Para sa ating lucky 52 na mag-reremove on Monday, I hope this helps

Thanks to everyone na nag-contribute ng questions, answers, tips ^_^

We weren’t so sure if some of the questions here were actually in our Final exam, pero nilagay na rin namin dito just in
case.
If there are any corrections, pakisabi nalang agad 

Reminder: Doc Alvero said that her 45 questions that were multiple choice nung Finals are all going to be matching type
for the Removals. Some of her topics last year were (if you know any of her other topics last year na wala dito, please let
us know):
- Principles of Pharmacokinetics
- Principles of Chemotherapy
- Tx of Asthma
- Antimicrobials
- Tx of Acid Peptic Diseases
- Adrenal Steroids
- Anti-Epileptic drugs

We can doooo this!

- Aly 
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
1) Components of Pharmacokinetics include:
a. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
b. Mechanism of action, spectrum of activity, mode of activity
c. Adverse effects, drug interactions, contraindications
d. All of the above

2) Gynecomastia is a side effect of [Spirinolactone?] because:

- Can’t remember the exact answer in the exam. Just remember that a lot of drugs metabolized in the liver has
gynecomastia as a side effect, since the liver metabolizes estrogen (which causes gynecomastia). So since the liver is
busy metabolizing other drugs, estrogen accumulates.

3) Majority of drugs enter the cell through:

Simple diffusion

10) Which of the following drugs is given to treat the SYMPTOMS of vertigo & motion sickness?

a. Dimenhydrinate Anticholinergic drugs, especially the muscarinic receptor antagonist, scopolamine, and H1-
b. Meclizine receptor antagonists, such as dimenhydrinate, meclizine, and cyclizine, are very useful in
c. Scopolamine motion sickness. They are anti-emetics that are useful in preventing vomiting due to vertigo.
d. all of the above
e. A & B

15) A bronchodilator useful in COPD  the answer should be either a beta-2 adrenergic agonist or an
anticholinergic agonist
A. Cromolyn Sodium
B. Ipratropium Bromide
C. Terbutaline
D. Theophylline
Note for this table: those with * is the protoype drug
A question in our exam was: Which of the anti-tussives is centrally-acting?
PERIPHALLY acting anti-tussives
Anti-histamines • H1-receptor inhibitors

- Diphenhydramine hydrochloride*
• also used as Anti-allergy
• Added to cough and cold
- Fenspiride
remedies as both antitussives and to treat the nasal
congestion.
• Do not have any direct
antitussive effect but may act indirectly by reducing
postnasal drip

Expectorants • Aim to stimulate bronchial

- Glyceryl guaiacolate*
mucous production, making the secretions easier to
- Syrup of Ipepac
remove by cough or by ciliary transport
- NH4Cl
- KCl

Mucolytics • Alter the viscosity of bronchial secretions

- Bromhexine* • stimulates mucociliary action and clears the air passages in
- Acetylcysteine the respiratory tract
- Carboxymethylcysteine • Crosses the BBB & small amounts cross the placenta
- Ambroxol Hydrochoride

Bronchodilators
Ephedrine, Theophylline, Terbutaline

Demulcents • is an agent that forms a

- Syrup of Acacia
soothing film over a mucous membrane, relieving minor pain
- Olive oil
and inflammation of the membrane.
- Glycerin
- Licorice
- Honey

Local Anesthetics • Soothes irritation

- Benzocaine • Component of throat lozenges
- Benzonatate
 Lozenges are
medicated candies that dissolves slowly in the mouth
and soothes the irritated throat
CENTRALLY acting anti-tussives
Narcotic (Opioids)
- Codeine
› Both used as analgesic and respiratory
depressant
Non-Narcotic › acts centrally to elevate
- Dextrometorphan hydrobromide* the threshold for coughing
- Butamirate citrate
- Dimethoxanate
› Has no analgesic or
- Pipazethate addictive properties

17) Why is Penicillin V for minor infections (**Laryngitis, bronchitis, tonsillitis, otitis media, dental
abscesses, pneumonia, and soft tissue and skin infections caused by susceptible bacteria) only?
a. Bacterial resistance
b. Needed for frequent dosing
c. Relative poor bioavailability
d. Narrow spectrum
e. All of the above ?

Penicillin V is a natural penicillin. It has a spectrum similar to that of penicillin G, but it is not used for treatment of
bacteremia because of its higher minimum bactericidal concentration (the minimum amount of the drug needed to
eliminate the infection)

Criteria Penicillin G Penicillin V

Route of Administration Parenteral Oral

Gastric Acid Stability Degraded Stable

Penicillinase-resistant NO NO

Renal Clearance Rapid Rapid

26) Which is not an adverse effect of Corticosteroids?

a. Osteoperosis
b. Growth suprression
c. Cataract
d. Hypoglycemia (This should be HYPERglycemia)

Other side effects of Corticosteroids are:

• weight gain • thinning of the skin
• swelling and edema • increased susceptibility to infection
• high blood pressure • stomach ulcers
• increased sweating
• diabetes • mood swings
• black and blue marks • psychological problems such as
• slowed healing of wounds depression
• acne • adrenal suppression and crisis
• muscle weakness

31) Opioid analgesics work on which type of receptors?

A. Motor
B. Sensory
C. (Autonomic?)
D. Nociceptive
*NOTES FROM OUR TRANX: No autonomic, sensory, or motor blockade. Opioid analgesic effects are specific to nociceptive
(injury perceiving) neurons; Nociceptive afferents are unaffected, and normal sensation of pressure, touch and temperature are
preserved.

40) Why is Nitroglycerin given sublingulally? In order to bypass the first-pass effect

42) What is the most common effect of nitrate?

a. Headache  because Nitrate causes vasodilation
b. Tremors
c. Hypertension  dapat hypotension
d. Hypersensitivity

60) Adrenergic agonist with a comparable affinity to alpha 1, beta 1, beta 2 receptors?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Ephedrine
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
e. B & C

69?) Hepatic injury secondary to Acetaminophen causes this type of reaction:

a. Genotoxic c. Phenotoxic
b. Phototoxic d. Pharmacotoxic
69) Symptoms of Organophosphate poisoning: (to make things simple, isipin mo nalang na nagkakaroon dito ng
excess accumulation of ACh, thus the following symptoms)
a. convulsions
b. difficulty breathing
c. miosis
d. all of the above
e. A & C

Signs and symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be divided into 3 broad categories, including (1) muscarinic
effects, (2) nicotinic effects, and (3) CNS effects.

Mnemonic for muscarinic effects=

- SLUDGE (salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, GI upset, emesis) and
- DUMBBBELS (diaphoresis and diarrhea; urination; miosis; bradycardia, bronchospasm, bronchorrhea; emesis; excess
lacrimation; and salivation).

Muscarinic effects by organ systems include the following:

◦ Cardiovascular - Bradycardia, hypotension
◦ Respiratory - Rhinorrhea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distress
◦ Gastrointestinal - Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, fecal incontinence
◦ Genitourinary - Incontinence
◦ Ocular - Blurred vision, miosis
◦ Glands - Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis

Nicotinic signs and symptoms= muscle fasciculations, cramping, weakness, and diaphragmatic failure.
CNS effects include anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, & coma.

**Remember!: Atropine & Pralidoxeme are given to patients in cases of organophosphate poisoning

80) Which is a macrolide with 15-C ring?

*hindi maalala yung choices for this question, but I looked it up sa internet and Azithromycin is a 15-
membered ring macrolide. Here are some additional notes on macrolides:

Macrolides are one of the groups under protein synthesis inhibitors. The macrolides are a group of antibiotics with a macrocyclic lactone
structure to which one or more deoxy sugars are attached. Erythromycin was the first of these drugs to find clinical application, both as a
drug of first choice and as an alternative to penicillin in individuals who are allergic.The newer members of this family, clarithromycin (a
methylated form of erythromycin) and azithromycin (having a larger lactone ring), have some features in common with, and others that
improve on, erythromycin. Telithromycin , a semisynthetic derivative of erythromycin, is the first ketolide antimicrobial agent that has been
approved and is now in clinical use. Ketolides and macrolides have very similar antimicrobial coverage. However, the ketolides are active
against many macrolide-resistant gram-positive strains.

Erythromycin: This drug is effective against many of the same organisms as penicillin G; therefore, it is used in patients who are allergic
to the penicillins.

Clarithromycin: This antibiotic has a spectrum of antibacterial activity similar to that of erythromycin, but it is also effective against
Haemophilus influenzae. Its activity against intracellular pathogens, such as Chlamydia, Legionella, Moraxella, and Ureaplasma species
and Helicobacter pylori, is higher than that of erythromycin.
Azithromycin: Although less active against streptococci and staphylococci than erythromycin, azithromycin is far more active against
respiratory infections due to H. influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Azithromycin is now the preferred therapy for urethritis caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis. It also has activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex in patients with acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome and disseminated infections.

89) Gentamicin (pwede ring Streptomycin) combined with ____ is the treatment for gram (+)
organisms:
a. Imipinem
b. Vancomycin [or a ß-lactam (ex. Penicillin G)]
* Can’t remember the other choices 

90) Aminoglycoside which is applied only topically:

a. Streptomycin (LEAST nephrotoxic)
b. Gentamycin
c. Kanamycin
d. Neomycin (due to its association to severe nephrotoxicity)
 All Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic, but Neomycin is the MOST nephrotoxic
Aminoglycosides had been the mainstays for treatment of serious infections due to aerobic gram-negative bacilli (ex. P.
aureginosa)
End either in –mycin or -micin
Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis (30s)
• Disrupt cell wall synthesis
• Are bacteriCIDAL

• MOST ototoxic= NAK (Neomycin, Amikacin, Kanamicin)

• LEAST ototoxic= Netilmicin

93) Anti-fungal Antibiotic with the broadest spectrum?

Answer = Amphotericin B

99) For Trichomoniasis in a single, non-gravid female, with a history of multiple sex partners, the
treatment is a single dose of:
a. Chloramphenicole
b. Metronidazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Fluconazole

100) Primary pharmakokinetic property that determines DURATION of local anesthetics, EXCEPT?
a. Nerve & fiber type
b. Size & health of patient
c. Duration of anesthetic required
d. Duration of injury

103) Succinylcholine is hydrolyzed to succinate ? by:

Answer = Plasma cholinesterase

Normally, the duration of action of succinylcholine is extremely short, because this drug is rapidly broken
down by plasma cholinesterase

110) For the Tx of sleep disorders, the drug selected should be one which
a. Has sufficient duration
b. Decrease sleep latency
c. Has minimal hangover effects
d. All of the above ?

111) All of the following are side effects of Diazepam EXCEPT:

a. Sedation, confusion, lethargy
b. Impaired mental & psychomotor function
c. Delayed reaction time
d. Anterograde amnesia (remember that this is a side effect of Midazolam)

#?) Which of the following is the MOA for H1 Receptor Blockers?

A. Prevent histamine release
 B. Reverse effects of histamine
C. Prevents further histamine release
D. All of the above

ANESTHETICS
 Drug/s used to reverse and (?) competitive or nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers
A. Neostigmine B. Edrophonium
C. Physostigmine D. All of the above
E. A and C only

 Anesthetic that causes dissociative amnesia? – Ketamine

 What drug is used in surgeries with an anterograde amnesia side effect? – Midazolam

 What is the benefit of Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) over Aspirin? (not sure kung ito talaga yung question
nung finals natin)
 It does not cause gastric irritation, so you can prescribe it to patients with ulcers
**ALSO REMEMBER THAT PARACETAMOL LACKS THE ANTI-INFLAMMATORY PROPERTIES OF NSAIDS

 There was a question that included Midazolam, Bupivacaine and endotracheal intubation
 Midazolam (general anesthetic) is used as an adjunct to endotracheal intubation, it induces respiratory
relaxation.
 Bupivacaine (local anesthetic) is administered for airway management.
Tracheal intubation is performed by practitioners in various medical conditions, such as when a patient
is under general anesthesia. In anesthetized patients spontaneous respiration may be decreased or
absent due to the effect of anesthetics, opioids, or muscle relaxants. To enable mechanical ventilation,
an endotracheal tube is often used.
**These are notes from SDLS & the internet

ANTIEPILEPTICS
 Which of the anti-epileptics and 1st gen at 2nd generations...
1st gen (3PC): Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Phenobarbital, Primidone
2nd gen (Lusty Girl Friend): Lamotrigine, Gabapentin, Felbamate

 Which anti-epileptic causes Stevens Johnson Syndrome?

Accorrding to notes from last year, the answer = PHENYTOIN

According to wikipedia: SJS could be caused daw by Phenobarbs, Phenytoin, Lamotrigine,

Ethosuximide, Carbamazepine

 Which among PD meds act on the Dopamine 2 receptor?

Answer = PRAMIPEXOLE

 What drug is used to treat Restless leg syndrome (RLS) ?

Answer = Bromocriptine or Pramipexole  These are Dopamine Recptor Agonists

 Which of the following drugs cause orthostatic hypotension?

*can’t remember what the choices were, so notes nalang:
- Nitrovasodilators (Nitroglycerin, Amyl Nitrite, Isosorbide…)
- Calcium-channel blockers (F.A.N.-pine)
- Levodopa (due to side effect of Dopamine)
- COMT inhibitors (Tolcapone, Entacapone)  drugs that inhibit Dopamine metabolism
- Dopamine receptor agonists (Pramipexole, Bromocriptine)
BASTA MGA DRUGS THAT  DOPAMINE, & INHIBIT ALPHA-1 ADRENERGIC RECEPTORS!!!

SEDATIVE HYPNOTICS
Which part of the BNZ causes the sedative effect? di ko sure ung questioin... basta pag structure:
 Substition of halo or nitro group in GROUP 7 POSITION

DIURETICS
Which diuretic inhibits the Na-Cl Symport?
 THIAZIDE DIURETICS (Remember: Hydrochlorthiazide)

CANCER
 The following drugs are stage-specific EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: i forgot ung right answer but i remember eliminating:
Methotrexate --- S-phase
Vincristine ---- Metaphase
Paclitaxel-- -- Metaphase

Cell-cycle SPECIFIC Cell-cycle NON-SPECIFIC

 Anti-metabolites  Alkylating agents (Cyclophosphamide)

(Methotrexate)  Antibiotics (Doxorubicin)

 Anti-biotic (Bleomycin)  Cisplatin
 Vinca alkaloids (Vincristine)  Nitrosureas
 Etoposide
CCDN

MEBV

 The following are anti-metabolites except:

Correct Answer: either Vincristine or Paclitaxel  both are mitotic inhibitors

Anti-metabolites:
Folic Acid analogs
Methotrexate
Pyrimidine analogs
5-Fluorouracil
Purine analogs
Mercaptopurine

 Doxorubicin is a Topoisomerase inhibitor and its MOA and the choices had something to do with
the action of topoisomerase II, it went something like:
A) topoisomerase II ….
B) topoisomerase IV? ….
C) DNA Gyrase….
D) A and C only
• MOA of Doxorubicin:
• 1. Intercalation in the DNA: The drugs insert nonspecifically between adjacent base pairs and bind to the sugar-phosphate
backbone of DNA. This causes local uncoiling and, thus, blocks DNA and RNA synthesis. Intercalation can interfere with
the Topoisomerase II catalyzed breakage/reunion reaction of supercoiled DNA strands, causing irreparable breaks.
• 2. Binding to cell membranes: This action alters the function of transport processes coupled to phosphatidylinositol
activation.
• 3. Generation of oxygen radicals: Cytochrome P450 reductase (present in cell nuclear membranes) catalyzes reduction
of the anthracyclines to semiquinone free radicals. These in turn reduce molecular O2, producing superoxide ions and
hydrogen peroxide, which mediate single-strand scission of DNA

 Which drug has the same mechanism of action as CYCLOSPORINE?

Answer = TACROLIMUS

PUD DRUGS
Used for stress ulcers: Ranitidine
ANTI-MALARIAL
 Which anti-malarial drugs needs cardiac monitoring? Most probably the answer = Chloroquine
Adverse effects = Hypertension, vasodilation, suppressed myocardial function, cardiac arrythmia
Prolonged use = widening of QRS interval, P wave abnormalities
**Note: Artemisinin has an adverse effect of increased QT interval

What kind of Adverse drug effect is gingival hyperplasia due to Phenytoin?

Adverse Drug
Description Examples
Reaction

- Predictable, dose dependent

1. Extension Effect  Hypoglycemia → Oral Hypglycemic

• An exaggeration of the Agents
A– therapeutic effect
 Gastropathy → NSAID induced
Augmented
 Priapism → Sildenafil
2. Side Effect
• Effect different from desired  Drowsiness → AntiHistamines
effect
 Depression → Methyldopa

 Hypersensitivity reaction or Allergy

(Cutaneous Allergic Reaction with Penicillin)
- Unpredictable  Stevens-Johnsons Syndrome →
- Effect is not related to the usual Sulfonamides
B – Bizarre
pharmacologic effects  Aplastic Anemia →
- Idiosyncrasy
Chloramphenicol
 Malignant Hyperthermia →
Succinylcholine
 Osteoporosis → Heparin

C–
- Occurs on long term use of drug  Nephropathy →Analgesic-
- Related to dose and duration of induced
Continuous
treatment  Gynecomastia → Cimetidine
 Gingival Hyperplasia → Phenytoin
- Occurs after a longer time  Phocomelia → Thalidomide
D – Delayed - May affect offspring of mother who  Vaginal Adenocarcinoma →
took the drug during pregnancy
Diethylstilbestrol
E – Ending of - Occur when drug is suddenly stopped  Acute Adrenal Insufficiency →
Use and withdrawal symptoms set in
Prednisone
 Rebound Hypertension →
Clonidine
 Rebound Insomnia →
 Diazepam

 Penicillin G →
F – Failure of - Resistance or tolerance to drug Staphylococcal Infection
Treatment effects  Antibacterial Drugs → Viral
Infections

 ANTI-ACNE PREPARATIONS
a. Retinoic Acid (Tretinoin)
- Normalize maturation of follicular epithelium, and has immunomodulatory properties and
efficacy against the inflammatory component of acne.
- Used as first line therapy for most cases of mild to moderate inflammatory acne and preferred
agent for maintenance therapy
- Approved for the treatment of acne vulgaris and as adjunct in the treatment of sun damaged skin
- Topical application for acne treatment is unlikely to produce systemic drug levels

b. Isotretinoin
- Has been a life-threatening medication for many patients
- Decreases Priopionibacterium acnes
- Absorption is enhanced with a high fat meal
- Treatment for Severe Recalcitrant Nodular Acne (looked it up sa net )
- Oral isotretinoin remains the most effective treatment for acne, BUT is reserved for severe cases
- Absolute Contraindication: Pregnancy (Teratogenic)

 SULFONYLUREAS
A group of oral hypoglycemics that promote insulin release from the β 2 cells of the pancreas. The primary
drugs used today are:
- tolbutamide → has shortest duration of action
- glyburide
- glipizide
- glimepiride

 MOA:
1) Stimulation of insulin release from the β 2 cells of the pancreas by blocking the ATP-sensitive K+
channels, resulting in depolarization and Ca2+ influx;
2)  in hepatic glucose production
3)  in peripheral insulin sensitivity

 Pharmacokinetics: Given orally, these drugs bind to serum proteins, are metabolized by the liver, and
are excreted by the liver or kidney.

 Adverse effects:
- Weight gain
- Hyperinsulinemia
- Hypoglycemia.
- Should be used with caution in patients with hepatic or renal insufficiency

 ANTI-HYPERLIPIDEMICS
 HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors (-statins)

MECHANISM OF ACTION EFFECTS PHARMACOKINETICS

Competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase.  Useful alone or in combination with - Well absorbed from the GIT (40%-75%)
resins, niacin, ezetimibe - High first-pass extraction by the liver
 Induce an increase in high-affinity LDL receptors leading to - absorption enhanced by food except
increase fractional catabolism of LDL and liver’s extraction of  Lowers LDL (20-40%) Pravastatin
LDL precursors from the blood, thus reducing LDL.
- Protein binding:
In Heterozygous familial
Most statins = 90%
 Best given in the evening wherein synthesis of cholesterol hypercholesterolemia (20-30%
Pravastatin = 50%
occurs except Atorvastatin which can be given anytime due reduction of LDL)
- CYP3A4 metabolizes most statins
to long half life. DOC for HFH – Atorvastatin (50-
- excretion primarily in the bile and feces
60% reduction)
except for Pravastatin w/c is renal
excretion
- Increases HDL (5-15%)
- plasma half-life = 1-3 hours
- Decreases triglycerides
- Antiproliferation effect on smooth
10mg Simvastatin = 20mg
muscle cells
Lovastatin/Pravastatin = 80mg Fluvastatin
-Antioxidant and anti inflammatory
 Which antidiabetic drugs do not have hypoglycemia as a side effect?
α -Glucosidase inhibitors –  glucose absorption
Acarbose
Miglitol

Biguanides –  hepatic production of glucose

Metformin
Thiazolidinediones –  insulin resistance
Pioglitazone
Rosiglitazone
DPP-IV inhibitors - glucose dependent insulin release;  glucagon secretion
Sitaglipitin

**Sulfonylureas & Meglitinides have hypoglycemia as an SE

 All of the following are contraceptives, EXCEPT:

a. Estradiol
b. Estrone
c. Estriol
d. Ethinyl estradiol
e. Diethyllstilbesterol
f. Progesterone
g. Clomiphene (an anti-estrogen; another anti-estrogen is Tamoxifene)
*Not sure what the exact choices were… * Note: Anti-estrogens are Tx for infertility

 Coumadin (Warfarin) and Vitamin K reaction

Warfarin antagonizes Vitamin K. It interferes in the synthesis of Vitamin K dependent clotting factors (2, 7,
9, 10) by inhibiting the enzyme Epoxide reductase

 What iron supplement is BEST for pregnant patients?

 Ferrous gluconate (contains the least amount of elemental iron)
 Ferrous fumarate (contains the greatest amount of elemental iron)
* I remember there being a choice na Ferric something

 What anti-gout drug is also used for ?

 Allopurinol – Hematologic cancers
 Indomethacin – Closing PDA

 Which anti-gout drug has anti-mitotic properties?

- Colchicine  binds to protein tubulin, prevent polymerization into microtubules and inhibits phagocytosis of uric acid;
blocks release of chemotactic factor.

 Topical Corticosteroids
Class 1 – Highest Potency
 Clobetasol propionate
 Betamethasone dipropionate

Class 2 – High Potency

 Fluocinonide
 Betamethasone dipropionate

Class 3, 4, 5 – Intermediate Potency

 Betamethasone dipropionate
 Flucinoloneacetonide
 Hydrocortisone valerate

Class 6 – Low Potency

 Fluocinolone acetonide

Class 7 – Lowest Potency

 Hydrocortisone
PRESCRIPTION WRITING
- Morphine sulphate has a dispense No. up to 3 ONLY and not 10
- Do not forget about the S2 drugs!

a) VIOLATIVE PRESCRIPTIONS
- Generic name is not written
- Generic name is not legible and a Brand name which is legible is written
- Brand name is indicated & instructions added (ex. “No substitution”) which tends to obstruct, hinder or
prevent proper generic dispensing

What to do:
- Shall NOT be filled
- Shall be kept & reported by the pharmacist to the nearest DOH office for appropriate action
- The Pharmacist shall advise the prescribe of the problem / instruct the customer to get the proper
description

b) ERRONEOUS PRESCRIPTIONS
- Brand name precedes the generic name
- Generic name is the one in the parenthesis
- Brand name is not in the parenthesis

What to do:
- Shall be filled
- The prescription will be kept and reported

c) IMPOSSIBLE PRESCRIPTIONS
- Only generic name is written, but is not legible
- Generic names does not correspond to the brand name
- Both generic name & brand name are not legible
- Drug product prescribed is not registerd with the BFAD

What to do:
- Shall NOT be filled
- Prescription will be kept & reported
- Pharmacist shall advise the prescriber of the problem / Insruct the customer to get the proper prescription
 STUDY THE FOLLOWING
Basic concepts regarding the passage of drugs through a lipid membrane (polar or non-polar drugs, ionized or
unionized)
Can EASILY pass through = Non-Polar, Non-ionized (lipid soluble)
Can’t easily pass through = Polar, Ionized (water soluble)

MOAs for the CVS drugs

Review functions of NSAIDS (if anti-inflammatory only or also anti-pain, and anti-pyretic)