Pyuria is

..

a-pus in urine
b-pus in wound
c-pus in stool
d- pus in sputum
2- Bacteria cause abscess
a- S.aureus
b- E.coli
c- Proteus spp
3- Brucella best grow at
a- 35 c
b- 22c
c- 10c
d- 45c
4- Most brucella found in ksa
a- B. meltinsis
b- B. abortus
c- B. canis
d- B. suis
5- An aerobic without catalyst :
a- C.tetani
b- C. perf
c- Bacteroids
d- Peptostrepto
6- H.influenzae resist penicillin by
a- Produce beta lactamase
b- Piili
c- Capsule production
d- Endotoxins
7- S. aureus best stain with :
a- H&E
b- Gimsa
c- Gram stain
d- Lishman stain
8- Urine contamination with stool specimen you may see the following flagellate :
a- Giardia lambelia
b- Trichomonas vaginalis
c- Trichomonas homes
d- Blantidium coli

9- Proteus volgaris different from proteus mirabilis :

a- Produce H2s
b- Nonlactose ferment
c- Indole production
d- Oxidase test
10- Enterobacteriacea is differentiated from other gram-ve bacilli by
a- Catalse
b- Indole
c- Oxidase
d- H2s
11- Helicobacter pylori is
a- Cause peptic ulcer
b- Bacterimia
c- Toxin production
d- Cause diarrhea
12- In cell mediated immunity which type of cells are tolerate?
a- T cell
b- B cell
c- T&b cell
d- N kiiler cell
13- N . meningitides is virulence due to
a- Capsule
b- Piili
c- Toxins
d- Oxidase
14- S.aureus can differentiate from others staphylococci
a- Coagulase
b- Catalase
c- Oxidase
d- Sugar fermentation
15- Mycobacterium tuberculosis minimum growth
a- 41 days
b- 2 month
c- 6 month
d- 11 days
16- Gram negative Bacteria cause abdominal pain and diaoreah :
a- Salmonella typhi
b- S .aureus
c- Shigella sonii
d- Combylobacter jijani
17- Sterilization under high pressure is done :
a- Below 100 c
b- Over 100 c

c- Below 80 c
d- With 100 c
18- In sputum specimen wich bacteria consider as no clinical significant :
a- Candida albicans
b- H .influenzae
c- S .aureus
d- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
19- Proteus urine infection can be treated with :
a- Ampicillin
b- Vancomycin
c- Nitrofurantoin
d- Peniciiln
20- Trycophyton, aspirogellus and dermatophytes are
a- Bacteria
b- Virus
c- Fungi
d- Non of above
21- Salmonella o antigen is call also
a- K ag
b- H ag
c- Vi ag
d- Non of above
22- Recently is used as counting of schistosoma mansoni eggs:
a- Kato tech
23- All are late syphilis symptoms except :
24- Hepatitis attenuated vaccine is have major problems or disadvantages:
a- Fever
b- Rash
c- Still virulence
d- ????
25- AIDS cancer is:
a- Kaposi sarcoma
b- Berkitss lymphoma
c- Multible myloma
d- Adinocarcinoma
26- In AIDS patients the most fungal opportunistic infection is :
a- Diaoreahh
b- Fever
c- Oral thrush
d- Adenocarcinoma
27- Difrentiation of group A streoptococci :
a- Bacitracin
b- Optochin
c- Catalase

d- Oxidase
28- Vibrio cholera serotype 01 classify accoerding to :
a- O anigen
b- H antigen
c- K antigen
d- All of above
29- The most urgent investigation for physition :
a- Microscopic stool
b- Microscopic urine
c- Microscopic CSF
d- Microscopic sputum
30- Dentritic cells in tissue named as : antigen-presenting cells (also known as accessory
cells)

31- Antibody cross placent igg

32- Antibody fix complements IgM
33- Parasite penetrate skin
a- Strongloidis
34- Infective stage of trypansoma :
a- A mastigote
b- Premastigote
c- Metacyclic trepomastigote
d- All are infective?
35- N.meningitidis appear under microscope as:
36- Bacteria cause malignant postiule
a- Bacillus antheracis
37- Other test use for detection of s. aureus :
a- Coagulase
b- Catalse
c- Dnase
d- Detaection of protein A
38- All are true about Tuberculin test except :
a- Crossreaction with hepatitis infection
b- Give false negative or positive result with immunecompramised
c- Give positive result with 6 months infection
d- Positive result seen with more than 15 circle
39- Resistant of bacteria to antibiotic is due to
40- Transform of genome from bacteria to bacteria conjugation
41- Bacteria oxidaise sugar :
a- P .aurogenosa
b- E coli
c- Proteus
d- Klebsiella
42- Klebsiella virulence factor
a- Capsul

b- Flagellen
c- Piilin
d- All of above
43- Bacteria motile by
a- Flagella
b- Piili
c- Capsule
d- Cell wall
44- In ureamic haemloitic syndrome caused by EHEC the specific toxin is
a- Verotxin
b- Alpha toxin
c- Beta toxin
d- Labile toxin
45- The following are monomorphus fungi except:
46- All are true about morbid malaria except :
a- Cause celebral malaria
b- 1 or more parasite can invade one rbc
c- Number of merozoit found is more than 26
d- Cause enlargement of rbc
47- Parasite hade 16- 19 merozoite and cause enlarge of rbc
a- P .malari
b- P .falcebrum
c- P vivax
d- P ovale
48- Chlamydia pnemophilia cause :
a- Inclusion conjictivitis
b- Trachoma
c- LGV
d- Non of above
49- Mycoplasma is :
50- Clostridium perfrenges found as normal flora in
a- Gut
b- Small intestine
c- Large intestine
d- Gallbladder
51- Immunoglobulin casue haemolytic diseases to new born :
a- Igg
b- Igm
c- Ige
d- Iga
52- Echinococcus granulosus is transmited by
a- Mosquito
b- Sand fly
c- Flies

d- Non of above
53- Yresinia pestis stain by
54- In blood transfusion bags suspected to contain treponems what can you do ?

1/ Which of the following test result will be positive in patient who is carrier HBV and HDV
a/ Positive HBsAg, anti-HDV positive , anti-HBc positive
b/ Positive HBsAg, anti-HDV negative , anti-HBc positive
c/ Negative HBsAg, anti-HDV positive , anti-HBc negative
d/ negative HBsAg, anti-HDV positive , anti-HBc positive
2/ All of the following enhance absorption of Iron except
a/ low serum iron
b/ iron deficiency stats
c/ vitamin c
d/ HCL in the stomach
e/ Tannic acid
3/ Which if the follwing factors reduce absrption of iron
a/ HCL in the stomach
b/Vitamin C
c/ Iron deficency stats
d/ low seru, iron
e. low TICB
/4
which of the following is not true about MCH class 1 /4
a/ Are present on the surface of all nucleated cells
b/ all have antigens HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-C
c/ consist of two polypeptide chains, and 2-microglobulin
d/ interacts with the CD4 co-receptor of T-cells

b=1
e=2
e=3
d=4

what is the difference between plasma and serum /5

how the technician diagnose cryptosporiodosis /6
a/ blood smear
b/ stool examination
c/ rectal biopsy
.......... /d

Listeria sp /7
a/ gram positive cocci
b/ gram negative bacilli]
c/ gram negative cocci
d/ gram positive bacilli

bacteria an aerobe, grows on Mcconkey, oxidase positive and motile /8
a/ streptoccocus gp a
b/ psudomonas
c/ c. dephteriae

when you compared with IgG, an IgM antibody /9
a/ less efficient in complement fixation
b/ high affinity in binding antibodies
c/ssssssssss

Hydated cyst is an infective stage xxxxxxxxxx /10
a/ E. histolytica
b/ Tenia saginata
c/ Enteroblus vermicularis
d/ xxxxxxxxx

liver fluke xxxxxxxxx /11
a/ s. haematobium
b/ fasclota hepatica
c/ oriental lung fluke

which of the following parasite can cause CSF damage /12
a/ p. falciparum
b/ p. malarie
c/xxxxx

HIV patient can develope recurrent infection if CD4 lower than /13
a/ 2000
b/ 1500
c/ 500
d/ 200

which od the following factor not present in cryoprecipitate /14
a/ factor VIII
b/ factor V
c/ factor XIII

d/ factor XII
all of the following defer perminantly from donation except /15
a/ HIV patient
b/ Hepatits
c/ sever thrombocytopenia
d/ Iron deficiency anemia
blood bank tech. reject one of the following /16
a/ one with Hb 18 mg/dl
b/ pregnant women
c/ wieght 52kg
d/ age 22 years
urine sample recieved by the lab. staff and kept in room temperature for 2 hrs from /17
collection what would the microbiologist do with this sample
a/ processed
b/ inoculation
c/ rejected
d/xxxxxxxxxx
what is the most common antigoaculant used for coagulation test /18
a/ sodium floride
b/ EDTA
c/ sodium citrate
d/ Heparine
Patient with DVT on heparine which of the following test will be affected /19
a/ thrombin time
b/ fibrinogen
c/ prothrombin time
d/ APTT
which of the following antibiotics can inhibit protein synthesis /20
a/ chloromphenicol
b/ gentamicin and vancomycin
c/ lithium
d/xxxxxx