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2nd Insight 2016 Prelims Test Series
2nd Insight 2016 Prelims Test Series
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1 India does not produce large amounts of gold. Which of these can be the possible
reason(s)?
1. Some gold mines in India are very deep which makes commercial extraction
expensive.
2. India's gold reserves are highly scarce.
3. Technological barriers exist and extraction is risky.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation:India currently produces hardly 0.4% of its gold consumption despite
having 9% of global gold reserves under the country's land mass. So, statement 2 is
incorrect.
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Though private entrepreneurs have come forward for reconnaissance, hardly less
than 1% of them have come up to mining stage. This is mainly for want of latest
technology, high risk capital etc. The government is also formulating a new mining
policy to boost exploration of gold and diamond deposits and cut down the country's
over-dependence on imports. So, statement 3 is correct.
Kolar in Karnataka has deposits of gold in India. These mines are among the deepest
in the world which makes mining of this ore a very expensive process. So, statement
1 is correct.
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Learning:Geological Survey of India has identified gold deposits in over 100 places
across the country, most of them being in the southern state of Karnataka.
India plays a dominant role in processing and consumption of gold and diamonds.
But mining of gold and diamond in India is amongst the lowest in the world. Gold is
purchased from countries like Switzerland, South Africa, Australia, UAE, etc
The Indian government has asked GSI to explore additional reserves of gold and
diamonds in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Rajasthan,
Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
The government is also formulating a new mining policy to boost exploration of
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gold and diamond deposits.The new mining policy is expected to open up the
mining sector for foreign investment
Q Source:Chapter 3: page 29: 8th NCERT Resource & Development
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Explanation & Learning: The India Epidemic Intelligence Service (EIS) Program
was inaugurated in New Delhi in 2012, highlighting the collaboration between the
Government of India Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the U.S. Centers
for Disease Control and Prevention.
India EIS is a joint venture between India and USA, aimed at preparing public
health professionals for leadership positions at district, state and national levels.
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Source:www.ncdc.gov.in/writereaddata/linkimages/EIS_Advt_Revised2015805785
6386.pdf
http://archive.indianexpress.com/news/in-the-works-an-epidemic-intelligence-servic
e/1144850/http://newdelhi.usembassy.gov/pr091114.html
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4 Kayakalp' from the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) relates to
A. Health sector awards
B. Public Hospital modernization guidelines
C. Revamping rural Primary Health centres (PHCs)
D. None of the above
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
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Under this initiative, public healthcare facilities shall be appraised and such public
healthcare facilities that show exemplary performance meeting standards of
protocols of cleanliness, hygiene and infection control will receive awards and
commendation. Under this initiative, the number of awards are as under:
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Best two District Hospitals in each state (Best District hospital in small
states)
Best two Community Health Centres/Sub District Hospitals (CHC/ SDH)
(limited to one in smaller states).
One Primary Health Centre (PHC) in every district
Q Source:http://nrhm.gov.in/images/pdf/in-focus/Kayakalp_Guidelines.pdf
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A. 1, 3 and 5 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
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If patches of green are seen amidst huge bodies of water, that signals presence of
phytoplankton (primary productivity of Ocean). So, statement 3 is also correct.
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Learning:The article given below from ISRO explains the other applications very
well. The image below is a partial summary from the website.
Q Source:This is also from where UPSC made its Prelims 2015 question on earth
observation satellites http://www.isro.gov.in/applications/earth-observation
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Explanation & Learning:In 1981, Chilika Lake was designated the first Indian
wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention due to its rich
biodiversity as shown by the facts that:
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Explanation:For rice, high rainfall, temperature and clayey soil is required which
can hold water. So, option (a) is incorrect.
For Cotton, light rainfall is needed. For Jute high rainfall and temperature is needed.
So, options (c) and (d) are incorrect.
Learning:Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season
and bright sunshine at the time of harvest. It thrives best in well drained loamy soil.
Wheat is grown extensively in USA, Canada, Argentina, Russia, Ukraine, Australia
and India. In India it is grown in winter.
Maize requires moderate temperature, rainfall and lots of sunshine. It needs well-
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drained fertile soils. Maize is grown in North America, Brazil, China, Russia,
Canada, India, and Mexico.
Q Source:Chapter 4: page 45: 8th NCERT Resource & Development
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Explanation & Learning:Sounding rockets are one or two stage solid propellant
rockets used for probing the upper atmospheric regions and for space research
They also serve as easily affordable platforms to test or prove prototypes of new
components or subsystems intended for use in launch vehicles and satellites.
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The launch of the first sounding rocket from Thumba near Thiruvananthapuram, in
1963, marked the beginning of the Indian Space Programme. Sounding rockets
made it possible to probe the atmosphere in situ using rocket-borne instrumentation.
Q Source: http://www.isro.gov.in/launchers/sounding-rockets
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-others/abdul-kalam-missile-man-to-presi
dent-he-drove-people-to-think/ (5th Para)
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Q Source:http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=126370
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10 If we draw the population pyramid of a country, which of the following information can
NOT be obtained from it?
A. Dependency ratio
B. Whether the population is growing, stable or decreasing
C. Gender distribution within population
D. Total population size
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
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Population pyramid explicitly provides the percentages of males and females in all
age groups. Thus, (c) is also correct.
Option (d) is incorrect, as we cannot infer size of population. We can only find out
its characteristics.
Learning:Population pyramid is a graphical illustration that shows the distribution
of various age groups in a population (typically that of a country or region of the
world), which forms the shape of a pyramid when the population is growing. It is
also used in ecology to determine the overall age distribution of a population; an
indication of the reproductive capabilities and likelihood of the continuation of a
species.
Q Source:Chapter 6: page 72: 8th NCERT Resource & Development
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Industrial regions emerge when a number of industries locate close to each other and
share the benefits of their closeness. Major industrial regions of the world are
eastern North America, western and central Europe, Eastern Europe and eastern
Asia. Major industrial regions tend to be located in the temperate areas, near sea
ports and especially near coal fields.
Q Source:Chapter 5: page 53: 8th NCERT Resource & Development
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Indigo planting was emphasized because of a high demand of the Blue Dye in
Europe.
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The peasants were compelled to plant Indigo rather than the food Crops.
The peasants were provided loans called 'dadon'for indigo planting which was
at a very high interest rate.
Indigo farmers received very low returns for their crops.
The land under Indigo degraded the land for cultivation of any further crop.
The contract conditions under which Indigo planters kept the cultivators were
harsh.
The loan made the people indebted and resulted in a rebellion.
Q Source:Chapter 3: Page 32-36: Our pasts-III (Part I)
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Q Source:Improvisation:
http://www.mohfw.nic.in/index1.php?lang=1&level=1&sublinkid=2525&lid=1809
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14 Consider the following statements about Information Technology (IT) policy in India.
1. The latest National IT policy was launched in 2008.
2. The first state government to announce an IT Policy was Karnataka in 1992.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation:The latest national IT policy was launched in 2012. So, statement 1 is
incorrect.
One of the reasons why Bengaluru today is an IT hub is that Karnataka government
was the first to announce an IT policy in 1992. So, statement 2 is correct.
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16 The ecosystem of Chilka lake has undergone major changes and is under threat due to
1. Offloading of high amounts of industrial effluents
2. Decrease in salinity and fishery resources
3. Shifting of the mouth of lake connecting to the sea
4. Siltation due to littoral drift and sediments from the inland river systems
5. Proliferation of fresh water invasive species
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 4 and 5 only
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User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation:Chilka lake has been under Montreux record since 1993 and is an
important Ramsar site. Offloading high amounts of industrial effluents cannot be
permitted in the lake. So, statement 1 has to be incorrect.
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Learning:Over the years, the ecosystem of the lake encountered several problems
and threats such as:
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Siltation due to littoral drift and sediments from the inland river systems
Shrinkage of water surface area
Choking of the inlet channel as well as shifting of the mouth connecting to
the sea
Decrease in salinity and fishery resources
Proliferation of fresh water invasive species and
An overall loss of biodiversity with decline in productivity adversely
affecting the livelihood of the community that depended on it
Fights between fishermen and non-fishermen communities about fishing
rights in the lake and consequent court cases
The rapid expansion of commercial aquaculture of prawn has contributed
significantly to the decline of the lakes fisheries and bird population
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Between December 1946 and November 1949, the Constituent Assembly drafted a
constitution for independent India.
Q Source:Chapter 1: page 5: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
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Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 8: page 101: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
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19 As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, which of these are the legal rights of tribals?
1. Conservation of forests and bio-diversity
2. Granting leases to non-tribals for accessing core forests
3. Repeal environmentally sensitive projects by local bodies
4. Right to historical homestead, cultivable and grazing land
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:India's forests are governed by two main laws, the Indian
Forest Act, 1927 and the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The former empowers
the government to declare any area to be a reserved forest, protected forest or village
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forest. The latter allows any area to be constituted as a "protected area", namely a
national park, wildlife sanctuary, tiger reserve or community conservation area.
Since times immemorial, the tribal communities of India have had an integral and
close knit relationship with the forests and have been dependent on the forests for
livelihoods and existence.
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Under these laws, the rights of people living in or depending on the area to be
declared as a forest or protected area are to be "settled" by a "forest settlement
officer.
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However, rights were rarely recognized by the authorities and in the absence of real
ownership of the land, the already marginalized local dwellers suffered. To address
this, FRA 2006 was enacted.
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Title rights - i.e. ownership - to land that is being farmed by tribals or forest
dwellers, subject to a maximum of 4 hectares; ownership is only for land that
is actually being cultivated by the concerned family as on that date, meaning
that no new lands are granted
Use rights - to minor forest produce (also including ownership), to grazing
areas, to pastoralist routes, etc.
Relief and development rights - to rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction
or forced displacement; and to basic amenities, subject to restrictions for
forest protection
Forest management rights - to protect forests and wildlife
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20 Consider a case where a nation 'X' has no natural resources. It pays shipping charges for
each tonne of natural resources imported from abroad to manufacture steel. If shipping
charges per tonne are equal for all natural resources, nation 'X' will pay highest shipping
charges for?
A. Coal
B. Iron ore
C. Limestone
D. Potash
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
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Learning:Steelmaking is the process for producing steel from iron ore and scrap. In
steelmaking, impurities such as nitrogen, silicon, phosphorus, sulfur and excess
carbon are removed from the raw iron, and alloying elements such as manganese,
nickel, chromium and vanadium are added to produce different grades of steel.
Limiting dissolved gases such as nitrogen and oxygen, and entrained impurities
(termed "inclusions") in the steel is also important to ensure the quality of the
products cast from the liquid steel.
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Explanation:This data is from Census 2001. Census 2011 data is not fully
populated yet. The trends will remain the same. You need not remember the exact
figures.
http://censusindia.gov.in/Census_And_You/migrations.aspx
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 6: 8th NCERT Resource & Development
22 In the event of a spill, Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is safer than Diesel and Petrol
because
1. CNG is less likely to ignite on hot surfaces
2. CNG has a lower calorific value than diesel and petrol
3. CNG is lighter than air and disperses quickly when released
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Explanation:CNG is less likely to ignite on hot surfaces, since it has a high autoignition temperature (540 C), and a narrow range (515 percent) of flammability.
So, option (a) is correct.
CNG has a higher calorific value than diesel and petrol. Thus, option (b) is wrong.
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CNG mixes well with air and disperses quickly clearing the area of fire. So, option
(c) is correct.
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The cost and placement of fuel storage tanks is the major barrier to wider/quicker
adoption of CNG as a fuel. It is also why municipal government, public
transportation vehicles were the most visible early adopters of it, as they can more
quickly amortize the money invested in the new (and usually cheaper) fuel.
CNG does not contain any lead, thereby eliminating fouling of spark plug.
Q Source:Improvisation: Page 32: Chapter 3: 8th NCERT Resource &
Development
23 Which of the following were the causes behind the launch of 'Non-cooperation
movement'?
1. Punjab wrongs'of 1919
2. Khilafat wrong
3. Resentment with Rowlatt Act
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Explanation & Learning:In 1919 Gandhiji gave a call for a satyagraha against the
Rowlatt Act that the British had just passed. The Act curbed fundamental rights such
as the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers.
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Lok Sabha (House of the People), with a total membership of 545, is presided over
by the Speaker.
Q Source:Chapter 3: page 34: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
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Explanation & Learning:In 1814 Rammohun came and settled in Calcutta and in
1815 founded the Atmiya Sabha - an association for the dissemination of the
religious truth and the promotion of free discussions of theological subjects. Here
recital and expounding of Hindu scriptures were done. So, option (b) is correct.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Ranade are associated with Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
Swami Vivekanada was associated with Ramakrishna Mission.
Q Source:Improvisation: CAPF 2015: Set A Q15 on Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
26 Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to
flow down the slope'is also known as
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A. Contour barriers
B. Mulching
C. Contour ploughing
D. Terrace farming
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
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Explanation:Contour barriers are stones, grass, soil which are used to build barriers
along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water. So,
option (a) is incorrect.
Mulching is when the bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic
matter like straw. It helps to retain soil moisture. So, option (b) is also incorrect.
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Terrace farming is done on the steep slopes so that flat surfaces are available to
grow crops. They can reduce surface run-off and soil erosion. So, option (d) is also
incorrect.
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27 Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
A. Based on its provisions, tribals can demand re-possession of alienated lands.
B. Communities committing atrocities against tribals can be evicted from tribal
areas.
C. It does not extend to the State of Jammu & Kashmir.
D. It provides for Special Courts for the trial of atrocities against SCs/STs.
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
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The Act does not apply to J&K. So, option (c) is correct.
At another level, the Act recognizes that crimes against Dalit and tribal women are
of a specific kind and provides for special courts. So, option (d) is correct.
Learning:Adivasi activists refer to the 1989 Act to defend their right to occupy land
that was traditionally theirs. this Act merely confirms what has already been
promised to tribal people in the Constitution
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28 The drug diclofenac was blamed for the widespread death of Indian vultures. Consider
the following about it.
1. It is now banned in India for veterinary purposes.
2. It was administered to vultures as painkillers.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
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Explanation:The Centre banned it in 2006. Nepal and Pakistan also banned the
drug in 2006. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Diclofenac was administered to livestock as painkillers/anti-inflammatory drugs etc,
not to vultures. When vulture fed on the carcasses of dead livestock, diclofenac
entered their bodies and killed them. So, statement 2 is wrong.
Learning:A replacement drug has been developed for diclofenac and proposed after
tests on vultures in captivity: meloxicam. Meloxicam affects cattle the same way as
diclofenac, but is harmless for vultures
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 2: page 18: 8th NCERT Resource &
Development
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Learning:It is native to the Himalayas and Uttarakhand, India, northern Burma and
southwest China. In the Himalayas, it is found at an altitude of around 4500 m. The
flowers are hermaphrodite (have both male and female organs) and are pollinated by
insects.
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The flowers can be seen till mid-October, after which the plant perishes, becoming
visible again in April. Local names of this flower are Brahma Kamal, Kon and
Kapfu.
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It is long held belief that anybody who sees this rare flower blooming will have all
his or her wishes fulfilled. It is not easy to watch it bloom because it blooms in the
late evening and stays only for a couple of hours.
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 2: page 18: 8th NCERT Resource &
Development
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C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
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Statement 3 is wrong as it did not advocate such radical reforms. Its main aim was to
mediate between the government and people.
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Learning:It was a sociopolitical organisation in British India which started with the
aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India. It
started as an elected body of 95 members elected by 6000 persons in 1870.
The organisation was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with
its first session from Maharashtra itself.
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The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha provided many of the prominent leaders of national
stature to the Indian freedom struggle including Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It was formed
in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade, et
al.
Q Source:Chapter 5: Page 142: Our pasts-III (Part II)
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Explanation & Learning:According to the terms of this alliance, Indian rulers were
not allowed to have their independent armed forces. They were to be protected by
the Company, but had to pay for the 'subsidiary forces'that the Company was
supposed to maintain for the purpose of this protection. If the Indian rulers failed to
make the payment, then part of their territory was taken away as penalty.
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33 The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDTM) is
under
A. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
B. Department of Science and Technology
C. Department of Commerce
D. Department of Scientific and Industrial research
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
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Kenya, India, China, Sri Lanka produce the best quality tea in the world.
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35 Federalism is a key feature of the Indian constitution. Which of the following statements
concerning this is INCORRECT?
A. Both Central and state governments have been established by the
constitution.
B. Both governments derive their power from the constitution.
C. Since the State governments are autonomous political units, the Central
government cannot enforce any order on them.
D. Indian citizens are governed by laws and rules made by both Central and state
governments at the same time.
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:Constitutional existence of several tiers of government is
the first pre-requisite of a federal polity. So, option (a) is correct.
Under federalism, the states are not merely agents of the federal government but
draw their authority from the Constitution as well. So, option (b) is also correct.
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The Constitution contains lists that detail the issues that each tier of government can
make laws on. All persons in India are governed by laws and policies made by each
of these levels of government. So, option (d) is also correct.
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While each state in India enjoys autonomy in exercising powers on certain issues,
subjects of national concern require that all of these states follow the
laws/rules/directions/orders of the central government. This maintains unity and
integrity of the administration and the nation as a whole. So, option (c) is incorrect.
Q Source:Chapter 1: page 12: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
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Explanation & Learning:Options (a), (b), (c) should be clear, since without
universal participation and accountability, there cannot be any Parliamentary
government.
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Satnami principles state that 'there is only one God', which is described as formless
and infinite. Ghasi Das was of the view that the measures to eradicate social
injustice and disparity would stay insufficient and unfinished without the proper
transformation of the individuals.
Q Source:Chapter 3: Page 116: Our pasts-III (Part II)
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Explanation:Eastern River Cooter is not even found in India. So, option (a) is
incorrect.
Long-comb saw fish is endangered in India. But, the recent ban was not imposed
due to it. So, option (b) is also incorrect.
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The hawksbill sea turtle is a critically endangered sea turtle. So, it cannot be the
answer. Option (c) is also wrong.
Learning:
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Odisha Government has imposed seven-month ban till May, 2016 on fishing
along the Puri coast in order to protect the endangered Olive Ridley sea
turtles.
Every year endangered Olive Ridley turtles arrive during winters for mass
nesting in Rushikulya river mouth and Gahirmatha marine sanctuary along
Odisha coast.
The coast is considered as the only place apart from Costa Rica to witness
mass nesting by Olive Ridleys. Every year, between 5 lakh to 10 lakh turtles
come to the state for mass nesting.
Coastal fishing by the farmers would have affected their population.
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Source:http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/odisha-bans-fishing-toprotect-olive-ridley-turtles/article7830583.ece
39 Consider the following matches of situations and the fundamental rights that they
violate.
1. A 9 year old girl child is working in a firecracker factory - Right to equality
2. If a politician in one state decides to not allow labourers from other states to work in
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Refer to the blue box in the Q source to understand all these fundamental rights.
You will be facing more questions from them in the upcoming tests.
Q Source:Chapter 1: page 14: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
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producers. China also leads in production of lead, antimony and tungsten. So, option
(c) is correct.
Brazil and Bolivia are among the world's largest producers of tin, but not of others.
So, option (b) is wrong.
While these minerals are found in Eastern Europe, it is not a leading producer of the
above.
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Apart from Gold, diamond and platinum, other minerals found in Africa are copper,
iron ore, chromium, uranium, cobalt and bauxite. Oil is found in Nigeria, Libya and
Angola.
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The most important centres of jamdani weaving were Dacca in Bengal and Lucknow
in the United Provinces.
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B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 only
D. None
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
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45 The Sakharov Prize is an annual award given by the European Parliament for
A. Innovation and initiatives in fighting poverty
B. Defence of human rights and freedom of thought
C. Initiatives and negotiations in global disarmament
D. Promotion of Peace in war-torn areas
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning:The award was established in 1988 and named after
Soviet scientist (physicist) and dissident Andrei Sakharov.
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The first prize was jointly awarded to South African Nelson Mandela and Russian
human rights campaigner Anatoly Marchenko.
It is awarded annually on or around December 10, the day on which the United
Nations General Assembly (UNGA) ratified the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights in 1948, also celebrated as Human Rights Day.
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Source:http://www.theguardian.com/world/2015/oct/29/raif-badawi-sakharov-huma
n-rights-prize-saudi-blogger
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46 Which of the following factors could NOT have contributed to the Battle of Plassey?
A. Opposition of the local people to the activities of the East India Company.
B. British practice of building settlements and large forts in Bengal.
C. Refusal of Bengal Nawabs to grant the British concession and tributes in
trade.
D. Political interference of the British in Bengal.
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation:The Battle of Plassey was essentially due the conflicts between the
Bengal Nawab and the East India Company. There is no evidence to show that
locals were opposed the East India company and it triggered the war. So, option (a)
is incorrect.
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Option (b) was opposed by the Bengal Nawabs several times and the Nawabs had
even invaded British fortifications in Bengal.
Option (c) led the British to install a puppet Nawab in a coup. It failed, and an
infuriated Sirajuddaullah marched to the company's Calcutta fort. Thus, option (d)
was also a cause behind the war.
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IA
47 Article 39A of the Constitution places a duty upon the State to provide a lawyer to any
citizen who is
1. Unable to engage a lawyer due to economic conditions
2. Illiterate
3. Unable to engage a lawyer due to disability
4. Harmed by the actions of the 'State'
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation:As far as statement 4 is concerned, a court may order the government
to pay the litigation expenditure to the affected. The state does not has a duty to
provide a lawyer to them as such. So, statement 4 is wrong.
IN
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IA
TS
The Supreme Court of India has laid down specific requirements and procedures
that the police and other agencies have to follow for the arrest, detention and
interrogation of any person. These are known as the D.K. Basu Guidelines and some
of these include:
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The police officials who carry out the arrest or interrogation should wear
clear, accurate and visible identification and name tags with their
designations;
A memo of arrest should be prepared at the time of arrest and should include
the time and date of arrest. It should also be attested by at least one witness
who could include a family member of the person arrested. The arrest memo
should be counter-signed by the person arrested.
The person arrested, detained or being interrogated has a right to inform a
relative, friend or wellwisher.
When a friend or relative lives outside the district, the time, place of arrest
and venue of custody must be notified by police within 8 to 12 hours after
arrest.
IN
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C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
IA
TS
Moreover, the fine particles (fine particulate matter) in diesel exhaust (e.g., soot,
sometimes visible as opaque dark-colored smoke) has traditionally been of greater
concern, as it presents different health concerns and is rarely produced in significant
quantities by spark-ignition engines.
Other compounds that are released from the Diesel exhaust are: Mercury
compounds, sulphur compounds, cyanide compounds, antimony, selenium, cobalt,
dioxin etc.
SI
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Q Source:http://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/who-can-touch-diesel--51662
IN
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Badagas are found in Nilgiri, TN. So, option (c) is also wrong.
IA
TS
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 7: page 86: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
IN
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caste identities.
In his view every person had the ability to reach the highest level of spiritual
salvation and deep knowledge within themselves through their own experience. His
poetry brings out the powerful idea of the equality of all human beings and their
labour. He writes about valuing the work of the ordinary potter, the weaver and the
woman carrying the water pot - labour that in his poetry becomes the basis of
understanding the entire universe.
IA
His direct, courageous challenge inspired many and even today Kabir's poetry is
sung and appreciated by Dalits, marginalised groups and those critical of social
hierarchies in U.P., Rajasthan, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh, Bengal, Bihar and Gujarat.
TS
Q Source: Chapter 8: page 98: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
SI
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IN
Learning: Generally, metallic minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rock
formations that form large plateaus. Iron-ore in north Sweden, copper and nickel
deposits in Ontario, Canada, iron, nickel, chromites and platinum in South Africa
are examples of minerals found in igneous and metamorphic rocks.
Sedimentary rock formations of plains and young fold mountains contain nonmetallic minerals like limestone. Limestone deposits of Caucasus region of France,
manganese deposits of Georgia and Ukraine and phosphate beds of Algeria are some
examples. Mineral fuels such as coal and petroleum are also found in the
sedimentary strata.
Q Source: Chapter 3: page 26: 8th NCERT Resource & Development
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TEST - 2
IA
53 Which of the following is NOT correct as per the Indian practice of Secularism?
A. State maintains a principled distance from religion.
B. State does not interfere in any religious activity.
C. All religious communities can co-exist peacefully without negative
discrimination.
D. Individual has freedom to interpret religious teachings differently and choose
her/his religion.
User Answer : A
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
TS
Explanation & Learning: The Indian Constitution allows individuals the freedom
to live by their religious beliefs and practices as they interpret these. Secularism
refers to this separation of religion from the State. So option (a) is correct.
But, the separation is not strict. State does interfere in religious activity on grounds
of public interest, morality, justice etc. For e.g. the Indian government has a
nominee on several religious shrine management boards. So, option (b) is incorrect.
Freedom of individuals to exit from their religion, embrace another religion or have
the freedom to interpret religious teachings differently must also be protected. This
lies at the core of Indian secularism. So, option (d) is correct.
SI
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Examples of intercropping strategies are planting a deep-rooted crop with a shallowrooted crop, or planting a tall crop with a shorter crop that requires partial shade
IA
TS
Protection of crops can also be achieved by: Lodging-prone plants, those that are
prone to tip over in wind or heavy rain, may be given structural support by their
companion crop. Delicate or light-sensitive plants may be given shade or protection,
or otherwise wasted space can be utilized. An example is the tropical multi-tier
system where coconut occupies the upper tier, banana the middle tier, and pineapple,
ginger, or leguminous fodder, medicinal or aromatic plants occupy the lowest tier.
Therefore, all statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
IN
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TEST - 2
IA
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TS
IN
Explanation & Learning: There are no approved vaccines for the dengue virus.
Prevention thus depends on control of and protection from the bites of the mosquito
that transmits it. So, statement 2 is wrong.
Mission Indradhanush vaccinates in selected districts for Japanese Encephalitis. So,
statement 5 is correct.
Rotavirus is the most common cause of severe diarrhoea among infants and young
children. An indigenous Rotavac has been developed in India to counter Diarrhoea.
So, statement 3 is also correct.
Yellow fever and Cholera come under 25 vaccine-preventable disease list of WHO.
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TEST - 2
So, statements 1 and 4 are correct. MoHFW has also recently issued advisory
against Yellow fever: hence, the question and such options.
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 9: page 111 (Polio drop box): 8th NCERT Social
and Political Life
TS
IA
SI
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In 2015 (July), scientists reported that upon the first touchdown of the Philae lander
on a comet's surface, measurements by the COSAC and Ptolemy instruments
revealed sixteen organic compounds, four of which were seen for the first time on a
comet, which included methyl isocyanate.
IN
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 10: page 124: 8th NCERT Social and Political
Life
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TEST - 2
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation: BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not ultrasonic. Ultrasonic
refers to sound waves with frequencies higher than the upper audible limit of human
hearing. Supersonic means faster than the speed of sound. So, statement 1 is wrong.
It can be launched from ships, land as well as submarines. So, statement 2 is correct.
IA
Its range is only nearly 300 Km. So, it is not designed to engage inter-continental
targets.
Learning:
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TS
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/brahmos-testfired-from-new-warship/articl
e7830168.ece
IN
59 Who have a fundamental right to set up their own educational institutions in order to
preserve and develop their own culture?
A. Linguistic minorities
B. Religious minorities
C. All minorities as defined by the Central and State governments
D. Only tribals belonging to the fifth and sixth schedule areas
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: The expression minority under Article 29-30 (Cultural
and Education rights) covers all minorities, linguistic and religious.
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The constitution does not define the word minority. It is left for the Central and state
governments to decide this. For e.g. recently Jain community was recognized as a
minority.
They will have rights to set up their own educational institutions, where they can
regulate any admission of outside communities.
IA
Tribals also fall under minority. But, the option (c) is more wide and appropriate
than option (d).
Q Source: Chapter 1: page 14: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
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60 Which of the following does NOT correctly differentiate between the terms 'State' and
'Government'?
A. Government can change with elections, State does not.
B. State is one part of the government.
C. Government represents the body of persons who implements the will of the
state.
D. None of the above correctly differentiates between state and government.
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: When we use the word State, it is different from the term
'government'.
A 'Government' is responsible for administering and enforcing laws. The
government can change with elections. For e.g. NDA/UPA government.
IN
The State on the other hand refers to a political institution that represents a
sovereign people who occupy a definite territory. We can, thus, speak of the Indian
State, the Nepali State etc.
The Indian State has a democratic form of government. The government (or the
executive) is one part of the State. The State refers to more than just the government
and cannot be used interchangeably with it.
Q Source: Chapter 1: page 13: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
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TEST - 2
annual commemoration of
A. Deendayal Upadhyaya
B. Syama Prasad Mookerjee
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
D. Sardar Vallbhbhai Patel
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
IA
TS
He is also remembered as the Patron Saint of India's civil servants for establishing
modern All-India services.
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Q Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/unity-is-our-biggest-strength
-peace-is-first-condition-for-development-pm-modi/
IN
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TEST - 2
He had said that the experience gave him more insight into the culture and diversity
than any book on the subject.
TS
IA
The "Ek Bharat, Shresth Bharat" scheme draws inspiration from the life of
India's freedom fighter Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. The prime minister recalled
Sardar Patel's initiatives as mayor of Ahmedabad during the 1920s, including
a campaign for cleanliness and a proposal for 50 percent reservation for
women.
The 'Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat' initiative will be launched soon under
which every state will choose another state each year and then promote its
language and culture.
The government has formed a committee to work out the modalities of the
scheme in consultation with the states.
According to the scheme, two states will undertake a unique partnership for
one year which would be marked by cultural and student exchanges.
Students of a particular state would travel to another state to learn each
other's culture.
Q Source:
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/PM-Modi-announces-Ek-Bharat-Shresth-B
harat-initiative/articleshow/49606369.cms
IN
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TS
IA
Q Source:
http://www.financialexpress.com/article/companies/brics-nations-sign-moscow-decl
aration-for-supporting-multilateral-science-projects/159087/
IN
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64 Which of the following are NOT represented on the Central Board of RBI?
A. Governor of RBI
B. Union Finance Ministry representatives
C. Directors nominated by Central government
D. Chairmen of Board of Governors of major Public Sector Banks (PSBs)
User Answer : D
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: Recently the government nominated Economic Affairs
Secretary Shaktikanta Das to the Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI).
RBI's affairs are governed by the Central Board of Directors (CBD) which also
responsible for its general superintendence and direction. Composition:
There are 21-members in CBD of RBI.
It comprises of Governor, 4 Deputy Governors, 2 Finance Ministry
representatives.
10 Directors are nominated by Union Government in order to represent
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TEST - 2
Q Source:
http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ians/economic-affairs-secretary-no
minated-to-rbi-central-board-115103001509_1.html
TS
IA
SI
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Explanation: Flying squirrel and Chiru (Tibetan antelope) are not any state animals.
So, options (a) and (b) can't be the answer.
Swamp deer is the state animal of UP and MP. Moreover, it could not be found in
Himalays, as common sense tells us. So, option (c) can't also be the answer.
IN
Learning: The blackbuck is native to the Indian subcontinent and has been listed as
Near Threatened on the IUCN Red List since 2003, as its range has decreased
sharply during the 20th century. The blackbuck is the only living species of the
genus Antilope.
In the 19th century, blackbucks ranged in open plains from the base of the
Himalayas to the area of Cape Comorin, and from the Punjab to Lower Assam. They
were abundant in the North-Western Provinces, Rajputana, parts of the Deccan, and
on the plains near the coast of Orissa and Lower Bengal. Herds occasionally
comprised several thousand animals of both sexes and all ages.
Today, the blackbuck population is confined to areas in Maharashtra, Odisha,
Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka,
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TEST - 2
TS
IA
Explanation & Learning: It has been launched in line with Union Government
flagship Digital India initiative.
IN
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Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=130000
67 Two or more ecosystems may be found in which of the following protected areas?
1. National parks
2. Biosphere reserves
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
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D. None
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: National Park is a natural area designated to protect the
ecological integrity of one or more ecosystems for present and future generations.
IA
Biosphere reserves are series of protected areas linked through a global network,
intended to demonstrate the relationship between conservation and development.
Both span huge areas, and cover more than one ecosystem. So, both statements 1
and 2 are correct.
TS
IN
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In a non-cognizable offence, the Police cannot arrest a person without orders of the
court, i.e. without a Court warrant and can investigate into the case only on the
express directions of the court to that effect.
IA
In a cognizable offense the police can take cognizance of the offense on its own i.e.
it need not wait for the court orders as the law envisages that in such offences
permission of the court to the police to investigate the crime is implicit. Such cases
are mainly, murder, attempt to murder, rape and in heinous offences.
TS
Q Source: Chapter 6: page 72: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
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69 Which of the following can be the possible reason(s) behind catchment of the Ganga
becoming gradually arid?
1. Many natural springs which directly contribute to the Ganga river system are drying.
2. Exotic oak trees planted in the region soak up large amounts of groundwater
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
IN
Explanation: 37 per cent of natural springs, which directly contribute to the Ganga
river system, are drying. Perennial streams have now become rain-fed streams,
while rain-fed streams have dried up in several places. Rate of drying is about 6-7
kilometres per year. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Oak trees are native of the Himalayan region, not exotic. Exotic means
introduced from outside. Though they soak nearly 60% of groundwater, they have
always been there in the Ganges catchment area. So, statement 2 cannot be a
possible reason.
Learning: The article explains very well the entire geological processes associated
with the Ganges catchment. This is also the Question source.
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TEST - 2
Q Source:
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/interviews/-37-of-natural-springs-which-directly-con
tribute-to-the-ganga-are-drying--51513
IA
TS
Explanation & Learning: He was the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort
William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal, and thereby the first
de facto Governor-General of India from 1773 to 1785.
IN
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Hastings shared Clive's view that the three major British Presidencies
(settlements), Madras, Bombay and Calcutta, should all be brought under a
single rule rather than being governed separately as they currently were
While Governor, Hastings launched a major crackdown on bandits operating
in Bengal which was largely successful.
In 1781, Hastings founded Madrasa 'Aliya; in 2007, it was transformed into
Aliah University by the Government of India, at Calcutta. In 1784, Hastings
supported the foundation of the Bengal Asiatic Society, now the Asiatic
Society of Bengal, by the oriental scholar Sir William Jones; it became a
storehouse for information and data on the subcontinent and has existed in
various institutional guises up to the present day.
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TEST - 2
The Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India 1978 case caused a huge uproar over the
definition of freedom of speech.The court ruled that the procedure must be fair and
the law must not violate other fundamental rights. So, option (b) is wrong.
IA
In Indira Sawhney Vs Union of India 1992, the Supreme Court upheld the
implementation of recommendations made by the Mandal Commission. It also
defined the "creamy layer" criteria and reiterated that the quota could not exceed 50
per cent. So, option (d) is also wrong.
TS
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Q Source: Chapter 5: page 62: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
IN
72 After the Battle of Buxar (1764), the East India Company appointed Residents in Indian
states. They were
A. Representative natives of the Princely states who were also a part of the
British Legislative council
B. Heads of Contingent army units placed under Subsidiary alliance in the
states.
C. Political and commercial agents of the company in the states.
D. Ex-Governors of British Presidencies who controlled the states
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: They were political or commercial agents and their job
was to serve and further the interests of the Company. Through the Residents, the
Company officials began interfering in the internal affairs of Indian states. They
tried to decide who was to be the successor to the throne, and who was to be
appointed in administrative posts. Sometimes the Company forced the states into a
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TEST - 2
"subsidiary alliance".
Q Source: Chapter 2: Page 15: Our pasts-III (Part I)
IA
TS
Option (c) is essentially a concept that goes against net neutrality. Zero rating is a
different concept (as explained below). So, option (c) is also wrong.
SI
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Learning: Zero Rating is a practice by which Internet operators offer free data for
specific applications. Advocates of Zero Rating services have argued that this
enables those offline to try online services, thereby bridging the digital divide.
During his recent visit to India, Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg said that
Facebook's Free Basics and Zero Rating do not violate Net neutrality, instead they
are aimed at enhancing access to the Internet in the developing world, including
India.
IN
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TEST - 2
IA
TS
Explanation & Learning: Policy of paramountcy was designed to make all Indian
states accept the suzerainty of the British. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Company claimed that its authority was paramount or supreme; hence its power
was greater than that of Indian states. In order to protect its interests it was justified
in annexing or threatening to annex any Indian kingdom.
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The Carnatic wars were fought to decide the rivalry between the English and the
French and were directly connected with their rivalry in Europe. So, statement 2 is
correct.
The War of the Austrian Succession broke out in Europe in 1740. In this war Britain
and France joined opposite camps. As a result the English and the French
Companies also became engulfed in the war. Thus the First Carnatic War was
started.
IN
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TEST - 2
Explanation & Learning: Holt Mackenzie felt that the village was an important
social institution in north Indian society and needed to be preserved. Under his
directions, collectors went from village to village, inspecting the land, measuring the
fields, and recording the customs and rights of different groups.
The estimated revenue of each plot within a village was added up to calculate the
revenue that each village (mahal) had to pay.
IA
This demand was to be revised periodically, not permanently fixed. The charge of
collecting the revenue and paying it to the Company was given to the village
headman, rather than the zamindar. This system came to be known as the mahalwari
settlement.
TS
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IN
Explanation: Automobile and textile industries are well established one. So, they
cannot be sunrise industries. Statements 1 and 2 are thus the answer.
Learning: 'Sunrise industries' is a colloquial term for a sector or business that is in
its infancy, but is growing at a rapid pace. A sunrise industry is typically
characterized by high growth rates, numerous start-ups and an abundance of venture
capital funding.
A sunrise industry is often characterized by a high degree of innovation, and its
rapid emergence may threaten to push into obsolescence a competing industry sector
that is already in decline. Examples of sunrise industries include alternative energy
in the period from 2003 to 2007, and social media and cloud computing in 2011 and
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TEST - 2
2012.
Over a period of years or decades, as an industry grows and matures, it may pass
from the sunrise phase to maturity and, finally, the sunset stage. The compact-disc
industry is a typical example of such a transition. It was a sunrise industry in the
1990s as compact discs replaced vinyl records and cassette tapes, but the rapid
adoption of digital media in the 21st century could mean that the compact-disc
industry's days are numbered.
IA
TS
SI
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Option (b) refers to the 'awl or ari' used in folk embroidery in ancient India. Thus,
wrong.
Learning: Patan is a situated 127 Km North of Ahmedabad in the Indian State of
Gujarat. Inheriting a rich cultural heritage, Patan became famous due to its Patolas
(double ikat) or normally a sacred silk cloth which took to different forms over time.
IN
Another feature that distinguishes hand dyed Patolas from other textiles is that the
silk fabric will wear out or tear but will not fade in its colour or design.
Since its creation and advent more than 700 years back, Patan Patolas today take
form in the shape of handmade saris draped by women and also hand woven in to
stole, scarf, or a handkerchief.
Before World War II, Indonesia was major buyer of patolas. Historically, the art of
Double Ikat patola weaving dates back to centuries.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Page 80: Our pasts-III (Part II)
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IA
78 The 'Small Grants Program (SGP)' established in 1992, the year of Earth Summit,
provides grants to
A. Environmental Research organizations
B. Sovereign Governments
C. Local community and NGOs
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
TS
IN
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79 Which of the following does NOT coincide with Mahatma Gandhi's view of education?
A. Education must begin with literacy.
B. Basic education in which vocational training or work experience is of utmost
importance.
C. Education should be scientifically and rationally oriented.
D. Western education system is not a comprehensive system of education.
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: For Gandhiji, literacy was neither the beginning nor the
end of education. For him, education was of the mind and soul. It ought not be
restricted to knowing how to read and write, and receiving a degree. So, option (a)
will be the answer; and (d) is a correct statement in the context.
He further says, "I would therefore begin the child's education by teaching it a useful
handicraft and enabling it to produce from the moment it begins its training
80 Which of the following is NOT correct about bio-ethanol?
A. It can be made by fermenting some plant by-products.
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IA
TS
Bioethanol has many uses: It is blended with petrol to make a truly sustainable
transport fuel, it's used in cosmetic and other manufacturing processes, and it creates
the clean burning flame even for house uses.
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IN
81 Which of the following are NOT the methods for land conservation?
1. Land reclamation
2. Relying more on irrigation rather than rainfed water
3. Checks on overgrazing
4. Regulated use of chemical fertilizers
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c
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Answer Justification :
Explanation: Land reclamation is the process of creating new land from ocean,
riverbeds, or lake beds. The process of reconverting disturbed land to its former or
other productive uses. So, statement 1 is a method of land conservation.
IA
Relying more on irrigation (rather than rainfed water) can cause siltation, water
logging, and reduced levels of groundwater. So, it is not a method of land
conservation.
Overgrazing can cause land degradation and desertification. So, statement 3 is about
land conservation.
Excessive use of chemical fertilizers can also cause land degradation.
TS
SI
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IN
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Such prints were then hand coloured. This trend continued up to the early part of the
twentieth century and these paintings ended up in museums and private collections.
IA
The charm of the Kalighat paintings lies in the fact that they captured the essence of
daily life and they influence modern artistes like the late Jamini Roy even to this
day.
Q Source: Chapter 4: Page 132: Our pasts-III (Part II)
SI
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TS
IN
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IA
84 Consider the following about the 'Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest
Degradation (REDD)' Program.
1. It is an initiative of the United Nations.
2. It intends to cover both developed and developing countries.
3. REDD+ provides for carbon offset mechanisms.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
User Answer : B
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
TS
REDD+ provides for evaluation of the financial value for the carbon stored in the
trees. This allows polluters to purchase carbon offsets. So, statement 3 is correct.
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Learning: The Programme was launched in 2008 and builds on the convening role
and technical expertise of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United
Nations (FAO), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The UN-REDD Programme
supports nationally-led REDD+ processes and promotes the informed and
meaningful involvement of all stakeholders, including Indigenous Peoples and other
forest-dependent communities, in national and international REDD+
implementation.
IN
REDD+ is currently one of the most crucial and contested topics of the UN
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) negotiations.
Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q99 on Forest Carbon Partnership
facility (which has been formed under REDD+)
85 Which of the following were NOT the recommendations of the Cabinet Mission 1946?
A. Division of India in two nations based on referendum
B. Recognition of Indian Right to cede from the Commonwealth
C. Union Government and its legislature were to have limited powers, with
greater autonomy to states
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TS
It provided that all the members of the Interim cabinet would be Indians and
there would be minimum interference by the Viceroy.
All subjects other than the Union Subjects and all the residuary powers would
be vested in the provinces.
The Princely states would retain all subjects and all residuary powers
The representation of the Provincial legislatures was to be break up into 3
sections. Section A: Madras, UP, Central provinces, Bombay, Bihar & Orissa
Section B: Punjab, Sindh, NWFP, Baluchistan Section C: Assam and Bengal.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Page 157: Our pasts-III (Part II)
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This was also the period when colonial empires were collapsing and many countries
were attaining independence.
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Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, who was also the foreign minister of newly
independent India, developed free India's foreign policy in this context. Nonalignment formed the bedrock of this foreign policy. With Yogoslavia, Ghana,
Egypt and Indonesia, he formed the non-alignment movement.
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Thereafter Ashoka repented of the violence which he had done, and converted to
Buddhism. He expressed his remorse, and his intention to govern the kingdom
according to the principles of his new faith, in a series of rock-cut edicts that he
caused to be inscribed on over 100 monuments throughout his vast kingdom.
Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q79 on ancient Indian monument's
chronology.
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TEST - 2
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The extreme seasonal variations in flow and the presence of rapids and
waterfalls in the Mekong make navigation difficult. Even so, the river is a
major trade route between western China and Southeast Asia.
The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) was established on November 10,
2000 at Vientiane at the First MGC Ministerial Meeting. It comprises six
member countries, namely India, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and
Vietnam. They emphasized four areas of cooperation, which are tourism,
culture, education, and transportation linkage in order to be solid foundation
for future trade and investment cooperation in the region.
Q Source: CSP 2015: Q on Mekong-Ganga Cooperation
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90 Meghalaya's double-decker and single-decker root bridges made from the tree 'Ficus
elastica' are unique in the world and are a sight to behold. The tree 'Ficus elastica' is a
A. Rubber plant that can also be used for indoor ornamental purposes
B. Bamboo plant that has high elasticity and durability
C. Variegated money plant that has high strength and agility
D. Plant with high fiber content with dense root hairs at its surface
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
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Explanation & Learning: The bridges are tangles of massive thick roots, which
have been intermingled to form a bridge that can hold several people at a time.
Khasi people have been trained to grow these bridges across the raised banks of
streams to form a solid bridge, made from roots. The living bridges are made from
the roots of the Ficus elastica tree, which produces a series of secondary roots that
are perched atop huge boulders along the streams or the riverbanks to form bridges.
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The rubber plant (Ficus elastica) is a popular ornamental plant from the Ficus genus.
In it's natural habitat it grows over 30 metres tall, however, the varieties grown
indoors are a much more manageable height. It is native to northeast India, Nepal,
Bhutan, Burma, China, Malaysia, and Indonesia.
Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015: Set B Q94 on Living root bridges
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D. Dwellings
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation: India devotes more than 50% of its area as crop land. Only 4-5% is
for pastures, ad=nd nearly 23% for forests (official forest cover). So, option (b) is
correct.
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So, given the majority of population engaged in agriculture; high food demand etc
more than 50% area is devoted to agricultural practices.
Q Source: Chapter 2: page 10: 8th NCERT Resource & Development
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92 Consider the following about 'Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs)' identified
by 'Birdlife International'.
1. It covers only those areas that are formally (government) protected.
2. All IBAs come under global biodiversity 'hotspots'.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation: 33% of IBAs lack any form of formal protection and a further 45%
are only partially protected. Achieving adequate protection for these sites is among
the most urgent of global conservation priorities. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
BirdLife has documented over 12,000 Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas. These
are not restricted to 'hotspots' only. Statement 2 also is incorrect.
Learning: BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation
organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity,
working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. Together
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the BirdLife Partnership forms the leading authority on the status of birds, their
habitats and the issues and problems affecting bird life.
Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas are:
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Explanation & Learning: A seed village is one wherein trained group of fanners
are involved in production 'of seeds of various crops and cater to the needs of
themselves, fellow fanners of the village and fanners of neighboring villages in
appropriate time and at affordable cost is called "a seed village".
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support to
1. Generate electricity by new sources
2. Conserving energy through energy efficiency
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer : C
Correct Answer : c
Answer Justification :
TEST - 2
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96 Which of the following acts gave legislative councils the power to discuss the budget?
A. Government of India Act 1909
B. Government of India Act 1919
C. Government of India Act 1935
D. Act of 1892
User Answer : A
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TEST - 2
Correct Answer : d
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: The Act of 1892 provided for the following:
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Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 3: page 31: 8th NCERT Social and Political Life
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97 The Global Environment facility serves as a financial mechanism for which of the
following conventions?
1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
3. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
4. Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : b
Answer Justification :
Explanation & Learning: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) unites 183
countries in partnership with international institutions, civil society organizations
(CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues while
supporting national sustainable development initiatives.
GEF is the largest public funder of projects to improve the global environment. It is
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TEST - 2
The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer (MP), supports implementation of the Protocol in countries
with economies in transition.
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Explanation: Monetary policy does not aim at zero or ultra-low inflation, but
stability of prices with a moderate rate of inflation. This is because some amount of
inflation is necessary for growth. So, statement 1 is correct.
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High rupee exchange ratio is not the objective of monetary policy; instead it is
stability of rupee in the foreing exchange markets. The actual value of rupee
exchange ratio is not desirably fixed in a managed or floating exchange rate as in
India. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
Learning: Monetary policy refers to the credit control measures adopted by the
central bank of a country.
Other objectives are ensuring full employment, and a Balance of Payments.
This is ensured through instruments like Bank rate, CRR, SLR, Open Market
operations etc.
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99 Which of the following most affect the rate of humus formation in the soil?
A. Flora, fauna and microorganisms
B. Characteristics of parent rock
C. Slope of soil
D. Minerals in the soil
User Answer :
Correct Answer : a
Answer Justification :
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A small part of the organic matter consists of the living cells such as bacteria, molds,
and actinomycetes that work to break down the dead organic matter. Were it not for
the action of these micro-organisms, the entire carbon dioxide part of the
atmosphere would be sequestered as organic matter in the soil.
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TEST - 2
Dry and hot areas promote better evaporation of sea water and greater production of
salt. So, statement 3 is correct.
The longer the coastline is, the higher is the potential for salt production. Statement
4 is also correct.
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Learning: There are three main sources of salt in India: (i) sea water, along the
coasts of the Peninsula, (ii) brine springs, wells and salt lakes of the arid tracts of
Rajasthan, and (iii) rock-salt deposits of Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh.
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