic system?
i. Lymphocytes, plasma cells and antigen-presenting cells
c. Where are T-cells derived versus B-cells?
i. T cells from the thymus, B-cells from the bone marrow
d. What is the function of antigen-presenting cells?
i. Present antigens to other immune cells (lymphocytes)
e. What is the function of plasma cells?
i. Antibody production
f. Which cells are involved in antibody-mediated immunity versus cell-mediated
immunity?
i. T-cells: cell mediated immunity
ii. B-cells: antibody-mediated immunity
g. What is the primary purpose of the immune system?
i. Protection/defense of the body
h. Explain the interaction between the nervous and endocrine system with the
immune system.
i. Cytokines from the immune or neural system to the endocrine, feeding back
to the neurons for defense and homeostasis.
2. Immune Cells/Molecules
a. What are the four functions of thymus derived cells?
i. Cytotoxic, helper, suppressor, memory
b. Which cells are potentially problematic as they contribute to anaphylaxis?
i. Memory cells- remember antigens and respond to second exposure
c. Which T-cells kill irrespective of antibody or antigen?
i. Natural Killer Cells
d. By what means do cytotoxic T-cells kill foreign cells?
i. Activate cellular apoptosis
e. What part of the T-cell interacts with the major-histocompatibility complex?
i. T-Cell Receptor (TCR)
f. What can be used to differentiate between T-cells?
i. Cluster of Differentiation (CD) antigens
g. What are cytokines?
i. Small soluble proteins that elicit some bodily response
h. What do colony stimulating factors cause?
i. Haematopoeisis- cell production
i. What do B-cells produce?
i. Antibody production
j. From what cells are immunoglobulins produced?
i. Plasma cells
k. What immunoglobulin causes mast cells to degranulate?
i. IgE
l. What immunoglobulin is found in the highest percentage?
i. IgG
m. What is the function of IgA?
i. Found in saliva, and reports back to body (?)
n. What region of an antibody binds to other cells?
i. Fc region bind to macrophage/neutrophils
o. Which Major Histocompatibility Complex is specific to immune cells?
i. MHC II
p. What is the function of MHC-II?
i. Bring in antigen and chew up, allowing addition of them to the cell
surface/presentation to lymph

q. Explain what opsonization is and how it can occur.

i. Antibodies binding a foreign particle, and then other antibodies binding to the
original antibodies
3. Immune Tissues-Thymus
a. What are thymic (Hassals) corpuscles?
i. Pink centres in the medulla- degenerating cells to support the thymus
b. Explain the importance of the blood-thymus barrier.
i. Thymocytes develop whats self/what is not; protects thymus
c. What is the lifespan of the thymus?
i. Decreases after the age of four
d. How does the cortex differ from the medulla?
i. Cortex- outer and increased number of T-cells, while the inside medulla has
larger T-cells but in less density
e. Are afferent or efferent lymphatics present in the thymus?
i. No Afferent lymphatics because its not a filter, only focus on output
f. What are the three thymic-dependent areas of T-cell migration?
i. Paracortical zone (lymph nodes), Internodular areas (lymph nodules),
periarterial lymphoid sheaths (spleen)
4. Immune Tissues-Lymph Nodes
a. What is the shape of most lymph nodes?
i. Kidney-shaped with hilum
b. Where are lymph nodes located?
i. Along lymphatic vessels
c. What is cell type is characteristic of the outer cortex of the lymph node?
i. B-cells
d. In what layer are B-cells versus T-cells mainly found?
i. Inner cortex= T-cells; outer cortex= B-cells
e. In which layer are lymph nodules not present?
i. Inner cortex
f. Describe lymph drainage through a lymph node.
i. Enters (1) capsule through afferent vessels into the (2) subcapsular sinus;
passes through (3) intermediate-cortical sinus into (4) medullary sinuses;
exiting through (5) hilum/ efferent vessels
g. Compare lymph drainage to blood supply of a lymph node.
i. Opposite directions; entering through hilum and high endothelial venules
h. What causes lymphocytes to be trapped inside lymph nodes?
i. Selectin slows down lymphocytes causeing them to bind to the endothelial
wall.
i. What is the epithelium of high endothelial venules and where are they found?
i. Simple cuboidal part of blood supply
j. What happens to bacteria in the subcapsular sinus?
i. Eaten by macrophages
k. What is marginization?
i. Neutrophils binding to walls using selectin
l. What is found in the lymph node medulla?
i. Medullary cords and sinuses
5. Immune Tissues- Spleen
a. What is the function of the spleen?
i. Blood filter, red blood cell destruction and lymphocyte activation
b. What is the primary function of the white pulp?
i. Immunological activity
c. What cells are found in the marginal zone of the white pulp?
i. T and B-cells, with APC cells
d. In which layer are primarily T-cells located in the white pulp?
i. Periarterial lymphoid sheaths (PALS)
e. If searching for B-cells in the white pulp, what layer is appropriate?

i. Lymph nodules (germinal centres)

How does the function of red pulp differ from white pulp?
i. Red pulp is cleansing; white pulp is activity
g. Describe the blood supply to the spleen.
i. (1) Splenic artery branches into (2) trabecular arteries= (3) central arteries
passing into the white pulp, terminating as (4) penicillar arteries in red pulp
becoming (5) capillaries.
h. Explain the drainage of venous blood from the spleen.
i. Small pulp veins > trabecular veins > splenic veins
i. What happens to penicillar arteries in the red pulp?
i. Become capillaries
j. What types of fibres are found around the spleen?
i. Reticular fibres
k. Where does the venous drainage from the spleen go to in the body?
i. Liver
l. What is the location of the incomplete basal lamina?
i. In the splenic sinusoids, due to increased fluid flow
m. How is bilirubin produced?
i. Macrophages chew up old red blood cells releasing the haem group which is
metabolized to bilirubin and excreted.
6. Immune Tissues-Lymph Nodules and Tonsils
a. What are the three types of tonsils?
i. Pharyngeal, palatine, lingual
b. Differentiate between the three types of tonsils.
i. Pharyngeal (no crypts), palatine (10-20 crypts), lingual (1 crypt)
c. When are germinal centres present in lymph nodules?
i. When active
d. What is MALT and the connection between it and GALT/BALT.
i. MALT- mucosa associated lymphoid tissue- GALT= GI; BALT= bronchus
e. Which cell type is primarily found around the tonsils?
i. B-cells
7. Clinical Considerations
a. What is DiGeorge Syndrome?
i. Embryological- no T-cells, only B-cells
b. Explain what occurs during an auto-immune disease.
i. Body is unable to recognize self and treats everything as foreign
c. What organ complements production of red blood cells if there is a deficiency in
bone marrow?
i. Spleen
d. Where is the tumour is Hodgkins lymphoma?
i. Lymphocytic system
f.

Endocrine System
1. Overview
a. What type of capillaries are found in the endocrine system?
i. Fenestrated
b. What chemical structures are secreted by the endocrine system?
i. Proteins, steroidshormones
c. At what sites does the endocrine system have the ability to act on?
i. Target organ at distant site utilizing the circulatory system
d. Do the glands of the endocrine system have ducts?
i. Ductless glands secrete stimulatory or inhibitory hormones
2. Hypothalamus
a. What hormones are released from the hypothalamus?
i. Anti-diuretic hormone
ii. Oxytocin

b. What is the local blood circuit within the hypothalamus?

i. Hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system (local blood circuit) to the pituitary
ii. Neuronal connection to the posterior pituitary
c. Where are the hormones of the hypothalamus released to?
i. Pituitary gland
3. Pituitary
a. What is the adenohypophysis?
i. Anterior pituitary
b. What is the pars distalis?
i. Anterior lobe
c. What composes 50% of the anterior lobe?
i. Chromophobes- clear cells
d. What are the two types of chromophils?
i. Acidophils (35%)-somatotrophs/mammotrophs
ii. Basophils (15%)-gonadotrophs/corticotrophs/thyrotrophs
e. What releases growth hormone?
i. Somatotrophs
f. What are the two types of acidophils?
i. Somatotrophs (GH relealse)
ii. Mammotrophs (PRL release)
g. What are the three types of basophils?
i. Gonadotrophs (FSH/LH release)
ii. Corticotrophs (ACTH release)
iii. Thyrotrophs (TSH release)
h. Where is Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Luteinising Hormone released from?
i. Gonadotrophs
i. From what cells is melanocyte stimulating hormone released?
i. Pars intermedia and corticotrophs
j. What is the function of pituicytes?
i. Glial-like cells- support axons structurally and provide nourishment
k. What is the function of the Herring bodies in the neurohypophysis?
i. Storage of ADH/ oxytocin
l. Explain the connection between Diabetes insipidus and the pituitary gland
i. No ADH release= reduced water reabsorption= watery urine
m. It is found that a patient has compression of their optic nerve, how can the pituitary
gland be implicated in the blurred vision?
i. Pituitary tumour increasing cranial pressure
n. What is the function of oxytocin?
i. Produced by the hypothalamus, stored by the pituitary to cause uterine
contractions
4. Thyroid
a. What shape are thyroid follicles found as?
i. Sphere of tissue
b. What is the epithelium of thyroid follicles?
i. Cuboidal cells but may appear squamous of columnar
c. What is thyroxine?
i. Thyroid hormone bound to 4 iodines
d. Explain the function of thyroid hormones T3 and T4.
i. Regulate metabolic activity
e. What is the function of iodine in the thyroid?
i. Facilitates the storage of lipophilic thyroxine so that it cant escape
(thyroglobulin)
f. What are parafollicular cells?
i. Alongside thyroid epithelium
g. What is released from C cells and under what stimulus?
i. Calcitonin in response to high blood calcium levels

h. What do cretinism, myxedema and Hashimotos disease have in common?

i. Hypothyroidism: Cretinism in utero, Myxedema in adult, Hashimotos is
autoimmune
i. Patient presents with large, protruding eyes, increased heart and metabolic ratewhat thyroid condition should appear in the differential diagnosis?
i. Hyperthyroidism- Graves Disease
5. Parathyroid
a. What are the two cell types of parathyroid glands?
i. Chief and Oxyphil Cells
b. What hormone secreted from Chief cells have an effect of blood calcium levels?
i. Parathyroid hormone- increase blood calcium levels
c. What color do oxyphil cells stain?
i. Acidophilic cells- stain red with eosin
d. Explain how tetany relates to the parathyroid glands.
i. Decreased blood calcium, heavy bones and reduced contraction
e. How will a patient with hyperparathyroidism present?
i. Weaker bones, with reduced density. Calcium plaques within the kidney.
6. Adrenal
a. What are the three zones of the adrenal cortex?
i. Zona glomerulose (15%)
ii. Zona fasiculata (65%)
iii. Zona reticularis (10%)
b. What is the function of the zona glomerulosa?
i. Electrolyte and water balance
c. What is found in the largest zone of the adrenal cortex?
i. Spongiocytes
d. What does and does not stimulate aldosterone?
i. Does not respond to ACTH, but does respond to sodium levels
e. What is produced within the zona reticularis?
i. Cortisol (glucocorticoid) and androgens (DHEA)
f. What regulates activity within the zona reticularis?
i. ACTH from pituitary
g. Where is the adrenal medulla derived from versus the cortex?
i. Neuroectoderm- from neural crest cells , cortex from parenchyma
h. What cell is found in the adrenal medulla and what compounds do they produce?
i. Chromaffin cells, producing epinephrine and norepinephrine
i. What is the importance of the medulla releasing compounds directly into the blood
supply?
i. Large bolus of hormones released that are able to act quickly
j. Describe the three components of the subcapsular plexus of the adrenal gland.
i. Arteries of the (1) capsule, (2) cortex and (3) medulla
k. What is Addisons disease characterized by? What disease is the opposite of it?
i. Hypo-adrenal cortical activity- a lack of glucocorticoids
1. Oppositee is Cushings disease which is an excess of glucocorticoids
l. What compound released from the zona reticularis is having increased use by the
general public?
i. DHEA which is converted to more potent androgens
7. Endocrine Pancreas
a. What component of the pancreas has an endocrine function?
i. Pancreatic islets (of Langerhans)
b. What are the 4 cell types in the pancreas?
i. Alpha cells- glucagon
ii. Beta cells- insulin
iii. Delta cells- somatostatin
iv. F-cells- pancreatic polypeptide
c. What is the greatest proportion of cells in the endocrine pancreas?

i. Beta cells
d. What is the function of somatostatin?
i. Regulate growth hormone release from hypothalamus
e. What cells are affected by type II diabetes mellitus in adults?
i. Beta cells being burnt out due to increased sugar consumption
f. What is the cause of type I diabetes?
i. Its juvenile diabetes with a genetic cause.
8. Pineal Gland
a. What is produced from pinealocytes?
i. Melatonin- sleep/rhythm regulation and free radical scavenging
b. What two cell types are found in the pineal gland?
i. Glial cells and Concretions
c. What is found to increase as an individual ages?
i. Concretions
d. What tasks are the pineal gland involved in regulating?
i. Rhythm/sleep regulation, seasonal regulation with respect to metabolism and
free radical scavenging
9. Diffuse Neuroendocrine Systems
a. What cells of the gastrointestinal system have endocrine properties?
i. Enterchromaffin cells
b. From what organs is the angiotensin system derived?
i. Liver, Kidney and Lungs to control blood pressure
c. What endocrine hormone is released from the heart?
i. Atrial Natriuretic factor- decrease blood pressure
d. Explain the connection between skin, liver, kidney and vitamin D.
i. Need vitamin D for calcium uptake, the skin absorbs UV light converting it to
vitamin D resulting in an increase in blood calcium
e. What is produced by the testes?
i. Androgens
f. What hormones does the placenta release?
i. hCG and estrogen/progesterone
g. What metabolic hormones are released from the brain and adipose tissue?
i. Leptin/resistin/adiponectin from adipose cells
ii. Ghrelin/orexin are appetite hormones
10.Fill in the following chart:
Hormone
Released From
Target
Actions
Anti-diuretic Hormone
Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Water reabsorption
Oxytocin
Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Uterine Contraction
Growth Hormone
Pituitary
Multiple
Growth/immune
(Somatotrophs)
production
Prolactin
Pituitary
Mammary glands
Milk production
(Mammotrophs)
FSH
Pituitary
Gonads
Female- Maturation of
(Gonadotrophs)
Graafian follicles.
Male-Enhanced
androgen binding
protein
LH
Pituitary
Gonads
Female- surge
(Gonadotrophs)
stimulates ovulation
Male-stimulates
testosterone
production
Adrenocorticotrophin
Pituitary
Adrenal cortex
Glucocorticoid release
(Corticotrophs)

Thyroid Stimulating
Hormone
Melanocyte Stimulating
Hormone

Pituitary (Thyrotrophs)

Thyroid Gland

Pituitary
(Corticotrophs/ Pars
Intermedia)
Thyroid

Melanocytes

Calcitonin

Thyroid (Parafollicular
cell)

Osteoblasts

Parathyroid Hormone

Osteoclasts

Cortisol

Parathyroid (Chief
cells)
Adrenal (Z.
glomerulosa)
Adrenal (Z. reticularis)

Androgens (DHEA)
Epinephrine/Norepinep
hrine
Glucagon
Insulin
Somatostatin
Pancreatic polypeptide
Melatonin
Atrial Natriuretic Factor

Adrenal (Z. reticularis)

Adrenal medulla
(chromaffin cells)
Pancreas (Alpha cells)
Pancreas (Beta cells)
Pancreas (Delta cells)
Pancreas (F-cells)
Pineal (pinealocytes)
Heart

Ghrelin/orexin

Brain

Leptin/resistin/adiponec
tin
hCG

Adipose tissue

Estrogen/progesterone

Placenta

T3/ T4

Aldosterone

Placenta

Multiple

Kidney

Regulates secrtion of
T3/T4
Release of melanin

Increase metabolic
rate
Increased
osteoblast/decreased
osteoclas activity
Increased osteoclast
activity
Increase mineral
reabsorption
Depress immune
function and regulate
glucose levels

Liver
Liver/Muscle

Glycogen > Glucose

Glucose uptake

Kidney

Reduce Na, Water to

lower blood pressure
Growth hormone
release

Ovary

Prevent degradation
of the corpus luteum
Maintain pregnancy

Integument System
1. Epidermis
a. What is the epithelium of the epidermis?
i. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
b. Where is the epidermis embryologically derived from?
i. ectoderm
c. What are the 5 layers of thick skin?
i. Stratum Basale: cuboidal
ii. Stratum Spinosum: polyhedral
iii. Stratum Granulosum: flattened
iv. Stratum Lucidum:
v. Stratum Corneum: flattened/keratinized
d. In what layers are many desmosomes and hemidesmosomes found?
i. Stratum Basale
e. In which layers are cells still dividing?
i. Stratum Basale
ii. Stratum Spinsoum
f. What are tonofilaments?

i. Cytokeratin-numerous intermediate filaments that hold desmosomes together

g. How many cell layers are there in the stratum granulosum?
i. 3-5 layers of flattened cells
h. What colour does the keretohyalin granules stain?
i. Dark blue- gives skin the toughness
i. From what layer is the waterproof barrier formed?
i. Stratum granulosum by lipid-rich granular exocytosis
j. What contributes to the waterproof barrier of the skin?
i. Exocytosis of lipid-rich granules
k. What layer is found only in thick skin versus thin skin?
i. Stratum Lucidum
l. What is the purpose of keratohyalin granules?Stratum basale
i. Keratin filaments and eleidin: protein for waterproofing
m. What are keratinocytes?
i. Cells of the skin, not including melanocytes
n. Where are melanocytes derived from?
i. Neural crest cells
o. By what process is melanin produced?
i. From tyrosine, activated by UV light
p. To what layer of epidermis are melanosomes transported?
i. To keratinocytes of stratum spinosum by cytocrine secretion
q. In what layer are melanocytes found?
i. Stratum Basale
r. What is the function of melanin?
i. Act as a barrier to UV light
s. What is a melanin unit?
i. Ratio of melanocytes to keratinocytes
t. Where are Langerhans cells derived from?
i. Bone marrow cells
u. What is the function of the Dendritic cells?
i. Antigen presenting cells
v. Where are mechanoreceptors located?
i. Merkel cells- in the stratum basale
w. What cells are found in the stratum basale?
i. Merkel Cells
ii. Melanocytes
iii. Cuboidal cells
2. Dermis
a. What type of tissue is the dermis composed of?
i. Dense irregular connective tissue
b. Where is the dermis derived from?
i. Mesoderm
c. What is the superficial loose layer in the dermis known as?
i. Papillary layer
d. Differentiate between the papillary and reticular layer.
i. Papillary layer is superficial, reticular layer is deep.
e. What is the function of the rich capillary supply?
i. Nourishment and temperature regulation
f. What is the purpose of Meissners corpuscles?
i. Sensitive to light touch
g. What senses deep pressure and vibration?
i. Pacinian corpuscles
h. A surgical incision is often made where to ensure reduced visibility of scar tissue?
i. Cleavage (Langers) lines
i. What is the purpose of arteriovenous anastomoses?
i. Temperature regulation

j.

Where are sweat glands located?

i. Reticular layer
k. When a person smiles or frowns, the muscles of expression insert into what layer?
i. Dermis (reticular layer)
l. What are the purpose of arrector pili muscles and hair follicles?
i. Contribute to temperature regulation, arrector pili muscles raise hair follicles.
3. Hypodermis
a. What type of tissue is the hypodermis?
i. Loose connective tissue
b. What is the hypodermis primarily composed of?
i. Adipose tissue
4. Glands
a. What are the three types of glands?
i. Sweat glands
ii. Apocrine glands
iii. Sebaceous glands
b. Which gland utilizes holocrine secretion?
i. Sebaceous gland
c. Fill in the chart:
Secretion Type
Secretion
Location
Drainage
Sweat Glands
Merocrine
Sweat
All over
Onto Skin
Apocrine Glands
Apocrine
Sweat
Axilla, groin,
Into/at hair follicle
anal
Sebaceous Glands Holocrine
Sebum (oily)
All over?
Into/at hair follicle
5. Functions:
a. What are the five functions of skin?
i. Protection
ii. Reception
iii. Excretion
iv. Absorption
v. Temperature regulation
b. How is the skin involved in Vitamin D production?
i. Need UV light to produce vitamin D- absorbed through skin
c. In what way does the skin cause water to be impermeable?
i. Protect/lipid soluble barrier through lipid granule excretion
d. What parts of the skin are important in temperature regulation?
i. Arteriovenous anastomoses
ii. Papillary layer (with rich capillary supply)
iii. Hair follicles/sebaceous glands
e. What increases within the skin in areas of increased reception to touch increases?
i. Neuronal density
6. Hair
a. Where does the hair develop from?
i. epidermis
b. What type of innervation do arrector pili muscles receive?
i. Sympathetic post-ganglionic
c. How does hair receive its colour?
i. Melanocytes provide melanosomes for hair colour
d. Is hair found on thick or thin skin?
i. Thin
7. Nails
a. What are nails composed of?
i. Hard keratin
b. Where does the nail grow out from?

i. Cuticle (eponychium)
c. In what layers of skin is the nail bed located?
i. Stratum basale/spinosum
d. Differentiate between the eponychium and hyponychium.
i. Hyponychium is below the nail, eponychium is on the nail
8. Clinical Considerations
a. What are dermatoglyphs?
i. Fingerprints-necessary for grasping
b. What contributes to skin colour in darker and lighter skinned individuals?
i. Activity of melanocytes
c. What disease is characterized by non-functional melanocytes?
i. Albinism
d. Patient presents with distinctly white patches of skin, what condition is immediately
suspected?
i. Vitiligo
e. What causes freckles?
i. Increased melanocyte activity in a specific area
f. Differentiate between basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma, with respect to
cellular layer.
i. Basal cell- stratum basale
ii. Squamous cell- squamoid layer/granulosum layer
iii. Melanoma- melanocytes
g. Explain why melanoma is potentially dangerous.
i. Melanocytes located in the basal layer and can easily metastasize away
h. What is psoriasis?
i. Excess growth/turnover of skin
Male Reproductive System
1. Introduction
a. What hormones are necessary for sperm production and maintenance?
i. LH and FSH
b. What are the two routes of sperm transport?
i. Intratesticular and extratesticular
c. What structures are involved in intratesticular transport?
i. Seminiferous tubules
ii. Tubuli recti
iii. Rete testis
iv. Ductuli efferentes
d. What structures are involved in extratesticular transport?
i. Ductus epididymis
ii. Ductus (vas) deferens
iii. Ejaculatory duct
iv. Urethra (prostatic, membranous, penile)
e. What are the three supportive glands?
i. Seminal vesicle
ii. Prostate
iii. Bulbourethral
2. Testes
a. What are the three histological structures?
i. Capsule
ii. Germinal (seminiferous) epithelium
iii. Tunica propria
b. Differentiate between the types of connective tissue found in the capsule.
i. Tunica albuginea- dense irregular connective tissue
ii. Tunica vasculosa- loose connective tissue/vessels
c. What type of epithelium is found?

i. Germinal epithelium- stratified

d. What is the function of Sertoli cells?
i. Supporting/nurse cells with a large nucleus/nucleolus
e. What are spermatogonia and what do they produce?
i. Developing sperm which produce more spermatogonia
f. Which structure allows the testes to be rotatable in scrotal skin?
i. Tunica vaginalis
g. What type of fibres compose the tunica propria?
i. Collagen fibres with fibroblasts and myoid cells
h. What is spermatocytogenesis?
i. Mitotically dividing spermatogonia
i. How does type A and B spermatogonia differ?
i. Type A- produce more spermatogonia
ii. Type B- produce primary spermatocytes
j. What do secondary spermatocytes and spermatids have in common?
i. The number of chromosomes- 23, however spermatids are 1N while
secondary spermatocytes are 2N.
k. Explain the trend in number of chromosomes and copies from primary
spermatocytes to spermatids.
i. Primary > secondary > spermatids
ii. Chromosomes: 46 > 23 > 23
iii. Chromosomal copies: 4N > 2N > 1N
l. During what phase in the cell cycle are primary spermatocytes found?
i. 16-20 days in prophase
m. Using terms such as diploid and haploid, describe the genetic composition of
chromosomes.
i. The secondary spermatocyte is diploid while the spermatid is haploid
n. What is the process of morphological changes known as?
i. Spermiogenesis
o. What are the three phases of spermiogenesis?
i. Golgi phase
ii. Acrosomal phase
iii. Maturation phase
p. What is the acrosomal phase?
i. Cap and detonator of lysosomal enzymes to penetrate the zona pellucida
and get to ovum.
q. How long does it take sperm to form?
i. 64 days, however there are waves of sperm formation to allow for continuity
r. Which cells phagocytosize residual bodies?
i. Sertoli cells
s. What compounds do Sertoli cells synthesize?
i. Androgen binding protein (by FSH stimulation), which binds testosterone and
diffuse across the membrane
ii. Inhibin- feedback to the pituitary to make more or less FSH
t. What does the occluding junctions between Sertoli cells form?
i. Blood-testis barrier because the developing sperm are genetically different
and suspectible to auto-immune attack.
u. What is the pampiniform plexus and its purpose?
i. Counter current heat exchanger- venous blood near testes to keep the
temperature low
v. What are the components of interstitial tissues?
i. Nerves, blood vessels, lymphatics and connective tissue
ii. Interstitial (Leydig) cells
w. What are the interstitial cells also known as and what do they produce?
i. Leydig cells- produce testosterone; large Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
x. Where are fenesterated capillaries found?

i. In the interstitial tissue

3. Sperm Conducting Ducts
a. What type of epithelium is found in the tubuli recti?
i. Straight tubules
b. What is the anastomotic network known as?
i. Rete testis
c. Where is a ciliated or non-ciliated epithelium found in the sperm conducting ducts?
i. Ductuli efferentes
d. Which duct contains pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia?
i. Ductus epididymis
e. What surrounds the ductus epididymis and what is its function?
i. Smooth muscle for peristaltic contraction
f. Describe the function of the stereocilia in the ductus epididymis.
i. Non-motile; used for fluid absorption
g. What type of epithelium is found in the ductus deferens?
i. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia
h. Describe the muscular wall of the ductus deferens.
i. Thick: inner, middle and outer longitudinal
i. Where does the ductus deferens dilate?
i. Ampulla- prior to prostate
j. What type of fibres are found within the lamina propria of the ductus deferens?
i. Elastic fibres
k. Describe the course or sperm out of the testes to the epididymis.
i. Tubuli recti > rete testis > ductuli efferentes > ductus epididymis < ductus
deferens > ejaculatory duct > urethra (prostatic, membranous, penile)
l. What type of epithelium is found in the ejaculatory duct?
i. Simple columnar
m. Where does the ejaculatory duct pass through and end?
i. Prostate gland
ii. End of seminal colliculus (verumontanum)
n. What are the three parts of the urethra?
i. Prostatic, membranous, penile
o. Compare the epithelium in the prostatic portion to that of the membranous and
penile.
i. Prostatic- transitional epithelium
ii. Membranous/penile- pseudostratified/ stratified columnar epithelium
p. What is secreted from the glands of littre?
i. Mucous lubrication
q. What is the fossa navicularis?
i. Stratified squamous epithelium at the tip and is non-keratinized
4. Associated Reproductive Glands
a. What is secreted from the seminal vesicle glands and for what purpose?
i. Seminal fluid (fructose, citrate) to support the sperm
b. What is the epithelium in the seminal vesicle glands?
i. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
c. Where are the glandular cells of the prostate located?
i. Most of the glands in the periphery
d. What is the organization of the layers in the prostate?
i. Mucosal, submucosal and main prostatic glands
e. What are corpora amylacea?
i. Prostatic concretions- concretion of calcium carbonate that increases with
age
f. What compound composes prostatic concretions?
i. Calcium carbonate
g. What is the fluid secreted from the prostate?

i. Thin white fluid- acid phosphotases to change the vaginal pH and stimulate
sperm motility
h. What gland is found in the membranous portion of the perineum?
i. Bulbourethral (Cowpers) gland
i. What is the epithelium of the Cowpers glands?
i. Simple cuboidal
j. What is secreted from Cowpers glands?
i. Mucous to lubricate prior to ejaculation
5. Penis
a. What is the thick fibrous capsule known as?
i. Tunica albuginea
b. What are the two type of erectile tissue in the penis?
i. Corpora cavernosa
ii. Corpus spongiosum
c. In which tissue is the urethra located?
i. Corpus spongiosum
d. What is the epithelium of the urethra?
i. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
e. Describe the arterial and capillary structure within the penis.
i. Helical arteries, with continuous capillaries
f. What is the autonomic innervation of the penis?
i. Parasympathetic regulates (Point and Shoot- parasympathetic and
sympathetic)
6. Clinical Consideration
a. What is Kartagener Syndome and what effect will it have on sperm?
i. Immotile flagella due to decreased dynein.
b. Describe cryptochidism.
i. Testes not in the scrotum but in the body and results in abnormal sperm
production
c. What cells are compromised in testicular autoimmunity?
i. Sertoli typically prevent immune access creating the blood-testis barrier
d. Why are testicular tumours so dangerous?
i. Lymph drainage to the abdomen so a metastatic tumour can go far
e. What is the result of prostatic hypertrophy?
i. Shuts down the urethra and can lead to cancer development
Female Reproductive System
1. Ovaries
a. What is the epithelium of the ovaries?
i. Germinal epithelium- low cuboidal cells
b. What structure has a white appearance in the ovaries?
i. Tunica albuginea
c. Differentiate between the cortex and medulla with respect to function.
i. Cortex has cells, medulla has connective tissue
d. List the maturation order of ovarian follicles.
i. Oogonia
ii. Primary oocytes
iii. Primary follicles
iv. Secondary follicles
v. Mature (Graafian) follicles
e. At what stage of the cell cycle do the oocytes arrest?
i. Meiosis I
f. Primary oocytes are also known as what?
i. Primordial follicle
g. What is the significance of oocytes arresting at prophase I?

i. All the chromosomes unwound and can be read, there is twice the DNA
available to build necessary proteins for the oocytes
ii. Not immunologically dangerous because the DNA isnt significantly different
h. When do primary follicles appear?
i. At puberty
i. Differentiate between uni and multilaminar primary follicles.
i. Unilaminar- follicle cells (first layer of granulosa cells)
ii. Multilaminar- granulosa cells (more than one layer)
j. What is the function of the zona pelucida and when does it begin to develop?
i. Thick proteinacous material to block sperm, developed in primary follicles
k. What are the two types of stromal cells?
i. Theca interna and Theca externa
l. What hormones are produced from primary follicles and from what cells?
i. Theca interna and granulosa cells produce estradiol
m. What signifies the passage of a primary follicle to a secondary one?
i. The presence of an antrum
n. What is the hill of granulosa cells known as?
i. Cumulus oophorus
o. What layer surrounds the oocyte that is a secondary follicle and what type of cell is
it?
i. Corona radiata- granulosa cells
p. Which cells continue hormonal production around secondary follicles.
i. Granulosa cells
q. What are mature follicles also known as?
i. Graafian follices
r. What features are distinct in a Graafian follicle?
i. Very large antrum
ii. Well developed culumus oophorus
iii. Membrana granulosa
s. What induces oocytes to complete meiosis I?
i. LH hormone surge
t. What causes the production of the polar body?
i. Ovulation/LH hormone surge
u. At what cell cycle stage does the secondary oocytes arrest at?
i. Metaphase II
v. What structure does the Graafian follicle press against during ovulation?
i. Tunica albuginea (lose of blood supply)
w. What are released into the peritoneum during ovulation?
i. Secondary oocytes, corona radiata and Graafian follicle
x. Differentiate between the corpus hemorrhagicum and corpus luteum.
i. Corpus hemorrhagicum- blood filled region
ii. Corpus luteum- temporary endocrine gland that removes C. hemorrhagicum
y. What hormone is secreted from the corpus luteum and what effect does it have?
i. Progesterone- endometrial growth in preparation for implantation
z. Explain what happens to granulosa and theca cells in the corpus luteum.
i. Granulosa lutein cells- granulosa remnant: produce progesterone
ii. Theca lutein cells- theca interna remnant: produce progesterone, estrongen
aa.What happens to follicles that did not fully develop?
i. Atretic follicles not shed
ab.What are the two phases of the ovarian cycle?
i. Follicular and luteal phase
ac. Which hormones increase during the luteal phase?
i. Progesterone and estrogen
ad.What happens to the corpus luteum if there is no pregnancy?
i. Corpus albicans forms which is not shed but is the degenerated corpus
luteum

ae.What hormone maintains the corpus luteum?

i. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
2. Oviducts
a. What are the four regions of the uterine tubes?
i. Infundibulum- fimbriae
ii. Ampulla
iii. Isthmus
iv. Intramural region (inside uterus)
b. What is the epithelium of the uterine tube?
i. Simple columnar
c. What is produced from peg cells?
i. Seromucous compound
d. What cells are found in the mucosa epithelium of the oviducts?
i. Ciliated and peg cells
e. What are the three histological layers of the uterine tubes?
i. Mucosa, muscularis (2 layers of smooth muscle), serosa
f. What part of the uterine tube does fertilization typically occur in?
i. Ampulla
3. Uterus
a. What is the epithelium of the endometrium?
i. Simple columnar, ciliated
b. What is found in the lamina propria of the endometrium?
i. Stratum functionalis
ii. Stratum basalis
c. Which layer of the endometrium is lost during menses and which is retained?
i. Retain stratum basalis
ii. Lose stratum functionalis
d. Describe the changes that occur within the uterine glands from a proliferative to
secretory phase.
i. Proliferative phase- endometrium grows and proliferates
ii. Secretory phase- glands grow out and fill with glycogen, providing energy for
zygote
e. Describe the vasculature of the endometrium.
i. Straight arteries in the stratum basalis that coil in the stratum functionalis
f. How many layers of smooth muscles are in the uterus and what layer are they
found in?
i. 3 layers(inner, middle, outer) in the myometrium
g. What controls the myometrium?
i. Neural/hormonal (estrogen, oxytocin, prostaglandins)
h. Describe the serosal coverings of the uterus.
i. Lower 1/8 = adventitia
ii. Upper 7/8 = serosal
i. Compare the epithelium of the endocervix to the ectocervix.
i. Endocervix- simple columnar
ii. Ectocervix- non-keratinized, stratified squamous epithelium
j. Where are the cervical glands located?
i. Uterine cervix
k. What is the purpose of the mucous plug?
i. Prevent micro-organisms from entering
l. Describe the epithelium change that occurs within the cervical region.
i. From simple columnar to non-keratinized, stratified squamous epithelium
m. What occurs during the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle?
i. Stratum functionalis, tubular glands and helical arteries develop
n. What occurs during the secretory phase of the uterine cycle?
i. Stratum functionalis thickens
ii. Tubular glands and helical arteries coil

o. When is follicle stimulating hormone high?

i. Proliferative phase
p. Which hormones increase during the secretory phase?
i. Progesterone and estrogen
4. Vagina
a. Describe the epithelium of the vagina.
i. Non-keratinized, stratified squamous epithelium
b. What is the significance of the bacterial flora within the vagina?
i. Convert glycogen to lactic acid to lower vaginal pH
c. What is found in the lamina propria of the vagina?
i. Fibroelastic connective tissue and lymphocytes
d. Which layer of the vagina has neural and vascular supply?
i. Adventitia
e. What glands are found in the vagina?
i. None
f. Differentiate between the labia majora and labia minora.
i. Labia majora- skin with hair, adipose tissue and smooth muscle
ii. Labia minora- skin without hair, subcutaneous elastic fibres
g. What secretes mucous in the female external genitalia?
i. Greater vestibular glands
5. Mammary Glands
a. What type of glands are found in the mammary glands?
i. Radial glands
b. What is the arrangement of the lobes within the mammary gland?
i. 15-20 lobes, circularly arranged that converge on ducts to a single lactiferous
duct
c. What is the purpose of the lactiferous sinus.
i. Priming bulb, vacuum mechanism to pull milk to the nipple
d. Which substance is secreted by merocine secretion versus apocrine secretion?
i. Merocrine- proteins
ii. Apocrine- lipids
e. What cells are found in alveoli?
i. Myoepithelial cells to facilitate secretion
f. What cells facilitate and aid in protein and lipid secretion?
i. Myoepithelial cells
g. How does the epithelia of larger ducts compare to smaller ducts?
i. Large- stratified cuboidal epithelium
ii. Small- columnar epithelium
h. Compare the mammary glands in a resting versus lactating state.
i. Resting: ducts, few alveoli, rich connective tissue
ii. Lactating: ducts, numerous alveoli, poor connective tissue
i. What is colostrum?
i. 1st secretion from the mammary glands, high in protein and IgA
j. What hormone activates the mammary glands?
i. Estrogen/progesterone
k. What hormone initiates mammary gland development?
i. Estrogen, progesterone, glucocorticoids and somatotropin
l. After birth, which hormones activate and stimulate milk ejection?
i. Oxytocin
m. What hormone maintains milk production?
i. Prolactin
6. Pregnancy
a. What is the acrosome reaction?
i. Penetration of the zona pellucida
b. How is polyspermy prevented?
i. Cortical reaction

c. When does the oocytes complete meiosis?

i. Upon fertilization
d. What is implantation?
i. Blastocyst implanting into the uterine wall
e. What are the two cellular layers of the outer cells of the blastocyst?
i. Cytotrophoblast cells
ii. Synchytiotrophoblast cells
f. Which cells form the embryo?
i. Inner cells of the blastocyst
g. What are the three layers of the decidua?
i. Basalis, capsularis, parietalis
h. What are the two layers of the fetal placenta?
i. Frondosum and laeve
i. What is found in the placental lacunae?
i. Maternal blood
j. Describe maternal-fetal blood circulation
i. Maternal blood enters into the intervillous space in the placenta where
chorionic villi (free and anchored) enter fetus through umbilical cord
k. In the umbilical cord how many arteries and veins are found?
i. 2 arteries, 1 vein
7. Clinical Considerations
a. What is a Pap smear testing for?
i. Testing at transitional zone for cellular change to cancer
b. What hormone is a pregnancy test detecting?
i. hCG: human chorionic gonadotropin
c. What is endometriosis?
i. Cyst of the endometrium
Urinary System
1. Kidney-General
a. Where in peritoneum are the kidneys located?
i. Retroperitoneal
b. What is the orientation of the kidney hilum?
i. Faces medially
c. What structures are found within the renal sinus?
i. Renal artery, vein and ureter
d. What is found within the kindeys cortex?
i. Medullary rays
e. Describe urine flow out of the kidney.
i. Renal pyramid > columns > papilla > minor calyx > major calyx > renal
pelvis
2. Kidney-Renal Corpuscle
a. What is the function of the renal corpuscle?
i. Filters the blood
b. What type of epithelium is found in the parietal layer of Bowmans capsule?
i. Simple Squamous epithelium
c. What cells are found on top of the visceral layer in the renal corpuscle and what is
their function?
i. Podocytes- surround the capillaries forcing filtrate to pass through
d. Where are filtration slits located?
i. Space between the pedicles of the podocytes
e. Differentiate between the vascular pole and the urinary pole.
i. Vascular pole- capillary enters
ii. Urinary pole- filtrate to the convoluted tubule
f. What serves as a filtration barrier in the Bowmans capsule?

i. Thick basement membrane

g. What is Bowmans space?
i. Urinary space between the capillary tuft and the capsule
h. What substance is found in the thick basement membrane and what is its
significance?
i. Large quantity of heparin sulphate preventing negatively charged particles to
pass
i. What is the capillary tuft?
i. Glomerulus
j. What types of capillaries are found in the renal corpuscle?
i. Type II- fenestrated
k. State the characteristics of the particles able to pass through the renal corpuscle.
i. Less than 72,000 MW and positively charged (amino acids, ions, glucose)
l. What are mesangial cells?
i. Macrophage-like with angiotensin II/atrial natriuretic factor receptors
m. If a substance was to enter the corpuscle and be filtered, what structures would it
have to pass through?
i. Fenestrated capillaries > Basement membrane > Filtration slits
n. How do the fenestrated capillaries of the glomerulus differ from those elsewhere in
the body?
i. Do not have diaphragms
o. What structures in the renal corpuscle do posses a diaphragm?
i. Filtration slits- small membrane to connect filtration slit from pedicles
p. What effect does the inability of proteins to pass through the renal corpuscle have
on osmotic pressure?
i. Decreases the osmotic pressure
3. Kidney-Proximal Convoluted Tubule
a. What type of epithelium is found in the proximal convoluted tubule?
i. Simple cuboidal
b. How does the proximal convoluted tubule appear with an H&E stain?
i. Intensely eosinophilic
c. Describe the ratio between the brush border and the lumen.
i. Prominent brush border with a narrow lumen
d. What is absorbed within the thick descending tubule?
i. Na, Cl, as a result water, Glucose, amino acids, most proteins
e. What is excreted into the proximal convoluted tubule?
i. Organic solutes, toxins, drugs
f. What compound is used as a measure of urinary flow?
i. Creatine
g. Where are the fold and striations located?
i. Lateral folds and basal striations
4. Kidney-Thin Loop (of Henle)
a. What type of epithelium is found here?
i. Simple squamous
b. Describe the nuclei within the thin loop.
i. Bulge into the lumen
c. What substances are permeable in the loop?
i. Water, urea, ions
d. What effect does an increased loop length have?
i. Increases urine concentration
e. What are the two types of nephrons and how do they differ from each other?
i. Cortical nephrons- not used for concentration
ii. Juxtamedullary nephrons- concentrate urine: loops into the medulla
5. Kidney-Distal Convoluted Tubule
a. What type of epithelium is found in the distal convoluted tubule?
i. Simple cuboidal

b. Compare cell size between the distal and proximal convoluted tubules.
i. Smaller cells than proximal convoluted tubule
c. Describe the brush border to lumen ratio.
i. Low brush border to wide lumen
d. In its unaffected state, what is distal convoluted tubule impermeable to?
i. Water/urea
e. What hormone regulates activity within the thick ascending tubule and in what
capacity?
i. Aldosterone pumps sodium and chloride out of cell
f. Explain the counter-current concentration gradient.
i. Deeper into cortex the concentration is greater externally thus causing water
to leave nephron, however in the medullary region there is a reduced
external concentration thus not drawing fluid from the tubule.
g. What is the specialized region of cells and why are they so named?
i. Macula densa- cells are close with nuclei lined up and have an influence on
the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
6. Kidney-Collecting tubules/ducts
a. What is the function of the collecting tubules?
i. Concentrate urine by removing water
b. What type of epithelium is found in the collecting tubules?
i. Simple cuboidal
c. What are the regions of the tubule?
i. Cortical, medullary, papillary
d. Describe the cellular structure of the ducts.
i. Pale cytoplasm with prominent lateral cell boundaries
e. What are aquaporins and how are they regulated?
i. Allow water to leave system, regulated by antidiuretic hormone
7. Kidney-Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
a. What are the three parts of the apparatus?
i. Macula densa, juxtaglomerular cells, extraglomerular mesangial cells
b. What are produced by the juxtaglomerular cells?
i. Renin
c. What affect will increased sodium levels have?
i. Macula densa measures sodium levels and stimulates renin production
d. Explain the signal communication between organs.
i. Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I which is converted in the
lung by ACE to angiotensin II causing a stabilization in blood pressure
e. What are lacis cells?
i. Extraglomerular mesangial cells which support the complex
8. Kidney-Blood supply/Venous Drainage/Lymphatics/Nerves
a. Describe the flow of blood into and out of the kidney.
i. Renal > segmental > lobar > interlobar > arcuate > interlobular > afferent
arterioles > glomerular capillaries > efferent arterioles > peritubular capillary
network/vasa recta
b. What is the corticomedullary junction?
i. Arcuate arteries- spot of distribution
c. What is the function of the vasa recta?
i. Pick up ions
d. Where does erythropoietin production occur and what affect does it have?
i. In the arterioles and capillaries, conversion of vitamin D
e. Describe venous drainage from within the kidney out.
i. In the cortex- stellate > interlobular > arcuate > (now in medulla) interlobar
> lobar > segmental > renal
f. What two areas of the kidney have lymphatic drainage?
i. Cortical and medullary
g. What affect does sympathetic innervation have on the kidney?

i. Vasoconstriction
h. Is neural control necessary for kidney function?
i. No
9. Kidney-Urinary Drainage
a. Describe the path of urine formation from the renal corpuscle to the renal pelvis.
i. Renal corpuscle > proximal convoluted tubule > thick descending limb > thin
loop (of Henle ) > thick ascending limb > distal convoluted tubule > cortical
collective tubule > medullary collecting ducts > papillary collecting ducts (of
Bellini) > renal papilla > minor calyx > major calyx > renal pelvis
b. What is the area cribrosa?
i. Papillary collecting ducts- lots of ducts present that criss-cross
c. Where does the transitional epithelium begin?
i. At the minor calyx
d. How does the concentration of urine differ at the renal corpuscle, the minor calyx
and renal pelvis.
i. Watery at renal corpuscle, but full concentrated at minor calyx
10.Ureters
a. What type of epithelium lines the mucosa?
i. Transitional
b. What type of connective tissue is found?
i. Dense irregular
c. What is the permeability of the ureters?
i. Impermeable to water and salts
d. How many layers of muscle is present and what is its type?
i. 2- inner longitudinal and outer circular
e. How does the upper 2/3 differ from the lower 1/3 of the ureter?
i. Lower 1/3 has a third outer longitudinal layer
f. How does the ureter compare to the seminal vesicle?
i. There are only two layers of smooth muscle in the ureter and a transitional
epithelium
11.Bladder
a. Describe the mucosa of the bladder.
i. Folded like an accordion
b. What is the epithelium of the bladder
i. Transitional
c. Describe the muscularis layer of the bladder.
i. 2 obliquely, interlaced layers of smooth muscle
d. What type of sphincter is present at the bladder?
i. Internal involuntary sphincter of smooth muscle (located at trigone base)
e. What is micturition?
i. Urination
f. Which fibres sense bladder distension?
i. Sensory fibres
g. Which fibres are involved in urination?
i. Parasympathetic (S2-S4)
12.Urethra
a. Describe the sexual dimorphism that exists between male and female urethras.
i. Female is 4-5 cm, while male is 15-20 cm
b. What is the epithelium within the female urethra?
i. Transitional or non-keratinized stratified squamous
c. What glands are found in the female urethral lamina propria?
i. Mucous urethral glands (of Littre)
d. What type of muscle composes the external urinary sphincter?
i. Skeletal
e. What are the three sections of the male urethra?
i. Prostatic, membranous, penile

f.

What is the epithelium of the male prostatic urethra?

i. Transitional
g. What structures are found in the male prostatic urethra?
i. Prostatic and ejaculatory ducts, with prostatic utricle
h. Where is the membranous urethra located?
i. Within the urogenital diaphragm
i. What type of epithelium is found in the membranous urethra?
i. Stratified columnar/ pseudostratified columnar
j. Describe the musculature of the membranous urethra.
i. Skeletal muscle sphincter
k. Where is the penile urethra located?
i. Within the corpus spongiosum
l. Compare the epithelium in the proximal and distal penile spongy urethra.
i. Proximal- stratified pseudostratified columnar
ii. Distal- non-keratinized stratified squamous
m. What is the navicular fossa?
i. Anatomical groove right before urethral orifice of penis
n. Where are the male mucous urethral glands of Littre located?
i. In the lamina propria
13.Clinical Considerations
a. What is glomerulonephritis?
i. Inflammation of the glomerulus, leads to protein and red blood cells in the
urine
b. What are kidney stones and what are the three points of constriction?
i. Calcium oxalate stones: renal pelvis, trigone (internal sphincter), external
sphincter
c. Where can a transplanted kidney be placed in the recipient?
i. Anywhere with a localized blood supply and venous drainage
Respiratory System
1. Introduction
a. What are the two portions of the respiratory system?
i. Conducting and respiratory
b. What structures compose the conducting portion of the respiratory system?
i. Nasal cavity > nasopharynx > larynx > trachea > bronchi > bronchioles >
terminal bronchioles
c. What structures compose the respiratory portion of the system?
i. Respiratory bronchioles > alveolar ducts > alveoli
d. What are the five functions of the respiratory system?
i. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
ii. Acid-base balace
iii. Body temperature regulation
iv. Olfaction
v. Filtration and immune defense
2. Respiratory Epithelium
a. What type of epithelium is found is found in the respiratory system?
i. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
b. What are the five types of cells found in the epithelium?
i. Ciliated columnar, goblet, brush, basal and small granule
c. Describe the quantity of goblet cells from the nasal cavity through to the respiratory
bronchioles.
i. Decreasing
d. Describe the trend in elastic fibres, glands, goblet cells and smooth muscle
throughout the system.
i. Elastic fibres: increase
ii. Glands: decrease

iii.
iv.
e. What
i.

Goblet cells: decrease

Smooth muscle: increasing
is the trend in epithelium throughout the respiratory system?
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar (to bronchioles), ciliated simple columnar
to ciliated simple cuboidal
3. Conducting Portion
a. What type of epithelium is found in the nasal cavity?
i. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar
b. By what means does the nasal cavity warm and humidify the air?
i. Counter current heat exchanger
c. What are swell bodies?
i. Large vascular spaces that will swell and shut down half the nasal cavity
allowing for regeneration
d. Explain the function of the glandular matrix.
i. Catches molecules and washes off or clean cells to allow for new smells
e. What is the purpose of the paranasal sinuses?
i. Air filled sinus with respiratory epithelium that increases in mucous
production when sick
f. Differentiate between conchae and turbinates.
i. Conchae- bone
ii. Turbinates- bone and epithelium
g. What are the false vocal folds?
i. Vestibular folds and have a respiratory epithelium
h. What type of epithelium is found on the vocal folds and why?
i. Stratified squamous epithelium due to the increase amount of air passing
through the folds
i. What type of epithelium is found in the trachea?
i. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar
j. What type of cartilage and collagen is located in the trachea?
i. Hyaline cartilage with type II collagen
k. Differentiate between primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi.
i. Primary (2)- each long; Secondary (5)-lobar; Tertiary (18)-segmental
l. How do brochioles differ from bronchi?
i. No cartilage present in bronchioles
m. Where is a changing epithelium observed?
i. Bronchioles
n. Which level of bronchi segmentation supplies the bronchopulmonary segments?
i. Tertiary
o. What is BALT?
i. Bronchus-Associated Lymphoid Tissue: diffuse lymph nodules for lymph
activity
p. State the function and location of Clara cells.
i. Simple cuboidal epithelium; primarily involved with protection
4. Respiratory Portion
a. What is characteristic of the respiratory bronchioles?
i. Alveoli are present
b. In what tissue are sticks with smooth muscle and alveolar out-pocketings found?
i. Alveolar ducts- ring of smooth muscle
c. What types of fibres assist the lungs in recoil and with volume changes?
i. Reticular and elastic fibres
d. What cells predominate the alveolar surface?
i. Type I (squamous alveolar) cells
e. What is found on the lateral border between type I cells?
i. Desmosomes and occluding junctions
f. What cells are found in the alveoli?

i. Type I (squamous alveolar), type II (septal/great alveolar), capillary

endothelial, alveolar macrophages, fibroblasts and macrophages
g. What is the function of alveoli?
i. Communication of blood with air
h. What is the function of type II cells?
i. Precursor for type I and type II cells
ii. Make lung surfactant to keep alveoli open
i. Where surfactant produced and what is its purpose?
i. Vesicular foamy cytoplasm of lamellar bodies in type II cells to keep alveoli
open
j. In what regard are alveolar macrophages indicative of heart failure?
i. Have red blood cells moving backward into the lung and see iron
accumulation= hemisideron
k. From what cells are type I and type II cells produced?
i. Type II cells
l. Which cells are characterized by a foamy cytoplasm?
i. Type II cells
m. What types of capillaries are found within alveoli?
i. Type I capillaries
n. How is debris removed from the lung alveoli?
i. Phagocytize by alveolar macrophages
o. What is the predominant cell in the alveoli?
i. Fibroblasts and mast cells
5. Accessory Tissue
a. How many types of pleura are present with the respiratory system and what is its
function?
i. 2 types and allow two surfaces to rub over one another
b. Which arteries supply the lung with nutritional blood?
i. Bronchial arteries
c. What is BALT and how does it differ from a lymph node?
i. Bronchus- Associated Lymphatic Tissue- not directly connected to lymphatic
system
6. Clinical Considerations
a. Which structures constrict in an asthmatic attack?
i. Bronchi/bronchioles- limiting the air into the system
b. Describe the sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation of the lung.
i. Sympathetic causes dilation, parasympathetic causes constriction
c. What is the deficiency in Respiratory Distress Syndrome?
i. Inability to produce surfactant
d. What is the alveolar detriment present in an individual with emphysema?
i. Loss of alpha-1 trypsin that regulates elastic compounds. There is a break
down of alveolar walls reducing the surface area.
e. What effect does smoking have on the epithelium, cilia and mucous production?
i. Reduces cilia, increases mucous and goblet cells and a change in epithelium
to stratified squamous
f. A patient with Kartagener syndrome has what loss of function?
i. Immotile cilia syndrome, mucous movement away from alveoli impaired with
the dynein arms non-functional.
Sensory System:
1. Introduction
a. What are the components of the light pathway?
i. Cornea, Anterior chamber, pupil, lens, vitreous body, retina
b. What are the four aspects of the middle ear?
i. Malleus, incus, stapes and tensor tympani/stapedius muscles
c. What glands are located in the external auditory meatus?

i. Ceruminous glands
d. What is the tympanic membrane?
i. Thin membranous structure that receives sound waves
e. What are the two types of photoreceptors?
i. Rods and cones
f. What composes the vestibular apparatus?
i. Semicircular ducts and macula
g. What is found in the cochlea?
i. Fluid
Sensory System: Eye
2. Fibrous Tunic
a. What are the two components of the fibrous tunic?
i. Sclera and Cornea
b. What type of collagen is found in the sclera?
i. Type I
c. Where does the dura mater extend to in the eye?
i. In the sclera onto the optic nerve
d. Describe the vasculature of the cornea.
i. Avascular
e. What type of epithelium is found in the cornea?
i. Corneal- stratified squamous, non-keratinized
f. What is the thickest layer of the cornea?
i. Stroma
g. Where are type I collagen fibres found?
i. Bowmans membrane, stroma, sclera
h. What is corneal endothelium?
i. Simple squamous
i. State the name of the thick basement membrane in the cornea.
i. Descemets membrane
j. During laser eye surgery, what component of the eye is altered?
i. Stroma lasered to affect light diffraction
k. What is the purpose of the fibrous tunic?
i. Support
l. What is the conjunct terra?
i. Clear film over eye
m. Where is the fibrillar lamina?
i. Bowmans membrane
n. What is the function of the corneal endothelium?
i. Dehydrate the stroma
3. Vascular Tunic
a. Where is the choroid located?
i. Beneath the sclera
b. What is Bruchs membrane?
i. Separate choroid from retina
c. Describe the cause of the pigmentation in the choroid.
i. Melanocytes
d. What is the ciliary body?
i. Ring of muscle
e. What are the suspensory ligaments of the lens?
i. Ciliary processes
f. Where is the aqueous humor produced?
i. In the ciliary body drained into the canal of Schlemm
g. What type of muscle is the ciliary muscle?
i. Smooth muscle
h. What type of fibres support the lens?
i. Zonule fibres

i.

What increases in glaucoma?

i. Intraocular pressure
j. What type of cells form the pupil?
i. Heavily pigmented cells
k. Differentiate between the parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation of the iris.
i. Parasympathetic constrict pupillae; sympathetic dilate pupillae
l. How is eye colour determined?
i. Melanocyte density
m. What is the shape of the lens?
i. Biconvex disc
n. What type of collagen is found in the lens capsule?
i. Type IV collagen
o. What type of epithelium is found subcapsularly?
i. Simple cuboidal
p. State the function of crystallins.
i. Refract light appropriately
q. Where is the refractile gel located?
i. Vitreous body
r. What are the 4 spaces in the vascular tunic?
i. Anterior and posterior chamber, pupil, vitreous space
4. Neural Tunic
a. What are the ten distinct layers of the neural tunic?
i. Inner limiting membrane, optic nerve fiber layer, ganglion cell layer, inner
plexiform layer, inner nuclear layer, outer plexiform layer, outer nuclear
layer, outer limiting membrane, layer of rods and cones, pigment epithelium.
b. In which layer is the light sensitive end found?
i. 9- layer of rods and cones
c. Where are the ganglion cell nuclei located?
i. 3-Ganglion cell layer
d. Where is the support layer?
i. 10-pigment epithelium
e. Where are the nuclei of the rods and cones?
i. 7- outer nuclear layer
f. What is the function of the amacrine nuclei?
i. Interact between rods and cones-integrative.
g. Explain the role of vitamin A in the retina.
i. Nutrition
h. Differentiate between rods and cones.
i. Cones are located in the centre and detect colours; rods are on the periphery
and detect colour.
i. What is in the macula lutea?
i. Cone central; highest density of cones
j. What are the neuroglial supporting cells?
i. Muller cells, define internal to external limiting membrane
k. Where is the blind spot?
i. Where the nerve fibres converge at the optic disc
l. Explain the orientation of rods and cones in the retina.
i. Rods on the periphery, cones on the centre
5. Accessory Structures
a. What is the conjunctiva?
i. Clear, fluid-like area; keep the inside of the eyelid moist
b. What allows the eyelids to open and close?
i. Tarsal plates and muscles attached to it
c. What type of epithelium is found in the conjunctiva?
i. Stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
d. What is the lacrimal apparatus?

i. Tear production; lacrimal gland > cannaliculi > sac > nasolacrimal duct
e. Where are the tarsal plates?
i. Cartilage that gives the eyelid its shape
Sensory System-Ear
1. External Ear
a. What is the tympanic membrane composed of?
i. 2 layers of epithelium with dense connective tissue
b. What is produces ear wax?
i. Ceruminous glands
2. Middle Ear
a. What are the three ossicles?
i. Malleus, incus, stapes
b. Explain the dual innervation of the ear.
i. Tensor tympani (CN V3), Stapedius (CNVII)
c. Differentiate between the oval window and the round window.
i. Oval window- Location of the stapes; wave starts at oval window and ends at
round window
d. What is the Eustachian tube?
i. Auditory tube-connects the pharynx with the middle ear
e. What is the function of the stapedius muscle?
i. Smallest muscle in the body, protects from very loud sounds
3. Internal Ear
a. Differentiate between the bony and membranous labyrinth.
i. Bony- perilymphatic space/ membranous- endolymphatic space
b. What are the three components of the bony labyrinth?
i. Semicircular canals, vestibule, cochlea
c. What is the function of the semicircular canals?
i. Balance
d. What is the purpose of the semicircular ducts?
i. Head movement (shaking)
e. Differentiate between the round and the oval window.
i. Oval= in; round = out
f. What are neuroepithelial cells?
i. Hair cells that sense head movement when fluid causes them to bend
g. What is the scala vestibule/ scala tympani?
i. Filled with perilymph meet at the helicotrema (scala vestibule up, scala
tympani out)
h. What is the cochlear duct filled with?
i. Endolymph
i. What is the helicotrema?
i. The tip of the cochlea
j. What is Reissners membrane?
i. Vestibular membrane in the cochlear duct
k. Where is the endolymph made?
i. Stria vascularis
l. What is the organ of Corti?
i. Neuroepithelial (hair) cells; supporting cells
m. What is the cristae ampullares?
i. Inner hill of hair in the semicircular ducts
n. Where are keratin filaments and proteoglycan found?
i. Tectorial membrane
o. What is the function of the macula?
i. Open space, gelatinous layer involved in detecting acceleration
p. How does high pitch differ from low pitch in terms of location on the cochlea?
i. High pitch reaches higher in the cochlea; low pitch is not as far in the cochlea

4. Clinical Considerations
a. What is glaucoma?
i. Increased intraocular pressure
b. What are cataracts and how are they treated?
i. Thickening of the lens= blurry vision, replaced with a plastic lens
c. What is conductive deafness?
i. Muscle or bone blown out= mechanical problem
Cell Biology: Cell Cycle and Its Control
1. The Cell Cycle
a. How long does interphase last?
i. ~23 hours
b. What phase are cells not in the cell cycle said to be in?
i. G0
c. What occurs in G1 phase?
i. Presynthesis, 1st check point
d. In which phase does DNA synthesis occur?
i. S phase
e. Where is the 2nd check point found?
i. G2 phase
f. What is M-phase?
i. 1 hr, metaphase checkpoint
g. When do the chromatin coil?
i. Prophase
h. What is the metaphase plate?
i. The chromosomes lining up along the centre of the cell
i. When is the nuclear envelope and nucleolus lost?
i. Metaphase
j. What is cytokinesis?
i. Division of cytoplasm/organelles
k. What filaments constrict around the cells?
i. Actin
l. What are the sister chromatid moving towards?
i. Centrioles at the poles
2. Cell Cycle and Control
a. What is checked at the 1st check point?
i. If the cell is able to divide
b. What is checked at the 2nd check point?
i. DNA replication correctly occurred
c. How is the cell cycle regulated?
i. Phosphorylation
d. What types of molecules are associated with intrinsic factors?
i. Cylins (cyclically activated kinases), dependent and independent kinases
e. What are cyclins?
i. Cyclically activated kinases- present at various times in the cycle
f. How do CDKs differ from CKIs?
i. CDKs are dependent on cyclin, while CKI are independent and act on CDKs
g. Explain the significance of p21.
i. Inhibits all CDKs
h. How are CKIs broken down?
i. Ubiquitination
i. What are the 6 extrinsic factors that regulate cell cycle?
i. Environment, Serum growth factors, Retinoblastoma, p53, Damage sensors,
Senescence
j. Give an example of serum growth factors.
i. Erythropoietin, PDGF, EGF, NGF, TGF-beta

k. At what point does p53 stop division?

i. G1
l. What is cellular senescence?
i. Cellular aging, loss of telomeres
m. What is the effect of phosphorylation of Rb?
i. Inactivates Rb, releasing its ability to stop the cell cycle
3. Cell Death
a. Differentiate between necrosis and apoptosis.
i. Necrosis is pathological death-wounds/tissue damage; apoptosis is cell
suicide
b. What induces inflammation in necrosis?
i. Influx of macrophages engulfing the debris
c. Differentiate between the external and internal signal of apoptosis.
i. External: Fas ligand binding to Fas protein. Internal: Cytochrome C from
mitochondria
d. Where is phosphatidylserine found in an apoptotic cell?
i. On the outer leaflet of the cell membrane
e. Describe the blebs found in an apoptotic cell.
i. Membrane bound cellular fragments
4. Clinical Considerations
a. Why is cancer referred to as a multi-step disease?
i. Takes more than one assault to cause the onset of cancer
b. Explain the effect of human papilloma virus on the genome.
i. Inactivates p53 and Rb= stimulating the host to divide, forcing the cell to
keep taking the virus with it during the divisions. Produces E6 to bind p53
causing its degradation, produces E7 to bind Rb and prevent its ability to bind
to transcription factor E2F-DP.