1). From 7:00 AM to 11:00 AM it rained 2.25 inches.

At 11:00 AM the rain

increased to fall at a rate of 1.25 in. every two hours. How many inches of
rain landed on the ground by 5:00 PM?
a) 7
b) 9.75
c) 6
d) 3.25
e) 7.125
2). The owner of a hobby store needed to calculate the percentage of
customers who purchase wood glue. Upon completing his survey, he
noticed that 60% of the people that entered his store purchased an item.
Of those customers, 15 percent purchased wood glue. What percent of the
people that entered the store purchased wood glue?
a) 8%
b) 7%
c) 9%
d) 12%
e) 15%
3) If 1/x = 3.5. then 1/(x+2) =
a) 7/9
b) 16/7
c) 7/16
d) 9/7
e) 7/4
4) A store owner is packing small radios into larger boxes that measure 25
in. by 42 in. by 60 in. If the measurement of each radio is 7 in. by 6 in. by
5 in., then how many radios can be placed in the box?
a) 300
b) 325
c) 400
d) 420
e) 480
5) Frank is 15 years younger then John. In 5 years John will be twice as old
as Frank. How old will Frank be in four years?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 11
e) 16
6) A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly
10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price?
a) $1.10
b) $8.80
c) $11.00
d) $57.30
e) $78.10
7) The price of a candy bar is $1.00. The price of a ten pack of the same
candy bar is $7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what percentage
cheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually?
a) 18%
b) 26%
c) 32%
d) 48%
e) The prices are same

In a certain department store, which has four sizes of a specific shirt,

there are 1/3 as many small shirts as medium shirts, and 1/2 as many
large shirts as small shirts. If there are as many x-large shirts as large
shirts, what percent of the shirts in the store are medium?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 33%
d) 50%
e) 60%
9) A new apartment complex purchased 60 toilets and 20 shower heads. If
the price of a toilet is three times the price of a shower head, what
percent of the total cost was the cost of all the shower heads?
a) 9%
b) 10%
c) 11%
d) 13%
e) 15%
10) A car averages 55 mph for the first 4 hours of a trip and averages 70
mph for each additional hour. The average speed for the entire trip was
60 mph. How many hours long is the trip?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 11
d) 12
e) 11
11) In 1991, was the number of people in City A three times greater then
the number of people in City B?
1) In 1991, there were approximately 1.1 million more people in City A
than in City B.
2) In 1991, the 300,000 Catholics in City A made up 20% of its population,
and the 111,000 Buddhists in City B made up 30% of its population.
a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the
question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the
question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are
needed.
12) (165)2 – (164)2 =
a) 1
b) 100
c) 229
d) 329
e) 349
13) If the ticket sales s for a company increases 25% from standard sales
to 60 tickets sold, then 60 – s =:
a) 7
b) 12
c) 18
d) 30
e) 48
11) All of the tickets for 2 music concerts, X and Y, were either purchased
or given away, and the ratio of X tickets to Y was 2 to 1. Of the total
number of X tickets and Y tickets, what percentage was purchased?
1) The total number of X tickets and Y tickets, is 240.
2) Of the X tickets, exactly 60% were purchased, and of the Y tickets,
exactly 80% were purchased.
a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the
question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the
question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are
needed.
15) If a and b are positive integers, is a + 4b odd?
1) b is even.
2) a is odd.
a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the
question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the
question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are
needed.
16) If q is a multiple of prime numbers, is q a multiple of r?
1) r < 4.
2) q = 18.
a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the
question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the
question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are
needed.
17) How many integers between 100 and 150, inclusive, cannot be evenly
divided by 3 nor 5?
a) 35
b) 27
c) 25
d) 26
e) 28
18) Susan wants to put up fencing around three sides of her rectangular
yard and leave a side of 20 feet unfenced. If the yard has an area of
680 square feet, how many feet of fencing does she need?
a) 38
b) 44
c) 72
d) 88
e) 97
19) Which of the following equations has a root in common with x2 – 6x +
5 = 0?
a) x2 + 1 = 0
b) x2 – x – 2 = 0
c) 2x2 – 2 = 0
d) x2 – 2x – 3 = 0
e) x2 – 10x – 5 = 0
20) A computer store regularly sells all stock at a discount of 20 percent
to 40 percent. If an additional 25 percent were deducted from the
discount price during a special sale, what would be the lowest
possible price of a part costing $16 before any discount?
a) $6.80
b) $7.20
c) $9.60
d) $11.30
e) $11.80
21) If “basis points” are defined so that 1 percent is equal to 100 basis
points, then 75.5 percent is how many basis points greater than
65.5 percent?
a) .01
b) .10
c) 10
d) 100
e) 1000
22) If x + 8y = 20 and x = -3y, then y =
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
e) 8
23) If 2x + y = 10 and x = 3, what is x – y
a) -3
b) -1
c) 0
d) 1
e) 3
24) If a triangle has a base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice the
base, then the area of the triangle is
a) .5AB
b) AB
c) .5AB2
d)
B2
e)
2B2
25) If y/x = 1/3 and x + 2y = 10, then x is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
S E C T I O N B
VERBAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES )
DIRECTIONS :- ENITRE SECTION B IS DIVIDED INTO THREE PASSAGES.
READ EACH PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER QUESTIONS MENTIONED
BELOW.
PASSAGE – I
QUESTION NO 1-6
If one always ought to act so as to produce the best possible
circumstances, then morality is extremely demanding. No one could
plausibly claim to have met the requirements of this “simple
principle.” . . . It would seem strange to punish those intending to do good
by sentencing them to an impossible task. Also, if the standards of right
conduct are as extreme as they seem, then they will preclude the
personal projects that humans find most fulfilling.
From an analytic perspective, the potential extreme demands of morality
are not a “problem.” A theory of morality is no less valid simply because it
asks great sacrifices. In fact, it is difficult to imagine what kind of
constraints could be put on our ethical projects. Shouldn’t we reflect on
our base prejudices, and not allow them to provide boundaries for our
moral reasoning? Thus, it is tempting to simply dismiss the objections to
the simple principle. However, in Demands of Morality, Liam Murphy takes
these objections seriously for at least two distinct reasons.
First, discussion of the simple principle provides an excellent vehicle for a
discussion of morality in general. Perhaps, in a way, this is Murphy’s
attempt at doing philosophy “from the inside out.”. . . Second, Murphy’s
starting point tells us about the nature of his project. Murphy must take
seriously the collisions between moral philosophy and our intuitive sense
of right and wrong. He [must do so] because his work is best interpreted
as intended to forge moral principles from our firm beliefs, and not to
proscribe beliefs given a set of moral principles.
[Murphy] argues from our considered judgments rather than to them. . .
For example, Murphy cites our “simple but firmly held” beliefs as
supporting the potency of the over-demandingness objection, and
nowhere in the work can one find a source of moral values divorced from
human preferences.
Murphy does not tell us what set of “firm beliefs” we ought to have.
Rather, he speaks to an audience of well-intentioned but unorganized
moral realists, and tries to give them principles that represent their
considered moral judgments. Murphy starts with this base sense of right
and wrong, but recognizes that it needs to be supplemented by reason
where our intuitions are confused or conflicting. Perhaps Murphy is looking
for the best interpretation of our convictions, the same way certain legal
scholars try to find the best interpretation of our Constitution.
This approach has disadvantages. Primarily, Murphy’s arguments, even if
successful, do not provide the kind of motivating force for which moral
philosophy has traditionally searched. His work assumes and argues in
terms of an inner sense of morality, and his project seeks to deepen that
sense. Of course, it is quite possible that the moral viewpoints of humans
will not converge, and some humans have no moral sense at all. Thus, it is
very easy for the moral skeptic to point out a lack of justification and
ignore the entire work.
On the other hand, Murphy’s choice of a starting point avoids many of the
problems of moral philosophy. Justifying the content of moral principles
and granting a motivating force to those principles is an extraordinary
task. It would be unrealistic to expect all discussions of moral philosophy
to derive such justifications. Projects that attempt such a derivation have
value, but they are hard pressed to produce logical consequences for
everyday life. In the end, Murphy’s strategy may have more practical
effect than its first-principle counterparts, which do not seem any more
likely to convince those that would reject Murphy’s premises.
1) The author suggests that the application of Murphy’s philosophy to the
situations of two different groups:
a) would help to solve the problems of one group but not of the other.
b) could result in the derivation of two radically different moral principles.
c) would be contingent on the two groups sharing the same fundamental
beliefs.
d) could reconcile any differences between the two groups.
2) Suppose an individual who firmly believes in keeping promises has
promised to return a weapon to a person she knows to be extremely
dangerous. According to Murphy, which of the following, if true, would
WEAKEN the notion that she should return the weapon?
a) She also firmly believes that it is morally wrong to assist in any way in a
potentially violent act.
b) She believes herself to be well-intentioned in matters of right and
wrong.
c) The belief that one should keep promises is shared by most members of
her community.
d) She derived her moral beliefs from first-principle ethical philosophy.
3) The passage implies that a moral principle derived from applying
Murphy’s philosophy to a particular group would be applicable to
another group if:
a) the first group recommended the principle to the second group.
b) the moral viewpoints of the two groups do not converge.
c) the members of the second group have no firmly held beliefs.
d) the second group shares the same fundamental beliefs as the first
group.
4) According to the passage, the existence of individuals who entirely lack
a moral sense:
a) confirms the notion that moral principles should be derived from the
considered judgments of individuals.
b) suggests a potential disadvantage of Murphy’s philosophical approach.
c) supports Murphy’s belief that reason is necessary in cases in which
intuitions are conflicting or confused.
d) proves that first-principle strategies of ethical theorizing will have no
more influence over the behavior of individuals than will Murphy’s
philosophical approach.
5) Which of the following can be inferred about “doing philosophy from
the inside out?”
a) Murphy was the first philosopher to employ such an approach.
b) It allows no place for rational argument in the formation of ethical
principles.
c) It is fundamentally different from the practice of first-principle
philosophy.
d) It is designed to dismiss objections to the “simple principle.”
6) A school board is debating whether or not to institute a dress code for
the school’s students. According to Murphy, the best way to come to
an ethical decision would be to:
a) consult the fundamental beliefs of the board members.
b) analyze the results of dress codes instituted at other schools.
c) survey the students as to whether or not they would prefer a dress
code.
d) determine whether or note a dress code has ever been instituted in the
school’s history.
PASSAGE – II
QUESTION NO 7-13
Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most of the more than
three million species of animals on this planet. Animal behaviorists still
disagree on a comprehensive definition of the term, hut aggressive
behavior can be loosely described as any action that harms an adversary
or compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve many purposes, such as
Food gathering, establishing territory, and enforcing social hierarchy. In a
general Darwinian sense, however, the purpose of aggressive behavior is
to increase the individual animal’s—and thus, the species’—chance of
survival.
Aggressive behavior may he directed at animals of other species, or it
may be conspecific—that is, directed at members of an animal’s own
species. One of the most common examples of conspecific aggression
occurs in the establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In a
hierarchy, social dominance is usually established according to physical
superiority; the classic example is that of a pecking order among domestic
fowl. The dominance hierarchy may be viewed as a means of social
control that reduces the incidence of attack within a group. Once
established, the hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes because the
inferior animal immediately submits when confronted by a superior.
Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to most species:
attack and defensive threat. Each type involves a particular pattern of
physiological and behavioral responses, which tends not to vary
regardless of the stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern of
attack behavior in cats involves a series of movements, such as stalking,
biting, seizing with the forepaws and scratching with tile hind legs, that
changes very little regardless of the stimulus—that is, regardless of who
or what the cat is attacking.
The cat’s defensive threat response offers another set of closely linked
physiological and behavioral patterns. The cardiovascular system begins
to pump blood at a faster rate, in preparation for sudden physical activity.
The eves narrow and the ears flatten against the side of the cat’s head for
protection, and other vulnerable areas of the body such as the stomach
and throat are similarly contracted. Growling or hissing noises and erect
fur also signal defensive threat. As with the attack response, this pattern
of responses is generated with little variation regardless of the nature of
the stimulus.
Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive threat innate,
genetically programmed, or are they learned? The answer seems to be a
combination of both. A mouse is helpless at birth, but by its l2th day of life
can assume a defensive threat position by backing up on its hind legs. By
the time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit the attack
response. Nonetheless, copious evidence suggests that animals learn and
practice aggressive behavior; one need look no further than the sight of a
kitten playing with a ball of string. All the elements of attack—stalking,
pouncing, biting, and shaking—are part of the game that prepares the
kitten for more serious situations later in life.
7) The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are generally stable
because:
a) the behavior responses of the group are known by all its members.
b) the defensive threat posture quickly stops most conflicts.
c) inferior animals usually defer to their physical superior.
d) the need for mutual protection from other species inhibits conspecific
aggression.

According to the author, what is the most significant physiological

change undergone by a cat assuming the defensive threat position?
a) An increase in cardiovascular activity
b) A sudden narrowing of the eyes
c) A contraction of the abdominal muscles
d) The author does not say which change is most significant
9) Based on the information in the passage about agonistic behavior, it is
reasonable to conclude that:
I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help ensure the survival of the
species.
II. agonistic behavior is both innate and learned.
III. conspecific aggression is more frequent than i aggression.
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II only
d) I,II and III only
10) Which of the following would be most in accord with the information
presented in the passage?
a) The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely inked to their need to
remain in constant motion.
b) fine inability of newborn mice to exhibit the attack response proves
that aggressive behavior must be learned.
c) Most animal species that do riot exhibit aggressive behavior are
prevented from doing so by environmental factors.
d) Members of a certain species of hawk use the same method to prey on
both squirrels and gophers.
11) The author suggests that the question of whether agonistic behavior is
genetically programmed or learned:
a) still generates considerable controversy among animal behaviorists.
b) was first investigated through experiments on mice.
c) is outdated since most scientists now believe the genetic element to be
most important.
d) has been the subject of extensive clinical study.
12) Which of the following topics related to agonistic behavior is NOT
explicitly addressed in the passage?
a) The physiological changes that accompany attack behavior in cats
b) The evolutionary purpose of aggression
c) Conspecific aggression that occurs in dominance hierarchies
d) The relationship between play and aggression
13) The author of this passage is primarily concerned with:
a) analyzing the differences between attack behavior and defensive threat
behavior.
b) introducing a subject currently debated among animal behaviorists.
c) providing a general overview of aggressive behavior in animals.
d) illustrating various manifestations of agonistic behavior among
mammals.
PASSAGE – III
QUESTION NO 11 – 20
The rich analysts of Fernand Braudel arid his fellow Annales historians
have made significant contributions to historical theory and research. In a
departure from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians
assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simple
recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the
context of forces and material conditions that underlie human behavior.
Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the
idea that history should synthesize data from various social sciences,
especially economics, in order to provide a broader view of human
societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders of the Annales
school, had originated this approach).
Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three
temporalities. The first of these, the evenmentielle, involved short-lived
dramatic events such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of great
men, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle.
Conjonctures was Braudel’s term for larger cyclical processes that might
last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of great
length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities.
Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain
relatively unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, their
means and routes of travel—for Braudel these things create “structures’
that define the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a
time.
Braudel’s concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of
historical space as well as time. Until the Annales school, historians had
taken the juridical political unit—the nation-state, duchy, or whatever—as
their starting point. Yet, when such enormous timespans are considered,
geographical features may well have more significance for human
populations than national borders, In his doctoral thesis, a seminal work
on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the
geohistory of the entire region as a “structure” that had exerted myriad
influences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of
the Mediterranean Sea. And so the reader is given such arcane
information as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from North
Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their
shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought.
Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his
Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm
of relevant phenomena but this very achievement made it difficult to
delimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to beginning any
social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historians
minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, the
many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular
audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions that
traditional historians had overlooked.
11) The primary purpose of the passage is to:
a) show how Braudel’s work changed the conception of Mediterranean life
held by previous historians.
b) evaluate Braudel’s criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography.
c) contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major
historical figures
d) outline some of Braudel’s influential conceptions and distinguish them
from conventional approaches.
15) The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to:
a) illustrate the limitations of the Annale tradition of historical
interpretation.
b) suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation.
c) debate the need for combining various sociological approaches.
d) show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel’s focus on
economics.
16) According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel’s
approach to history EXCEPT that he:
a) attempted to draw on various social sciences.
b) studied social and economic activities that occurred across national
boundaries.
c) pointed out the link between increased economic activity and the rise
of nationalism.
d) examined seemingly unexciting aspects of everyday life.
17) In the third paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with
discussing:
a) Braudel’s fascination with obscure facts.
b) Braudel’s depiction of the role of geography in human history.
c) the geography of the Mediterranean region.
d) the irrelevance of national borders.
18) The passage suggests that, compared with traditional historians,
Annales/i> historians are:
a) more interested in other social sciences than in history.
b) critical of the achievements of famous historical figures.
c) skeptical of the validity of most economic research.
d) more interested in the underlying context of human behavior.
19) Which of the Following statements would be most likely to follow the
last sentence of the passage?
a) Few such studies however, have been written by trained economists.
b) It is time, perhaps, for a revival of the Carlylean emphasis on
personalities.
c) Many historians believe that Braudel’s conception of three distinct
“temporalities” is an oversimplification.
d) Such diverse works as Gascon’s study of Lyon and Barbara Tuchman’s
A Distant Mirror testify to his relevance.
20) The author is critical of Braudel’s perspective for which of the
Following reasons
a) It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity.
b) It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually
exists.
c) It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-
term social activity.
d) It rigidly defines boundaries for social analysis.
SECTION C
ANALYTICAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES )
1) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a
contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed
below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for
fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first.
If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first race, all of the
following will be true EXCEPT:
a) Bob finishes ahead of Don.
b) Chris finishes two places ahead of Alan.
c) Don finishes fourth.
d) Bob finishes immediately behind Eugene.
e) Chris finishes ahead of Bob.
2) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a
contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed
below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for
fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first.
If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the following must be true
of that race?
a) Alan finishes first.
b) Eugene finishes first.
c) Bob finishes second.
d) Chris finishes second.
e) Alan finishes fifth.
3) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a
contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed
below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for
fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first.
If Eugene’s total for the six races is 36 points, which of the following must
be true?
a) Bob’s total is more than 36 points.
b) Chris’s total is more than 36 points.
c) Alan’s total is 36 points.
d) Don’s total is less than 36 points.
e) Don’s total is 36 points.
4) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a
contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed
below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for
fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first.
If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second exactly twice, the
lowest total number of points that Bob can earn in the race is:
a) 32 points.
b) 38 points.
c) 40 points.
d) 44 points.
e) 48 points.
5) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a
contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed
below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for
fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first.
If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following could earn a total
of fewer than 26 points in the six races?
a) Bob only.
b) Chris only.
c) Don only.
d) Eugene of Chris.
e) Don or Chris.
6) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a
contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed
below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.
Alan finishes either first or last.
Eugene finishes either first or last.
There are no ties in any race.
Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for
fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first.
If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and Don, which of
the following must be true of that race?
a) Eugene finishes first.
b) Alan finishes sixth.
c) Don finishes second.
d) Frank finishes fifth.
e) Chris finishes third.
7) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems
getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that
does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue,
and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two
pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
If Jane wears black shoes she will not wear:
a) red stockings.
b) a blue skirt.
c) a white blouse.
d) blue stockings.
e) a sky blue blouse.

Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems

getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that
does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue,
and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two
pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
If Jane is color blind and is unable to determine what outfits went well
together, how many possible clothing combinations could she have?
a) 24
b) 32
c) 36
d) 44
e) 48
9) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems
getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that
does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue,
and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two
pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
If Jane wears a brown skirt and a white blouse, she could:
a) not wear blue stockings.
b) not wear brown shoes.
c) not wear black shoes.
d) wear blue stockings.
e) wear red stockings.
10) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems
getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that
does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue,
and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two
pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
Jane buys a gray scarf. If she wears the new scarf, then she could:
a) not wear blue stockings.
b) not wear brown stockings.
c) not wear black shoes.
d) wear a white blouse.
e) wear black stockings.
11) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems
getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination that
does not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.
She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue,
and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two
pairs of shoes, black and brown.
The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.
Gray does not go well with brown.
Black does not go well with brown.
Jane will never wear:
a) blue and red together.
b) white and red together.
c) gray and blue together.
d) white and black together.
e) white and red together.
12) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are
doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a
general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one
person on each side.
1) Barry is across from the dentist.
2) David is not across from the surgeon.
3) The optometrist is on Ann’s immediate left.
4) Cathy is the general practitioner.
5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other.
6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy’s immediate left.
7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist.
Which of the following must be true?
a) Barry is the dentist.
b) The surgeon and general practitioner are women.
c) The dentist is across from the surgeon.
d) David is the surgeon.
e) Cathy is across from Ann.
13) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy are
doctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is a
general practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with one
person on each side.
1) Barry is across from the dentist.
2) David is not across from the surgeon.
3) The optometrist is on Ann’s immediate left.
4) Cathy is the general practitioner.
5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other.
6) The general practitioner is not on Cathy’s immediate left.
7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist.
If both women leave the table, the
a) optometrist and dentist remain.
b) surgeon and optometrist remain.
c) surgeon and general practitioner remain.
d) general practitioner and dentist remain.
e) general practitioner and optometrist remain.
11) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends – all day
Saturday and Sunday – and no other days. The bank has hired two
managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation
officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-
time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when
working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must
work on Saturday or Sunday.
Which of the following could be false?
a) If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday.
b) If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday.
c) T can work either day.
d) If W works on Saturday and Y works on Sunday, then X works on
Sunday.
e) If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday.
15) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends – all day
Saturday and Sunday – and no other days. The bank has hired two
managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation
officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-
time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when
working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must
work on Saturday or Sunday.
Which one of the following is an acceptable group of employees that could
work on Saturday?
a) ZWYST
b) UVWYZS
c) VWXST
d) UZST
e) VWZS
16) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends – all day
Saturday and Sunday – and no other days. The bank has hired two
managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation
officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-
time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when
working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must
work on Saturday or Sunday.
What is the greatest number of employees that can work on Saturday?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
17) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends – all day
Saturday and Sunday – and no other days. The bank has hired two
managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation
officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-
time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when
working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must
work on Saturday or Sunday.
If W works on Sunday, then which one of the following must be true?
a) X works on Saturday
b) Y works on Saturday
c) T works on Saturday
d) Z works on Saturday
e) U works on Saturday
18) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends – all day
Saturday and Sunday – and no other days. The bank has hired two
managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation
officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-
time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when
working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must
work on Saturday or Sunday.
Which one of the following must be true?
a) T always works on the same day as Y.
b) S never works on the same day as U.
c) Z never works on the same day as X.
d) If W works on Sunday, then Y always works on Saturday.
e) Only two tellers work on Saturday.
19) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends – all day
Saturday and Sunday – and no other days. The bank has hired two
managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation
officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-
time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when
working.
A manager must be on duty each day.
The managers cannot work on the same day.
At least two tellers must be working on the same day.
W and X will not work on the same day.
S and Z will only work on Saturday.
No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must
work on Saturday or Sunday.
Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the
employees who have the possibility of working on Sunday?
a) UWYZ
b) UWYS
c) UVWXT
d) UVWXYT
e) UVWXYTS
20) In the earliest stages of common law, a party could have their case
heard by a judge only upon the payment of a fee to the court, and then
only if the case fit into one of the forms for which there existed a writ. At
first the number of such formalized cases of action was very small, but
judges invented new forms which brought more cases and greater
revenues.
Which of the following conclusions is most strongly suggested by the
paragraph above?
a) In most early cases, the plaintiff rather than the defendant prevailed.
b) One of the motivating forces for the early expansion in judicial power
was economic considerations.
c) The first common law decisions were inconsistent with one another and
did not form a coherent body of law.
d) Early judges often decided cases in an arbitrary and haphazard
manner.
e) The judiciary at first had greater power than either the legislature or
the executive.