AY14-15 Sem2 M63 LE5 Ans

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Mathematics 63

5th Long Exam (Solution Key)

2nd Sem AY 2014-15


16 May 2015

p
4
dy
(1 + csch x)log10 x x + cosh1 x
, where all factors
I. Using logarithmic differentiation, find
, if y =
dx
( + cos1 x)
are assumed to be positive.
(6 pts)
Solution:
1
ln(x + cosh1 x) ln( + cos1 x)
4


1
1
1
1
1
= log10 x
( csch x coth x) +
ln(1 + csch x) +
1+
1 + csch x
x ln 10
4 x + cosh1 x
x2 1


1
1


1
+ cos x
1 x2



(log10 x) csch x coth x ln(1 + csch x)
1
1
=
+
+
1+
1 + csch x
x ln 10
4(x + cosh1 x)
x2 1
p

4
(1 + csch x)log10 x x + cosh1 x

+
( + cos1 x)
( + cos1 x)( 1 x2 )

ln y = log10 x ln(1 + csch x) +


1 dy

y dx

dy
dx

II. Let f be the function defined on

R by f (x) = x3 + 2x tanh x + 19.

(4 pts)

1. Prove that f has an inverse f 1 .


Solution: To show that f 1 exists, we simply show that f is one-to-one. First, note that:
sinh x
tanh x =
is continuous on , since cosh x > 0 for all real x, and the polynomial x3 + 2x + 19 is,
cosh x
of course, continuous everywhere. Thus, f is continuous on .
1
f 0 (x) = 3x2 + 2 sech2 x exists for any real x, since sech x =
and, again, cosh x > 0 for all
cosh x
x .

Thus, given x1 , x2

R with x1 < x2, we have f continuous on [x1, x2] and differentiable on (x1, x2), and

hence by the Mean-Value Theorem, there exists c (x1 , x2 ) such that


f 0 (c) =

f (x2 ) f (x1 )
.
x2 x1

Now, note that, in fact, we have cosh x 1, so that 0 < sech x 1, for all x

R. Thus,

f 0 (c) = 3c2 + 2 sech2 c 3c2 + 2 1 = 3c2 + 1 > 0,


and so, noting that x2 x1 > 0,
f (x2 ) f (x1 ) = f 0 (c)(x2 x1 ) > 0.

R, with x1 < x2, we have f (x1) < f (x2). That is, f is


strictly increasing on R, consequent to the fact that f 0 (x) > 0 for all x R. Thus, f must be one-to-one.
That is, we have just shown that for any x1 , x2
2. Find (f 1 )0 (19).
Solution: Note that f (0) = 19, or equivalently then, 0 = f 1 (19). Thus, by a theorem on the derivatives
of inverses,
(f 1 )0 (19) =

1
f 0 (0)

3(0)2

1
1
=
= 1.
2
0+21
+ 2 sech (0)

III. Find the following general antiderivatives.


Z
1 + coth x cot x + cosh x
1.
dx
coth x

(12 pts)

1
cosh x
Solution: Using the identities coth x =
=
, we have:
tanh x
sinh x
Z
Z
1 + coth x cot x + cosh x
dx =
(tanh x + cot x + sinh x) dx
coth x
= ln(cosh x) + ln(sin x) + cosh x + C
Z 3x
e 3x cos(ex )
dx
2.
e2x cos(ex )
Solution: We split the integrand into an actual difference of two fractions, apply the fact that sec x =
1
, and apply some laws governing exponents:
cos x

Z 
Z 3x
e 3x cos(ex )
3x
ex
dx
dx =

e2x cos(ex )
cos(ex ) e2x
Z
Z  x
3
x
x
=
e sec(e ) dx
dx
e2
The second integrals integrand is already an exponential function. Meanwhile, in the first integral, we
can make the substitution u = ex , for which we get du = ex dx. Thus, we finally have
 x
3
Z 3x
2
e 3x cos(ex )
e
dx = ln | sec(ex ) + tan(ex )|   + C
2x
x
3
e cos(e )
ln 2
e
Z
4x

3.
dx
6x x2
Solution: Let u = 6x x2 . Then du = (6 2x) dx. Then,
Z
Z
4x
2(2x 6 + 6)

dx =
dx
2
6x x
6x x2
Z
12 2(6 2x)

=
dx
2
6x

x
Z
Z
6 2x
1
= 12
dx 2
dx
2
2
6x

x
6x

x
Z
Z
1
1
= 12
dx 2 du
2
u
6x x
The Power Rule already applies to the second integral:
Z
Z
1
1
du =
u 2 du
u
1

= 2u 2 + C1
p
= 2 6x x2 + C1
For the first integral, we complete squares in the denominators radicand:
Z
Z
1
1

dx =
dx
2
6x x2
9

9
+
6x

x
Z
1
p
=
dx
9 (x 3)2


x3
= sin1
+ C2
3
2

Finally, we then have


Z

IV. Show that


3
2

4x

dx = 12 sin1
6x x2

x3
3

p
4 6x x2 + C.

dx

=
.
x
12 ln 4
4 4

(4 pts)

Solution:
2

3
2

dx
4x 4

Z
=

dx
p

3
2

(2x )2 22

2x dx
p
3 2x
(2x )2 22
2

Let u = 2x , so that du = 2x ln 2 dx. Note that when x = 32 , u = 2 2, and when x = 2, u = 4. Thus,


Z

Z
3
2

dx
x
4 4

=
=
=
=
=
=

1
ln 2

du

u u2 22
4

1 1
1 u
sec
ln 2 2
2 22

 
1
sec1 (2) sec1
2
2 ln 2
1  

2 ln 2 3
4

24 ln 2

12 ln 4

2 2

V. Show the complete derivation of the following formulae:


Z
1.
sech x dx = tan1 (sinh x) + C

(7 pts)

Solution:
Z

1
dx
cosh x
Z
cosh x
=
dx
2
Z cosh x
cosh x
=
dx
1 + sinh2 x

sech x dx =

Let u = sinh x, so that du = cosh x dx. We then have:


Z
Z
sech x dx =

1
du
1 + u2
= tan1 u + C
= tan1 (sinh x) + C

2. coth

1
x = ln
2

x+1
x1

Solution: Let y = coth1 x. Then


x = coth y =

ey + ey
e2y + 1
=
.
ey ey
e2y 1
3

Thus,
xe2y x = e2y + 1,
so that e2y (x 1) = x + 1. That is,
e2y =

x+1
,
x1

or equivalently,

2y = ln

x+1
x1


.

That is,
1

coth

1
x = y = ln
2

x+1
x1


.

VI. Evaluate the following limits.




5
1. lim csc x +
x
x

(7 pts)

1
5
+. Also, x 0 so that
.
sin x
x
That is, the given limit is indeterminate of type .




1
5
5
= lim
lim csc x +
+
x
x
x sin x
x
 
x + 5 sin x
0
= lim
0
x (x ) sin x
1 + 5 cos x
= lim
x (x ) cos x + sin x

Solution: As x , sin x 0+ , so that csc x =

Note that as x , 1 + 5 cos x 1 5 = 4. Also, sin x 0+ , x 0 , and cos x 1, so that


(x ) cos x + sin x 0+ .
Thus,

lim csc x +

2.

5
x


= lim

1 + 5 cos x
= .
(x ) cos x + sin x

lim (sech x)3/x

x+

3
Solution: As x +, cosh x + so that sech x 0+ . Meanwhile,
0+ . That is, this limit is
x


3
3
indeterminate of type 00 . Now, note that (sech x)3/x = exp
ln(sech x) . Let u = ln(sech x). Then:
x
x

3 ln(sech x)
lim u(x) =
lim
x+
x+
x

1
3
( sech x tanh x)
sech x
=
lim
x+
1
=
lim (3 tanh x)
x+

3(ex ex )
x+
ex + ex
3(e2x 1)
=
lim
x+
e2x + 1
3(2e2x )
=
lim
x+
2e2x
= 3
=

lim



Finally,
lim (sech x)3/x = lim exp(u) = e3 .

x+

u3

***END OF EXAM***
TOTAL: 40 pts
We encounter 0/0, the most formidable of all the symbols or enigmas in the differential calculus. Even Duchamel shrinks
from a contact with it, although its adoption seems absolutely necessary to perfect the method of limits. This symbol is repudiated by Carnot and Lagrange. It is adopted by Euler and DAlembert; but they do not proceed far before it breaks down
under them. It is, nevertheless, one of the strongholds and defences of the method of limits, which cannot be surrendered
or abandoned without serious and irreparable loss to the cause. The singular crusade of mathematicians against one poor
symbol 0/0, while all other symbols of indetermination are spared, is certainly a curious fact.
- Albert Taylor Bledsoe

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