These are questions from some of our past exams that may have been included in the Finals.

-Emil

Which of these immunosuppressive drugs are antibiotics?

a. Cyclosporine
b. Tacrolimus
c. Vincristine
d. All of the above
e. A & B

The following opthalmic drops are used in prophylaxis of the newborn for the prevention of opthalmia neonatorum,
EXCEPT:
a. Silver nitrate
b. Erithromycin
c. Tetracycline
d. Oxitetracyclin
e. Bacitracin

Which of the ff opthalmic drugs is indicated in Px with concommitant active bronchial asthma
a. Carteolol
b. Timolol
c. Levobunolol
d. Betaxolol
e. None of the above

The ff drugs are mydriatic EXCEPT:

a. Atropine
b. Scopolamine
c. Phenylephrine HCl
d. Carbachol
e. Homatropine

An osteosarcoma Px received a high dose of Methotrexate therapy to prevent excessive toxicity. This strategy is
commonly employed:
a. Venous hemofiltration
b. Lucovorin rescue
c. Urine acidification
d. Rapid atropinization

The main mechanism that is responsible for termination of Norepinephrine action is by

a. degradation by COMT & MAO
b. Reuptake into presynaptic neuron
c. Uptake into the presynaptic neuron
d. Diffusion into systemic circulation

Potentially adverse reaction/s to NMBs will include:

a. Malignant hypothermia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Respiratory failure
d. All of the above
e. A & C

Which of the ff centrally-acting anti-tussive has no Histamine-releasing property

a. Dextromeorphan
b. Hydrocodone
c. Codeine
d. Morphine
e. NONE

The known MOA of mucolytics

a. gastropulmonary vagal reflex
b. action on airway smooth muscles resulting in bronchodilation
c. substitution of the disulfide chain of the mucus, resulting in breakage of mucus chain
d. Depression of the medullary cough center

W/c of the following anti-tussives is used as an antidote for paracetamol poisoning?

Acetylcysteine

W/c of the ff anti-tussives can stimulte the production of pulmonary surfactant?

Ambroxol HCl
W/c of the ff oral preparations of ferrous contains the LEAST amount of elemental iron?
a. Ferrous fumarate (MOST ito)
b. Hydrated ferrous sulfate
c. Dessicated ferrous sulfate
d. Ferrous gluconate
e. Ferrous carbonate

The active form of Vitamin B12:

a. Deoxyadenosylcobalamin
b. Methylcobalamin
c. Cyanocobalamin
d. All of the above
e. A & B

The following are the anti-inflammatory effects of corticosteroids that would result in the control of asthma symptoms,
EXCEPT:
a. Inhibition of eicosanoid synthesis
b. Modulation of cytokine & chemokine production
c. Inhibition of basophils, eosinophils, and other leukocyte accumulation
d. Increased vascular permeability

The prototypical drug which acts on tissue schizonts:

a. Quinidine
b. Sulfonamide
c. Pyrimethamine
d. Chloroquine

The antimalarial drug which forms complexes with the heme to cause membrane damage.
a. Mefloquine
b. Quinidine
c. Chloroquine
d. Primaquine

In presumptive treatment of malaria, a loading dose of this drug is administered immediately:

a. Chloroquine
b. Quinidine
c. Primaquine
d. Artemisin

Quinine is a potentially toxic drug because it may produce:

a. Steven-Johnson syndrome
b. Erythema multiforme
c. Cinchonism
d. Optic neuritis

The appropriate anti-hypertensive agent given to a Px with migraine should be:

a. Calcium antagonist
b. ACE inhibitor
c. Beta blocker
d. Clonidine

The appropriate antihypertensive agent for Px experiencing cough due to ACE inhibitor use is:
a. Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker
b. Calcium antagonist
c. Beta Blocker
d. Hydralazine

An anti-hypertensive agent that acts by releasing nitric acid causing vasodilatation thereby controlling BP:
a. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Alpha-1 adrenergic blocker
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Imidazoline receptor agonist

Which of the following antihypertensive medication has gynecomastia as a side effect?

a. Spirinolactone
b. Prazosin
c. Nifedipine
d. Beta Blocker

What Anti-HPN acts on the distal convoluted tubules of the kidney?

a. Bumetanide
b. Thiazides
c. Amiloride
d. Furosemide
The anti-lipidemic drug that inhibits the rate-limiting step in hepatic cholesterol synthesis:
a. bile acid sequestrant
b. Fibrates
c. Nicotinic acid
d. Probucol
e. Statins

Which of the following can increase digoxin concentration in plasma?

a. Aspirin
b. Verapamil
c. Carvedilol
d. Amyl nitrite

The combination of Verapamil & a Beta Blocker should be avoided because it increases the risk of developing:
a. Reflex tachycardia
b. Atrioventricular block
c. Constipation
d. Migraine headache

The mechanism of action of relief of symptoms in nitrate use in chronic unstable angina:
a. Dilation of coronary arteries
b. Decrease heart rate
c. Fall in systemic arterial pressure
d. Decrease in cardiac contractility

ARBs act by inhibiting the:

a. Angiotensin converting enzyme
b. AT-2 receptor
c. AT-1 receptor
d. Kinase 2 enzyme

Drug of choise for patients with Torsade de pointes:

a. Verapamil
b. Diltiazem
c. Magnesium
d. Digoxin

The following drugs are used specifically to treat Herpes simplex infections, EXCEPT:
a. Acyclovir
b. Valacyclovir
c. Ganciclovir
d. Foscarnet

The only anti-CMV drug which has intravenous & intraocular preparations:
a. Acyclovir
b. Foscarnet
c. Vadgancyclovir
d. Gancyclovir

Isoniazid induced peripheral neuropathy can be prevented by taking:

a. Pyrazinamide
b. Promethazine
c. Primaquine
d. Pyridoxine

A harmless but alarming adverse effect of Rifampicin is:

a. Red-orange discoloration of body fluids
b. Elevation of liver enzymes
c. Arthralgia
d. Jaundice

This drug causes a specific adverse effect on CN VIII:

a. Pyrazinamide
b. Streptomycin
c. Ethionamide
d. Ethambutol

The integrity of this basic chemical structure should be kept intact to sustain the biologic activity of penicillin:
a. 2o Amine group
b. Beta-lactam ring
c. Thiazolidine ring
d. Lactone ring
Which of these oral erythromycin is best absorbed formulation?
a. Base
b. Estolate
c. Esterate
d. Ethyl succinate

A newly approved tetracycline analog which is a glycylcycline and a minocycline derivative is:
a. Tigecycline
b. Doxycycline
c. Methacycline
d. Oxytetracycline

Torsade de pointes would occur in the use of class III agents such as sotalol and amiodarone due to the prolongation of:
a. PR interval
b. QRS complex
c. QT interval
d. None

Cornerstone of diarrhea treatment:

a. Loperamide
b. Ocreotide
c. Oral rehydration therapy
d. Kaolin+Pectin

The use of antidiarrheal drug during acute diarrhea should be avoided because:
a. Delays clearance of microorganisms
b. Increases risk of systemic invasion of microorganism
c. Prolongs the diarrheal illness
d. All of the above
e. A & B

The DOC for all symptomatic forms of amebiasis:

a. Metronidazole
b. Paromomycin
c. Chlorquine
d. Diloxamide furoate

Omeprazole, a prodrug is converted to its active form in the:

a. Parietal cell canaliculi
b. Gastric lumen
c. Both
d. Neither

What is the best time to take proton pump inhibitor?

a. With meals
b. 30 minutes before meals
c. 30 minutes after meals
d. Any time

This bacteriostatic is chemically relate dto the aminoglycoside but activity is restricted to gonococci:
a. Dibekacin
b. Aminoside
c. Paromomycin
d. Spectinomycin

Which aminoglycoside is used with other antibiotics to treat tuberculosis?

a. Kanamycin
b. Gentamycin
c. Tobramycin
d. Streptomycin

Infusion related flushing “Red-neck” syndrome may be brought about by the fast administration of:
a. Vancomycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Tobramycin
d. Gentamycin

Although Trimethoprim acts synergistically with sulfomethoxazole its main mechanism of action is to:
a. Prevent reduction of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate
b. Inhibit conversion of PABA to dihydropteroate
c. Bind to the 30s ribosome to inhibit bacterial growth synthesis
d. All of the above

Trimethoprim –sulfomethoxazole is the DOC for: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in AIDS