Professional Documents
Culture Documents
4B Condensed QA
4B Condensed QA
Testbank.Document.Questions
for Testbank PE4PARTB
Page
1
25-SEP-2001
b)
a steam turbine
010100020021000C
Large power production plants tend to be of the thermal type
because they can burn solid fuels and:
c)
010100020021000A
A steam engine will have the steam supply to the cylinder
shut off once the piston has travelled
a)
010100020021000D
The reciprocating motion of a steam engine is converted to
rotary motion
d)
at the crankshaft
010100020021000B
The crosshead of a steam engine
b)
010100020021000D
A steam engine piston
d)
010100020021000A
A routine inspection of an operating steam engine should
cover first and foremost
a)
lubricators
1
010100020021000C
Whenever feasibly possible, when checking bearings on running
pieces of equipment it is wise to
a)
by sound
010100020021000D
The slide valve of a steam engine is designed to
d)
it is free of oil
010100020021000C
The exhaust steam from a steam turbine is more acceptable for
process than the exhaust from a steam engine because
c)
it is free of oil
010100020021000E
The exhaust steam from a condensing steam turbine
has more moisture than the exhaust from a steam engine:
e)
010100020021000D
Turbines often have segmental carbon ring sealing glands
which are held in place by garter springs
d)
garter springs
010100020021000D
A steam turbine should trip or shut down when normal
b)
010100020021000E
The shrouding installed on the blading of a steam turbine serves
to:
e)
010100020021000A
The turbine overspeed trip:
2.
4.
5.
010100020021000B
The overspeed trip of a steam turbine
b)
010100020021000B
Turbine overspeed trip
b)
010100020021000D
Turbine lubricating oil
d)
010100020021000C
The purpose of turbine glands is to prevent
c)
010100020021000E
Shaft sealing in high output turbines is done with
e)
labyrinth seals
3
010100020021000B
When the steam pressure drop occurs in only the stationary
members or components of a turbine, the turbine is known as an impulse unit
b)
an impulse unit
010100020021000E
A large reaction turbine will have steam pressure dropping through BOTH moving
and stationary sections Reaction = steam pressure drops over BOTH
d)
010100020021000C
Turbine thrust bearings are fixed to the casing and prevent
axial movement of the spindle by contacting a component on
the shaft known as a
c)
collar
010100020021000D
Shaft sealing carbon glands are
d)
self-lubricating
010100020021000C
The great majority of steam turbine governing systems utilize
the
c)
010100020021000B
Reaction turbines
b)
010100020021000B
In an impulse turbine
b)
010100020021000E
The steam turbine that has a pressure drop across
every set of blades is the reaction turbine.
e) reaction
010100020021000D
When starting a steam turbine it is customary practice to
a)
010100020021000B
Excessive wind velocity in a natural draft cooling tower may
cause
a)
b)
010100020021000C
Compared to a crossflow tower, a counterflow tower
c)
010100020021000E
Water contained in the airstream at the discharge of a
cooling tower is removed
e)
010100020021000C
A cooling tower which requires neither fan nor fill is the
c)
venturi unit
010100020021000E
b)
010100020021000D
You are replacing the cooling tower fan motor bearings
because
d)
010100020021000D
Scaling is not as severe in towers when compared to boilers
because
d)
Gas Turbines I
010100020021000C
A gas turbine compressor is usually
c)
010100020021000A
The compressor on the gas turbine
a)
010100020021000C
The combustion chamber of a gas turbine
c)
010100020021000D
Many typical steam plant auxiliaries are eliminated with a
gas turbine due to its
d)
simplicity
010100020021000B
Gas turbines are very popular where
b)
water is scarce
010100020021000B
Gas turbines are ideal when considering
b)
010100020021000A
A two shaft gas turbine
c)
20% to 30%
010100020021000C
Early gas turbines were handicapped by
d)
010100020021000A
The output power of a gas turbine is directly related to the
e)
010100020021000C
Some of the characteristics which make the gas turbine a better
choice over other prime movers are:
1. low maintenance
2. minimum cooling water
7
4.
010100020021000E
The air side of a gas turbine regenerator is located
e)
010100020021000D
A gas turbine performs most effectively if
d)
010100020021000B
A combined steam and gas turbine arrangement can be termed
b)
a cogeneration system
010100020021000B
The purpose of a regenerator is
b)
b)
010100020021000C
Diesel engine governing is accomplished by
c)
010100020021000C
The fuel for a diesel engine is
c)
010100020021000A
Four-stroke cycle engine valves are
a)
operated by cams
010100020021000C
An engine which develops one power stroke with every other
turn of the crankshaft is the
c)
010100020021000A
Four cycle engine lubrication is usually
a)
forced by pump
010100020021000C
An example of an engine which gives high torque at low speeds
would be that of a
c)
010100020021000D
A two cycle engine
a)
snowmobile engine
010100020021000E
A major difficulty encountered with a two-stroke cycle engine
is
e)
010100020021000E
e)
the camshaft
010100020021000D
Ignition in a diesel engine is started by
d)
010100020021000A
Using a compressed air starting motor is a popular method of
starting a
a)
010100020021000D
When using compressed air to each cylinder for starting
purposes, the pressure is approximately 2100kPa
d)
2,100 kPa
010100020021000C
Reduction in sealing qualities between the piston rings and
cylinder wall by the lube oil may be the result of
c)
Types of Pumps
010100020021000E
A pump is capable of suction lift due to
e)
atmospheric pressure
010100020021000C
Centrifugal pumps do not develop good suction lift because
c)
010100020021000A
It is generally accurate to say that
a)
10
010100020021000E
Preferably, dynamic pumps should be located
e)
010100020021000E
The vertical distance from the liquid surface up to the pump
centre-line plus the vertical distance from the pump
centre-line up to the surface of the liquid in the discharge
tank is
e)
010100020021000A
The difference between static suction head and static
discharge head is
a)
010100020021000B
When a pump discharges into a vessel operating at 300 kPa,
the 300 kPa is referred to as
b)
equivalent head
010100020021000B
The total static head of a pump
b)
010100020021000B
When a reciprocating pump discharges while its piston or
plunger moves in only one direction, it is termed a
b)
010100020021000D
Centrifugal pumps convert rotating mechanical energy into
kinetic energy then
d)
010100020021000C
A hot water heating system circulator should
c)
010100020021000A
The capacity of a centrifugal pump
a)
010100020021000B
11
010100020021000C
A rotary pump
c)
010100020021000B
When starting-up a rotary pump you must be sure that the
b)
010100020021000C
Rotary pumps:
1.
4.
010100020021000E
A double-acting pump
e)
010100020021000B
A volute type pump
b)
010100020021000D
A diffuser pump:
1.
2.
010100020021000C
Turbine pumps:
2.
3.
010100020021000A
A centrifugal pump consists of
a)
010100020021000E
The capacity of a centrifugal pump should only be reduced by
e)
010100020021000B
Cavitation of a pump refers to, when:
12
b)
010100020021000D
Rotary pumps:
1.
3.
4.
010100020021000E
If a pump is cavitating what can you do to prevent
or reduce the cavitation?
e)
010100020021000D
A positive displacement stand by-pump will have
d)
010100020021000B
Pumps handling cryogenic materials operate
b) at extremely low temperatures
\
010100020021000A
A circulating pump is usually
a)
010100020021000C
A multi-stage pump would be used
c)
010100020021000B
Turbine pumps are best suited for
b)
shrinking
010100020021000C
Wear rings are usually constructed of
13
c)
010100020021000B
Wearing rings:
1.
2.
4.
010100020021000E
A stuffing box:
1.
2.
4.
010100020021000B
Mechanical seals:
1.
2.
3.
010100020021000D
Compression type packing:
1.
2.
010100020021000C
Lantern rings:
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,
2,
2,
3,
1,
010100020021000C
The seal cage on the shaft of a centrifugal pump
c)
010100020021000B
The main advantage of a pump using a mechanical seal is
b)
less maintenance
010100020021000D
14
010100020021000B
If a stuffing box is to prevent the ingress of air, it is
equipped with
b)
a seal cage
010100020021000E
Any leakage occurring through the surfaces of a mechanical
seal will
e)
010100020021000D
The component of a mechanical seal which prevents axial
leakage is
d)
the O-ring
010100020021000E
What size of packing should you use, to repack a pump gland having the
following dimensions:
stuffing box bore
------------- 8.6 cm
pump shaft diameter ------------- 6.7 cm
e)
.95 cm
010100020021000B
New pump packing should be installed
b)
010100020021000B
Flexible couplings will compensate for
b) axial shaft misalignment
010100020021000A
Shaft misalignment during operation of a pump can be caused
by bearing wear, thermal expansion, and
a)
shaft flexing
010100020021000D
Proper priming and venting of a pump is important, especially
if
d) a mechanical seal is used
010100020021000B
Priming of a centrifugal pump refers to
b)
filling the pump casing with liquid and removing the air
15
010100020021000D
Priming a water pump means
d)
010100020021000B
If the packing gland of a centrifugal water pump is leaking too
much, you should
b)
010100020021000E
When lubricating equipment, the operator should also check for:
1.
2.
3.
4.
010100020021000C
Most pump failures, damage, or both occurs
d)
010100020021000C
When a pump is operating, your inspection should include the
following:
c)
010100020021000E
A plugged impeller symptom or result will be
e)
010100020021000A
If pump speed is too high
a)
010100020021000D
If a pump is running and has no discharge pressure, what will
you do?
d)
010100020021000A
You discover that your feed water pump is not delivering sufficient
water. A possible cause is
a)
16
Air Compression
010100020021000A
Compressed air machinery would most likely be used in
a)
coal mines
010100020021000D
Compressed air tools tend to be
d)
010100020021000A
In a centrifugal compressor the kinetic energy is converted
to potential energy in the
a)
010100020021000D
The compressor which would favour volume over pressure would
be the
d) centrifugal
010100020021000B
Positive displacement air compressor types are
b)
gear compressors
010100020021000D
Single stage reciprocating air compressors
d)
010100020021000E
A belt driven lubricator is very popular on a
e)
010100020021000B
Higher gearing is commonly used on
b)
screw units
010100020021000A
Relative to a dry-pipe fire system, an automatic air supply
shall be connected so that proper pressure can be maintained
in each system, is a statement of the
a) National Fire Protection Association Code
\
010100020021000D
In order to protect the driver, a start-stop air compressor
should be equipped with
d)
17
010100020021000A
The valves on a reciprocating compressor are opened by
a)
a pressure difference
010100020021000C
Compressor unloaders
c)
010100020021000B
Where pistons move in a cylinder it is necessary
for the lubricant to provide
b)
sealing
010100020021000C
An air compressor which gives two compression strokes per
crankshaft revolution is
c)
010100020021000A
To reduce air temperature between stages, we would use
a)
an intercooler
010100020021000B
An air receiver used in an air compression, system will perform the
following functions:
1.
2.
3.
010100020021000C
An air compressor auxiliary which will decrease the power
requirement is the
c)
intercooler
010100020021000B
Intercoolers should be equipped with
b)
safety valves
010100020021000C
Intercoolers
c)
010100020021000A
Intercoolers
a)
18
010100020021000D
Air receivers
d)
Lubrication Principles
010100020021000A
Relative to lubrication, one place where wear is beneficial
is
a)
010100020021000D
The intermeshing of gear teeth is a place where lubrication
d)
010100020021000D
The lubricant performs a number of functions.
of the following are the most important:
1.
4.
Indicate which
reduce wear
reduce friction
010100020021000D
A material which is commonly used as a solid lubricant is
d)
molybdenum disulphide
010100020021000E
Grease is not a suitable lubricant
e)
010100020021000C
A semi-solid lubricant:
c)
010100020021000E
Lubricant for an anti-friction bearing is
e)
010100020021000D
Which type of grease is the cheapest and most commonly used?
d)
calcium base
010100020021000A
The property of an oil which indicates its ability to support
a load is
19
a)
viscosity
010100020021000A
If an oil's viscosity changes much with little temperature
change then it will have a
a)
010100020021000D
Which of the following has the greatest effect on
the viscosity of a lubrication oil?
d)
temperature
010100020021000D
The resistance of a liquid to internal deformation
or shear is known as:
d) viscosity
010100020021000A
Which type of oil produces higher fluid friction?
a)
010100020021000A
Oil additives
a)
010100020021000B
If you desire an oil to flow at a much lower temperature you
would most likely add
b)
010100020021000C
High capacity steam turbine oils should
c)
be fire resistant
010100020021000B
Air compressor oil should
b)
010100020021000A
High viscosity oils are normally used for the following applications:
a)
20
d)
density
010100020021000E
A form of lubrication which requires continual motion of a
shaft or surface is
e) fluid film lubrication
010100020021000A
Fluid film lubrication
a)
010100020021000B
Fluid film lubrication
b)
010100020021000E
In a forced lubrication system, a pump supplies oil
Under pressure for the bearings.
010100020021000D
Large journal or sleeve bearings have grooves
d)
010100020021000B
A large journal bearing which is running hotter than normal
can be cooled by
b)
010100020021000B
A thrust bearing which does not utilize the oil wedge
principle of lubrication is the
b)
collar type
010100020021000B
One of the main functions of the lubricant in a sealed,
grease type antifriction bearing is
b)
sealing
010100020021000E
A journal bearing
e)
supports a shaft
010100020021000A
Thrust bearings:
1.
2.
21
4.
010100020021000C
The lubricant for an anti-friction bearing
c)
010100020021000B
A collar thrust bearing:
2.
3.
010100020021000B
A thrust bearing
b)
010100020021000A
An anti-friction bearing
a)
010100020021000E
A collar thrust bearing
e)
010100020021000C
A type of anti-friction bearing is the ball bearing.
010100020021000C
Using pressurized air to blow out a cleaned bearing
c)
010100020021000A
When replacing or removing an antifriction ball bearing, the
applied force should
a)
010100020021000E
Applying installation forces through the balls of a bearing
can cause
e)
brinelling
010100020021000D
A normal antifriction bearing temperature operating range is
d)
65 to 70 degrees C
22
010100020021000B
When grease is used in an antifriction bearing, the bearing
housing should not be filled more than 1/3 full.
010100020021000D
Causes of anti-friction bearing failures are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
improper fitting
false brinelling
high operating temperature
poor quality lubricant
Basic Electricity
010100020021000C
In an atom the electrons
d) are large in size when compared to the protons
010100020021000A
When a number of electrons pass a given point over a specific
time period the energy may be referred to as
a)
an ampere
010100020021000A
A basic law of electricity is, unlike charges attract each
other and like charges
a)
010100020021000B
The flow of electrons in a uniform direction is called
b) electrical current flow
010100020021000C
Since the discovery of electrons, it has been determined that
electrons are a negative charge and flow from
c)
negative to positive
010100020021000D
An open circuit is one in which
d)
a switch is open
010100020021000A
A triple pole single throw switch is one
a)
010100020021000E
The purpose of having an upward movement of a switch handle to
23
010100020021000C
The battery of an electrical circuit
c) supplies electromotive force
010100020021000D
The unit of measure for electrical current flow is the
d)
Ampere
010100020021000E
Atoms that have greater numbers of electrons in the outer shell
are
e)
010100020021000B
Electrons are negatively charged particles
b)
010100020021000D
Conventional current flow is from positive to negative.
d)
Conventional
010100020021000A
If an electrical potential is placed across a
conductor, the electrons will drift from the negative end
towards the positive end of the conductor, assuming the
electron theory.
010100020021000B
A material that conducts electrical current is called
b)
a conductor
010100020021000A
The electrical pressure that causes current flow through a
circuit is
a)
electromotive force
010100020021000D
The flow of electrons in a uniform direction from atom to atom
through a circuit, is known as
d)
current
010100020021000E
An insulator is material that will not conduct
an electrical current.
24
010100020021000E
A closed electrical circuit will allow current to flow
010100020021000D
An electrical device which is designed to start and stop
current flow is the switch
010100020021000A
Ohms Law can be stated as
a)
IR
010100020021000C
The voltage drop across a 20 ohm resistor with 10 amps
flowing would be
c)
200
010100020021000C
In an equivalent circuit developed from a multi-resistor
series circuit the sum of voltage drops across the original resistances
will be equal to the voltage drop of the equivalent circuit
010100020021000A
Three resistances of 20, 50 and 80 ohms make up a series
circuit. Supply voltage is 400. The current flowing would
be
a)
2.67 amps
010100020021000B
Equivalent resistance is decreased when a circuit is in parallel
010100020021000C
Three resistors of 20, 60 and 120 ohms are connected in
parallel and the circuit amperage is 60. The applied voltage
would be
c)
800
010100020021000C
The unit for opposition to current flow is the ohm
010100020021000E
The voltage required to force a current of 15 amps through a
resistance of 5 ohms would be75 volts
010100020021000A
Current flow is proportional to the applied voltage
010100020021000B
When one ampere of current flows through a resistance by the
application of one volt the resistance will be
25
b)
one ohm
010100020021000C
Current flow is inversely proportional to the
c)
resistance
010100020021000D
The value of the current flow in an electric circuit, where
the voltage is 12 volts and the resistance is 3 ohms is
d) 4 amperes
010100020021000A
The total resistance of three resistances in a series
circuit can be given as
a)
R1 + R2 + R3
010100020021000B
The equivalent resistance of three resistances 10 ohms,
25 ohms and 50 ohms connected in parallel is
b)
6.25 ohms
010100020021000C
A conductor's resistance is
c)
010100020021000A
Most conductors tend to
a)
010100020021000D
If the applied voltage in a circuit is 120 volts
and the current flow is 3 amperes the resistance
of this circuit is
d)
40 Ohms
010100020021000C
Voltage is
c)
electromotive force
010100020021000A
Electromotive force
a)
010100020021000C
An ampere is the
26
010100020021000E
The volt is an electromotive force.
010100020021000B
Under normal circumstances, the heat produced by the electrical
wires of a circuit is very small due to the
b)
010100020021000C
The force required to produce a current of one ampere through
a resistance of one ohm, is
c) one volt
010100020021000B
The unit of current flow is the
b)
ampere
010100020021000A
The opposition a device or material offers to the flow of
electric current, is known as:
a)
a resistance
0503000200420006600;95;
An electric motor is designed for a current of 30 amperes
with an applied voltage of 220 volts.
a)
960 watts
010100020021000A
Electrical power can be determined by the formula
a)
P = IE
010100020021000B
The basic unit of mechanical or electric power is the
27
b)
watt
010100020021000E
The voltage required to be supplied to a 12 kW motor drawing
24 amperes is
e)
500 volts
010100020021000D
If the power dissipated by a resistor is 1.2 kW when supplied with
110 volts, the amperage will be
d) 10.909 amperes
010100020021000B
Neglecting the efficiency of a 15 kW motor connected to a 400
volt supply, the amperage will be
b)
37.5 amperes
010100020021000D
The watt is an electrical unit of measure for
d)
power
010100020021000C
The basic unit of electrical power is the watt, which is the
result of
c) volts times amperes
010100020021000A
Current flow direction and intensity will
a)
010100020021000C
When a material or substance does not form a magnetic flux
easily it is said to have
c)
reluctance
010100020021000E
The space or zone around a magnet through which lines of
force travel is termed
e) magnetic field
010100020021000B
28
Faraday discovered
b)
010100020021000C
If a conductor is held stationary and a magnetic field is
moved across it, it forms what is known as
c)
generator action
010100020021000D
When magnetic flux lines travel and meet in opposing
directions the result can be
d)
motor action
010100020021000A
A conductor supplied with current while in a magnetic field
will
a)
010100020021000D
If two unlike poles are placed adjacent to each other there is
d)
010100020021000E
When current flows in a conductor
e)
010100020021000C
The total number of lines of force per square metre
in a magnetic field is
c)
010100020021000D
Magnetic field direction and intensity depend on the
d)
010100020021000D
When like poles of a magnet are placed adjacent to each other
29
they will
d)
010100020021000E
A property of a magnet is that it will always point in the north
and south direction, when
e)
010100020021000D
Iron and steel may be magnetized by rubbing the metal with
d)
a magnet
010100020021000E
The property which determines whether or not a material will
be easily magnetized or not is called
e)
permeability
010100020021000B
The property of resistance to conducting magnetic lines of force
is known as
b)
reluctance
010100020021000C
The maximum voltage generated by a single loop DC generator
occurs when the conductor is cutting the magnetic lines of
force at an angle of
c)
90 degrees
010100020021000D
When using Fleming's Left Hand Rule, the index finger
represents
d)
010100020021000E
A current carrying conductor being moved by a
magnetic field is the principle known as
e)
motor action
010100020021000A
The direction of the force due to motor action
may be determined using the Left Hand Rule.
010100020021000D
The minimum voltage generated by a single loop DC generator
occurs when the conductor is cutting the magnetic lines of
forces at an angle of
d)
180 degrees
30
010100020021000B
The right hand rule is used to
b)
010100020021000D
The most common measurement made with a meter is
d)
voltage
010100020021000A
When using an electrical meter to check that a circuit is
safe to work on, it is important to verify the proper scale,
current, or both that is being used because
a)
010100020021000C
A clamp-on ammeter measures current flow by using
c)
010100020021000A
Clamp-on ammeter readings may be inaccurate if
a)
010100020021000C
A kilowatt hour meter has a small motor which
c)
010100020021000E
Utility companies have a surcharge to their customers based
on
e)
peak demand
010100020021000D
A voltmeter is connected to a circuit
d)
in parallel
010100020021000C
Ammeters are connected with the negative or black
lead connected to the
31
c)
010100020021000D
When reading the dials of a power meter, read
d)
010100020021000E
The black demand pointer of a power meter
e)
010100020021000C
A power meter
c)
field poles
010100020021000D
There are three main types of DC generators; series, shunt
and compound wound. Each is
d)
self-excited
010100020021000E
Alternators must run at constant speed in order to maintain
e)
frequency
010100020021000A
The output voltage of a shunt DC generator may be varied by
adjusting the
a)
field rheostat
010100020021000B
The main components of a DC machine are the yoke or frame
which supports the field poles and the rotor
which is called an armature.
010100020021000A
In order to produce the strength of magnetic flux required in
larger DC machines
a)
32
010100020021000E
The armature core of a DC machine is built up of laminations
of
e) silicon steel plates
010100020021000B
A shunt type DC generator has nearly constant output voltage.
010100020021000E
The magnetic field in a DC machine may be supplied by permanent
magnets in small units. Large DC machines use field poles that
are essentially
e)
electromagnets
010100020021000A
The three main types of DC generators are the:
1.
3.
5.
compound wound
series wound
shunt wound
010100020021000D
The load current has no effect on the field excitation of a
d) separately excited generator
010100020021000B
Three factors which control the electromotive force developed
by a DC generator are the:
2.
3.
5.
010100020021000A
The voltage produced in each phase of a three phase generator
is displaced by 120 electrical degrees from the other
phases.
010100020021000A
The field strength of an alternator can be adjusted by varying
the amplitude of the DC power supplied to the
a)
rotating field
010100020021000B
The field strength of an alternator may be changed by
varying the amplitude of the DC power, supplied to the
rotating field by:
1.
4.
33
010100020021000C
An advantage of having an alternator with a rotating field is,
that the size of the rotating mass is
c)
reduced
050500020021000
Determine the speed of a synchronous motor operating with a line
frequency of 60 Hz where the motor has ## poles.
Answer = ____________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
P(2,14,2)
.SOLUTIONS
N=60*60/(P/2);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",N:3,.01
010100020021000D
The connection provided on DC motors to supply the armature with
power
d)
is a commutator
010100020021000C
The space around a magnet, through which the imaginary magnetic
lines of force are considered to travel, is known as the
c)
magnetic field
010100020021000A
A common use for a DC generator is
a)
\
010100020021000C
In a series wound DC generator2
c)
010100020021000A
A rheostat or "voltage regulator" of a DC shunt wound
generator is used to
a)
010100020021000A
When synchronizing an alternator; voltage, phase and
frequency must all be the same as well as
a)
phase sequence
010100020021000C
The field rheostat in a DC generator is used to adjust the
_______________ of the motor.
34
c)
output voltage
010100020021000E
The coils or windings on a DC machine armature, are placed in
_____________ cut in the face of the armature.
e)
slots
010100020021000B
The commutator of a DC machine is made of copper bars
mounted in
b)
micanite
010100020021000A
The field rheostat changes the output voltage in
a DC generator.
010100020021000D
A compound wound DC generator has a combination of shunt and
series characteristics, depending on the
predominance of each type of winding.
010100020021000B
The strength of the magnetic field produced in a shunt wound
generator
b)
is fairly constant
010100020021000C
A compound wound DC generator may have three characteristics
which are a:
1.
3.
5.
010100020021000E
The output voltage rises sharply from minimum load to full load
conditions for DC wound generators, if constructed with one of
the following systems:
e)
series
010100020021000D
The rotating field of an alternator is obtained by exciting
the windings on the rotor with
d)
DC power
010100020021000B
The stator of an alternator is built of silicon steel
mounted in a frame.
b)
silicon steel
35
010100020021000D
A 6 pole alternator producing 60 Hz power must turn at
d)
1200 rpm
010100020021000E
Alternators are constructed to use slip rings made of
brass or
e) steel
010100020021000C
The number of cycles per unit of time measured in Hz, is known
as
c)
frequency
010100020021000E
Field poles are used on motors and generators
to set up a magnetic field.
e)
Field poles
010100020021000D
A rheostat is also known as a
d)
variable resistor
010100020021000B
Shunt wound DC motors are common where speed must remain
constant regardless of load such as on
b)
machinist lathes
010100020021000D
Three types of DC motors are shunt, series and
d)
compound
010100020021000D
Compound motors combine the characteristics of shunt and
series motors, as desired by the designer.
010100020021000A
The armature of a DC machine is built up
of laminated steel plates mounted on the shaft. The coils
are connected to a commutator mounted on one end of the
rotor shaft.
010100020021000D
The yoke that supports the main components of the DC machine
is frequently made of
d)
36
010100020021000E
Synchronous motors have construction that is identical to
e)
alternators
010100020021000D
An AC motor which will drop out of synchronism and simply
trip when overloaded is the
d)
synchronous motor
010100020021000D
Permanent magnets are used for
d)
010100020021000C
Brush gear for DC machines have brushes made from carbon
because they:
1.
2.
5.
are softer
wear to a smooth finish
have a low coefficient of friction
010100020021000D
A rheostat is used to vary the field strength in a DC
machine.
010100020021000D
Synchronous motors are used to
d)
010100020021000D
To transfer the power to or from the rotor of alternators or
some AC motors
d) slip rings are employed
010100020021000C
Apparent power is the power
c)
Transformers
010100020021000A
When AC action causes a counter current in a coil it is
termed
a)
self inductance
37
010100020021000C
When magnetic flux produced by one coil induces an EMF in a
second coil it is called
c)
mutual inductance
010100020021000B
A transformer works on the principle of
b)
magnetic induction
010100020021000E
If E / E = N / N then N will equal
p
s
p
s
s
e)
/ E
010100020021000C
Three major losses which occur in a transformer are iron
losses, copper losses and
c) flux leakage
010100020021000C
Copper losses in a transformer are reduced by
c)
010100020021000D
An active current transformer should never
d)
010100020021000E
A phenomena produced by electronic switchgear which can
result in excessively high voltages in transformers are known
as
e)
harmonic distortion
010100020021000D
A device used to change the voltage and current from one level
to another, is known as a/an
d)
transformer
010100020021000C
An instrument transformer used to measure voltage is called a
c)
potential transformer
010100020021000E
Transformers are rated in terms of:
1.
3.
Volt amperes
Kilovolt amperes
38
010100020021000A
The capacity of a transformer can be increased by:
1.
3.
5.
010100020021000C
A transformer has a primary voltage of 500 volts and 20 turns
on the primary winding. If the secondary winding has 5 turns
the voltage of the secondary is
c)
125 volts
010100020021000E
The voltage induced in the secondary windings of the
transformer, is inversely proportional to the turns ratio of the
transformer.
010100020021000E
Current transformers step down the current rather than the
e)
voltage
010100020021000A
Transformer cooling oil has
a)
010100020021000C
Some of the hazards of transformer cooling oil can be
compensated for by adding
c)
chlorinated hydrocarbons
010100020021000D
Transformers should be inspected at least
d) annually
door bell
010100020021000C
A prime factor in determining the voltage to be used in a
circuit is
39
c)
010100020021000B
Low voltage systems may have an acceptable voltage variation
of plus or minus
b)
5%
010100020021000E
The ability of an electrical circuit to store a charge of
electricity even after the circuit is opened is termed
e)
capacitance
010100020021000C
When working with high voltage systems, the minimum distance
of approach should be
c)
2 metres
010100020021000B
The best type of diagram for showing supply and distribution
systems is the
b)
one-line diagram
010100020021000C
An electrical distribution system is composed of service,
feeders and
c)
branch circuits
010100020021000B
The utility's responsibility will not go beyond the
b)
Introduction to Instrumentation
010100020021000B
When a process variable has no method of sending information
to the final control element the system is known as
b)
010100020021000D
An open loop control system requires
d)
constant attention
010100020021000C
A process variable which is adjusted in order to maintain or
achieve some desired value of another variable is termed the
40
c)
manipulated variable
010100020021000E
A control loop controller
e)
010100020021000E
A common air pressure range for pneumatic control systems is
e)
20 to 100 kPa
010100020021000B
A very important requirement for a pneumatic control system
is
b)
010100020021000D
The apparatus which converts current signals to pneumatic and
pneumatic to current signals is called a
d)
transducer
010100020021000D
A control device which will change one form of energy into
another form of energy is the
d)
transducer
010100020021000A
A device which will cause a visible light signal to become an
instrument analog signal is the
a)
photoelectric transducer
010100020021000B
A "control" should be considered as a special device which
b)
010100020021000C
Automatic systems which can make decisions are termed
c)
logic systems
41
010100020021000D
A Bourdon tube is often in the shape of a spiral so that
d)
010100020021000C
When a diaphragm device is used for boiler water level
measurement, the boiler pressure is compensated for or
off-set by
c)
010100020021000E
One of the most widely used process variables in a system is
e)
flow
010100020021000C
In a glass stem thermometer the space above the liquid is
usually
c)
maximum vacuum
010100020021000D
A thermocouple will produce a DC millivoltage which
d)
010100020021000E
The Bourdon tube is often shaped in the form of a "C", having an
arc span of about
e)
270 degrees
010100020021000B
The purpose of a spiral or a helix Bourdon tube is
b)
010100020021000C
Glass thermometers with a mercury fill are sometimes
pressurized with nitrogen so
c)
010100020021000E
Temperatures are measured by
e)
thermocouples
010100020021000D
The variable area meter consists of
d) a tapered tube in which the fluid being measured flows
through the tube from the bottom to the top
010100020021000E
A bimetal thermostat reacts to changes of
42
e)
temperature
010100020021000B
When a float is used for measuring level, and installation
within a vessel is impractical, a device often used is the
b)
float cage
010100020021000D
Relative to flow, velocity is kinetic energy and when
velocity increases, the
d)
010100020021000C
Liquid must be in its vapour form
c)
0020021000B
A chromatograph uses electronic devices which
b)
010100020021000D
The electrical output from a thermocouple is measured by a
d)
millivoltmeter
010100020021000B
A thermocouple consists of
b)
transmitters
010100020021000C
The nozzle receives a constant air supply pressure of
approximately
c)
140 kPa
010100020021000A
The output pressure signal of a transmitter relay is usually
a)
43
010100020021000A
A two-position controller compares conditions to a set point
and
a)
010100020021000E
When controller output is proportional to the amount of
deviation, the controller is
e) proportional
010100020021000B
A proportional only controller
b)
010100020021000B
A recorder utilizing a spiral Bourdon tube will have a pen
movement
b)
010100020021000D
When a recorder receives a signal from a transmitter, the
recorder incorporates a
d)
capsule or bellows
010100020021000A
When an operator uses CRT displays, the computer control
panel
a)
010100020021000B
A control valve
b)
010100020021000D
A valve actuator
d)
e)
010100020021000D
Most solenoid valves are unlike globe valves in that upstream
line pressure will
d)
44
interlocks
010100020021000D
A combustion air proving switch
d)
010100020021000A
A lead sulphide cell is sensitive to IR rays and
a)
010100020021000C
To operate the type of flame failure device which incorporates
a lead sulphide cell, it must receive
c)
infrared rays
010100020021000B
The function of a flame failure device is to
b)
shut off the fuel when the burner flame goes out
010100020021000E
Which of the following is a flame sensing device?
e)
scanner
010100020021000D
A flame failure device
d)
010100020021000E
Boiler modulating feedwater control flow rate depends on
e)
010100020021000B
With single element feedwater control the level transmitter
output is
b)
010100020021000E
The second element of a two element feedwater control system
45
010100020021000A
A boiler control transfer or selector station
a)
010100020021000C
An automatic feedwater regulator is used to
c)
010100020021000A
In a two element feedwater control the following items are
measured:
a)
010100020021000C
On a steam boiler with single element feedwater control,
the following item is measured:
c)
010100020021000A
An automatic boiler ON-OFF or operating control switch has an
adjustment for cut-in or cut-out value and another for
a)
010100020021000E
A packaged steam boiler modulating combustion control system
will routinely
e)
010100020021000A
Modulating combustion control will
a)
010100020021000B
Modulating pressure control
b)
010100020021000C
Modulating combustion control on a heating boiler is accomplished
by
c) changing the amount of fuel and air to the burner
46
a flexible diaphragm
010100020021000B
A mercury switch bulb is under high vacuum and contains inert
gas
b)
010100020021000C
A float operated level control
c)
010100020021000A
Overheating of boiler heating surfaces due to low water
a)
010100020021000D
A low water fuel cut-off is fitted to a boiler to prevent
d) damage to the boiler from an overheated condition
010100020021000E
The purpose of a low water fuel cut-off is to
e)
shut off the fuel supply when the water level gets too low
010100020021000A
A low water fuel cut-off may be activated by
a)
010100020021000E
The CSA code states that a boiler not under continuous
attendance must be equipped with a low-water fuel cutoff
which
e)
010100020021000A
A low-water fuel cutoff which serves no other purpose
a)
010100020021000C
A low-water fuel cutoff switch should close the automatic
fuel valve(s) when the water level is
47
c)
010100020021000B
A hot water boiler low-water fuel cutoff
b)
010100020021000C
The drain of a hot water boiler low-water fuel cutoff should
be opened to flush out any debris
c)
weekly
010100020021000B
To test a low water fuel cut-off
b)
010100020021000A
The float chamber of the low water cut-off is blown out often
to prevent
a)
010100020021000C
The most reliable method of checking or testing a low-water fuel
cut off is to
c) lower the water in the boiler to the level where the
burner should cut out
010100020021000C
The low water cut-off can be tested by
c) shutting off the feedwater
010100020021000D
An interrupted pilot of an automatic boiler
d) lights, completes a trial, and extinguishes after a main
flame trial
010100020021000C
The function of a programming control is
c)
010100020021000D
48
prior to pre-purging
010100020021000A
The operating pressure control will control the
a)
010100020021000C
The second from last step in an automatic boiler programmed
shutdown sequence is
c)
post purge
010100020021000C
With automatic fuel fired boiler programmed control the
normal firing period begins approximately
c) 60 seconds after FD fan starts
010100020021000A
On a gas fired automatic boiler a normal programmed start-up
takes approximately
a)
105 seconds
010100020021000C
During a programmed start-up if an ignitor spark is visible
but no flame appears the operator should suspect
c)
010100020021000A
If a shutdown occurs during normal firing of a boiler and the
steam pressure is below the normal cut-out value, the problem
could be
a)
010100020021000A
On a boiler with high-low fire control, if the damper
positioning switch is in the wrong position
a)
010100020021000B
The main function of a mainframe computer system is to
b)
010100020021000A
A typical use of a mainframe computer system in a process
would be
a)
010100020021000E
Sharing and transferring information between computers is
termed
e)
networking
010100020021000D
A multiplexing sequence may be repeated as high as
d) four times per second
010100020021000B
Computer "soft keying" is
b)
010100020021000C
A digital input computer is protected from harmful voltages
by means of
c)
isolating circuits
010100020021000B
Transmitters which transmit digital codes directly to a
computer are known as
b)
smart transmitters
010100020021000E
The common standard control modes for a plant control system
are
e)
010100020021000A
Inputs for logic and supervisory computer functions are
mainly
a)
by switch contacts
010100020021000D
Computer "Run Time Totals" are commonly used
d)
50
010100020021000D
One of the reasons that industrial type watertube boilers are
seldom selected for low pressure heating plants is
d)
high cost
010100020021000C
A membrane waterwall
c)
010100020021000E
What limits the height of a packaged boiler is
e)
transportation requirements
010100020021000C
The use of bent tube boiler designs allows the furnace wall
to be lined with tubes, thereby exposing more of the heating
surface to
c)
radiant heat
010100020021000D
The bent tube boiler design allows the tubes to be attached
radially on the outside of the
d)
shell or drum
010100020021000C
In a low pressure serpentine tube watertube boiler, the
serpentine tubes are attached to upper and lower headers with
__________ connections.
c)
threaded
010100020021000B
The furnace walls in a bent-tube watertube boiler are formed
by water filled tubes and these walls are called
b)
water walls
010100020021000D
A reason for preferring copper tubing in a tubular boiler is
d) corrosion resistance
51
010100020021000B
An initial problem with the tubular boiler being used as a
steam unit was
b)
010100020021000E
An advantage of a packaged low pressure tubular or watertube
boiler is
e) safety due to the low volume of water it contains
010100020021000D
One of the advantages of the low pressure serpentine tube
watertube boilers is
d)
010100020021000C
One of the advantages of the low pressure serpentine
watertube boiler is
c) virtually eliminates expansion and contraction stresses
010100020021000A
A reason for preferring copper tubing in a tubular boiler is
a)
010100020021000C
A packaged tubular steam boiler often has a steel sheathing
in front of the waterwall tubes due to
c)
010100020021000A
In order to keep salt concentrations within safe limits the
packaged tubular steam boiler utilizes
a)
an automatic blowdown
010100020021000B
A disadvantage of the watertube or tubular boiler is
b)
010100020021000A
The copper tube tubular boiler
a)
010100020021000A
Sectional cast-iron boiler sections are connected with
a)
push nipples
010100020021000C
Cast-iron boiler sections maximize heat transfer by
c)
010100020021000A
Boiler water legs
a)
010100020021000D
Boiler sections are held together with
d)
tie rods
010100020021000C
The ratio of heat released to heat transferred to boiler
water is known as
c)
boiler efficiency
010100020021000C
Most low capacity cast-iron boilers
c) will pass through standard size doorways
010100020021000E
The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler are
connected by
e) push nipples
010100020021000D
The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler
are held together by
d)
tie rods
010100020021000B
In a vertical sectional boiler the sections are places
b)
side by side
010100020021000D
The sections of cast iron boilers are mainly designed to
obtain maximum
d)
heat transfer
010100020021000A
The fins cast on the flat surface of the sections of a cast
iron sectional boiler are used for the purpose of increasing
the
53
a)
010100020021000E
To prevent flue gases from escaping in a cast iron sectional
boiler, the spaces between the sections are sealed with high
temperature
e)
asbestos rope
010100020021000C
Heating boilers attain maximum efficiency only when they are
operated
c)
010100020021000A
Modular cast-iron boiler water flow is
a)
010100020021000B
In a cast iron modular heating boiler, the operation of the
burner of each module is controlled by a __________ which
starts or stops modules in sequence as load demand increases
or decreases.
b)
step controller
010100020021000E
A cast-iron boiler disadvantage is
e) its pressure limitations
010100020021000D
A cast-iron boiler advantage is
d)
010100020021000B
Cast-iron boiler capacity
b)
HRT boiler
010100020021000C
An internally fired boiler
54
c)
010100020021000E
The forerunner of the modern packaged firetube boiler was
the
e) Scotch Marine boiler
010100020021000A
Initially the firetube boiler was not up to manufacturing
expectations because
a)
010100020021000A
Smaller firetube boilers are low cost and
a)
010100020021000A
When a packaged firetube boiler is used as a power boiler
rather than a heating unit
a)
010100020021000E
The steam pressure must not exceed 103
to be considered a heating boiler.
010100020021000D
The temperature of a boiler must not exceed 121
degrees Celsius or the pressure exceed 1130 kPa for it to be
considered a heating boiler.
010100020021000B
To maintain high gas velocities throughout all gas passes in
a four-pass firetube boiler, the cross-sectional area of each
succeeding pass is
b)
decreased
010100020021000C
A firetube boiler commonly used for hot water heating systems
in residences and small apartments is the
c) steel plate vertical unit
010100020021000E
A steel plate vertical firetube unit is divided into two
sections and the upper part is often called the
e)
heat exchanger
010100020021000E
When the hot combustion gases travel through boiler tubes which
55
firetube boiler
010100020021000C
Packaged firetube boilers
c)
010100020021000D
When a packaged firetube boiler is used as a hot water unit
d)
010100020021000D
The advantages of a packaged boiler are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
010100020021000C
The chief advantage of a packaged boiler is that it can be
c)
mass produced
010100020021000C
One of the advantages of the firetube boiler over the
watertube and tubular boiler is in the
c) water treatment area
010100020021000A
The advantage of a vertical firetube boiler is that it
requires
a)
atomization
010100020021000B
Before atomization can occur, heavy oils are heated to
approximately
b)
95 degrees C
010100020021000E
An air atomizing burner utilizes an air pressure of
56
approximately
e)
100 kPa
010100020021000D
An air atomizing compressor is usually
d) a positive displacement type
010100020021000A
The capacity of a constant capacity mechanical atomizer is a
function of
a)
orifice size
010100020021000B
A modulating pressure atomizer has its return oil flow
regulated by
b)
010100020021000A
To which of the following oil burners is the oil supplied under
high pressure?
a)
010100020021000C
When using mechanical fuel oil atomization
c) high pump pressure is required
010100020021000A
Oil burners can be divided into three classes:
1.
2.
3.
010100020021000B
The compressed air used as atomizing air in the air atomizing
oil burner is also called
b)
primary air
010100020021000B
The two basic varieties of mechanical atomizing oil burners
are:
2.
3.
010100020021000D
A multi-burner cluster has secondary and tertiary nozzles
ignited by
d)
57
010100020021000B
When a greater than normal amount of combustible mixture is
ignited the result may be
b)
a puff-back
010100020021000C
A fuel filter consists of
c)
010100020021000D
Burner light oil supply pressure range is approximately
d) 550 to 700 kPa
010100020021000B
A relief valve is placed on the discharge of a fuel oil pump
b)
010100020021000B
A time delay oil valve
b)
010100020021000C
In order to prevent the possibility of a furnace explosion it
is important that the furnace is purged before the
ignitor is energized and fuel is supplied to the burner
nozzle(s).
010100020021000E
Intermediate and high fire burner nozzles have higher
capacities than the primary burner nozzle
e) to allow better boiler warm-ups
010100020021000A
Oil flow rate to a modulating burner is regulated by
a)
010100020021000C
The minimum distance from furnace to oil storage tank is
c) 2.1 m
010100020021000E
Maximum static pressure in a fuel oil line is approximately
e)
70 kPa
58
c)
010100020021000B
An atmospheric burner has air entering around the burner
which is termed
b)
secondary air
010100020021000D
The amount of pre-mix air to an atmospheric burner should be
d)
30 to 40%
010100020021000A
A refractory burner disadvantage is
a)
010100020021000A
A very popular packaged boiler gas burner is the
a)
ring burner
010100020021000D
An atmospheric burner head which is very popular on heating
boilers is the
d)
rectangular type
010100020021000A
When a gas fired burner is burning fuel properly
a)
010100020021000D
Gas burners for heating boilers can be divided into two
general classes and they are the
d)
010100020021000B
The Venturi tube in the atmospheric burner mixing head has a
b)
010100020021000E
Rectangular burner heads are most common for use in heating
boilers.
010100020021000B
59
010100020021000D
The purpose of the deflector vanes in the centre of a ring
(gas) burner is to
d) promote turbulence of the gas and air mixture
010100020021000A
One of the advantages of using natural gas as a fuel in a
boiler is
a)
010100020021000C
An intermittent pilot
c)
010100020021000C
The pilot burner for gas fired heating equipment can be:
3.
4.
5.
intermittent
interrupted
automatic
010100020021000E
The
continuous
010100020021000D
Large capacity burners
d)
010100020021000B
A hydramotor valve
b)
010100020021000A
A solenoid type fuel valve
a)
010100020021000B
If the power is cut off to an automatic gas valve, the valve
will be
b)
closed immediately
010100020021000A
60
slowly
c)
eliminate backlash
010100020021000A
An LP steam pressure gage range shall be between
a)
010100020021000E
An inspectors' test connection
e)
010100020021000D
When installing a siphon it
d)
010100020021000B
An indication of a pressure gage not performing properly is
a)
010100020021000D
The working medium in the dead weight tester is
d)
010100020021000D
An essential fitting between the boiler and the
steam pressure gage is
d)
a siphon
010100020021000E
A steam pressure gauge is graduated in
61
e)
kilopascals
010100020021000C
The prime importance of boiler fittings are
c)
safety
010100020021000A
All boiler fittings not properly or clearly identified should
be
a)
rejected
010100020021000C
The purpose of the test connection on a boiler pressure gauge
is to
c)
010100020021000A
As the boiler pressure increases, the bourdon tube of the
pressure gauge will
a)
tend to straighten
010100020021000E
The cross-section of a Bourdon tube is generally
e)
oval
010100020021000D
An essential fitting between the boiler and the steam
pressure gauge is a
d)
siphon
010100020021000C
The purpose of the pipe siphon installed between the boiler
and the pressure gauge is to prevent
c)
010100020021000A
According to the ASME code, the scale on the dial of the
steam gauge for a low pressure steam heating boiler shall be
graduated to not less than
a)
210 kPa
62
010100020021000B
According to the ASME code, the scale on the dial of the
steam gauge for a low pressure steam heating boiler shall be
graduated to not more than
b)
420 kPa
010100020021000B
An LP steam boiler safety valve shall not be smaller than
b)
12.7 mm
010100020021000D
In order to ensure a safety valve seats properly, it uses
d)
010100020021000A
The force of the steam pressure acting on the safety valve
disc is a function of
a)
disc area
010100020021000C
The minimum blowdown of an LP safety valve is
c)
14 kPa
010100020021000C
Popping pressure of an LP safety valve may be adjusted
c)
up to 5%
010100020021000D
The blowdown on a safety valve is adjusted by turning the
d)
adjusting ring
010100020021000C
What does the boiler inspector install to prevent tampering with
a safety valve setting?
c)
a seal
010100020021000E
The lip on a safety valve
e)
010100020021000D
A safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be smaller than
d)
13 mm
63
010100020021000D
According to the ASME code, steam heating boilers shall have
one or more safety valves, adjusted and sealed to discharge
at a pressure not exceeding 103 kPa.
010100020021000A
According to the ASME code, the valve seat diameter of the
safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be smaller
than
a)
010100020021000E
According to the ASME code, the valve seat diameter of the
safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be larger
than
e)
010100020021000E
For a steam heating boiler, the safety valve shall be such
that, with the fuel burning equipment installed and operated
at maximum capacity, the pressure cannot rise more than
34 kPa above the maximum allowable working pressure
when all steam outlets are closed.
010100020021000D
The safety valve shall be installed in __________ position
and located in the highest practicable part of the boiler
proper.
d)
a vertical
010100020021000C
An LP safety valve lever test should be performed
c)
monthly
010100020021000C
LP boiler safety valves can be repaired
64
b)
monthly basis
010100020021000C
If a safety valve leaks after a try lever test, the operator
should
c)
010100020021000D
A gage glass may be surrounded by a number of thin rods
d)
010100020021000E
Quick-closing gage glass valves
e)
010100020021000B
A disadvantage of a gage glass safety-shutoff valve is
b)
010100020021000D
Should the steam line or water line to a gage glass become
plugged with sludge
d)
010100020021000B
Water column supply line crosses will
b)
010100020021000B
Gage glass rupture may be caused by
b)
a cold draft
010100020021000D
When gage glass nuts are leaking
a)
010100020021000A
The lowest visible part of the water gauge glass shall be at
least 25 mm above the lowest permissible water level
recommended by the manufacturer.
010100020021000D
The ASME code states that each steam boiler shall have one or
more water gauge glasses attached either directly to the
boiler or to a water column by means of valve fittings not
less than 13 mm pipe size.
010100020021000B
On a multiple steam boiler heating system, a stop valve must
be placed at each boiler outlet to
b)
010100020021000A
Boiler outlet valves are usually
66
b)
010100020021000B
The quick closing valves on the water gauge requires only
a quarter of a turn of the valve spindle to change the
valve from the full open to the full closed position and vice
versa.
010100020021000D
The feedwater pipe, before it enters the boiler must be
fitted with a check valve adjacent to the boiler.
010100020021000E
A boiler feedwater stop valve
e)
010100020021000B
A globe valve should be used in the feedwater line
b)
010100020021000B
A stop valve is fitted between the boiler and the feed water check
valve
d)
high TDS
010100020021000C
Boiler blowdown lines have a specific size range based on
c)
boiler capacity
010100020021000B
Boiler blowdown piping
b)
010100020021000C
A steam boiler is blown down in order to
010100020021000D
The purpose of the small vent valve or cock located on top
of the shell or on top of the water column on most boilers is
d)
e)
010100020021000D
Siphon is not required between a pressure or an altitude
gauge and a hot water boiler since these boilers are
d)
010100020021000B
The lever handle of the shut-off cock between a pressure or
altitude gauge and a hot water boiler should be PARALLEL to
the pipe in which it is located when the cock is open.
b)
parallel
010100020021000A
The scale on the dial of a pressure gauge should be graduated
to not less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable
working pressure.
010100020021000E
The dial of a pressure gauge on a hot water boiler indicating
SI units can be graduated in kPa
68
010100020021000E
When the pressure pointer of a closed system reads lower than
the altitude pointer the
e)
010100020021000D
The temperature indicator of a hot water boiler should
indicate water temperature
d)
010100020021000B
On a pressure temperature indicator, if the pressure pointer
falls below the altitude pointer
b)
010100020021000A
Hot water heating boilers must be equipped with a
a)
thermometer
010100020021000E
With the fusible plug type of temperature relief device, the
fusible plug will melt at 99C degrees Celsius and
allow hot water to escape.
010100020021000D
The expansion and contraction rod type of temperature relief
device will open the valve at 99C degrees Celsius and
close it at 71C degrees Celsius.
010100020021000B
A boiler pressure relief valve
a)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000A
For hot water boilers operating up to 414 kPa, a pressure
relief valve opening pressure variation may be as much as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
14 kPa
5%
14%
5 kPa
10%
69
010100020021000E
A hot water boiler is protected from over pressure by means of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000A
ASME Section IV, states
shall have at least one
valve set to relieve at
working pressure of the
010100020021000E
Hot water boilers have stop valves in their inlet and outlet
piping
c)
010100020021000B
During warm-up of a cold hot water boiler excessive pressure
build-up is prevented by
b)
an expansion tank
010100020021000D
In a closed expansion tank system an air separator
d)
010100020021000C
In a hot water heating system, the closed type expansion tank
should be
c)
010100020021000B
When a closed type expansion tank on a hot water boiler is completely
filled with water and the water in the system is raised in temperature so that
it expands, the result will be that
70
c)
010100020021000D
The head of water in the hot water heating system employing
an open type of expansion is referred to the vertical
distance from the gauge of the boiler to the level in the
expansion tank, which is considered the highest level of the
water in the system.
d)
expansion tank
010100020021000C
An automatic fill valve
c)
is not mandatory
010100020021000A
A closed expansion tank is usually equipped with
a)
a gage glass
b)
010100020021000D
It is very important that boilers should be
d)
010100020021000A
When cutting in an additional boiler into the heating system
71
d)
010100020021000D
When preparing a boiler for startup and the boiler is
equipped with a modulating combustion control, it is best to
d)
121 degrees C
010100020021000C
The pressure relief valve on a hot water heating boiler
should be set
c)
010100020021000C
A gradual increase in stack temperature is an indication of
c)
010100020021000D
The discharge pressure of steam heating pressure relief
valves should never exceed
d)
010100020021000A
How often would you test the low level fuel cut-off on a low
pressure steam heating boiler by blowing out the float chamber?
72
a)
daily
010100020021000B
The maximum pressure of a low pressure steam heating boiler is
b)
010100020021000D
The maximum operating temperature of a hot water heating
boiler is
d)
010100020021000E
Should any abnormal condition occur during light-off or the
temperature building-up period
a)
continue to run the boiler but reduce the steam and fuel
c)
010100020021000B
During the warm-up period of a heating boiler the main burner
goes out. The operator should
010100020021000B
The most important rule in safe operation of a steam heating
boiler is
73
b)
010100020021000D
It is recommended that the differential between the safety
relief valve set pressure and the operating pressure of a hot
water boiler be kept to a minimum of 69 kPa (10 psi) or
25% of the relief valve setting.
010100020021000A
Smoking conditions during the operation of a boiler can be
caused by
a)
c)
blowers
010100020021000A
Convectors use metal fins to increase heat transfer.
a)
metal fins
010100020021000C
Radiators can be classified as
c)
010100020021000C
In fin coil type heaters, individual room temperature is
controlled by
c)
dampers
010100020021000D
Unit ventilators use
74
d)
010100020021000D
The difference between a convector and a radiator is
a)
unit heaters
010100020021000A
Air can be removed from steam heating systems by
a)
air vents
010100020021000E
A radiator valve is used to control the amount of
e)
010100020021000E
A radiator trap is a device that is used to
e)
010100020021000C
The vacuum pump performs the following function:
a)
float switch
010100020021000C
The purpose of a radiator trap is to
c)
010100020021000B
Air vents are used to
75
b)
010100020021000E
The purpose of a radiator trap is to
c)
010100020021000B
In a gravity return system the boiler should be placed
b)
010100020021000C
The Hartford Loop prevents the water in the boiler from
c)
010100020021000A
All supply and drain lines of a steam heating system must be
pitched to
a)
010100020021000C
When starting up a steam heating boiler it should be filled
to
c)
010100020021000D
If the water level falls too low during operation of a steam
heating boiler the operator should
d)
010100020021000E
In the case of radiators and convectors, the main sources of
trouble are the
76
e)
010100020021000D
Finned convectors should be kept free of
d)
dust
010100020021000B
Slow or insufficient heat throughout a building heated by
steam can be caused by
b)
010100020021000A
Slow or insufficient heat in one or more rooms in a steam
heated building can be caused by a
a)
b)
010100020021000E
A forced hot water circulating system can be classified as
the following type:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
loop system
one pipe system
two pipe direct return system
two pipe reverse return system
all of the above
010100020021000A
In a one pipe hot water system the fitting that directs the
water to each converter is called the
77
a)
diverter
010100020021000C
In a radiant heating system the maximum surface temperature
is
c)
30 degrees C
010100020021000A
In radiant heating system changes are
a)
difficult to make
010100020021000E
Automatic snow melting systems can use
010100020021000C
Snow melting systems are usually filled with
c)
010100020021000A
Advantages of the forced circulation hot water heating
systems are
b)
010100020021000B
In a hot water system compared to a steam heating system, if
there is a leak damage will
b)
010100020021000E
Which of the following use a boiler in the system?
78
1.
3.
4.
steam heating
steam to hot water system
hot water heating
a)
a horizontal pipe
010100020021000D
The air removed by the air separator is vented to the
d)
expansion tank
010100020021000E
e)
010100020021000D
The temperature control on a steam to hot water converter, controls
d)
c)
an expansion tank
010100020021000A
To prevent corrosion in the expansion tank it is sometimes
filled with
a)
nitrogen
79
010100020021000E
Improper location of the circulating pump and expansion tank
can cause
010100020021000A
The expansion tank is normally attached to the
b)
010100020021000B
What type of boiler would you expect to find in a hot water
system, incorporating a converter?
b)
steam boiler
b)
in interior locations
010100020021000A
The major disadvantage of an electric resistance coil furnace
for warm air heating is
a)
010100020021000E
Lowboy furnaces are just over 1.2 m in height
010100020021000C
The advantage of having duct furnaces instead of a large
central furnace is
c)
240 V
010100020021000A
In a fin-coil heat exchanger the primary source of heat for
the exchanger is
a)
010100020021000D
A type of directly fired space heater is
a)
b)
c)
a unit heater
a floor furnace
a wall furnace
010100020021000B
High efficiency furnaces and heaters range in annual fuel
utilization efficiency (AFUE) from
b)
80 - 95%
010100020021000B
In high efficiency furnaces if the temperature of the flue
gas drops below 65 degrees C the
b)
010100020021000A
In a pulse combination furnace the stated efficiency is
a)
94 - 98%
81
d)
steel
010100020021000E
Air filters can be divided into two groups
e)
010100020021000B
Electronic filters will remove
b)
010100020021000C
The perimeter loop system of furnace ducting is ideal for a
building with
c)
no basement
010100020021000E
Which of the following is a type of outlet in a warm air
heating system?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a
a
a
a
grill
register
ceiling diffuser
perforated panel
010100020021000D
Supply outlets should always be located
d)
010100020021000C
In a warm air heating system, the heated air should enter the
rooms preferably via the
c)
010100020021000C
Sleeve bearings on furnace fans require
c)
010100020021000A
Furnace heat exchangers should be checked for corrosion
because
82
a)
010100020021000B
Insufficient heat throughout a building is likely caused by
b)
010100020021000E
Rooms that are stuffy and dry are created by
e) none of the above
010100020021000B
Ventilation can be divided into two basic methods: mechanical and natural
010100020021000A
Natural ventilation is improved by the use of a roof ventilator
010100020021000B
Mechanical ventilation can be divided into which types? mechanical air intake,
natural exhaust
010100020021000D
In a mechanical air intake, natural exhaust ventilation
system the pressure in the building is slightly above atmospheric pressure
010100020021000C
Living organisms that must be removed from the air are bacteria and spores
010100020021000E
Mechanical filters can be divided into two broad classes: throwaway and
renewable
010100020021000D
Viscous filters are highly efficient in the removal of dust and pollen
010100020021000B
Electrostatic filters are highly efficient in the removal of fine dust, smoke,
and fumes
83
010100020021000C
Ultraviolet light is used to remove bacteria and spores from the air.
1.
2.
steam heating
hot water heating
84
3.
4.
010100020021000C
An electric feeder valve will open before the low-water cutoff line is reached
010100020021000E
A float operated mechanical feeder valve should not open until the level is well
below the feed pump
cut-in level
010100020021000A
In nearly all LP steam heating systems the feedwater is usually condensate
010100020021000D
A Hartford loop will prevent boiler water level from going below the LPWL
010100020021000C
Because of variations in flow rate, nearly all large steam
heating plants utilize a condensate receiver
010100020021000A
Heating plants with multiple boilers often have independent boiler feedwater
control from a header
010100020021000A
Dissolved oxygen in condensate will cause pitting in a boiler
010100020021000A
Neutralizing amines raise the pH of condensate
010100020021000B
The result of a condensate receiver which is too small could
Be loss of condensate to the sewer
85
010100020021000C
A feedwater make-up system should be able to satisfy normal firing needs
010100020021000A
Equalizing lines on a condensate receiver float chamber will dampen level
fluctuations
010100020021000B
A condensate receiver low level cutoff switch will stop the feedpump thereby
preventing damage to it
010100020021000D
A manual "high-low" switch should be switched to "high" or
"auto" when the boiler has been properly warmed up
010100020021000A
A resistance control or "potentiometer" for modulating
Control works in conjunction with a modutrol motor
010100020021000A
A potentiometer control varies electrical current to a modutrol motor
010100020021000E
86
A high limit control switch must be used when a boiler is not under continuous
supervision
010100020021000C
Prior to a boiler safety valve popping during routine boiler
Operation the high limit switch should open
010100020021000C
A hot water boiler operating control can be a pressure switch utilizing a closed
liquid filled system
010100020021000B
A thermal element is capable of sensing temperature and converting it to a
pressure signal
010100020021000B
An aquastat is like a thermal element without a capillary tube
010100020021000E
A low fire switch acts as an interlock to ensure minimum damper setting
010100020021000C
What is the purpose of the high limit temperature control on
a hot water boiler? to shut down the burner if the water temperature rises
too high
010100020021000C
Combustion air safety switches are commonly found on boilers utilizing a forced
draft fan
010100020021000E
A high gas pressure fuel cut-off switch opens when gas pressure is too high
010100020021000A
A test lead or "jumper wire" is required when testing high steam pressure or
water temperature limiting controls
010100020021000D
Quickly closing the main burner manual cock valve during
boiler operation should check the high gas pressure fuel cut-off
010100020021000E
The combustion air proving switch should be checked when air flow is maximum
010100020021000B
Fuel should be shut off immediately if it fails to ignite to prevent furnace
explosions
010100020021000B
A thermocouple produces an electric signal
010100020021000C
Thermocouples are connected in series to increase the sensitivity of the
detection system
010100020021000C
A flame rod forms an electric circuit with the rod, flame and burner
010100020021000D
A flame scanner
(1) requires a photoelectric cell
(3) requires a clear line of sight to the flame
010100020021000B
The function of a flame failure device is to
b)
shut off the fuel when the burner flame goes out
010100020021000E
Which of the following is a flame sensing device?
e)
scanner
010100020021000D
A flame failure device
d)
010100020021000C
The maximum allowable temperature for the water in a hot
water heating boiler is
c)
120 degrees C
010100020021000E
High limit temperature controls
e)
010100020021000C
Flame rods
c)
010100020021000E
All flame safeguard devices
88
e)
010100020021000E
Flame safeguard devices
e)
reducing valve
010100020021000D
Pneumatic controllers are divided into two basic classes
d)
010100020021000A
A pneumatic control system
a)
010100020021000B
In a non-bleed type controller the device that senses a
change in room temperature is called a
b)
bellows
010100020021000C
In a self-contained control system the energy for operation
is provided by
c)
010100020021000C
Parallel blade dampers are usually used for
c)
010100020021000E
An example of final control device for a heating system is a
e) all of the above
010100020021000D
The most common type of damper operator is a
d)
piston
010100020021000B
89
010100020021000D
A pneumatic relay can also be called a
d)
cumulator
an actuator
010100020021000E
Thermostats may be classified according to their
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
application
type of temperature sensing element
type of control action provided
temperature range
all of the above
010100020021000A
On-off thermostats are equipped with
a)
010100020021000D
A bimetal thermostat's operating range is between
d) 10 and 32 degrees C
010100020021000E
A room thermostat should be mounted on an inside wall about
e) 1.5 m above the floor
010100020021000B
Pressure controllers can be divided into two classes
b)
010100020021000A
An example of a controlled device would be
a)
010100020021000C
Control motors are divided into two classifications
90
c)
010100020021000D
In a basic electrical control system the device that senses a
drop in air temperature is called the
d)
thermostat
010100020021000E
In a basic electric control system an example of a controlled
device is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a fuel valve
a louver
a diverter valve
an electric switch
010100020021000B
An electronic control system is comprised of a
b)
010100020021000A
An advantage of an electronic control system is that
a)
010100020021000D
An example of a final control element is a
d)
damper
010100020021000B
An electronic controller is
b)
010100020021000B
The electrical resistance of a thermistor will
b)
010100020021000B
Resistance temperature devices can provide a relatively
linear resistance variation from
b)
010100020021000E
Transmitters or transducers can measure
91
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
temperature
air flow
air flow velocity
water flow
all of the above
010100020021000C
A pressure sensor converts pressure changes into
c)
010100020021000D
Electronic controllers can be divided into two types
d) on or off and modulating
010100020021000C
A transducer is a device that is used to
c)
Lighting Systems
010100020021000D
A luminaire is a
d)
010100020021000D
When designing a lighting system which of the following
should be considered?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
initial cost
operating cost
maintenance cost
010100020021000A
Ambient lighting can be improved by two types of lighting:
a)
010100020021000C
Direct lighting systems
c)
010100020021000E
When control for multiple locations is required
92
e)
010100020021000E
An advantage of low voltage switching is
010100020021000C
Occupancy sensors are
c)
automatic switches
010100020021000C
Most dimmer switches sold today
c)
010100020021000D
The life safety code requires that emergency lighting be
provided for means of exit in
d)
010100020021000A
In large buildings approximately what percentage of the
electrical load is lighting?
a)
60%
010100020021000D
The system which has a storage tank above the highest fixture
in the system is called
d)
a downfeed system
010100020021000C
When the maximum building demand for water is always less
than the maximum flow available from a municipal or local
distribution system which of the following systems can be
used?
93
c)
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about Non-Circulating hot
water systems is true?
e)
010100020021000A
Which of the following is not an element found in a
circulating hot water system?
a)
010100020021000B
In a circulating hot water system the municipal distribution
systems and/or local storage tanks are used for which of the
following reasons.
b)
010100020021000B
In a circulating hot water system automatic air vents serve
which of the following functions?
b)
010100020021000C
The backflow prevention method which consists of two
independently acting check valves with an automatic operating
pressure differential relief valve located between the two
check valves is called
c)
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about pressure relief
valves is false?
b)
010100020021000B
Temperature relief devices are effective in eliminating the
following problem:
b)
94
i)
ii)
010100020021000A
Which of the following has a trap as an integral part of the
fixture?
a)
water closet
010100020021000A
Sewer smells coming from a floor drain in a washroom can be a
problem if the floors of the washroom are not cleaned often.
Which of the following courses of action is the simplest way
to stop the smell from coming out of the drain?
a)
010100020021000C
Negative pressure in a drainage system may result in which of
the following problems?
c)
010100020021000C
Which of the following statements is true?
c)
010100020021000E
Corrugations in outside aluminum sheet metal conductors is
required
e)
to permit expansion.
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about footing drains is
true?
010100020021000D
The blow off valve in a storage heater is used to
d) remove sediment carried to the heater through the water
line.
010100020021000B
What is the correct sequence, from start to finish, needed to
replace a washer in a faucet?
iv)
Shut off the water at the nearest isolation valve.
i)
Unscrew the packing nut and remove the spindle.
iii) Remove the washer from the end of the spindle.
v)
Place the new washer on the end of the spindle.
ii)
If the valve seat is smooth and serviceable, replace
the spindle and tighten the packing nut.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
i, ii,
iv, i,
v, iv,
iv, i,
v, ii,
iii, iv, v
iii, v, ii
iii, ii, i
v, ii
i, iv, iii
010100020021000C
The pounding or banging of pipes and shuddering of fixtures
caused by a shock wave resulting from a sudden stop of water
flow in a pipe results in which of the following sounds?
c)
water hammer
Thermodynamics of Refrigeration
010100020021000D
In the case of a simple ice box which of the following heat
transfers is correct?
d)
010100020021000E
Which of the following is an example of a loss of latent
heat?
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
water evaporating
ice melting
refrigerant evaporating
air cooling
iv only
iii only
i, iii, and iv
both i and iii
none of the above
96
010100020021000B
The function of the condenser is to
b)
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about low-side pressure and
temperature is false?
a)
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about high-side pressure
and temperature is true?
b)
010100020021000C
The rate at which a system will remove heat from the
refrigerated medium is defined as
c) refrigeration capacity
010100020021000B
Refrigerant mediums will evaporate
b)
010100020021000C
One tonne of refrigeration is
c)
010100020021000E
If a cooled medium had an evaporation temperature of 2
degrees C, the evaporation temperature of the liquid
refrigerant should be approximately
e)
-8 to -3 degrees C
010100020021000B
Which column in the refrigerant table lists the absolute
pressure in kPa?
b)
Column 2
Refrigerants
010100020021000A
Which of the following characteristics is common in all of
the group B refrigerants?
97
a)
High toxicity
010100020021000C
R-22 (Freon-22) is nontoxic and nonflammable.
does it belong to?
c)
Which group
Group A1
010100020021000B
What is the name of the refrigerant that has the following
characteristics? It is nonflammable, odourless, nontoxic, it
does not have a corrosive effect on metal if water is present
and at atmospheric pressure it has a boiling point of -40.6
degrees C.
b)
Freon-22
010100020021000D
The ideal commercial refrigerant should
d)
be environmentally friendly
010100020021000D
Ammonia refrigerants
d)
010100020021000E
The refrigerant R-11 belongs to the following group
e)
group "A1"
010100020021000E
Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of
heat?
a)
b)
c)
d)
entropy
enthalpy
density
volume
010100020021000D
The property which has to be known for the calculation of the
size of control valve and piping etc, is
d)
density
010100020021000A
The refrigerating effect of a refrigerant is
98
a)
010100020021000B
The standard refrigeration cycle is used to compare refrigerants and
machines operating under comparable conditions. These standard
conditions are:
b)
is 335 kJ per 1 kg
010100020021000E
The ability of a refrigerant to be dissolved into oil and
vice versa is called
e)
miscibility
010100020021000D
Which of the following is not a physical property of
refrigerants?
d)
Density
010100020021000C
Ammonia is the only commonly used refrigerant which has the
physical property of
c)
flammability
010100020021000B
Molecular mass is a dependent factor in which of the
following physical properties?
b)
leakage tendency
010100020021000E
Freon 22 refrigerant
e)
ii)
Evaporator
99
iii)
iv)
Compressor
Condenser
010100020021000A
Raising the condensing point (saturation temperature) of the
refrigerant vapour above the temperature of the cooling
medium is the function of the
a)
compressor
010100020021000A
Which of the following is NOT a component of the low pressure
side of the system?
a)
compressor discharge
010100020021000C
The temperature in the evaporator
c)
010100020021000B
A purpose of a liquid refrigerant control or regulating valve
is
e)
evaporator location
100
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about a system that
circulates warm brine or water back to a chiller tank is
true?
d)
010100020021000B
The type of brine used for skating and hockey rink
refrigeration systems is usually
b)
calcium chloride
010100020021000C
Refrigerant evaporators
b)
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about the economisers is
false?
a)
b)
010100020021000B
In actual systems there will be a gradual pressure drop
through each side of the system due to
010100020021000E
Which of the following is the compressor responsible for
doing?
i)
YES Maintains a high pressure in the
condenser
ii)
YES Maintains a low pressure in the
evaporator
iii) YES Raises the pressure of the refrigerant
010100020021000A
In a refrigeration system, the purpose of the compressor is to
a)
010100020021000A
Which of the following compressor types uses impellers to
draw in vapour?
a)
Centrifugal compressors
010100020021000D
One negative factor of Hermetic type reciprocating
compressors is
102
d)
010100020021000A
In a rotating vane design rotary compressor, a good seal is
maintained between the vanes and the cylinder by
a)
centrifugal force
010100020021000B
For a Helical Rotor Design rotary compressor which of the
following statements is true?
b)
010100020021000A
Pistons and connecting rods are found in which of the
following types of compressors?
a)
Reciprocating
0503000200210001.037 %.05;
Consider a single stage, single acting reciprocating compressor.
Calculate the piston displacement in cubic metres per minute, if
given the following:
piston stroke
piston diameter
piston speed
12 cm
10 cm
1100 working strokes per minute
Answer = ____________________
010100020021000C
A typical stationary crankshaft seal consisting of a metallic
bellows soldered at one end to a ring (seal nose) which bears
either against a shoulder on the shaft or against a seal ring
on the shaft is called a
c)
bellows seal
103
010100020021000E
In rotating mechanical seals the sealing ring is held in
position by
e)
a spring
b)
010100020021000A
An evaporator that contains only a small amount of liquid
refrigerant at any time is what type of evaporator?
a)
Dry evaporator
010100020021000E
Refrigerant evaporators
e)
010100020021000D
The evaporator which increases heat exchange by crimping thin
metal plates to its form is which type of evaporator?
d)
Finned tube
010100020021000C
An evaporator which can easily be cleaned and defrosted
manually without interrupting the cooling process is which
type of evaporator?
c)
Plate surface
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about the shell and tube
evaporator type is false?
104
a)
roof tops
010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about double tube
condensers is true?
b)
010100020021000C
The amount of water used in an evaporative condenser is only
a small percentage of that used in a water condenser of the
same capacity. This is due primarily to what?
1.
2.
3.
010100020021000E
Defective condenser operation is a result of the presence of
all of the following except
e)
010100020021000B
The purpose of a condenser in a refrigeration system is
b)
105
a)
010100020021000E
Which of the statements about automatic expansion valves is
false?
e) The control may be used with multiple cooling coils
connected to the same compressor.
010100020021000C
Which control is used to maintain a constant level of liquid
refrigerant in a flooded evaporator in the liquid reserve
tank?
c)
010100020021000D
The simple control which restricts the flow of liquid from
the condenser to the evaporator and maintains a pressure
difference between the two units by using a considerable
pressure drop resulting from resistance between the devices
length and small bore is called
d)
a capillary tube
010100020021000D
In a system controlled by a high pressure float valve
insufficient liquid will cause which of the following
results?
d)
010100020021000D
One method of controlling the capacity of reciprocating
compressors is to bypass the discharge from one or more
cylinders back to the suction side of the compressor. The
control is called
d)
cylinder bypass
010100020021000C
Sectional evaporators control the capacity of the evaporator
by which of the following means?
c)
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about evaporator dampers is
true?
a)
b)
106
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000A
The type of operation which stops the compressor when the
desired low temperature of the substance to be cooled is
reached and starts the compressor up again when the
temperature rises to a set level is called
a)
intermittent operation
010100020021000C
The control which is replacing suction throttling and
operates by swirling the refrigerant in the same direction as
the compressor impeller, resulting in a reduction of power
required by the compressor is which of the following
controls?
c)
010100020021000D
The operating control which uses a bimetal element is a
d) temperature actuated control
010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about pressure stats is
false?
c)
010100020021000A
The operating control which consists of a hygroscopic element
made of material similar to multiple strands of human hair is
called a
a)
humidistat
010100020021000E
Which of the following actuating control valves is
electromagnetically operated?
e)
Solenoid valve
107
010100020021000A
In many cases evaporator pressure must not be allowed to drop
below a certain level to prevent which of the following
results?
a)
frosting of coils
010100020021000E
Safety controls serve what function?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about flow switches is
false?
d)
010100020021000C
The safety control which uses a current transformer with a
resistor in the motor circuit is known as
c)
010100020021000D
Oil pressure failure switches are used to perform which of
the following functions?
d)
Refrigeration Accessories
010100020021000D
A simple trap located in the suction line before the
compressor that collects liquid, where it evaporates and
returns to the compressor as a gas, is called
d)
an accumulator
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about strainers is false?
b)
010100020021000C
A chemical dot placed under the glass lens of a sight glass
which is exposed to the liquid serves what function?
c)
108
010100020021000A
The function of vibration absorbers is to
a)
010100020021000B
Which of the following pipe joints should be used for high
pressure 1 1/4 inch or smaller piping?
b)
screwed
010100020021000E
Moisture in a system can result in which of the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
formation of ice
acid formation
corrosion
deterioration of motor insulation
all of the above
010100020021000E
The accessory which maintains efficient heat transfer by
collecting oil that coats the tubes of the condenser is
called
e)
an oil separator
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about pressure gages is
true?
a)
010100020021000C
A direct expansion type evaporator that has more than 1
refrigerant circuit in it requires what to have even
refrigerant flow in each circuit?
c)
A distributor
010100020021000D
Emergency discharge is used to counter which of the following
problems?
d)
010100020021000B
The emergency discharge line in a refrigeration system
b)
109
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about Manual Purging
Systems is false?
d)
010100020021000E
The chilling coil in an automatic purger has a primary
function to
e)
010100020021000C
When using lighted sulphur candles to test for ammonia leaks in a
refrigeration system, the presence of ammonia will be indicated by
c)
010100020021000D
Leak testing for tightness under pressure of a refrigeration system
d)
010100020021000C
Leak testing on a refrigeration system
c) is done with a sulphur candle for ammonia
010100020021000D
Which of the following is not a recommended step for the
procedure in which dry nitrogen is used for a system leak
test?
d)
e)
010100020021000B
A sulphur candle is a test for
b)
ammonia leaks
010100020021000E
Before charging a system which of the following needs to be
done?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
110
010100020021000A
The initial refrigerant charge is given where on the system?
a)
010100020021000C
Frost formation on the suction line indicates what?
c)
010100020021000D
The liquid line shutoff valve is
d) required to be closed when charging the system
010100020021000B
Charging a refrigeration system
b)
010100020021000E
When charging a refrigeration system it
e)
010100020021000B
When initially charging a refrigeration system
b)
010100020021000E
What can cause a high discharge pressure with refrigeration
systems?
e)
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about adding oil to a
system is true?
a)
010100020021000C
It is very important to open oil drain valves and plugs in
the crankcase for which of the following reasons?
c)
010100020021000B
Oil added to refrigeration compressors
b)
111
010100020021000A
To avoid liquid slugging in a direct expansion evaporator
after shutting down a reciprocating or rotary compressor
refrigerating system which of the following measures needs to
be taken?
a)
010100020021000C
Which of the following steps is NOT part of the startup
procedure of centrifugal compressor refrigerating systems.
c)
010100020021000B
A centrifugal compressor refrigerating system can be stopped
simply by pressing the stop button unless which of the
following circumstances is true?
b)
010100020021000E
The safety control in a centrifugal compressor which ensures
the compressor to only be started under a no-load condition
is called
e) vane closed switch
010100020021000C
If a compressor fails to start but the motor is running,
which of the following could be a cause?
c)
010100020021000A
A system of regularly scheduled inspections and lubrications
along with the adjustments, minor parts replacement and minor
repairs necessary to keep the refrigerating plant and
equipment in good operating condition is defined as
a)
preventative maintenance
010100020021000E
Checking the condition of electrical starters and contactors
is categorised under which of the following maintenance
schedules?
112
e)
Annual maintenance
Water
010100020021000B
Which of the following is not found on the low side of an
ammonia system?
b)
Generator
010100020021000C
Ammonia systems are seldom used for air conditioning purposes
in large buildings mainly because
c)
010100020021000C
In comparing absorption and compression systems which of the
following comparisons is true?
c)
010100020021000D
In a Lithium Bromide System which of the following is the
refrigerant?
d) Water
010100020021000A
In order to lower the boiling point of the refrigerant it is
important that the system maintain
a)
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about Lithium bromide
systems is false?
d)
010100020021000D
The absorber is equipped with a pump for which of the
following reasons?
d)
010100020021000B
What is the function of the concentrator (generator)?
113
b)
010100020021000E
Most absorbency systems are put in place where there is cheap
excess or waste heat available. What is this heat primarily
used for?
e)
Crystallization
010100020021000A
When the temperature of a solution increases, which of the
following statements is true?
a)
010100020021000D
The concentration of Lithium Bromide in an absorption
refrigerating system will change during which of the
following steps?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000E
Concentration of the Lithium Bromide can be most easily
controlled by which of the following means?
e) Controlling the temperature in the generator.
010100020021000C
Which of the following is NOT a result of having
noncondensable gases in the absorption systems?
c)
010100020021000E
Which of the following are elements of a mechanical purging
system?
i)
purge pickup tube
114
ii)
iii)
iv)
v)
vi)
purge chamber
manual shutoff valve
safety solenoid valve
oil trap
vacuum pump
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a step in the seasonal prestart
service?
c)
010100020021000D
During seasonal startup, when should the purge pump be
started?
d)
010100020021000B
When shutting down the refrigeration system for a weekend or
less which of the following is a correct shutdown procedure?
b)
010100020021000D
If there is a crystallization upon shutdown a possible
corrective action is to
d) check pump operation
79% N
and 21% O
010100020021000B
Dalton's Law of partial pressure states that
b) in a mixture of two or more gases each will exert a
partial pressure which is equal to the pressure that it
would exert if it filled that space alone
010100020021000A
Relative humidity is
a)
010100020021000E
The dewpoint is the
115
e)
010100020021000D
The volume of standard air is
d)
010100020021000C
The heat content of air is called the
c)
010100020021000D
Psychrometry is
d)
010100020021000C
The composition of pure dry air is generally taken to be
c) 23.2% oxygen and 76.8% nitrogen by weight
010100020021000B
Air conditioning involves
b)
010100020021000A
The term "relative humidity" applies to
a)
010100020021000D
A device for measuring relative humidity is called
d) a psychrometer
010100020021000A
The difference between the wet and dry bulb readings is
called the
a)
010100020021000C
Which law describes the existence of moisture in the air in
vapour or evaporated state?
c) Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures
010100020021000A
Absolute or specific humidity is
a)
116
010100020021000B
Relative humidity is
b)
010100020021000E
Dewpoint can be best defined as
e)
010100020021000D
Dry-bulb temperature is
d)
010100020021000A
Wet-bulb temperature is
a)
010100020021000D
What is wet-bulb depression?
d) difference between the dry-bulb temperature and the
wet-bulb temperature
010100020021000E
Psychrometers are
e)
010100020021000B
Which of the following instruments use a battery-operated fan
to draw air over the thermometer bulbs?
b)
aspirating psychrometer
010100020021000C
The specific volume of air is
c) the volume of 1 kg of air at atmospheric pressure
expressed in cubic metres
010100020021000D
Standard air is
a)
d)
117
010100020021000A
Enthalpy of air depends on
a)
010100020021000A
To find various properties of air
a)
010100020021000D
In the SI (metric) system the enthalpy of air is measured in
d)
010100020021000E
The dry-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychrometric
chart
e)
010100020021000C
The wet-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychrometric
chart
c)
010100020021000B
The dewpoint temperature scale is read on a psychrometric
chart
b)
010100020021000A
Relative humidity is plotted on a psychrometric chart
a)
010100020021000C
Specific humidity is
c)
010100020021000B
Specific humidity scale on a psychrometric chart is
b)
010100020021000D
Specific volume on a psychrometric chart
d)
118
partial pressure
010100020021000C
The intersection between the line running vertically from the
point on the dry-bulb scale and the downward diagonally
running line from the wet-bulb scale is defined as
c)
010100020021000E
During sensible heating which of the following results is
true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about cooling and
dehumidification is false?
d) Dry bulb temperatures are increased.
010100020021000B
Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity
if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees Celsius and the
wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees Celsius.
b)
58%
010100020021000C
Using the psychrometric chart, find the dewpoint temperature
if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.
c) 11.5 degrees C
119
010100020021000D
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.
d)
010100020021000E
Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the
dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.
e)
42 kJ/kg
010100020021000B
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume if
the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.
b)
010100020021000C
Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 25 degrees C.
c)
100%
010100020021000A
Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
c)
52%
010100020021000A
Using the psychrometric chart, find the dewpoint temperature
if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
a)
17.5 degrees C
010100020021000C
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
c)
010100020021000B
Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the
dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
b)
57 kJ/kg
120
010100020021000E
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume, if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
e)
010100020021000A
During sensible heating the dry-bulb temperature and the
wet-bulb temperature are raised, and
a)
010100020021000E
During sensible heating, only
e)
010100020021000D
During sensible cooling
d)
010100020021000A
If 5.0 cubic metres/second of air enters a heating coil at 20
degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and leaves the
heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the mass of
air flowing?
a)
5.94 kg/sec
010100020021000C
If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil
at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and
leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the
volume of air leaving the coil?
c)
010100020021000E
If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil
at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and
leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the
change in enthalpy?
e) 10 kJ/kg
010100020021000B
If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil
at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and
leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the
heating capacity of the coil?
b)
59.4 kW
010100020021000C
Evaporative cooling is
121
c)
010100020021000C
The comfort of human beings is affected by the atmospheric
conditions surrounding them. Which of the following is not
an atmospheric condition which affects comfort?
c)
Saturation temperature
010100020021000A
The body needs considerable time to adjust when moving from
one space to another when temperature and humidity conditions
vary widely. This may be described as
a)
shock effect
010100020021000E
The comfort of human beings is affected by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
temperature
relative humidity
air cleanliness
air movement
all of the above
010100020021000C
Shock Effect is
c)
010100020021000B
Air used for ventilating purposes in an office building should be
kept within certain range of relative humidity as indicated below.
b)
30 to 70
010100020021000E
An increased air flow increases heat loss of the body by
which of the following methods:
i)
convection
ii)
conduction
iii) evaporation
010100020021000C
An average effective temperature chart can be applicable
under the following conditions except when
c)
010100020021000B
A measure of comfort which involves the combined effects of
the dry-bulb temperature, relative humidity and air movement
is defined as
b) effective temperature
010100020021000C
122
010100020021000E
The relative humidity should be maintained between
e)
010100020021000E
Effective temperature is defined as a measure of comfort
which involves
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the
the
the
the
all
010100020021000D
During the winter, the majority of people feel comfortable
d) 17.2 and 21.7 degrees C
010100020021000E
During the summer, the majority of people feel comfortable
when the effective temperature is between
e)
19 and 24 degrees C
Centrifugal
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a centrifugal fan?
c)
010100020021000D
Two fan wheels are rotating at the same speed. One wheel has
forward curved blades and the other has backward inclined
blades. The velocity of the air leaving the forward curved
blades is considerably higher for which of the following
reasons?
d) The inclination of the blades in the forward curved fan
increases the resultant force vector while the backward
curved blade inclination decreases the resultant vector.
010100020021000E
123
When comparing the tube axial fan with the vane axial fan the
main difference between the two is the
e)
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about fan performance
curves is false?
a)
010100020021000C
When a fan outlet is considered fully open which of the
following statements is true?
c)
010100020021000A
Which of the following devices has a de-clutching feature?
a)
A fluid drive
010100020021000E
The two general groups of fans are
e)
010100020021000E
Centrifugal fans are classified as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
backward inclined
straight
backward inclined with airfoil blades
forward curved
all of the above
010100020021000D
Axial flow fans are classified as
d) vane axial, tube axial, and propeller
010100020021000A
Forward curved centrifugal fans
a)
010100020021000B
Backward inclined centrifugal fans
b)
010100020021000D
The vane axial flow fan
d)
124
010100020021000A
The fan which discharges maximum air delivery at the lowest
power requirement and is used mainly to produce large air
movements at low pressures is
a)
010100020021000B
The devices which are used to minimize vibration problems and
premature wearing of the belts are called
b)
V-belt drives
010100020021000D
Control of the static pressure and horsepower requirements at
a given speed is obtained by using
d) variable inlet vane control
010100020021000C
Backward inclined airfoil fans
c)
010100020021000B
Forward curved fans
b)
010100020021000D
The propeller axial flow fan is used
d)
010100020021000E
The propeller axial flow fan
e)
010100020021000A
The tube axial flow fan
a)
010100020021000B
Axial flow fans
b) have minimum horsepower at maximum or free air delivery
010100020021000C
What are the three different kinds of pressure developed by a
fan?
c) static pressure, velocity pressure, total pressure
010100020021000A
125
010100020021000B
Velocity pressure exerted by the air is measured by
connecting a
b)
manometer with the opening facing the air flow in the air
duct
010100020021000D
Total pressure exerted by the air is the sum of
d) static pressure and velocity pressure
Cement asbestos
010100020021000A
Ducts of large dimensions must be diagonally creased to
a)
provide stiffness
010100020021000B
Short radius elbows should be provided with
b)
turning vanes
010100020021000D
The main function of an air conditioning duct system is
d)
010100020021000B
Classifications of air conditioning ducts include
b)
010100020021000E
Medium and high pressure duct systems require less space than
low pressure duct systems, but this feature is partly offset
by
a)
b)
c)
126
d)
e)
010100020021000E
Fibreglass ducts are used
e)
010100020021000D
Materials used in sheet metal ducts are
d)
010100020021000E
Ducts are fabricated of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
sheet metal
cement asbestos
plastic
fibreglass
all of the above
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about duct leakage losses
is true?
e)
010100020021000C
Seepage in return air ducts turned within the conditioned
space may have what kind of effect?
c)
010100020021000A
When all supply air duct is outside the conditioned space
there is a certain leakage. This leakage must be calculated
how?
a)
010100020021000D
Semi-rigid fibrous glass blankets attached to the insides
of the ducts are in place to mainly
d)
010100020021000C
Supply air duct leakage loss calculations include
c)
10% leakage loss when all the supply air duct is outside
127
010100020021000B
Duct liners
b)
010100020021000B
A mixing box is an example of which kind of damper?
b)
A modulating damper
010100020021000D
The function of a check valve is similar to the function of
which type of damper?
d)
A relief damper
010100020021000A
The purpose of dampers in an air handling system is
a)
010100020021000C
Dampers in air handling systems
c)
010100020021000E
Modulating dampers in air handling systems are used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000B
Relief dampers
b)
010100020021000C
Damper designs include
c)
128
010100020021000D
Parallel blade dampers
d)
010100020021000D
Air louvers
d) are used in fresh air intake openings to minimize the
amount of water and snow entering the air handling system
010100020021000E
Which of the following is NOT a function of terminal air
distribution devices?
d)
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a function of terminal air
distribution devices?
c)
010100020021000C
Functions of terminal air distribution devices are
accomplished
c)
Coil Types
010100020021000C
Which type of coil circuiting is designed to produce a high
heat capacity with a limited water quantity?
c)
Half serpentine
010100020021000A
Air venting is required for which of the following reasons?
a)
010100020021000E
Steam Coils must be designed to:
v)
constantly eliminate air venting
In order to provide uniform steam distribution to the
individual tubes, which of the above design parameters
is/are true?
i)
ii)
129
iii)
iv)
v)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about steam distributing
coils is true?
b)
010100020021000A
To obtain full rated capacity of water coils what should be
done?
a)
010100020021000B
Fin spacing of 6.35 to 1.814 mm is most normally used in
which of the following cases?
b)
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about water coils is false?
d)
010100020021000D
A factor limiting the number of fins that can be used on
coils is
d)
010100020021000E
Proper performance of heating and cooling water coils depends
on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000C
With counterflow arrangement of air and water
c)
010100020021000A
130
010100020021000D
Single serpentine water coil circuiting is used
d) where the water velocity in the tubes is between 0.3 and
2.4 m/s
010100020021000B
Double serpentine water coil circuiting is used
b)
010100020021000E
Half serpentine water coil circuiting is used
e)
010100020021000B
To assure proper air venting, the
b)
010100020021000E
Which one of the following methods is not a method of
ensuring uniform steam distribution in steam coils?
e)
010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about coil surfaces is
false?
d)
010100020021000C
To ensure effective heat transfer which of the following is
the most vital element?
c)
010100020021000D
Which of the following is a limiting factor for the number of
fins that can be used?
d)
Resistance to airflow
010100020021000C
Finned tube coils in air handling systems are often called
c)
131
010100020021000B
Fin surface area is called
b)
010100020021000A
Two types of modern coils used for heating and cooling
services in air handling systems are
a)
010100020021000D
Flat-finned surface type coils are normally used for
d)
010100020021000C
Rippled-finned surface type coils
c)
010100020021000D
Face velocity is the
d)
Coil Operation
010100020021000C
To prevent freezing of downstream equipment in a coil
handling a large amount of outdoor air, which of the
following is required?
c)
A preheat coil
010100020021000A
It is good practice to select steam coils which require at
least 40% of coil capacity when air temperature is 1 degree C
for which of the following reasons?
a)
010100020021000D
Steam coils with a short tube length of 1.1 m or less
d)
010100020021000B
Steam coils with long tube lengths
132
b)
010100020021000A
Freezing problems in steam coils with long tube lengths,
handling a large amount of low temperature outside air
a)
010100020021000E
To prevent freezing of the steam coil when steam pressure at
the coil inlet is too low or is lost
e)
provisions are made to stop the fan and close the outdoor
air dampers
010100020021000B
It is good design practice to select a steam coil size
b) so that at least 40% of the coil capacity is needed when
the air temperature entering the coil is -1 degree C
010100020021000D
The purpose of a vacuum breaker used with steam coils is to
d)
010100020021000B
In a hot water coil which of the following is not included
for providing a good guideline for the correct application of
the system with minimal possibility of freeze-up?
b)
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a cause of freezing in hot
water coils?
c)
010100020021000A
The purpose of the "freeze-stat" temperature controller used
with hot water coils is to
a)
close the outside air dampers and stop the fan if the
heat source fails or the low limit temperature controller
malfunctions
010100020021000D
The purpose of the flow switch or sail switch used with hot
water coils is to
d)
close the outside air dampers and stop the fan if the
flow of water is interrupted due to pump failure or
closing of the hand valves
133
010100020021000B
The flow arrangement best suited for hot water coils is
b)
010100020021000E
The use of ethylene glycol solution will result in which of
the following:
i)
Lower heat transfer rate
ii)
Better protection against freezing
iii) Increased friction losses in the coil and piping
iv)
The requirement of a larger pump with more horsepower
010100020021000D
For a glycol system using hot water as its heat source which
of the following statements is false?
d)
010100020021000E
Ethylene glycol used in glycol coils
d)
has much lower pressure drops through the coil and piping
010100020021000B
Glycol coils using ethylene glycol
b)
010100020021000D
A thermostat which is sometimes installed in the return air
duct serves which main function?
d) To minimize temperature fluctuations in discharge air
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about vacuum breakers is
false?
b)
010100020021000E
The greatest fears in hot water coil installations handling
subfreezing air are:
iii) failure of the circulating pipe
v)
failure of the heat source
010100020021000B
Which of the following is not an installation recommendation
for steam traps?
b) Locate the steam trap so that its outlet is at least 30
cm (12 in) above the coil return connection.
134
010100020021000C
Steam coil piping and trapping
c)
010100020021000A
Steam coils
a)
010100020021000C
Which of the following steam traps are preferred for use with
steam coils operating at low and medium steam pressure?
c)
010100020021000A
The inverted bucket steam trap is
a)
used when the coil steam pressure is higher than 172 kpa
or 25 psig
010100020021000D
A modulating control valve
d)
010100020021000C
Air vents are
c)
Humidification
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a result of very low humidity?
c)
010100020021000D
If air at 13 degrees C can hold a maximum of 0.0032 kg of
moisture per kilogram of air, what is the relative humidity
if the air contains 0.0015 kg of moisture per 1 kg of air?
d)
47%
010100020021000A
The outside temperature 18 - 25 degrees C is saturated (Air
135
3.3%
010100020021000D
Humidity in the air
d) decreases when the air temperature decreases
010100020021000A
Relative humidity is the amount of
a)
010100020021000B
The purpose of humidification is to
b)
010100020021000C
Relative humidity
c)
010100020021000E
Humidification in residences equipped with ducted warm air
heating systems
e)
010100020021000D
The residential humidifier which is commonly used in the
supply plenum of smaller warm air furnaces and consists of a
shallow tray partially filled with water is called a
e)
010100020021000C
Which type of humidifier breaks water up into a mist or fog?
c)
An atomizing humidifier
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about Air washers is false?
b)
010100020021000D
To keep humidifiers in top condition the plates of plate type
units should be cleaned by soaking them in a slightly acidic
136
010100020021000E
It is not recommended to use an on-off switch for steam grid
humidifiers because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
010100020021000D
Humidifying units which use a small fan to draw warmer air
from the furnace plenum or from the room, force the air
through the wetted pad, and return the air to the room, are
called
d)
010100020021000D
The types of humidifiers used for residential purposes are
d)
010100020021000C
Pan type humidifiers with plates
c)
010100020021000B
Wetted element humidifiers
b)
e)
010100020021000A
Atomizing humidifiers
a)
010100020021000E
A disadvantage of the atomizing humidifier is
137
e)
010100020021000D
Air washers used in air conditioning systems
d)
010100020021000C
Air washers used in air conditioning systems achieve heating
and humidification by
c)
010100020021000B
Air washers used in air conditioning systems achieve cooling
and dehumidification by
b) cooling the spray water to a temperature below the dew
point temperature of the entering air
010100020021000A
Which is not a method employed to maintain the desired
temperature of the spray water in air washers used in air
conditioning systems?
a)
010100020021000C
Steam grid humidifiers used in air conditioning systems
achieve humidification by
c)
ventilation
010100020021000D
To offset the heat gain through the building's exterior shell
from solar radiation, the atmosphere surrounding the
building, and from internal sources of heat, what is required?
d)
a cooling source
010100020021000E
A small residence located in a tropical climate may require
which of the following elements of an air conditioning
system:
ii)
cooling
138
iv)
v)
dehumidification
ventilation
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about air handling units is
true?
a)
010100020021000B
The intake section arrangement which draws in room air,
conditions it, and then returns it into the room is called
b)
full recirculation
010100020021000C
The unitary air conditioning system which uses a direct
expansion refrigeration system to provide cooling and
dehumidification in a local area without ductwork is called
c)
010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about the unit ventilators
is false?
c)
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about central air
conditioning systems is false?
e) Unitary systems are able to control noise and vibration
better than central systems.
010100020021000A
The most common system installed in most residences where the
furnace is located in the basement and provides conditioned
air via ducts to each room is called
a)
010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about multizone systems is
true?
c)
When the hot deck is fully opened the cold deck is fully
closed
139
d)
heating
010100020021000C
In a constant air volume system with perimeter heating which
of the following elements are fluids in the air handling
unit?
ii)
Cooling coils
iii) An air mixing section
iv)
Filters
v)
A humidifier
010100020021000D
A system used extensively in hotels and motels due to its
minimal space requirement, relatively low initial cost, and
high degree of individual zone control is called
d)
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about fan coil units makeup
air systems is false?
e)
010100020021000A
An induction system gets its name from which property of the
system?
a)
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about two-pipe arrangements
is false?
e)
010100020021000B
A system which provides cooling and heating all year round is
highly energy efficient but has a high initial cost. The
system consists of two separate supply and return piping
systems which are connected to separate coils. Which of the
following systems fits this description?
a)
010100020021000B
The funds available for the air conditioning portion of the
building refers to which factor of system selection?
b)
Capital cost
010100020021000A
If operating personnel from an old building are going to be
transferred to the new building the system installed in the
new building will be the same as in the older building
because all the personnel are familiar with that system.
140
010100020021000B
When looking at building function to select a system which of
the following factors are considered?
iii) Amount of zoning required
v)
Occupancy periods
vi)
Need to operate certain areas off-hours
thermal wheel
010100020021000E
The recovery system which has a capillary wick structure
consisting of fine circumferential striations machined on its
external surface is called a
e)
heat pipe
010100020021000C
A system consists of two finned tube heat exchangers.
is the preconditioning coil of this system located?
c)
Where
010100020021000A
What is the name of the system that consists of two finned
tube heat exchangers?
a)
runaround system
010100020021000D
The system which runs as a refrigeration system used for air
conditioning purposes in the summer and can be modified to
run in reverse in cooler weather is called a
d)
heat pipe
010100020021000D
The system which makes use of a coil installed underground
below frost levels is called a
d) heat pump
010100020021000D
Cross contamination is a disadvantage for which of the
141
following systems?
d) A thermal wheel
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not an advantage for a runaround
system?
c)
010100020021000B
The fact that the system can be treated against corrosion is
an advantage for which system?
b)
A heat pipe
010100020021000E
When is the capacity of a heat pipe at a maximum?
e)
010100020021000A
To provide a two position damper, equipped with a fan that
provides 100% outdoor air, with a ratio of damper opening
what is required?
a)
A gradual switch
010100020021000C
In severely cold weather what adjustment must be made to
properly preheat the outside air?
c)
010100020021000E
Which of the following is not a correct method of heat
regulation?
e)
Modulating the valve and the face and the bypass damper
30 degrees out of phase.
010100020021000E
Air conditioning with respect to heating coils is achieved in
which of the following ways?
a)
b)
142
c)
d)
e)
air
Selective heating by passing air through the heating
coils
Proportioning the amount of air flow through the face
damper for heat addition, or through the bypass dampers
for no heat addition.
All of the above
010100020021000B
A main advantage of steam type humidifiers over pan type
humidifiers is that
b)
010100020021000C
Dehumidification is achieved by
c)
010100020021000E
To prevent too frequent starting and stopping of the
compressor in a cooling system what should be done?
e)
010100020021000C
To control static pressure in the air ducts a differential
pressure controller is installed. How does the controller
control static pressure?
c)
010100020021000A
When complete control systems become very complex, which
control signal medium is preferred?
a)
Pneumatic
010100020021000D
Two methods of calculating air infiltration into a building
are
d)
010100020021000A
In calculating air infiltration the quickest method is
143
a)
010100020021000D
Air ventilation is based on the larger of these two
requirements:
d)
010100020021000D
Heat load from people in a room is mostly affected by
d) the activity of the people
010100020021000D
To calculate the heat gain from fluorescent lighting, add the
wattage ratings and multiply by
d)
1.2
010100020021000A
Electric motors give off sensible heat while running.
010100020021000C
If exhaust fans are used over cooking only
c)
010100020021000D
Heat is lost from a building in the following ways:
d)
010100020021000C
Heat lost from a building is
c)
Powerhouse Maintenance I
010100020021000C
Relative to plant maintenance, a power engineer should have
easy access to
c)
010100020021000A
Damaged tools
a)
010100020021000A
Who is responsible for providing safe working conditions in
the plant?
a)
Management
144
010100020021000B
A file which is always single cut is the
b)
mill file
010100020021000E
Taper, plug, and bottoming are types of
b)
dies
010100020021000E
A collet is
e)
010100020021000A
The thread pitch of a metric micrometer is
a)
0.5 mm
010100020021000D
To measure valve tappet clearances one would most aptly use
d) feeler gauges
010100020021000E
Copper sulphate may be used
e)
as a marking material
010100020021000C
In order to check the trueness of a flat surface, one would
use a
c)
surface plate
010100020021000A
A dressing tool is used to
a)
010100020021000B
Flutes are found on
b)
010100020021000C
A screwdriver having a square tip is known as a robertson
type.
010100020021000E
A 300 mm tungsten hacksaw blade with a .78 mm teeth pitch is used
to cut
e)
145
010100020021000E
Whatever the size of a micrometer, the working parts can only
move a distance of
e)
25 mm
010100020021000C
Micrometers are available in a variety of types and are used
mainly for the measurement of
c)
010100020021000B
The accuracy of the completed job depends
largely on the care taken during laying out.
010100020021000D
Chalk or blue vitrol may be used to rub on the surface
of rough castings as a marking material.
010100020021000D
A taper tap is tapered from the end for approximately
d) 6 threads
010100020021000E
The tap drill is always smaller than the tap, to leave sufficient
material for the tap to produce 75 per cent of thread.
010100020021000D
Hand taps are usually made in sets of three called
d)
010100020021000D
The point angle of a properly ground drill should be
d) 118 degrees
010100020021000C
When storing a hacksaw
c)
Powerhouse Maintenance II
010100020021000B
A government agency which covers several aspects of work
platforms is the
b)
010100020021000D
146
010100020021000A
When using a step ladder it is best to
a)
010100020021000E
A rung ladder should
e)
010100020021000D
A scaffold should always be erected
d)
010100020021000C
A single pole scaffold
c)
010100020021000C
The top of a ladder should extend approximately __________
above the level of the upper landing to which it provides
access.
c) 0.9 metres
010100020021000E
Ladders constructed on the job must comply with the
e)
WCB regulations
010100020021000D
Platforms should have a raised edge going around them to
prevent objects from rolling off.
010100020021000C
A single pole scaffold
c) is partially supported by the building
010100020021000E
WCB Regulations state: Tubular and similar type section
scaffolding shall be erected plumb and level
010100020021000B
Prior to hoisting an object it is best to
e) measure the width
010100020021000E
The maximum % error we should use when calculating the mass
of a light object is 20%
147
010100020021000B
Chain blocks are designed
e)
010100020021000C
Whenever two or more sling eyes are used in lifting an object
they should be
c) held in a shackle
010100020021000D
The most common method of getting a reasonable idea of an
object's mass is by estimating it.
010100020021000C
To determine the mass of an object you may
c)
010100020021000C
Safe practice in rigging, when calculating weight of objects,
should be accurate within plus or minus 20% for light
objects.
010100020021000D
The approximate mass of a 15 cm "I" beam is
d)
010100020021000A
An eye made by using a Crosby clip will have a strength
factor of 80%
010100020021000D
A strand of fibre rope is
d)
010100020021000C
In order to keep rope from untwisting under load
c) it is made with left- and right-handed counteracting
twists
010100020021000E
A knot used to pull at right angles to a pipe or pole is the
148
e)
clove hitch
010100020021000B
When joining two ropes of different diameters we use a
b)
sheet bend
010100020021000D
Eye bolts should be
d)
hot forged
010100020021000C
Natural ropes are made of
c)
manila
010100020021000B
What factor of safety should be used, to determine safe load for
a new fibre rope?
b)
010100020021000A
The clove hitch is used for attaching a rope to pull
a)
at right angles
010100020021000B
Stove bolt nuts are usually
b)
square
010100020021000C
An M24 course thread bolt has
c)
3 mm per thread
010100020021000D
To prevent damage to a work surface while fastening
d)
010100020021000E
Castle nuts are used
e) with a split pin
010100020021000B
Mechanical steel fasteners that are commonly used in the
automotive industry and on various plant machinery are
classed as
b)
machine bolts
010100020021000D
Machine bolts are most commonly supplied with
149
d)
hexagon heads
Boiler Maintenance
010100020021000A
A boiler circulating pump gland should have some leakage
a)
010100020021000D
Manway gaskets should be coated with an anti-seize compound
d)
010100020021000E
When plugging off a tube in a boiler, the plug taper should
Be 20 to 1
010100020021000B
When the fireside of a boiler is first opened up, small leak
seepage spots can be detected by
b)
010100020021000D
A black light crack detection utilizes ultraviolet light and
d)
fluorescent penetrant
010100020021000D
A substance which will absorb humidity inside a boiler
during dry lay up is
d) activated alumina
010100020021000B
A water tank should be installed above the boiler and
attached to the vent connection during a wet lay up in order
to
b)
010100020021000E
When working inside a steel heating boiler, which of the following
safety precautions should you take?
1.
2.
4.
150
010100020021000E
Before a welder is allowed to weld on a boiler he must have a
e)
010100020021000D
When replacing a firetube in a tubesheet, the tube should
extend beyond the tubesheet
d)
010100020021000C
The final step in replacing a firetube is
c)
010100020021000E
The purpose of annealing tube ends is
e)
010100020021000B
A tube beading tool
b)
Boiler Cleaning
010100020021000A
One of the main purposes of an external inspection is to
a)
010100020021000D
When the boiler is removed from service, it can be drained
once the temperature reaches approximately
d)
90 degrees C
010100020021000D
Just before entering the waterside of the boiler it is
important to
d)
010100020021000A
When cooling down a steam boiler that has been taken out of
service, a vent valve on the steam drum should be opened to
a)
010100020021000A
Before cleaning the waterside and as far as is possible
151
a)
010100020021000B
One of the legal responsibilities of the engineer during an
inspection is to
b)
010100020021000A
The external inspection of a boiler
a)
010100020021000B
A boiler inspection
b)
010100020021000A
A hydrostatic test on a high pressure steam boiler
a)
010100020021000E
Chemical cleaning of smaller boilers is not usually done
because
e)
010100020021000D
For an alkaline boil out, the boiler is maintained at a
desired steam pressure for about
e)
24 hours
010100020021000A
A relatively new and safer chemical used in boiler cleaning
and treatment is
a)
chelates
010100020021000A
An inhibitor, when added to acid, will
a)
010100020021000B
The most popular acid for boiler cleaning is
b)
hydrochloric
152
a convection heater
010100020021000C
Extended type tubes used with oil heaters are tubes
c) with fins on their outer surfaces
010100020021000B
The extended type tubes have fins on their outer surfaces.
010100020021000C
The most commonly applied oil heater, is the combination
convection and radiant type heater because of its efficiency.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
superheater
conduction
radiant
stationary
portable
010100020021000C
The most typical fired heater model is the
c)
up-draft
010100020021000D
The convection tubes of a typical up-draft model fired heater
are located in the
d)
breeching
010100020021000A
The gas burners of a horizontal rectangular direct-fired oil
heaters, are located
a)
010100020021000D
The inner walls and floor of a furnace in a fired heater, are
usually lined with
d)
refractory brick
010100020021000A
The most important piece of equipment of a hot oil system is
a)
the heater
010100020021000A
The most common oil heater is the combination of the
radiant and convection type.
153
010100020021000D
The approximate efficiency of a hot oil radiant heater is
d)
40 - 50%
010100020021000E
Hot oil convection heaters have an approximate efficiency of
e)
75 - 85 percent
010100020021000B
A non-metallic part of a mechanical seal might be made from
b)
teflon
010100020021000E
The maximum temperature of oil which can be pumped by a hot
oil pump if teflon is used as a non-metallic part of the
mechanical seal is
e)
010100020021000A
The flow through an oil heater is controlled
a)
automatically
010100020021000D
A hot oil pump suction is located
d)
010100020021000D
An oil used as thermal transfer fluid must not only be readily
available, it must also be at
d)
reasonable cost
010100020021000A
To avoid start-up difficulties in cold weather a thermal fluid
must have
a)
010100020021000A
Petroleum oils are widely used as heat transfer media for systems
operating up to
a)
010100020021000A
Small diameter pipe used in building hot oil systems is
a)
25.4 mm or smaller
010100020021000D
The vapour space of the surge tank is
154
d)
010100020021000C
When filling a hot oil system with oil and replacing nitrogen
gas used to purge air from the system, __________ should be
followed.
c)
a pattern
010100020021000B
How long should the circulating pump be run to ensure the
system is full when filling a hot oil system?
b)
3 or 4 hours
010100020021000D
A hot oil pump suction strainer should be inspected and cleaned
after how long, following initial circulation of oil through
the system?
d)
3 - 4 hours
010100020021000A
Temperature rise in a hot oil system during the period that
the refractory is drying out is allowed at a rate of
a)
010100020021000A
While refractory is drying in a heater, circulated oil in
the tubes is
a)
010100020021000C
What piece of equipment in a hot oil system requires the most
operator attention?
c)
the heater
010100020021000D
With regard to oil leaving each heater pass, of particular
importance is the
d)
temperature
010100020021000A
Compatibility of oils is determined by
a)
analysis
010100020021000E
How far from a furnace heater dike is the drain pit located?
e)
about 50 meters
155
010100020021000B
The safety valve discharge on a hot oil system returns to
b)
010100020021000A
The automatic shutdown devices on a hot oil system are called
a)
interlocks
010100020021000B
A low hot oil flow shutdown (FSDL) is always
installed in the outlet line of an oil heater.
010100020021000B
Low oil flow shutdowns (FSDL) are usually installed
b)
010100020021000C
Hot oil high temperature (TSDH1) shutdown switches are installed
on
c)
010100020021000B
Most heater fuel controls are interlocked to prevent pilot
burner fuel supply if hot oil flow is below a preset limit.
010100020021000B
In order to keep some hot oil flowing backwards through a standby
pump and around the discharge check valve, it is important that
the suction valve be left open.
010100020021000E
Vapour bubbles in a pump can cause the pump to
e)
cavitate
010100020021000B
Dikes are required to prevent oil from spreading beyond
the confines of a heater in the event of a ruptured tube.
010100020021000C
In order not to be harmful to the metals used in hot oil
systems the thermal fluid must
c)
be noncorrosive
010100020021000E
A high flash point in oil reduces the risk of
156
e)
fire
010100020021000A
When petroleum oils break down or crack due to high temperature
the products formed are insoluble and
a)
more viscous
010100020021000B
Coke deposits on the inner walls of a heater tube produce
a dull sound when the tube is tapped lightly with a hammer?
010100020021000D
The presence of coke deposits in a heater tube can be
confirmed by
d)
radiographic inspection
010100020021000A
It is important to drain an hot oil heater prior to attempting a
radiographic inspection, because
a)
010100020021000B
Cracks in the refractory of a hot oil heater may indicate that
b)
010100020021000D
During shutdown, oil heater pilots and main burners are checked
for
d)
cleanliness
010100020021000B
Indicate which extinguishing agents are most suitable for hot
oil fires.
b)
010100020021000B
Hydrocarbons in a natural gas may include
b)
ethane
157
010100020021000A
The contaminants in a natural gas may include
a)
hydrogen sulphide
010100020021000B
The purpose of an inlet separator in a natural gas plant is
b)
010100020021000D
The purpose of the absorber in a natural gas plant is to
d)
010100020021000E
The removal of hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide from the
natural gas
e)
010100020021000B
The purpose of stabilization in natural gas treatment plants is
b)
010100020021000A
The purpose of dehydration in natural gas treatment plants is
a)
010100020021000E
The two types of wood pulping processes are
the mechanical and the
e) chemical
010100020021000B
The two chief methods of chemical pulping are:
1.
3.
010100020021000E
In the kraft process, the chipped wood is further processed in
one of the following:
e) digester
010100020021000D
The raw material used in pulp and paper mills is
d)
wood chips
010100020021000B
Wood pulp production by chemical means, requires the removal of
lignin in order to obtain the cellulosic fibre.
158
010100020021000C
Kiln-dried lumber refers to drying lumber
c)
010100020021000B
Hog fuel is a term used to describe a
b)
010100020021000E
Which of the following is not a steam user in a meat
processing plant?
e)
blast freezer
010100020021000D
The overall purposes of an oil refinery are to
d) remove crude oil contaminants and process the crude oil
into specific end products
010100020021000A
The purpose of the vacuum unit in an oil refinery is
a)
010100020021000C
The purpose of the fluid catalytic cracking unit (F.C.C.U.)
in an oil refinery is
c)
010100020021000B
The purpose of the naphtha hydrotreater in an oil refinery is
b)
010100020021000D
A diesel hydrotreater in an oil refinery
d)
159
010100020021000A
The purpose of a reformer in an oil refinery is
a)
010100020021000B
A gas sweetening unit in an oil refinery
b)
160