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Test Taking Skills and Questions 0809
Test Taking Skills and Questions 0809
Intellectual Preparation
Review a test blueprint for content
of exam
Find
Fi d outt which
hi h content
t t areas have
h
the most questions
Review material included on test
Focus on areas where y
you are least
familiar
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Intellectual Preparation
Consider taking
g an online p
practice
exam
Attend a review class
Review references i.e. Core
Curriculum
Participate in a study group
Listen to the directions given the day
of exam and follow exactly
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Emotional Preparation
Moderate anxiety
y is normal
Study and prepare for the exam so that
you feel confident
Think positively
y
g strategies
g
Use anxiety-reducing
Relaxation response
Guided imagery
Exercise
Prayer
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Emotional Preparation
Dont
o t become
beco e too worried
o ed if you
arent sure about some of the
s e s No
oo
one
e answers
s e s all o
of tthe
e
answers.
questions correctly.
Don
Dontt become anxious or impatient
if you see other test takers finish
the exam early.
early Use as much of the
allotted time as you need.
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Physical Preparation
Get a g
good nights
g
sleep
p
Eat before the test
you need to take
Gather all materials y
to the test the night before:
Government issued photo ID
Exam permit
Sweater or jacket, in case the room is
cool
Physical Preparation
Allow plenty of time so you arrive early
If you think you might be easily
di t
distracted
t db
by people
l lleaving
i
the
th room,
select a seat at the front of the room
Tactics
Watch
W
t h ffor absolutes
b l t & qualifiers
lifi
Look for grammatical clues
Look for familiar phrases
Look for degrees of correctness
Make educated guesses
D t leave
Dont
l
any blanks
bl k
Look for clue words or numbers
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Tactics
Note Negatives:
none
not
never
never or
neither
Tactics
Note superlatives such as:
every
y
all
none
none
always
only
Tactics
Note qualifying words:
usually
y
often
generally
generally
may &
seldom
In Test Strategies
In-Test
Preview the
h examination
Start with questions you can answer
readily
dil
Recycle through the test
Choose the closest answer
Eliminate unlikely answers
Set goals for time & pace yourself
accordingly
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In-Test
In
Test Strategies
Read the questions carefully
Circle or underline key words &
questions
ti
Try to recall a concept from memory
Consider the cover-up strategy
Consider the true/false label
strategy
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In Test Strategies
In-Test
Sometimes alternatives differ by
only one or two words
Use the hint of highly similar pairs
Be prepared to change your answer
Be alert to terminology which links
In-Test
In
Test Strategies
Be wary
y of descriptive
p
words
Translate double negative statements
If you must
mustguess
guess
Sample Questions
2 You test for sterilant
1 Which of the following 2.
1.
levels in a
hemodialysis
machine prior to
patient use. The test
is positive for
sterilant This means
sterilant.
the machine:
p
patient
comfort
asepsis
universal precautions
HIV
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sample Questions
3.Choose the correct
statement regarding
serum abnormalities in
renal failure:
a) creatinine, BUN, &
phosphorus are elevated
b) creatinine,
creatinine BUN
BUN, &
phosphorus are depressed
c) calcium & bicarbonate are
elevated
d) calcium & bicarbonate are
depressed
4.Hemodialysis
y
requires
q
a means to channel the
patients blood to the
hemodialyzer & then
back to the body. Its
called:
a) vascular access
b) hemodialyzer
c)) dialyzing
y g fluid delivery
y
system
d) infusion pump
Sample Questions
5.Which of the following
is correct regarding a
fistula?
a) usually created in the leg,
near the ankle
b) usually created in the
forearm, near the wrist
c) are made of salastic tubing
d) none of the above
blood type
amount of blood loss
blood leakage immediately
volume
l
changes
h
serum potassium levels
Sample Questions
7.Which of the following
foods are high in
potassium?
a)
b)
c)
d)
&
&
&
&
Sample Questions
9.Which is the most
10.The reason
common cause of
chronic kidney failure
in the US?
a) diabetes
b) hypertension
c)) polycystic
l
i kidney
kid
disease
d) glomerulonephritis
Sample Questions
11.Acceptable limits for
total chlorines in water
for hemodialysis are?
a) less than 0.1mg/L
0 1mg/L
(ppm)
b) 0.5 mg/L to 1 mg/L
(ppm)
c) 3.5 mg/L to 5.5 mg/L
to 5.5 mg/L (ppm)
d) greater than 6
6.0
0 mg/L
(ppm)
Sample Questions
13.The following are
factors in poor
clearance during
dialysis except:
a)
b)
c))
d)
14.The movement of
water from an area of
low solute
concentration to an
area of high solute
concentration is called:
a))
b)
c)
d)
diffusion
diff
i
osmosis
ultrafiltration
dialysis
Sample Questions
15.Potting compound,
weight of 72 kg. He
weighed 73 kg after last
treatment. Today he
weighs 75.5 kg. Assume
prime and rinse back =
500 ml total. What is Mr.
Jones fluid removal goal
for today?
dialysis machine
water treatment system
R. O. system
di l
dialyzer
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.5
3.0
4.0
45
4.5
liters
liters
liters
lit
liters
or
or
or
or
2500
3000
4000
4500
ml
ml
ml
mll
Sample Questions
17.A hematocrit test
iindicates
di t which
hi h off the
th
following?
a) concentration of platelets
in the blood
b) concentration of creatinine
in the blood
c) concentration of red blood
cells in the blood
d)) concentration of white
blood cells in the blood
Sample Questions
19.In a dialysis
20.The complication in
a)
b)
c))
d)
machine, the
proportioning system
does what?
Sample Questions
21.The use of high
22.The capability of a
fluid overload
hypertension
thirst
all
ll off the
th above
b
dialyzer to remove
fluid, expressed as
ml/mmHg/hr is:
a)
b)
c))
d)
UF Coefficient
clearance
surface
f
area
priming volume
Sample Questions
23.A pre-pump arterial
pressure reading is
measuring:
a)) the p
pressure required
q
to pump the blood
through the dialyzer
b)) resistance to blood flow
out of the access
c) pressure within the
dialyzer
y
d) none of the above
a) number of fibers
b) internal diameter of
fibers
c) length of fibers
d) all of the above
Sample Questions
25.The purpose of using
counter-current flow is
to:
a) increase the rate of
fluid removal
b) increase the rate of
waste removal
c) decrease the amount of
dialysate used
d) decrease the surface
area of the membrane
26.Chloramine exposure
in dialysis can result
in:
a)
b)
c)
d)
hypernatremia
hemolysis
pericarditis
bl di
bleeding
Sample Questions
27.Part of the reuse
28.According to AAMI
is free of
a)
b)
c)
d)
is free of
is free of
1,000 CFUs
50 CFU
CFUs
200 CFUs
500 CFUs
Sample Questions
29.According to AAMI
RD52, how often
should bacterial
cultures be sampled?
a)
b)
c)
d)
weekly
monthly
quarterly
annually
30.According to AAMI
RD52, what is the
action level for
bacteria in dialysate?
a)
b)
c))
d)
50 CFUs
75 CFUs
100 CFUs
CFU
200 CFUs
Sample Questions
31.Bacterial exposure
from water may cause
which of the following
symptoms?
a)
b)
c))
d)
hemolysis
fever/chills
b
bone
di
disease
hypotension
Sample Questions
33.Venous pressure
PSI
mm/Hg
mL/hour
mg%
a)
b)
c)
d)
mL/hr
mm/Hg
mL/min
none of the above
Sample Questions
35.The hemodialysis machine
continuously monitors many
parameters. Which of these
parameters must be verified
by an external measuring
device?
a))
b)
c))
d)
bloodd flow
bl
fl
dialysate flow
ppH and conductivityy
temperature and
transmembrane pressure
Sample Questions
37.The term pH is a
measurement of the
concentration of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
in patient teaching
should be to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sample Questions
39.What can dialysis
40.Which of the
Sample Questions
41.What is the correct
42.Which of the
angle in which to
cannulate a fistula?
a)
b)
c)
d)
10 15 degrees
10-15
25-35 degrees
35-45 degrees
it does
d
nott matter
tt
Sample Questions
44. A technician observes
43.The technician
observes that the
hardness reading after
the water softener is
above the acceptable
limit. The technician
should check the
softener tanks level of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
salt
chlorine
carbon
sand
b)
c)
d)
Sample Questions
45.
Sample Questions
47.
Sample Questions
49. A hemodialysis technician 50. During hemodialysis
suspects that a patient who
is receiving a hemodialysis
treatment has an air
embolus. After stopping the
blood pump, the patient
should be placed in which of
these positions?
a)
b)
c)
d)
low-fowlers
high-fowlers
right-sided trendelenberg
left-sided
left
sided trendelenberg
Answer Key
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
C
B
A
A
B
C
D
A
A
B
A
B
C
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
B
D
C
C
D
C
C
D
A
B
D
B
B
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
D
C
B
A
B
A
B
B
C
B
B
C
D
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47
47.
48.
49.
50.
D
B
D
A
C
A
D
C
A
D
B