MCU-FDT MEDICAL FOUNDATION

COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
DEPARTMENT OF INTERNAL MEDICINE
DOCTOR-PATIENT RELATIONSHIP
Name: __________________________
Quiz # 1 1st Semester

Date: ______________

Dr. N. Collantes Learning to Communicate

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Choose the best answer. Each item is worth 1
percent. Write your answer in the answer sheet.
1. What is the part of the getting ready for the interview that brings a deepening
personal awareness to our work with patients and is one of the most rewarding
aspects of providing patient care:
A. Reviewing the chart
C. Taking notes
B. Self-Reflection
D. Setting the goals of the interview
2. The term for simple repetition of the patients words which encourages the patient to
express both factual details and feelings is:
A. Facilitation
C. Echoing
B. Empathic response
D. Validation
3. Which action during note taking when interviewing patients is appropriate?
A. Maintain eye contact on the writing pad
B. Jot down only short phrases or words
C. Use pencil
D. Complete the final format of the interview in front of the patient
4. The first in the sequence of the interview is:
A. Inviting the patients story
B. Planning
C. Creating a shared understanding of the problem
D. Greeting the patient and establishing rapport
5. The best example to start the interview is:
A. What is your problem?
B. How can I help you?

C. Where is the pain?

D. Are you alright?

II. Multiple True or False. Tell whether each letter in the responses is True or False in
relation to the stem. Each letter is worth 0.25 %. Write the whole word True or False
in the answer sheet provided.
6. Summarization gives the following indications:
A. That you have been listening carefully to the patient
B. It identifies what you know and still do not know about the patients history.
C. Shows empathy
D. It is a sign of reassurance
7. After greeting the patient, it is best to:
A. Introduce self and define role
B. Shake hands
C. Call children by their first name
D. Call adults by sweetheart or granny

8. Which appearance of the doctor can convey trust and improve relationship?
A. Clean nails
B. Tight and low waist pants
C. Blue highlights of the hair (hair dye)
D. Name tag
9. When there are other visitors inside the room, it is best to:
A. Maintain confidentiality
B. Greet all visitors and inquire about names and relationships with patients
C. Ask everybody to leave the room
D. Ask patients permission for the interview
10. When expanding and clarifying the medical history of the patient, it is best to:
A. Use understandable language
B. Never use close ended type of questioning
C. Go back and forth from open ended to close ended questioning
D. Ask what then to establish chronology of events
Dr. Padilla - The Comprehensive Physical Examination
11. What is the most appropriate sequence of basic techniques when examining the
abdomen?
A. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C. Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion
D. Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
12. What basic technique of physical examination is involved when you perform the
General Survey?
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion
13. What basic technique of physical examination is obviously NOT performed on the
region of the head?
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion
14. What part of the hand is the most appropriate to use when feeling for the
temperature of a body part?
A. Palms
C. Dorsum of the hand
B. Finger tips
D. Back of the fingers
15. The finger tips are best used to palpate for:
A. Contour
C. Temperature
B. Symmetry
D. Texture
16. The finger that is interposed between the area to be percussed and the finger
creating the vibrations is known as:
A. Hammer
C. Pleximeter
B. Immediate
D. Plexor
Match the following Percussion Notes to the Appropriate Body area where each is
normally elicited.
__ B__ 17. Dull
A. Over the gastric air bubble
__ C__ 18. Flat
B. Over the liver
__ D__ 19. Renonant
C. Over the thigh
__ A__ 20. Tympanic
D. Over the normal expanded lung

Dr. Padilla The Medical History

21. Which of the following introductory materials in the health history is a judgment
made at the end of the interaction and not at the beginning?
A. Identifying data
C. Source of the history
B. Reliability
D. Source of referral
22. The main part of the medical history start with the patients:
A. Identifying data
C. Present illness
B. Chief complaints
D. Past history
23. Which part of the medical history will help you assess the patients risks of
developing certain diseases?
A. Present illness
C. Family history
B. Past history
D. Psychosocial history
Enumerate the 7 characteristics of a symptom that must be elicited:
24. Location
25. Quality
26. Quantity or severity
27. Timing
28. Setting in which it occur
29. Aggravating / Relieving factors
30. Associated manifestations

G O O D L U CK !

MCU-FDT MEDICAL FOUNDATION

COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
DEPARTMENT OF INTERNAL MEDICINE
DOCTOR-PATIENT RELATIONSHIP
Name: __________________________
Prelims 1st Semester

Date: July 17, 2006

Dr. N. Collantes Learning to Communicate

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Choose the best answer. Each item is worth 1
percent. Write your answer in the answer sheet.
1. The best response to show empathy is to say:
A. I understand
C. Dont bother
B. Yes
D. You did it right
2. Which part of the interview indicates to the patient that you have been listening
carefully?
A. Echoing
C. Facilitation
B. Summary
D. Exploring
3. What is the part of the getting ready for the interview that brings a deepening
personal awareness to our work with patients and is one of the most rewarding
aspects of providing patient care:
A. Reviewing the chart
C. Taking notes
B. Self-Reflection
D. Setting the goals of the interview
4. The term for simple repetition of the patients words which encourages the patient to
express both factual details and feelings is:
A. Facilitation
C. Echoing
B. Empathic response
D. Validation
5. Which action during note taking when interviewing patients is appropriate?
A. Maintain eye contact on the writing pad
B. Jot down only short phrases or words
C. Use pencil
D. Complete the final format of the interview in front of the patient
6. The first in the sequence of the interview is:
A. Inviting the patients story
B. Planning
C. Creating a shared understanding of the problem
D. Greeting the patient and establishing rapport
7. The best example to start the interview is:
A. What is your problem?
B. How can I help you?

C. Where is the pain?

D. Are you alright?

II. Multiple True or False. Tell whether each letter in the responses is True or False in
relation to the stem. Each letter is worth 0.25 %. Write the whole word True or False
in the answer sheet provided.
8. Which verbal cues allow patient to go tell their stories spontaneously?
T A. Go on
T B. I see
T C. Uh uh
F D. Make it quick

9. Which non-verbal cues establish rapport?

F A. Look at the clock
F B. Yawn
T C. Lean forward with arms open
F D. Frown
10. The patient-centered interview explores the patients
T A. Perspective
T B. Point of view
T C. Perception
T D. Outlook
11. Which are examples of patient-centered interview?
T A. Why would you like a chest x ray done to you?
F B. You have postponed your check up for so long that your condition has
worsened and you are dying
T C. What do you think caused your diarrhea?
T D. What do you feel when taking the antihypertensive drug that I
prescribed?
12. Which non- verbal communications improve rapport?
T A. Match your position with that of the patient
F B. Closed arms
T C. Mirror the patients tone, volume, and pacing of language
T D. Placing of hands to patients arm
13. Which statements are true of communication skills?
T A. It is a series of learned skills
F B. Shy doctors will never learn to communicate well with patients
F C. Communication skills learned in medical school can easily be forgotten
F D. Different nationalities need different communication skills technique
14. Some of the options for clarifying the patients story are:
F A. Asking questions one after the other
F B. Directing questions from specific to general
T C. Offering multiple choices for answers
T D. Clarifying what the patient means
15. Doctors have to learn to communicate well because
T A. Most medico-legal cases are due to poor communication with patients.
F B. Good communication is equated to good monetary reward from your
practice
T C. Communication improves rapport with patients
T D. Communication is the unit of medical time with patients
16. Summarization gives the following indications:
T A. That you have been listening carefully to the patient
T B. It identifies what you know and still do not know about the patients history.
F C. Shows empathy
F D. It is a sign of reassurance
17. After greeting the patient, it is best to:
T A. Introduce self and define role
T B. Shake hands
T C. Call children by their first name
F D. Call adults by sweetheart or granny

18. Which appearance of the doctor can convey trust and improve relationship?
T A. Clean nails
F B. Tight and low waist pants
F C. Blue highlights of the hair (hair dye)
T D. Name tag
Dr. Padilla - The Comprehensive Physical Examination
19. In doing percussion, the swing of the plexor is from the:
A. Elbow
C. Shoulder
B. Finger
D. Wrist
20. Which of the following physical examination findings can be elicited by both
Inspection and Palpation?
A. Consistency
C. Resonance
B. Events
D. Temperature
21. Which of the following habits should you develop when performing the physical
examination?
A. Constantly move and change your position during the examination
B. Do not talk to the patient through out the examination
C. Instruct the patient before you examine
D. Use each instrument at least five times
22. The measure of loudness of a sound heard during auscultation is known as:
A. Duration
C. Intensity
B. Frequency
D. Quality
23. Which of the following physical examination findings is included under Vital Signs?
A. Gait
C. Respiratory rate
B. Level of consciousness
D. State of Health
24. The Bell of the stethoscope is best used to listen for:
A. High-frequency sounds
C. Both high and low frequency sounds
B. Low-frequency sounds
D. None of the above
25. Which of the following physical examination findings on Inspection is hard to seen
under fluorescent light?
A. Cyanosis of the lips and fingers
C. Erythema of the skin
B. Gross pallor
D. Subtle yellowing of the sclerae
26. Soft, rubbery, stony-hard, flaccid are examples of descriptions that ascertain:
A. Consistency
C. Events
B. Dimensions
D. Texture
27. The ophthalmoscope is a special instrument that is used for:
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion
28. What is the most appropriate sequence of basic techniques when examining the
abdomen?
A. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C. Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion
D. Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
29. What basic technique of physical examination is involved when you perform the
General Survey?
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion

30. What basic technique of physical examination is obviously NOT performed on the
region of the head?
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion
31. What part of the hand is the most appropriate to use when feeling for the
temperature of a body part?
A. Palms
C. Dorsum of the hand
B. Finger tips
D. Back of the fingers
32. The finger tips are best used to palpate for:
A. Contour
C. Temperature
B. Symmetry
D. Texture
33. The finger that is interposed between the area to be percussed and the finger
creating the vibrations is known as:
A. Hammer
C. Pleximeter
B. Immediate
D. Plexor
Dr. Padilla The Medical History
34. Problems that the patient has not mentioned can be identified and ferreted out in
the:
A. Past history
C. Family history
B. Current Health Status
D. Review of Systems
35. What portion of the medical history is an outline or narrative description that
captures the importance and relevant information about the patient as a person?
A. Past history
C. Current Health Status
B. Family history
D. Psychosocial history
36. Mang Jose is a 50 year old male with a history of cigarette smoking since the age
of 20. He consumes 1 pack per day. How many pack year smoker is Mang Jose?
A. 10
C. 30
B. 20
D. 40
37. When conducting the medical interview, you should sit just outside the patients
private space. How many feet away from the patient is the private space?
A. 2
C. 4
B. 3
D. 6
38. What part of the medical history are information regarding childhood illnesses,
accidents, injuries, and operation included under?
A. Present illness
C. Current Health Status
B. Past history
D. Psychosocial history
39. Which of the following statements regarding the uses of the medical record is
FALSE?
A. It is a log of patient care
B. It is a common record for everyones perusal
C. It is a medical-legal document
D. It is a research and education tool
40. Which part of the medical history would you inquire about the emotional and
psychological impact of an illness by asking how the patient has reacted to the
symptoms and about fears and concerns regarding their cause?
A. Present illness
C. Current Health Status
B. Past History
D. Psychosocial history

41. Which of the following introductory materials in the health history is a judgment
made at the end of the interaction and not at the beginning?
A. Identifying data
C. Source of the history
B. Reliability
D. Source of referral
42. The main part of the medical history start with the patients:
A. Identifying data
C. Present illness
B. Chief complaints
D. Past history
43. Which part of the medical history will help you assess the patients risks of
developing certain diseases?
A. Present illness
C. Family history
B. Past history
D. Psychosocial history
44-50. Enumerate the 7 characteristics of a symptom that must be elicited:

MCU-FDT MEDICAL FOUNDATION

COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
DEPARTMENT OF INTERNAL MEDICINE
DOCTOR-PATIENT RELATIONSHIP
Name: __________________________
Quiz # 2 1st Semester
Test I:

Date: August 14, 2006

Choose the best answer.

1. Which part of the heart occupies mostly the anterior portion?

A. Right atrium
C. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
D. Left ventricle
2. The point of maximal impulse is produced by:
A. Left atrial contraction
C. Aortic contraction
B. Left ventricular contraction
D. Left pulmonary vein
3. The right heart border is formed by:
A. Right pulmonary artery
B. Right atrium

C. Right ventricle
D. Superior vena cava

4. Which of the following carry unoxygenated blood?

A. Pulmonary artery
C. Aorta
B. Pulmonary vein
D. Brachial artery
5. The systolic blood pressure corresponds to:
A. Left atrial contraction pressure
C. Left atrial pressure
B. Maximal left ventricular pressure
D. Jugular venous pressure
6. The aortic valve closes when:
A. The left ventricular pressure drops below aortic pressure
B. Blood flows from the left ventricle to the aorta
C. Left atrial pressure exceeds the left ventricular pressure
D. Right ventricular pressure exceeds left ventricular pressure
7. S4 coincides with what cardiac event?
A. Ventricular contraction
B. Closure of the semi-lunar valves

C. Closure of the atrio-ventricular valves

D. Atrial contraction

8. In a normal young individual, split S2 can be accentuated by:

A. Valsalva maneuver
C. Inspiration
B. Squatting
D. Left lateral decubitus position
9. Murmurs of the mitral valve can be best heard in the:
A. 4th Left sternal border
C. Apex only
B. 2nd Right sternal border
D. Apex to base
10. Propagation of the electrical impulse in the myocardium is delayed in which of the
following?
A. SA node
C. Bundle of His
B. AV node
D. Left bundle branch
11. The QRS complex of an ECG tracing corresponds to:
A. Atrial depolarization
C. Atrial repolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
D. Ventricular repolarization

12. The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle for every 1 minute is called:
A. Stroke volume
C. Cardiac output
B. Ejection volume
D. Afterload
13. The brief period where the Korotkoff sounds disappear while releasing the cuff
during blood pressure taking corresponds to:
A. Systole
C. Pulse pressure
B. Diastole
D. Auscultatory gap
14. Which of the following does not describe chest pain of angina pectoris?
A. Pain is described as squeezing or heaviness on the chest
B. It is related to physical exertion
C. It radiates to the left side of the neck and to the left arm
D. The pain is described as sharp and radiates to the back or to the neck
15. The pulses of atrial fibrillation is described as:
A. Transient skips and flip flops
B. Rapid regular beating of sudden onset and offset
C. Irregularly irregular
D. Rapid regular rate of 120 bpm starting and stopping gradually
16. A sudden episode of dyspnea that awakens a patient from sleep is called:
A. Orthopnea
C. Platypnea
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D. Hyperventilation
17. Which of the following is a characteristic of the JVP that is associated with
obstructive lung disease?
A. JVP is elevated at inspiration and collapses at expiration
B. JVP collapses in squatting position
C. JVP is elevated at expiration and collapses at inspiration
D. JVP becomes elevated during Valsalva maneuver
18. Decreased amplitude of the carotid pulse is due to:
A. Atherosclerotic narrowing of the carotids
B. Enlarged thyroid gland
C. Prominent sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. Recumbent position
19. Pulsus alternanns is described as:
A. Small thready pulse
B. Bounding pulse

C. Drop in BP >10mmHg during inspiration

D. Bigeminal pulsed

20. The best positions for examination of the heart includes all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Supine
C. Leaning forward
B. Left lateral decubitus
D. Right lateral decubitus
21. The normal location of the PMI is:
A. Left 5th interspace along the parasternal line
B. Left 5th interspace along the anterior axillary line
C. Left 5th interspace along the midclavicular line
D. Left 5th interspace along the midaxillary line
22. A carotid bruit with or without as thrill in a middle-age or older indicates:
A. Aortic murmur
C. Kinking of the carotid artery
B. Narrowing of the carotid artery
D. Complete obstruction of the carotid
Artery

23. Lateral displacement of the PMI can be seen in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. Cardiomyopathy
B. Pregnancy
D. Ischemic heart disease
24. The P2 is best heard in which area?
A. Right second interspace parasternal line
B. Left second insterspace parasternal line
C. Left 4th interspace parasternal line
D. Left interspace 5th midaxillary line
25. A loud murmur that is accompanied by a thrill is grade:
A. III
C. V
B. IV
D. VI
For Nos. 26 to 30.
Multiple TRUE or FALSE. Write the letter T if the statement in the lettered items is true
and F if the statement is false.
26. Events during diastole:
A. Ventricular pressure drops below 5mmHg
B. Blood flows from the vena cava to the atrium
C. Blood flows from the atrium to the ventricles
D. During late diastole, ventricular pressure rises slightly due to atrial contraction
27. Factors that increase arterial pressure:
A. Distensibility of the aorta and the large arteries
B. Peripheral vascular resistance
C. Right ventricular stroke volume
D. Volume of blood in the arterial system
28. The a wave of the jugular pulsation
A. Occurs right before S2
B. Is accentuated by tricuspid stenosis
C. Occurs during diastole
D. Disappears in atrial fibrillatios
29. Characteristics of Carotid Pulses include:
A. Rarely palpable
B. A more vigorous thrust with single outward component
C. Pulsations are not eliminated by pressure
D. Level of pulsations unchanged by position
30. Factors that increase preload
A. Inspiration
B. Exercise
C. Dilated right ventricular heart failure
D. Exhalation