1) CSF examination is NOT used to diagnose the following

CNS parasitic
infections:
a. Acanthamoeba granulomatous encephalitis
b. Trypanosomiasis gambiense
c. Trypanosomiasis rhodesiense
d. Neurocysticercosis
2) Larvae of one of the following dipterous flies may cause
ocular myiasis:
a. Oestrus
b. Eristalis
c. Fannia
d. Hypoderma

3)A patient from East Africa, where tsetse flies are common,
suffers from the
following symptoms: severe headache,
deterioration of consciousness and tendency to sleep. This
patients symptoms are most likely associated with the
following parasitic infection:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Naegleria fowleri
Acanthamoeba spp
Cysticercus cellulose
Trypanosoma rhodesiense

4) Concerning granulomatous amoebic meningoencephalitis

(GAM):
a.
b.
c.
d.

It is an acute and fulminant infection.

Infection cause diffuse meningoencephalitis.
The causative agent is the free-living amoeba N. fowleri.
CNS invasion is usually secondary through haematogenous
spread.

5) Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is usually

acquired by children while:
a. Eating sea food
b. Playing in the park

c. Playing with sand

d. Swimming & diving

6) High doses of Amphotericin B is used to treat infection

with:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Naegleria fowleri
Acanthamoeba spp
Cysticercus cellulose
Trypanosoma rhodesiense

:Which statement about the auditory system is TRUE (7

a. loudness of sound is encoded by which eighth nerve axons
fire
b .hair cells in the basal region of the cochlea respond best to
high frequencies
c. the basilar membrane separates the scala tympani from the
scala vestibuli
d. outer hair cells transduce sound information and transmit it
to the CNS
Concerning the processing of sound by the auditory (8
:system
a. bending of stereocilia produces action potentials in hair cells
b. in the brainstem, convergence of excitatory interneurons
allow cells to respond
to narrower ranges of frequencies
c. the location of a sound source is determined by the timing
and intensity of
sound Information
d. louder sounds decrease the firing rate of eighth nerve axons
compared to softer sound
:In the vestibular system, which of the following is TRUE (9
a. information on head rotation is provided by the macula
b. when the head is tilted, some hair cells in the utricle
depolarize, some
hyperpolarize , and some show no change
c. all of the stereocilia on one vestibular hair cell are the same
length
d. during head rotation, the force exerted by the perilymph
causes the cupula to bend
Damage to motor cortex on one side typically causes (10
:contralateral weakness or paralysis when
a. swallowing

b. smiling
c. speaking
d. closing the eyes
Spacticity and parkinsonian rigidity are similar in that (11
:both conditions produce
a. Muscle weakness or paralysis
b. tremor at rest
c. intention tremor
d. increased muscle tone
:Coding of sensory messages is accomplished by (12
.a. changing the frequency of firing of action potentials
.b. changing amplitude of action potentials
.c. changing number of sensory neurons activated
d. a and c

.1

You are trying to develop a device that uses electrical (13

stimulation to reduce pain. What part of the nervous system
?should you stimulate to reduce pain
a. dorsal root ganglia
b. Periaqueductal Gray Matter (PAG)
c. medial lemniscus
d. intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus
:Muscle spindles(14
a. sense muscle force
b. are located in tendons
c. send information via Ib axons
d. mediate the stretch reflex
As you struggled to stay awake last night studying for (15
this exam, you relied
:on your reticular activating system which is
a. the collection of basal ganglia responsible for wakefulness
b. the diffuse modulatory systems using Ach and serotonin that
modulate brain
sleep/wake states
c. the collection of brainstem nuclei that produce wakefulness
when stimulated
d. the thalamic nuclei that switch from spiking to burst mode to
induce wakefulness
:Clinical features of parkinsonism include all EXCEPT (16
a. Cog-wheel rigidity

b. Hypokinesia
c. Resting tremor
d. Muscle weakness
17) A 51-year-old man presents with visual field deficits in both eyes and a rightsided weakness and sensory loss in the upper and lower extremities. MRI
shows a lesion in the optic radiations that has spread into a structure located
immediately adjacent to this radiations. Based on its anatomical
relationship, which of the following structures is most likely involved in a
lesion spreading from the optic radiations?
a. Left basilar pons
b. Posterior limb of the internal capsule
c. Left pyramid
d. Right crus cerebri
18) Examination of the previous patient immediately after the lesion is expected
to reveal:
a. Muscle flaccidity with hyporeflexia
b. Muscle flaccidity with hypereflexia
c. Muscle spasticity with hyporeflexia
d. Muscle spasticity with hypereflexia

19) The most common pathologic lesion in te previuos patient is expected to be:
a. Neoplastic
b. Vascular
c. Degenerative
d. Infectious
20) A 63-year-old man has hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing or buzzing sounds in
the ear), vertigo, and unsteady gait; all of these have developed over several
years. MRI reveals a large tumor (3 cm in diameter) at the cerebellopontine
angle, most likely a vestibular schwannoma (sometimes incorrectly called an
acoustic neuroma).
What additional deficit could this patient also have?
a. Anosmia
b. Hemianopia
c. Facial asymmetry
d. Visual field deficits
21) during start of rotation to the right
a. The steriocilia of right semicircular canals are bent towards the kinocilium
b. The vestibular nerve on the left is stimulated
c. The eye rotates slowly to the left
d. All of the above

Which statement concerning proposed mechanisms of (22

anticonvulsant drugs
?is false
Diazepam facilitates GABA-mediated inhibitory actions

.a

Phenobarbital has multiple actions, including enhancement

of the effects of GABA, antagonism of glutamate receptors,
and blockade of Na+ ion channels
Vigabatrin elevates brain GABA levels

.b

.c

Carbamazepine selectively blocks Ca2+ ion channels in

thalamic neurons

.d

Concerning hypotheses for the pathophysiologic basis of (23

,schizophrenia
?which statement is accurate
All effective antipsychotic drugs have high affinity for
dopamine D2 receptors

.a

Drugs that block dopamine receptors are used to alleviate

psychotic symptoms in parkinsonism

.b

Dopamine receptors are decreased in the brains of untreated

schizophrenics

.c

Drug-induced psychosis can occur without activation of brain

dopamine receptors

.d

Which of the following is more likely to result from (24

?treatment with moderate-high doses of diazepam
Alleviation of the symptoms of major depressive disorder
Agitation and possible hyperreflexia with abrupt .
discontinuance after chronic use

.b

.a

Improved performance on tests of psychomotor function

Retrograde amnesia

.c

.d

?Which statement regarding nitrous oxide is accurate (25

It is a very potent anesthetic

.a

It is devoid of analgesic effect

It is not metabolized in the body

.b
.c

It can be used alone to produce surgical anesthesia

.d

Which of the following drugs is least likely to have a (26

pharmacokinetic
interaction when added to carbamazepine to treat
?complex partial seizure
Topiramate

.a

Tiagabine

.b

Zonisamide

.c

Levetiracetam

.d

Morphine may normally produce which of the following (27

:acute effects
Dysphoria

.a

Respiratory stimulation
Nausea and vomiting
Diarrhea

.b
.c

.d

:Serotonine (28

a. Is inactivated by MAO to 5-hydroxy-indoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)

b. Increases the appetite and causes depression,
c. Increases the formation of tyramine that stimulates the
release of epinephrine
d. Is inactivated by COMT to vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
Which of the following best explains the mechanism for (29
free radical
?formation
a. Cleavage of covalent bonds
b. Addition of an electron to a cation
c. Loss of an electron from an anion
d. Reaction between two free radicals
Cyclooxygenases generate free radicals indirectly by: (K) (30
a. Donating 2 electrons to molybdenum (Mo) at the enzyme
active site
b. Auto-oxidation reactions of thiol compounds such as cysteine
c. Forming prostaglandins which are inflammatory mediators
d. Transferring electrons from complex I to complex IV in the
mitochondria

Measurement of which product is considered a reliable (31

biomarker for
neuronal DNA oxidation by free radicals? (K)
a. Plasma malondaldehyde.
b. CSF advanced glycation end-products.
c. Plasma and CSF 8-hydroxy-2-deoxyguanosine.
d. Plasma glutathione.
A common possible strategy to prevent and slow down (32
the progression of
:neurodegenerative disorders is to
a. Inject intravenously calcium preparations.
b. Increase the intracellular levels of neuronal glutathione
c. Double the oral intake of supplemented vitamin D.
d. Decrease the dietary intake of polyunsaturated fatty acids
:Negri bodies are seen in (33
a.
b.
c.
d.

HIV infection
Cytomegalovirus infection
Herpes simplex virus infection
Rabies infection

Negri bodies are cellular inclusions found most frequently in the

.pyramidal cells of Ammon's horn & Purkinje cells of the cerebellum

a.
b.
c.
d.

Homer Wright rosette is a characteristic histological (34

:finding in
a. Glioblastoma multiforme
b. Ependymoma
c. Medulloblastoma
d. Oligodendroglioma
:The most common cause for brain infarct is (35
Hypotensive shock
Essential hypertension
Head injury
Cerebral thromboembolism

a.
b.
c.
d.

What contributes to the hemorrhagic appearance of (36

?some infarcts
Reperfusion
Hypertension
Bleeding disorders
Trauma

Common sites of primary tumors that metastasize to the (37

:brain include all of the following EXCEPT
a.
b.
c.
d.

Bone
Lung
Breast
GIT

a.
b.
c.
d.

An important consequence of medial temporal (38

:herniation is
Hydrocephalus
Ipsilateral papillary dilation
Brain edema
Duret hemorrhage in pons

39) Which statement concerning proposed mechanisms of

anticonvulsant drugs
a.
b.
c.
d.

is false?

Diazepam facilitates GABA-mediated inhibitory actions

Vigabatrin elevates brain GABA levels
Phenytoin prolongs the inactivated state of Na+ ion channels
Carbamazepine selectively blocks Ca2+ ion channels in
thalamic neurons

40) Concerning hypotheses for the pathophysiologic basis of

schizophrenia, which statement is accurate?

a. All effective antipsychotic drugs have high affinity for

dopamine D2 receptors
b. Drugs that block dopamine receptors are used to alleviate
psychotic symptoms in parkinsonism
c. Dopamine receptors are decreased in the brains of untreated
schizophrenics
d. Drug-induced psychosis can occur without activation of brain
dopamine receptors
41)Which of the following is more likely to result from
treatment with moderate-high doses of diazepam?
a. Alleviation of the symptoms of major depressive disorder
b. .Agitation and possible hyperreflexia with abrupt
discontinuance after
chronic use
c. Improved performance on tests of psychomotor function
d. Retrograde amnesia
42) Which statement regarding nitrous oxide is accurate?
a. It is a very potent anesthetic
b. It is devoid of analgesic effect
c. It is not metabolized in the body
d. It can be used alone to produce surgical anesthesia
43) Which of the following drugs is least likely to have a
pharmacokinetic interaction when added to carbamazepine
to treat complex partial seizure?
a. Topiramate
b. Tiagabine
c. Zonisamide
d. Levetiracetam
44) Morphine may normally produce which of the following
acute effects:
a. Dysphoria
b. Respiratory stimulation
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Diarrhea
45) The third ventricle communicates with the fourth
ventricle through the:
a. Aqueduct of Sylvius.
b. Lateral foramen of Luschka.
c. Median foramen of Magendie.
d. Interventricular foramen of Monro.
46) Regarding the CSF, it:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Is drained by the lymphatic system.

Leaves the lateral ventricle through the central canal.
Is formed by the choroid plexuses in all ventricles.
Is present in the subdural space of the spinal cord.

47) The lateral ventricle communicates with the third

ventricle through the:
a. Cerebral aqueduct.
b. Median foramen of Magendie.
c. Interventricular foramen of Monro.
d. Lateral foramen of Lushka.
48) The inferior vermis on the inferior surface has the
following lobules EXCEPT
a. Nodule.
b. Uvula.
c. Pyramid.
d. Tonsil.
49) Which of the following cerebellar parts has mainly spinal
connections?
a. Archicerebellum.
b. Paleocerebellum.
c. Neocerebellum.
d. Vestibulocerebellum.
50) The nuclei of the cerebellum includes the following
EXCEPT
a. Globose.
b. Paraventricular.
c. Dentate.
d. emboliformis.
51) All the following arteries are supplying the cerebellum
EXCEPT
a. Superior cerebellar artery.
b. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery.
c. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery.
d. Anterior cerebral artery.
52) Which of the following structures have vestibular
connections
a. Nodule.
b. Pyramid
c. Tuber.
d. Tonsil.

53) All the following structure are forming the hippocampal

formation of the limbic system EXCEPT
a. The hippocampus.
b. The parahippocampal gyrus.
c. The dentate gyrus.
d. The cingulate gyrus.

54) The pyramid is found on the

a. Floor of the middle ear.
b. Medial wall of the middle ear.
c. Posterior wall of the middle ear.
d. Medial surface of the tympanic membrane.
55) The tensor tympani muscle .
a. Is supplied by the facial nerve.
b. Is attached to the neck of stapes.
c. Takes origin from the pyramid of the middle ear.
d. Contracts to protect the inner ear from high sounds.
56) Regarding the inner ear, which of the following is
correct?
a. The organ of Corti rests on the vestibular membrane.
b. The scala tympani and scala vestibuli are completely
separated.
c. The scala tympani opens into the vestibule.
d. The basal turn of the cochlea projects into the middle ear
cavity.