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MH SSET 2014 (Pathology)
MH SSET 2014 (Pathology)
11
(Write this number on your
Answer Sheet)
MH-SSET 2014
Speciality Pathology
MH-SSET Roll No.
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Invigilators Signature
Instructions to Candidates
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This question booklet contains 150 objective SINGLE BEST RESPONSE Type Questions (MCQs) ; distributed
in two Sections viz Section A of 100 MCQs and Section B of 50 MCQs. Each MCQ is of one mark. There is no
negative marking.
The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet are issued separately at the start of the
examination.
Section A contains 100 questions covering all the subjects of I, II and III MBBS course. Section B contains
50 questions in the subject of Broad Speciality in which the candidate has done postgraduation (MD or MS).
Candidate should check that correct question paper as per the speciality is received.
Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make
correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER
(OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark correct entries. Special care should be taken to fill
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION and SERIAL NO. and MH-SSET Roll No. accurately. The correctness of
entries has to be cross-checked by the invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and
Question Booklet.
Read each question carefully. Read the serial order of four options i.e. A, B, C & D of the MCQs carefully,
including those which are fill in the blank type of MCQs, while marking the answer.
Determine the correct answer from out of the four available options given under each question.
Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering the particular question only.
Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answer once marked.
Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
No mark shall be awarded for the particular question if the examinee has marked two or more answers to it or
has done overwriting or scratching etc. in the Answer Sheet.
Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should
not be done on the Answer Sheet.
Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer Sheet and the Question Booklet is to be
returned to the invigilator after both the candidate and invigilator have signed.
No candidate is allowed to leave the Examination Hall till the examination session is over.
P.T.O.
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DM
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SECTION A
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Behavioural therapy
D) 5 HT reuptake inhibitors
2. Sweating, palpitations, shaking, chest pain and intense fear developing within minutes,
the clinical diagnosis is
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Acute Psychosis
C) Schizophrenia
D) Panic Attack
B) histrionic
C) borderline
D) avoidant
4. Schneiders FRS (First Rank Symptoms) of Schizophrenia include all of the following
EXCEPT
A) Thought insertion
B) Delusional perception
C) Thought blocking
D) Somatic passivity
5. The Local Anaesthetic which has more cardiovascular toxicity in case of accidental
intravascular injection is
A) Lidocaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Ropivacaine
D) Levobupivacaine
C) Open K+ channel
D) Closed K+ channel
B) Alfentanil
C) Sufentanyl
D) Remifentanil
DM
A) Mivacurium
B) Rocuronium
C) Atracurium
D) Doxacurium
Patho.
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B) 2.4
C) 0.65
D) 0.47
B) Wolfring gland
C) Meibomian gland
D) Moll gland
12. The type of laser employed for treating posterior capsule thickening after cataract
surgery is
A) Krypton laser
B) Excimer laser
C) Argon laser
D) YAG laser
B) 1 rad
C) 10 rads
D) 20 rads
Patho.
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B) Medullo blastoma
C) Astrocytoma
D) Craniopharyngioma
17. In x-ray chest PA view left atrial enlargement causes all EXCEPT
A) Left hilar enlargement
D) Widening of carina
18. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for evaluating
A) Interstial lung disease
B) Lung mass
C) Pleural effusion
D) Mediastinal lymphademapathy
B) 1 cm
C) 1 to 1.5 cm
D) 2 cm or more
B) 8 mg/dl
D) 10 12 mg/dl
B) Urge incontinence
C) Detrusor instability
D) Stress incontinence
22. Which of the following genital infection is associated with preterm labour ?
DM
B) Monilial vaginitis
C) Bacterial vaginosis
D) Trichomonas vaginitis
Patho.
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B) unchanged
C) decreased
B) > 15 million/mL
C) > 20 million/mL
D) > 25 million/mL
C) Meniscus
B) Hip joint
C) Knee joint
B) Tubercular Abscess
C) Infective thrombosis
B) 4-8 weeks
C) 4-12 weeks
D) 8-16 weeks
DM
A) Frontal
B) Maxillary
C) Middle ethmoidal
D) Posterior ethmoidal
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B) Rhinosporidiosis
D) Midline granuloma
B) Maxillary sinus
C) Frontal sinus
D) Sphenoid sinus
B) Taste buds
C) Sebaceous glands
B) Photosensitivity
C) Striae
D) Pigmentation
B) Secondary
C) Late latent
D) Tertiary
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B) Scleroderma
C) Dermatomyositis
D) Rheumatoid Arthritis
B) Myopia
C) Hyperopia
D) Anisometropia
B) corneal xerosis
C) corneal ulceration
D) corneal scarring
B) Crying
C) Blinking of eye
D) Opening of fists
42. What should be internal diameter of endotracheal tube for neonatal resuscitation of
1700 gm baby ?
A) 2.5 mm
B) 3 mm
C) 3.5 mm
D) 4 mm
DM
A) adrenal glands
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B) 3 : 1
C) 4 : 1
D) 5 : 1
B) 10%
C) 30%
D) 70%
B) Thyroglossal cyst
C) Cystic hygroma
D) Laryngocele
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 180 days
B) Ileoilial
C) Ileocolic
D) Colocolic
B) Facial trauma
C) Debilitated
D) Impaired swallowing
B) Malignant polyp
C) Metaplastic polyp
D) Pseudopolyp
B) 5
C) 3
D) 1
53. All are the following features of systemic inflammatory response EXCEPT
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A) Hyperthermia
B) Tachycardia
C) Hypothermia
D) Bradycardia
Patho.
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54. Fresh frozen plasma which is rich in coagulation factors and stored at 40 to 60C
has
A) 7 days shelf life
55. The main disabilities of drooping of shoulder is seen in which of following classical
radical neck dissection ?
A) Crile
B) Howard
C) Clarke R
D) Hibbett J
B) Sub-epidermal cancer
C) Lymphatic permeation
D) Vascular embolisation
B) Head of pancreas
C) Portal vein
58. FNAC is useful in all the following types of thyroid carcinoma EXCEPT
A) Papillary
B) Follicular
C) Anaplastic
D) Medullary
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Constrictive pericarditis
B) Ganciclovir
C) -interferon
D) Ribavarin
61. Treatment of choice in patients having atrial fibrillation of less than 48 hrs duration is
DM
A) Digoxin
B) Verapamil
C) DC cardioversion
D) Flecainide
Patho.
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62. Contralateral hemiplegia with ipsilateral 6th and 7th cranial nerve palsy is seen in
A) Webers syndrome
B) Claudes syndrome
C) Perinaud syndrome
B) Platelet count
B) > 32
C) > 20
D) > 62
DM
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B) Meningioma
C) Vestibular schwanoma
D) CNS lymphoma
B) Prothrombin
C) Antithrombin
D) Protein C and S
B) Subcutaneous nodules
C) Rheumatic chorea
D) Erythema marginatum
71. Histopathological Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion in kidney biopsy of patients with diabetic
nephropathy is
A) Thickened glomerular basement membrane
B) Expanded melangial matrix
C) Nodular glomerulosclerosis
D) Hyaline arteriosclerosis
72. A pictorial diagram which shows the broad features of the area and the cases shown as
points is called as
A) Gantt chart
B) Spot map
C) Epidemic curve
D) Forest plot
DM
A) Holder
B) HTST
C) UHT
D) VAT
Patho.
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75. To diagnose which type of leprosy given below, histamine test is recommended ?
A) Pure neuritic type
B) Lepromatous type
C) Borderline type
D) Indeterminate type
B) Elliptical
C) Triangular
D) Oval
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Nitrobenzene
D) Phosphorus
B) Candida krusei
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Aspergillus flavus
B) Pseudo hyphae
C) Metachromatic hyphae
D) No hyphae
B) Lymph nodes
C) Bone marrow
D) Bursa of fabricus
DM
A) Phentolamine
B) Labetolol
C) Prazosin
D) Yohimbine
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B) Cyclosporine
C) Mycophenolate mofetil
D) Cyclophosphamide
83. Zileuton is a
A) Mast cell stabilizer
B) Inhaled steroid
C) 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor
B) Noradrenaline
C) Ephedrine
D) Dopamine
B) Cell necrosis
C) Interferon activation
D) Proteolysis
B) Meningioma
C) Papillary Ca thyroid
B) Neuroendocrine cells
D) Lymphoid cells
88. Labile cells include all the following types of cells EXCEPT
DM
B) Hemopoietic cells
C) Hepatocytes
D) Endometrial cells
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B) TNF
C) Prostaglandin
D) Leukotrine
B) Ethanolamine
C) Serine
D) Inositol
B) Hepatoma
C) Prostate cancer
B) Histamine
C) P-aminobenzoic acid
D) Serotonin
B) Gene amplification
C) Transduction
D) Chromosomal translocation
94. Short chain fatty acids produced by bacteria get absorbed maximally in the
A) Ileum
B) Jejunum
C) Colon
D) Duodenum
DM
A) proximal tubule
B) loop of henle
C) distal tubule
D) collecting duct
Patho.
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B) Porta hepatis
D) Caudate lobe
B) Cerebellum
C) Cerebrum
D) Medulla oblongata
B) Umbilical arteries
C) Umbilical vein
D) Ductus arteriosus
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
DM
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SECTION B
PATHOLOGY
101. Presence of Endometrial nests in myometrium is called
A) Adenomyosis
B) Adenosis
C) Endometriosis
D) Malakoplakia
B) Hamartomatous polyps
C) Juvenile polyps
D) Hyperplastic polyps
C) Hepatocellular Ca.
D) Gastric Ca.
104. A well differentiated follicular carcinoma of thyroid can be best differentiated from
a follicular adenoma by
A) Hurthle cell change
B) Nuclear characteristics
D) Vascular invasion
105. Which of the following salivary tumor show perineural invasion commonly ?
A) Adenocarcinoma
106. All of the following statements are true about Gleason score EXCEPT
A) Used for grading prostate cancer B) Higher the score, poorer the prognosis
C) Score range from 1-10
107. All of the following genes may be involved in development of CA colon EXCEPT
DM
A) APC
B) K-RAS
C) Beta-Catenin
Patho.
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108. Which of the following is associated with an intrinsic defect in the RBC membrane
A) Microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia
C) Thermal injury anaemia
D) Hereditary spherocytosis
109. Zellbellen or small nests of cells is a features of
A) Thymoma
B) Lymphoma
C) Pinealoma
D) Pheochromocytoma
B) MYC
C) BRCA-1
D) RB
111. The following statements are true about Tumour Suppressor Gene p53 EXCEPT
A) It regulates certain genes involved in cell cycle regulation
B) Its increased levels can induce apoptosis
C) Its activity in the cells decreases following UV irradiation and stimulates cell
cycle
D) Mutations of the p53 gene are the most common genetic alteration seen in
human cancer
112. A middle aged woman is revealed to have subepithelial bullae with granular IgA deposits
on basement membrane and she has some degree of gluten sensitivity. What is the
diagnosis ?
A) Pemphigus foliaceus
B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
C) Pemphigus vulgaris
D) Bullous pemphigoid
B) Degree of anaplasia
C) Metastatic spread
DM
A) Ureter
B) Collecting duct
C) Loop of Henle
D) Distal tubule
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B) Kallikrine
C) Serotonin
D) Complement factor C3
118. Which of the following gene(s) is/are associated with childhood polycystic kidney
disease ?
A) PKH D1
B) PK D1 & PK D2
C) VHL
D) MCK D1
B) B cell
C) Null cell
D) Plasma cell
DM
A) Rhabdomyosarcoma
B) Fibrosarcoma
C) Leiomyosarcoma
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B) Choriocarcinoma
B) Papillary carcinoma
C) Medullary carcinoma
D) Anaplastic carcinoma
B) Nitrosamine
C) Arsenic
D) Vinyl chloride
B) Russell bodies
C) Councilman bodies
D) Brown atrophy
B) Smooth muscle
C) Striated muscle
D) Fibroblast
B) Reticulin stain
B) Mumps
C) Chicken-pox
D) Rubella
B) Lymphoma
C) Amyloidosis
D) Abscess of spleen
DM
A) Horners syndrome
B) Anhidrosis
D) Arthritis
Patho.
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B) Trisomy 21
C) Trisomy 13
D) Trisomy 9
B) Amyloidosis
B) Essential thrombocytosis
C) Myelofibrosis
B) Lymphoma
C) Hepatoblastoma
D) Dysgerminoma
134. Necrotising papillitis may be seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Analgesic nephropathy
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Tubercular pyelonephritis
135. Which of the following is the most common type of glial tumours ?
A) Astrocytoma
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Oligodendroglioma
Patho.
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B) Gastrointestinal carcinoid
C) Optic gliomas
138. The following zone of prostate is commonly involved in benign prostatic hyperplasia
A) Periurethral
B) Peripheral
C) Entire gland
D) Capsule
B) Kartagener syndrome
C) -1 antihypsin deficiency
D) Bronchial obstruction
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Neisseria meningitidis
B) EBV
C) HSV
D) HPV 16, 18
B) Enteric fever
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Chrohns disease
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B) Typhoid fever
C) Cat-scratch disease
D) Chrohn disease
145. Intranuclear Cowdry type A inclusions are observed in the following viral infection
A) Herpes simplex
B) Cytomegalo
C) Varicella-Zoster
D) Epstein-Barr
146. Which of the following is NOT associated with oral dark pigmentation ?
A) Addisons disease
B) Lichen planus
C) Albrights syndrome
D) Haemochromatosis
147. Which of the following enzymes are responsible for generating Oxygen burst within
neutrophils for killing intracellular bacteria.
A) Superoxide dismutase
B) Oxidase
C) Catalase
D) Glutathione peroxidase
B) Formalin
C) Ethyl alcohol
D) Xylene
DM
C) Bronchiolitis obliterans
D) Alveolar proteinosis
Patho.
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