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OCET Questions
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Words
In Figures
In Words
In
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry/A
1.
2.
Which of the following amino acids has not a charged side chain at physiologic pH ?
(A) Aspartic acid
(B) Lysine
(D) Asparagine
Glutamine has :
(A) three titratable groups
(B) an amide group
(C) an acidic amino acid
(D) a side chain that cannot form hydrogen bonds in proteins
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(B) Glu-Cys-Gly
(C) Asp-Ala-Gly
(D) Glu-Asp-Gly
(C) Phenylisothiocyanate
(B) Shine-Dalgarno
(C) Lineweaver-Burk
(D) Michaelis-Menten
(C) HPLC
(D) FAB-MS
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
Large soluble proteins with many disulfide linked chains released into serum are :
(A) Albumins
(B) Haemoglobin
(C) Collagen
(D) IgG
(B) Collagen
(C) IgG
(D) Alumin
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
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(B) 2540
(C) 45100
(D) 1550
13. Which one of the following is the major end product of protein-Nitrogen metabolism ?
(A) Glycine
(C) Urea
(D) Arginine
(B) Galactosidase
(C) Sulfatase
(D) Neuranindase
17. Muscle glycogen cannot contribute directly to blood glucose levels because :
(A) muscle glycogen cannot be converted to glucose 6-phosphate
(B) muscle lacks glucose 6-phosphate phosphatase
(C) muscle contains no glucokinase
(D) muscle contains no glycogen phosphorylase
18. In the muscle, a sudden elevation of the Ca++ concentration will cause :
(A) activation of cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase
(B) dissociation of cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase into catalytic and regulatory subunits
(C) conversion of glycogen phosphorylase b to phosphorylase a
(D) conversion of cyclic AMP to AMP by phosphodiesterase
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
(C) phosphofructokinase II
23. In pyruvate kinase deficiency, hemolysis of red cells occurs primarily because of
increased intracellular levels of :
(A) lactate
(B) pyruvate
(D) 2,3-diphosphoglycerate
(C) Fumarase
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
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(B) Phosphatidylcholine
(C) Cholesterol
(D) Shingolipids
27. Substances that play a direct role in the synthesis of palmitate by the fatty acid
synthetase complex include :
(A) covalently bound phosphopantetheine
(B) covalently bound lipoic acid
(C) malonyl CoA
(B) -hydroxybutyrate
30. Hydrolysis of a mixture of phosphoglycerides will not yield which of the following
compounds ?
(A) Choline
(C) Phosphate
(B) Glycerol
(D) Tryptophan
31. To be defined as a ganglioside, a lipid substance isolated from nerve tissue must
contain in its structure :
(A) N-acetylneuraminic acid (NANA) hexoses, sphingosine, long chain fatty acids
(B) NANA, a hexose, a fatty acid, sphingosine, phosphorylcholine
(C) NANA, sphingosine, ethanolamine
(D) All of the above
32. Animals fed a high cholesterol diet exhibit decreased cholesterol synthesis by liver
because of the inhibition of which one of the following enzymes ?
(A) 3-Hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) synthetase
(B) HMG CoA reductase
(C) Mevalonate kinase
(D) HMG CoA lyase
33. The lipoprotein particles that have the highest percent concentration of triacylglycerol
are :
(A) the chylomicrons
(B) the VLDL
(C) the LDL
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
(B) Phenylalanine
(C) Tyrosine
(D) Tryptophan
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
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(D) adenosine
46. Histones :
(A) are basic protein rich in lysine or arginine, or both
(B) are bound covalently to DNA
(C) have relatively high molecular weights (2,00,000 daltons or higher)
(D) are identical to protamines
47. The formation of uric acid from purines is catalysed by :
(A) adenylate deaminase
(B) uricase
(C) urease
(B) IMP
(C) GMP
(D) CMP
50. During DNA replication, the sequence 5'-TpApGpAp-3' would produce which of the
following complementary structures ?
(A) 5'-TpCpTpAp-3'
(B) 5'-ApTpCpTp-3'
(C) 5'-UpCpUpAp-3'
(D) 5'-GpCpUpAp-3'
51. One class of RNA characteristically contains methylated purines and pyrimidines. This
RNA is :
(A) tRNA
(B) mRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) 16 S RNA
52. What is the maximum number of different amino acids in a polypeptide chain coded by
the synthetic polyribonucleotide (UCAG) 5 ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(B) 200250
(C) 50500
(D) 250380
54. Place the following in the chronological order of function : cDNA : gene : mRNA :
transcript :
(A) 2, 1, 3, 4
(B) 4, 1, 3, 2
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 1, 2, 2, 3, 4
(C) waxes
(C) a coenzyme
(B) purines
58. In which region of a mitochondria are enzymes of the citric acid cycle located ?
(A) outer membrane
(D) matrix
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
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59. Iron containing compounds that act as hydrogen acceptors in the respiratory chain are :
(A) flavoproteins
(B) dehydrogenases
(C) cytochromes
(D) oxidases
(B) adrenalin
(C) thyroxine
(D) testosterone
61. Acetylcholine is a :
(A) Neurotransmitter
(B) B-vitamin
(C) Enzyme
(D) Protein
(B) Thyroxine
(C) Oxytocin
(D) Adrenalin
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin K
65. Which of the following reactions uses all the phosphate of ATP ?
(A) formation of S-Adenosyl methionine
(B) vitamin B2
(C) inositol
68. Details of the citric acid cycle were worked out by the use of :
(A) X-ray crystallography
(C) ultracentrifugation
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
10
69. Which one of the following types of bonds or interactions is least important in determining
the three-dimensional folding of most proteins ?
(A) Hydrogen bonds
(B) 5.6
(C) 7.5
(D) 4.7
(B) 6.8
(C) 7.4
(D) 7.6
74. Under physiological conditions, each of the following contains a high energy phosphate
group EXCEPT :
(A) ATP
(B) ADP
(C) AMP
(D) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(B) 1.5%
(C) 0.7%
(D) 2.0%
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
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ROUGH WORK
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377
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72
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Words
In Figures
In Words
In
Maximum Marks : 75
2.
3.
4.
Those portions of a transmembrane protein that cross the lipid bilayer usually consist of
which structures ?
(A) A sheet with mostly polar side chains
(B) A sheet with mostly nonpolar side chains
(C) An helix with mostly polar side chains
(D) An helix with mostly nonpolar side chains
5.
6.
7.
What is the name for a modular unit from which many larger proteins are made ?
(A) Protein domain
(B) helix
(D) sheet
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
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8.
9.
(B) H M N
(C) T N Y
(D) M T C
(C) Myoglobin
(D) Hemoglobin
(B) (12)
(C) (14)
(D) (14)
(B) bicarbonate
(C) citrate
(D) tris
(B) Apple
(C) COMPAQ
(D) HCL
17. A computer has a 1024 K memory. What does the letter K stand for ?
(A) Kilometre
(B) Thousand
(C) 1024
(D) MB
(B) ROM
(C) RAM
(D) PROM
(B) QWERTY
(C) Alphanumeric
(D) Numeric
(B) Block
(C) Field
(D) String
(C) Processor
(B) Editor
(C) Spooler
23. Which of the following would be correct units for the rate constant of a reaction that is
second order overall ?
(A) s1
24. Predict the geometry of a molecule in which the bonding may be described using the
valence bond model as being made up of sp3 hybrid orbitals on the central atom :
(A) trigonal bipyramedal
(C) tetrahedral
(D) octahedral
25. How many normal modes of vibrational are possible for a benzene molecule ?
(A) 6
(B) 30
(C) 12
(D) 31
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(C) IR region
(D) 4 bonds
29. Which technique can be used to determine the number of components in a plant
pigment ?
(A) Calorimetry
(B) Chromatography
(C) Colorimetry
(D) Gravimetry
(B) Na2CrO4
(C) CoCl2
(D) BaSO4
(B) amide
(C) amine
(D) aldehyde
(B) x = 3 y = 4
(C) x = 3 y = 16
(D) x = 5 y = 20
(B) (50 y) (2 + y)
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 2
(B) 10
(C) 1
(D) 0
(B) 439 K
(C) 437 K
(D) 440 K
41. Calculate the minimum error associated with using 100 cm3 volumetric flask that is
accurate to within 0.1 cm3 .
(A) 0.001
(B) 0.0005
(C) 0.01
(D) 0.005
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42. A temperature is measured as 325 4 K. Calculate the signal to noise ratio and state
whether the reading is usable :
(A) The signal to noise ratio is 4 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
(B) The signal to noise ratio is 325 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
(C) The signal to noise ratio is 0.003 : 1 which means that the reading is too unreliable to use
(D) The signal to noise ratio is 81 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
43. What is the name of the system which deals with the running of the actual computer and
not with the programming table ?
(A) Operating system
44. What is the innate error in the equilibrium constant, K, given that the temperature is
constant (249 K) and the free energy, G, is 3.14 kJ/mol ? (
G = RT l nK )
(A) = 4.8 105
(C) annotation
(D) screening
(B) 3%
(C) 95%
(D) 20%
48. The most widely scoring matrices used for protein sequence alignments (BLOSUM) is
based on :
(A) Genetic code
(B) Physico-chemical properties
(C) Simple identity
(D) Statistics of observed substitutions in "safe" multiple sequence alignments
49. Normalization is used to reduce errors in data. What kind of errors can be reduced by
normalization ?
(A) Systematic
(B) Random
(D) Gaussian
(B) l n K eq
(C) TSo
(D) TSo
53. The ratio of purines and pyrimidines in mRNA is not 1 : 1 because the nitrogenous bases
are :
(A) unpaired
(B) paired
55. Bt cotton is :
(A) Cloned plant
(C) X-shaped
(D) Y-shaped
57. A riboside is :
(A) Base + phosphate
58. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of
nucleosides present in the segment is :
(A) 480
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 60
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(D) conservative
(B) GCA
(C) CCA
(D) AUG
(B) 1964
(C) 1984
(D) 2006
(B) PyMol
(C) Cn3D
(D) RasMol
(B) yellow
(C) red
(D) orange
(B) 30%
(C) 25%
(D) 20%
(B) tannin
(C) insulin
(D) myosin
10
(B) Cytosine
(C) Cyclohexane
(D) Inositol
70. You hold a rubber ball in your hand. The Newton's third law companion force to the force
of gravity on the ball is the force exerted by the :
(A) ball on the earth
71. De Broglie hypothesized that the linear momentum and wavelength of a free massive
particle are related by which of the following constants ?
(A) Planck's constant
72. An electron has total energy equal to four times its rest energy. The momentum of the
electron is :
2 mc
(A) mc
(B)
(C)
(D) 4 mc
15 mc
73. In the diamond structure of elemental carbon, the nearest neighbours of each C atom lie
at the corners of a :
(A) square
(B) hexagon
(C) cube
(D) tetrahedron
74. The root mean square speed of molecules of mass 'm' in an ideal gas at temperature T is :
(A)
2 kT / m
(C) 0
(B)
3 kT / m
(D) kT/m
75. The average translational energy of any ideal gas depends only on :
(A) the absolute temperature
11
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ROUGH WORK
12
72
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(B) cytochrome a3
(C) oxygen
(D) ubiquinone
At the end of the Kerb's citric acid cycle, most of the energy removed from the glucose
molecule has been transferred to :
(A) NADH and FADH2
(B) ATP
(C) unipolarity
A solution of a mixture of proteins is loaded onto a gel filtration column that has a size
exclusion limit of 75,000 Da. The proteins have the following MW in Daltons A : 11,237
B : 66,000; C:42,000; D:90,000. The proteins will elute from the column in the following
order :
(A) A, B, C, D
(B) D, B, C, A
(C) A, C, B, D
(D) D, A, B, C
(B) centrosome
(C) kinetochore
(D) centromere
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
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(B) chloroplast
(C) peroxisome
(D) mitochondrion
15. Although T-cell and B-cell membranes contain some shared receptors, the receptor
specific for B-cell membrane is :
(A) pokeweed mitogen
(C) concanavalin A
(B) 4 Km
(C) 1/3 Km
(D) 1/4 Km
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
19. The reason for the presence of histidine at the active site of enzymes is :
(A) it is the only polar residue with a five-membered ring at the side chain
(B) it can form salt bridges
(C) its pKa is close to 7
(D) it can interact with the substrates better than any other residue
20. Three-dimensional images of the surface of the cells and tissues could be visualized
through :
(A) transmission electron microscope
(B) scanning electron microscope
(C) compound microscope
(D) florescence microscope
21. A mixture of three peptides A, B and C is loaded in a C18 reverse phase chromatography
column. A mixture of water and acetonitrile is used as the solvent with increased
concentration of the latter in a gradient mode. If the hydrophobicities of the peptides are
in the order A < B < C, the order in which they will elute from the column would be :
(A) A followed by B followed by C
(B) B followed by C followed by A
(C) C followed by B followed by A
(D) A followed by C followed by B
22. Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to :
(A) absorb light of a constant wavelength
(B) absorb light of many different wavelengths
(C) absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength
(D) absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength
23. Who discovered phagocytosis ?
(A) I.P. Semmeleveis
(B) John Needham
(C) Elie Metchnikoff
(D) Jules Bordet
24. World Intellectual Property Rights day is celebrated on :
(A) April 26
(B) June 26
(C) October 26
(D) December 28
25. Which one of the following does not belong to Group D enterococci ?
(A) Streptococcus faecalis
(B) Streptococcus pyogenes
(C) Streptococcus faecium
(D) Streptococcus durans
26. In bacteria, the genes that code for the enzymes of a metabolic pathway are usually
arranged consecutively to form a functional unit called :
(A) an induction system
(B) an end-product repression system
(C) an operon
(D) a constitutive enzyme system
27. Which of the following is an epigenetic factor for gene expression in eukaryotes ?
(A) recombination
(B) DNA methylation
(C) protein phosphorylation
(D) DNA protein interaction
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
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28. The yeast two-hybrid system is designed to identify which of the following ?
(A) All the components of a multiprotein complex
(B) Human proteins that are required for binding RNA polymerase
(C) Two proteins that directly interact with one another
(D) Two proteins that are involved in the same metabolic pathway
29. siRNA :
(A) forms complex in the spliceosome
(B) recruits histone acetyl transferases to the nucleus
(C) forms a complex with RISC proteins to inhibit translation or cause degradation of
complementary mRNA
(D) is not transmitted to daughter cells after cell division
30. Pinta, a skin disease is caused by :
(A) Treponema carateum
(B) Francisella tularensis
(C) Clostridium tetani
(D) Pseudomonas mallei
31. Cytokines are not :
(A) able to induce increased blood vessel permeability
(B) antigen-specific
(C) made in response to bacterial antigens
(D) signals from one cell that affects the behavior of another cell
32. Type I hypersensitivity is known as :
(A) anaphylaxis
(B) agglutination
(C) the transfusion reaction
(D) contact hypersensitivity
33. Which of the following disease is not an autoimmune disease ?
(A) rheumatoid arthritis
(B) lupus erythematosis
(C) bovine spongiform encephalitis
(D) grave's disease
34. Gell and Coombs classified hypersensitivity into 4 types. IgE mediated hypersensitivity
belongs to :
(A) Type I
(B) Type II
(C) Type III
(D) Type IV
35. What is the enzyme called that retroviruses carry to convert their RNA genome into a
DNA genome ?
(A) RNA dependent RNA-polymerase
(B) replicase
(C) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(D) reverse transcriptase
36. Transcription in HIV is initiated from :
(A) pol
(B) env
(C) gag
(D) left LTR
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
(B) cytokinin
(C) ethylene
(D) gibberellin
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
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(C) allopatric
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
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(D) thiolase
66. Which of the following eukaryotic genera contain common cloning host cells ?
(A) Paramecium
(B) Saccharomyces
(C) Penicillium
(D) Spirogyra
(B) It is catalase-negative
(C) It can grow at refrigerator temperatures (4C) (D) It is gram negative coccus
69. Which of the following is characteristic of Neisseria meningitidis but not Neisseria
gonorrhoeae ?
(A) contains a polysaccharide capsule
(C) is oxidase-positive
70. A young, alcoholic male develops severe, necrotizing lobar pneumonia. The organism is
Lac+ and produces a luxuriant capsule. The most likely agent is :
(A) Campylobacter fetus
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
10
72. The cell walls of gram positive bacteria contain two modified sugars, N-acetylglucosamine
(NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM). They are covalently linked by :
(A) alpha-1, 4-glycosidic bond
75. Which one of the following arrangements of the metal ions Na+, K+, Mg2+ and Ca2+ in the
order of decreasing concentrations is correct with respect to a quiescent mammalian
cell ?
(A) Na+, K+, Mg2+, Ca2+
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
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ROUGH WORK
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A
12
158
OCET-2012
Sr. No. :
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Eubacteria
(D) Eukarya
(C) Dinoflagellates
(D) Phaeophyceae
(B) Parasites
(C) Carnivores
(D) Decomposers
(B) Bryophytes
(C) Pteridophytes
(D) Gymnosperms
(B) Cyanophyta
(C) Rhodophyta
(D) Phaeophyta
Each nucleosome core particle contains a double stranded DNA fragment bound to the histone
octamer consisting of two molecules each of the following set of 4 histones :
(A) H1, H2A, H2B, H3
During DNA replication in prokaryotes, the RNA primers are removed by the 5'-3' exonuclease
activity of enzyme
(A) RNA polymerase
[Turn over
9.
(C) Nullisomic
(D) Nullitetrasomic
(B) Tracheids
(C) Xylem
(B) Selaginella
(C) Equisetum
(D) Salvinia
(B) Opposite
(C) Spiral
(D) Mixed
(B) Pyronin Y
(B) Eichhornia
(C) Grasses
(D) Maize
(B) Two
(C) Nine
(D) Eleven
[Turn over
(B) Equisetum
(C) Pteris
(D) Azolla
26. More than two flagella are present on the reproductive cells of
(A) Dictyota
(B) Chara
(C) Oedogonium
(D) Volvox
(B) Sporic
(C) Zygotic
(D) Coenocytic
(B) Rhodophyceae
(C) Chlorophyceae
(D) Dinophyceae
(B) Centriole
(C) Mitochondrion
(D) Ribosome
31. The disappearance of green colour in the leaves due to lack of light is called
(A) Etiolation
(B) Chlorosis
(C) Albinism
(D) Evection
(B) March 22
(C) April 22
(D) May 22
34. Tissue with dead cells having thick walls and narrow lumen is called
(A) Collenchyma
(B) Parenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma
(D) Aerenchyma
35. There are two chloroplast endoplasmic membranes (CER) around the chloroplasts in members
of
(A) Rhodophyta
(B) Bacillariophyta
(C) Dinophyta
(D) Chlorophyta
(B) An alga
(C) A virus
(D) A bacterium
(B) Cytokinins
(C) Gibberellins
(D) Ethylene
(B) Boron
(C) Iron
(D) Sodium
[Turn over
(B) Sucrose
(C) Maltose
(D) Lactose
44. Which one of the following is not the feature of monocot stems ?
(A) Hollow stem
(C) Deuteromycetes
(D) Ascomycetes
(B) Suberin
(C) Cellulose
(D) Pectin
(C) Thalloid
(D) Foliaceous
(B) TrapaNut
(C) GrapesDrupe
(D) GramPod
(D) Bulb
(B) Cycas
(C) Cicer
(D) Alnus
(B) Klebsiella
(C) Oscillatoria
(D) Azotobacter
55. The portion of the embryo axis between cotyledons and the plumule is called
(A) Epicotyl
(B) Radicle
(C) Chalaza
(D) Hypocotyl
(B) Dionaea
(C) Passiflora
(D) Drosera
(B) Periblem
(C) Protoderm
(D) Plerome
58. Four sepals, four petals with tetradynamous condition and siliqua fruit is found in members of
the family
(A) Cucurbitaceae
(B) Solanaceae
(C) Magnoliaceae
(D) Brassicaceae
(B) Rhizopus
(C) Mucor
(D) Aspergillus
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(B) Selaginella
(C) Cedrus
(D) Gnetum
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(B) Hydrogen
(D) NADH
(B) Oxalis
(C) Smilax
(D) Asparagus
(B) Temperature
10
69. Which one of the amino acids has methyl group as side chain ?
(A) Alanine
(B) Glycine
(C) Valine
(D) Leucine
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2
(D) 3 : 1
(B) Cryopreservation
(C) Scarification
(D) Dormancy
(D) Glycerol
11
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ROUGH WORK
12
91
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(B) Development
(B) Thailand
(C) India
(D) China
(B) UAE
(D) England
(B) Spleen
Which of the following countries won the Africa Cup of Nations Football Championship in
February, 2012 ?
(A) Ivory Coast
(B) Gabon
(C) Zambia
Which of the following terms is not used in the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Gambit
(B) Volley
(D) Smash
(B) 480
(C) 408
(D) 840
The reason for a swimming pool to appear less deep than the actual depth is :
(A) Reflection
(B) Refraction
(D) Interference
Suraj runs 9 km to the South turns left and runs 8 km. Again, she turns left and runs
9 km. How far is she from her starting point ?
(A) 1 km
(C) 8 km
(B) 9 km
(D) 17 km
3
[Turn over
10. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was instituted in the year :
(A) 1991-1992
(B) 1992-1993
(C) 1993-1994
(D) 1995-1996
11. The official mascot of the Delhi Commonwealth Games held in October 2010 was :
(A) Tiger
(B) Ostrich
(C) Kangaroo
(D) Peacock
(B) Golf
(C) Badminton
(D) Tennis
13. Asafa Powell who created a new world record in 100 metres race is a citizen of :
(A) Jamaica
(B) USA
(C) Japan
(C) Dhaka
(D) Beijing
15. In a certain code CREAM is written as NBDBQ. How is BREAD written in that code ?
(A) EBDAQ
(B) BEFQA
(C) EBFAQ
(D) BEDQA
(B) Boxers
(C) Archers
(D) Footballers
17. Which of the following tournaments is not a part of Grand Slam Tennis ?
(A) Wimbledon
(C) US Open
(C) Volleyball
(D) Football
(B) Wrestling
(C) Boxing
(D) Gymnastics
(B) Canada
(C) Afghanistan
(B) Ligament
(D) Bone
(B) Pharynx
(C) Mouth
(D) Larynx
(B) Ribs
(C) Sternum
(D) Clavicle
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D
(B) Switzerland
(C) England
(D) Canada
(B) 1962
(C) 1964
(D) 1963
[Turn over
(B) Sweden
(C) Greece
(D) Germany
35. The term 'Tee' is associated with which of the following sports ?
(A) Chess
(B) Golf
36. Martina is fifteenth from both ends of a row of girls. How many girls are there in the
row ?
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 16
(D) 29
(B) France
(C) Australia
(D) China
(B) Canada
(C) France
(D) Brazil
40. When was the last time that India won the Gold medal in Hockey at the Olympics ?
(A) 1980
(B) 1992
(C) 1972
(D) 1986
41. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Double Fault
(B) Cox
(C) Ruff
(D) Crease
43. The limb bones of children become bent if there is deficiency of vitamin :
(A) A
(B) B
(C) D
(D) E
(B) Protein
(C) Carbohydrate
(D) Vitamin C
(B) 35
(C) 49
(D) 48
46. Number of players on each side of Baseball, Basketball and Volleyball games are
respectively :
(A) 7,5,6
(B) 9,5,7
(C) 9,5,6
(D) 9,7,6
(B) 1958
(C) 1954
(D) 1952
48. A boy said to a woman, "Your mother is the wife of my father's elder son." How is that
boy related to that woman ?
(A) Uncle
(B) Father
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother
(B) Game
(C) Player
(D) Playground
[Turn over
50. If KABADDI could be as 6 and VOLLEYBALL as 9, what is the code number for
SOCCER ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
(B) Berlin
(C) Dubai
(D) Madrid
(B) Pune
(C) Bangalore
(D) Delhi
(B) Nerves
(C) Heart
(D) Lungs
(B) Protein
(C) Mineral
(D) Carbohydrate
(B) 096
(C) 092
(D) 086
(B) Football
(C) Wrestling
(D) Polo
(B) 36
(C) 38
(D) 54
58. Which of the following countries has been chosen as the venue for the 2022 FIFA World
Cup ?
(A) Spain
(B) Qatar
(D) Russia
(B) Individual
(C) Parents
(D) State
60. In a code, the word ATHLETICS is written as DWKOHWLFV. How will you write GOLF
in the given code ?
(A) JRIO
(B) JROH
(C) JROI
(D) JROJ
(B) Rowing
(D) Canoeing
(B) Chess
(C) Basketball
(D) Boxing
65. To which of the following chambers of the heart, is the aorta connected ?
(A) Left auricle
(B) Aristotle
(D) Plato
(B) Stick
(C) Puck
(D) Ball
[Turn over
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) 16
(B) STROPS
(C) STORSS
(D) STTOPS
(B) Football
(C) Athletics
(D) Cricket
(B) 39
(C) 31
(D) 27
(B) Isotonic
(C) Isokinetic
(D) Plyometric
(B) 34.96o
(C) 34.92o
(D) 32.92o
(B) Calf
(D) Thigh
10
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11
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
12
100
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics/A
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(B) Pancreas
(D) Liver
(B) Regeneration
(D) 9 kcals
(C) Pleura
When an electric current flows through a metallic wire, the particles moving are :
(A) Ions
(B) Atoms
(C) Protons
(D) Electrons
(B) Increase
(D) Perforate
(B) Liver
(C) Stomach
Parkinsonism is related to :
(A) Brain
(B) Kidney
(C) Heart
(D) Muscles
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
[Turn over
(B) Choroid
(C) Cornea
(D) Sclera
(B) tRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) hRNA
(B) Prostaglandin
(C) Estrogen
(D) Epinephrine
(B) RBCs
(C) Platelets
(D) Leucocytes
(B) Leucocytes
(C) Thrombocytes
(B) Sedimentation
(D) Coagulation
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Leprosy
(B) Spleen
(C) Liver
(B) Cerebrum
(D) Thalamus
(B) Testis
(C) Liver
(D) Pancreas
(B) 8 hours
(C) 8 minutes
(D) 60 days
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
[Turn over
31. A portion of the chromatin in interphase which remains relatively compacted and is transcriptionally inactive is known as :
(A) Euchromatin
(B) Chromatinin
(C) Heterochromatin
(D) Homochromatin
33. The anaerobic decomposition of protein with the production of foul smelling compounds
is known as :
(A) Liquefaction
(B) Putrefaction
(C) Rotting
(D) Degradation
(B) Epinephrine
(D) Adrenaline
(B) Charge
(C) Colour
36. Quartz cuvettes are essential when source of incident ray is in the :
(A) Visible range
(B) CO 2
(C) O 3
(D) O 2
(B) Fc
(C) Fd
(D) Feb
(C) Scintillation
(D) Quenching
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
(C) Log T 2
(B) Peroxidase
(B) -source
(C) -source
(D) r-source
(C) Xylene
(D) DPX
(C) W.B.C.
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
[Turn over
(B) GM counter
(C) EEG
(D) ECG
(B) Diffusion
(D) Osmosis
(B) 260 nm
(C) 240 nm
(D) 340 nm
(B) Vitamin B6
(D) Biotin
(B) Precipitation
(C) Solubility
(D) Reactivity
(B) FRAP
(C) FACS
(D) GFP
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
(B) Carcinoma
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Myeloma
(B) -particles
(C) -particles
(B) Microtubules
(D) Lysosomes
(C) Jejunum
(D) Duodenum
(B) Einstein
(C) Wagner
(D) JC Bose
(B) Antibiotics
(C) WBC
(D) RBC
69. Telomerase is a :
(A) Ribonucleoprotein
(B) Deoxyribonucleoprotein
(C) Glycoprotein
(D) Polysaccharide
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
[Turn over
70. Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function ?
(A) ER ....... photosynthesis
(B) karyoplasm
(C) nucleolus
(D) chromatin
(B) O-H
(C) N-H
(D) S-H
(B) C=T
(C) A=G
(D) A=C
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
10
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
11
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394
12
16
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
2.
(B) An enamine
(C) An imine
(D) Cyclopentene
OMe
OAC
(B)
COOH
O
O COEt
(C)
OCOCH3
(D)
COOH
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
COOH
(B) Benzyne
(C) Carbocation
(D) Nitrene
(B) Homochiral
(C) Achiral
(D) Chiral
(C) Acetophenone
(D) Benzene
(B) CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2
(C) CH3C(CH3)=CHCH3
(D) CH3C(CH3)=CH2
(B) C2H2
(C) ClCH2CH2Cl
(D) CH3CH2OH
[Turn over
9.
10. An organic compound exhibits an infra-red band at 2245 cm1 and is hydrolysed to an
organic acid by mineral acid. The original compound is :
(A) An ester
(B) An amide
(C) A nitrile
11. Which of the following organic acids is most highly ionised in water ?
(A) CH3CH2COOH
(B) (CH3)2CHCOOH
(D) CH3C(Cl)2COOH
14. Which of the following compounds on reaction with NH3 gives an organic compound which
in turn on heating with an alkali evolves ammonia ?
(A) C6H5CH2Cl
(B) C3H7OH
(C) C6H5Br
(D) C6H5COCl
15. Which of the following on alkaline hydrolysis does not give benzoic acid ?
(A) C6H5OCOCH3
(B) C6H5CONH2
(C) C6H5COOCH3
(D) C6H5OCOC6H5
16. Which of the compounds listed below will have highest boiling point ?
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
(B) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(C) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(D) CH3CH2OCH2CH3
18. The gas which is liberated from ethanol on heating with excess H2SO4, on reaction with
bromine produces
(A) CHBr2CHBr2
(B) CH3CH2Br
(C) CH2BrCH2Br
(D) C2H5OC2H5
(B) Ethanol
(C) Acetone
(B) A diketone
(C) A dialdehyde
23. The major of reaction of toluene with bromine in presence of bright sunlight is :
(A) ortho-bromotoluene
(B) meta-bromotoluene
(C) para-bromotoluene
24. Which of the following compound is formed from CH3MgBr on its reaction with HCOOH ?
(A) CH3COOH
(B) HCOOCH3
(C) CH4
(D) CH3COOCH3
Cl
H
I
C 2H5
H
Cl
CH3
II
(A) Enantiomers
(B) Diastereomers
(D) Identicals
26. The rate constant for two parallel reactions were found to be 1.010 2 dm3 mol1 s1 and
3.0 10 2 dm3 mol1 s1. If the corresponding energies of activation of parallel reactions
are 60.0 kJ mol1 and 70.0 kJ mol1 respectively, the apparent overall energy of activation
is :
(A) 130.0 kJ mol1
[Turn over
(C) viscosity
29. Which of the following statements is always true for a system at equilibrium under
conditions of constant temperature and pressure ?
(A) S > 0
(B) G = 0
(C) dG = dw'max
(D) G > 0
(B) NH4OH
(C) NH4+
(D) N2H4
(B) Dialysis
(D) Wavelength
35. What is the degeneracy of the energy level with n = 6 in a hydrogenic atom or ion ?
(A) 25
(B) 16
(C) 36
(D) 9
(C) ns and nd
(D) nd and nf
38. Which of the following statements about the kinetics of the reaction
H2(g) + Br2(g) 2HBr(g) is definitely true ?
(A) The reaction is first order with respect to bromine, Br2
(B) The reaction is second order overall
(C) The presence of hydrogen bromide, HBr, inhibits the rate of the reaction
(D) It is not possible to determine anything about the kinetics of the reaction from the stoichiometry
39. What is the degeneracy of the rotational energy level with J = 4 for a heteronuclear
diatomic molecule ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 9
40. One molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in :
(A) 1000 g of solvent
41. A line in the Paschen series of the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen is observed at
a wavenumber of 7800 cm1. Deduce the upper state principal quantum number for this
transition.
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 5
(B) a line
(C) an area
[Turn over
44. A sample of unknown gas at STP has a density of 0.630 g per litre. What is gram molecular
mass of this gas ?
(A) 2.81 g
(B) 14.1 g
(C) 22.4 g
(D) 63 g
45. Determine the de Broglie wavelength of an electron with a kinetic energy of 1.00 eV :
(A) 1.23 nm
(B) 28.7 pm
(C) 364 m
(D) 8.70
46. Which of the following would be correct units for the rate constant of a reaction that is
second order overall ?
(A) s1
48. Calculate the entropy change when 2.0 mol of a perfect gas A and 3.0 mol of a perfect
gas B mix spontaneously :
(A) +195 J K1
(B) +28 J K1
(C) 12 J K1
(D) 8.34 kJ K1
49. The energy released as heat when liquid propanone, CH3COCH3, is burned in a bomb
calorimeter at 298.15 K is 1788 kJ mol1. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of
propanone :
(A) +1790 kJ mol1
50. The vapour pressure of bromobenzene, C6H5Br, above an ideal-dilute aqueous solution
of molality 0.092 mol kg1 is 23.6 kPa. Calculate the Henry's law constant of
bromobenzene :
(A) 256 kPa kg mol1
(B) B3N3H6
(C) B6H10
(D) B6H12
52. Indicator used in the titration of acidified KMnO4 with ferrous sulphate is :
(A) phenolphthalein
(C) starch
53. Which of the following oxo-acids of chlorine have chlorine in the lowest oxidation state ?
(A) HClO4
(B) HClO3
(C) HClO2
(D) HClO
54. The number of pentagonal and hexagonal faces in C60 fullerene are :
(A) 12,20
(B) 12,25
(C) 12,28
(D) 16,20
(B) MgO
(C) AIN
(D) SiC
(B) sp
(C) sp3 d1
(D) sp3 d2
(B) (C2H5)4Pb
(C) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(D) CH3COONa
[Turn over
62. The effective atomic number of an inert gas is not attained in case of the following :
(atomic no. of Cr = 24, Fe=26, Co = 27)
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(B) [Fe(CO)5]
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4
(D) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
63. The element with symbol 'At.' belongs to which block of the periodic table ?
(A) s-block
(B) p-block
(C) d-block
(D) f-block
(B) Aqua-regia
(C) NH4OH
(D) Water
(B) yellow
(C) black
(D) green
(B) EDTA
(C) Pyridine
(D) F
(B) sp3
(C) dsp2
(D) dsp3
(B) 63.2
(C) 158.0
(D) 126.4
(B) 4p
(C) 4d
(D) 4f
(B) Mn
(C) Fe
(D) Cr
10
(B) 2.84
(C) 1.73
(D) 0
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 4
(D) Cu and Cu
(B) F3
(C) Cl3
(D) Br3
75. The coordination numbers of the cations and anions in CaF2 structure are :
(A) 6,6
(B) 8,4
(C) 4,4
(D) 4,8
11
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
12
297
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Words
In Figures
In Words
In
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
2.
Which of the following statements comes closer to describing the discipline of Computer
Science ? Computer Science is the study of :
(A) how to design programming languages
3.
4.
5.
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) 10
6.
(A) (x * y) mod m
(B) (x * y) div m
(C) (x * y)/m
(D) (x * y) m
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
[Turn over
8.
9.
(B) User-interfaces
(C) Reuse
The feature of object oriented program in which a specific class of objects receives the
features of a more general class describes :
(A) Inheritance
(B) Assignment
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Attribute
11. What activity was added in the spiral model that was not present in the waterfall model of
software development ?
(A) System Analysis
(D) Testing
12. In UNIX OS, the umask value that will cause directories to be created with permissions
rwxr-xx is :
(A) 751
(B) 046
(C) 026
(D) 021
13. Which of the following UNIX command will count the lines of all the .c and .h files in the
current working directory ?
(A) cat *.ch | wc I
(B) new()
(C) open()
(D) fork()
15. In UNIX shell script programming, if the terms $1 $2 $3 are used inside a script, to what
do they refer ?
(A) The last three commands submitted to the shell
(B) The three highest priority process IDs (PIDs)
(C) The current time, day of the month and year, respectively
(D) The command line arguments submitted to the script
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
(B) search
(C) grep
(D) find
17. It is known that UNIX OS has an inode-based file system. The file system has 512 byte
blocks. Each inode has 10 direct, 1 single indirect, 1 double indirect block, and 1 triple
indirect block pointer. Block pointers are 4 bytes each. Assume the inode and any block
free list is always in memory. Blocks are not cached. What is the maximum file size that
can be stored before the double indirect pointer needed ?
(A) 5 K
(B) 25 K
(C) 69 K
(D) 8261 K
18. A measure of the number of processes completed per time unit is called :
(A) Throughput
19. This concept means that the programs currently being executed are stored on disk and
portions of these programs are brought into memory as needed :
(A) Multiprocessing
(C) Spooling
(D) A scheduler
21. Which of the following C-declarations can be used to construct a linked list data
structure ?
(A) struct node {int element; node * next;};
22. The solution to the Towers of Hanoi problem with n disks requires :
(A) 2n moves
(B) 2n 1 moves
(C) 2n 2 moves
(D) 2n + 1 moves
23. What is the number of nodes in a full binary tree with eight levels ?
(A) 127
(B) 128
(C) 255
(D) 256
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
[Turn over
24. The maximum number of searches for a particular record among 32 records through
Binary search method will be :
(A) 16
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 2
(B) (12210.1)4
(C) (644.1)8
(D) (1A4.4)16
28. The value 10 in decimal number system will be equal to the value _______ in base-9
number system.
(A) 13
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
29. The addition of 4-bit, 2's compliment binary numbers 1101 and 0100 results in :
(A) 0001 and an overflow
30. The largest integer decimal value that can be stored in a 16-bit word with the leftmost bit
being used for the algebraic sign is :
(A) 16383
(B) 32767
(C) 65535
(D) 4096
31. What is the correct order of the operations in the instruction cycle ?
(A) Fetch, Execute, Decode, Update
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
32. Floating point numbers in a computer are represented using a 10-bit mantissa (including
a sign bit) and a 7-bit exponent (including a sign bit). What is the approximate value of
the maximum number, which can be represented ? Assume that the mantissa is stored in
the normalized from, that is, without leading zeroes.
(A) 2 128
(B) 2127
(C) 264
(D) 263
(B) FTP
(C) TELNET
(B) Half-duplex
(C) Full-duplex
(D) Automatic
(B) RJ-45
(C) RJ-11
(D) MSAU
36. Which of the following is the topology offering the highest level of redundancy, is easy to
troubleshoot but is expensive to install ? It is also the topology of the Internet.
(A) Ring
(B) Star
(C) Mesh
(D) Bus
37. A _________ is the standard or set of rules that two computers use to communicate with
each other.
(A) Modem
(B) Protocol
(C) Prototype
(D) Link
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
[Turn over
(A) myprog
(B) good
(C) morning
(D) Exception raised : "java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException : 2"
43. The value of arithmetic expression P : 12, 7, 3, -, /, 2, 1, 5, +, *, +, written in postfix
notation is :
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 18
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
(B) 75 MHz
(C) 750 Hz
(D) 75 Hz
48. A display is configured to show 65,536 colors. How many bytes are needed to store the
color information for one pixel ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 8
51. Events A and B are mutually exclusive and have non-zero probabilities. Which of the
following statements is true ?
(A) P(A B) = P(A) + P(B)
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
[Turn over
53. Which of the following formulae is most accurate for numerical integration ?
(A) Simpson's Rule
(D) GB
(B) SSL
(C) Authentication
59. Cookies were designed as a response to which problem in the original design of HTML
and HTTP ?
(A) Lack of privacy and confidentiality in viewing web-pages
(B) Inequality if information between clients and servers
(C) The open and distributed nature of the Internet
(D) Persistence of state between web-sessions
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
10
60. Nanosecond is :
(A) Thousandth of a second
a
T
b
(B) Equivalence (a = b)
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8
64. Who is original developer of Linux, the free Unix clone on the PC ?
(A) Bill Gates
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
11
[Turn over
66. Which of the following is responsible for the management and coordination of activities
and the sharing of the resources of the computer ?
(A) Application Software
(B) Motherboard
(D) RAM
(B) distinct
(C) check
(D) specific
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
12
71. What result set is returned from the following SQL query ?
Select customer_name, telephone
from customers
where city in ('Jaipur', 'New Delhi', 'Agra');
(A) The customer_name and telephone of all customers
(B) The customer_name and telephone of all customers living in either Jaipur, New Delhi or Agra
(C) The customer_name and telephone of all customers living in Jaipur and New Delhi and Agra
(D) The customer_name of all customers living in Jaipur, New Delhi or Agra
72. Programs such as Internet Explorer that serve as navigable windows into the Web are
called :
(A) Hypertext
(B) Networks
(C) Internet
(B) 11
(C) Error
75. In the context of web pages, The "C" in CSS stands for :
(A) "Concatenating"
(B) "Cascading"
(C) "Centering"
(D) "Controlling"
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
13
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M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
14
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358
15
192
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Maximum Marks : 75
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
In a nucleosome core particle, 146bp long double stranded DNA fragment is wound round
the histone octamer in about :
(A) 1.5 turns of a left handed supercoil
In E. coli, during DNA replication, leading and lagging strands are made by :
(A) DNA polymerase I and III respectively
(B) Triploid
(C) Tetraploid
(D) Hexaploid
(B) Cedrus
(C) Cycas
(D) Pinus
In Gymnosperms, if a somatic cell has chromosome number as 20, its endosperm will be
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 10
(B) Glomerule
(C) Coenobium
(D) Coenocytic
(D) Dictyostele
(B) Puccinia
(C) Colletotrichum
(D) Albugo
(B) Chloroplast
(D) Glyoxysomes
[Turn over
10. Stalk like structure with which an inflorescence is attached to the plant is known as :
(A) Petiole
(B) Pedicel
(C) Peduncle
(D) Plerome
(B) Confiquration
(C) Conformation
(B) Chloramphenicol
(C) Penicillin
(D) Alanine
13. Acetylene when bubbled through a solution of H2SO4 containing HgSO4 produces :
(A) Formaldehyde
(B) Acetone
(D) Acetaldehyde
(C) A nucleophile
(C) Butane
(B) Lconfigured
(C) Racemic
(D) Non-racemic
(B) ClCH2CHClCOOH
(C) Cl2CH.CH2COOH
(D) CH3.CCl2COOH
21. Which of the following atmospheric layers has the concentration of ozone ?
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Thermosphere
(B) ICICI
(C) NDC
(D) UPA
23. The point of origin of earthquake in the interior of earth is called ____ :
(A) Seismogram
(B) Epicentre
(C) Focus
(D) Richter
(B) Isolation
(C) Insolation
25. Which of the following places suffered a nuclear power plant disaster ?
(A) Jaitapur
(B) Fukushima
(C) Fatehabad
(D) Kudankulam
[Turn over
(B) Kolkata
(C) Dehradun
(D) Mumbai
31. The length of a rectangular garden is 2 feet longer than 3 times its width. If the perimeter
of the garden is 100 feet, find the length of the garden.
(A) 12
(B) 20
(C) 27
(D) 38
32. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 2 cms more than the longer side of the triangle. The
shorter side of the triangle is 7cms less than the longer side. Find the length of the
hypotenuse.
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 17
(D) 20
33. If f is a linear function such that f(1) = 5 and f(3) = 9, then f(2) =
(A) 0
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 10
34. The product of two consecutive positive odd integers is equal to 675. Then their sum is :
(A) 48
(B) 52
(C) 60
(D) 64
35. At 9 am a car (A) began a journey from a point, travelling at 40 kmph. At 10 am another
car (B) started travelling from the same point at 60 Kmph in the same direction as car
(A). At what time will car B pass car A ?
(A) 12 pm
(B) 1 pm
(C) 11 am
(D) 3 pm
36. A swimming pool can be filled by pipe A in 3 hours and by pipe B in 6 hours, each pump
working on its own. At 9 am pump A is started. At what time will the swimming pool be
filled if pump B is started at 10 am ?
37.
(A) 11 am
(B) 11.10 am
(C) 11.20 am
(D) 11.45 am
n =1 (2n + 1/2) =
10
(A) 115
(B) 65
(C) 55
(D) 40
38. A chemist has a 20% and a 40% acid solutions. What amount of 20% solution should be
used in order to make 300 ml of a 28% acid solution ?
(A) 200 ml
(B) 180 ml
(C) 120 ml
(D) 100 ml
39. A number increased from 120 to 150. By what percent, of its original value, did this
number increase ?
(A) 25
(B) 20
(C) 40
(D) 10
40. A number of the form 213ab, where a and b are digits, has a reminder less than 10 when
divided by 100. The sum of all the digits in the above number is equal to 13. Find the digit
b.
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(B) 6.5
(C) 6
(D) 6 and 7
42. Which of the following statements is true about the relation between standard deviation
and variance v ?
(A) = v2
(B) v = 2
(C) v =
(D) There is no systematic relation between standard deviation and variance.
43. What is/ are the modes for the data : 1, 4, 8, 8, 9, 7, 6, 9, 8, 9, 7, 7, 5, 3.
(A) 6
(B) 7.8
(C) 8
(D) 7, 8 and 9
[Turn over
44. The mean of the 10 terms of a data is 14. The mean of these first five terms is 12. Then
the mean of the next five terms is :
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 18
45. The mean of a set of data is 5 and its standard deviation is 2. The z score for a value of 9
is :
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.6
(D) 2
46. A quadrilateral ABCD has 1 g mass located at each of its vertices A (1, 2,2) B(3,2,1),
C(1,2,4) and D(3,1,2). The coordinates of centre of mass are :
(A) (3, 2, 1)
(B) (6,1,7)
(C) (6,1,7)
(D) (3,2,1)
47. In beta decay, the particle emitted along with the positron is :
(A) neutrino
(B) muon
(C) pion
(D) antineutrino
50. The correct order for the e.m. waves in the decreasing order of frequencies is :
(A) X-rays, IR, UV, Microwaves and Radio waves
(B) X-rays, Microwaves, UV, IR and Radio waves
(C) X-rays, UV, IR, Microwaves and Radio waves
(D) X-rays, UV, IR, Radio waves and Microwaves
51. The X-rays of wavelength10.0 pico meter are compton scattered from electrons in a
target. The wavelength of the backscattered x-rays will be :
(A) 4.9 picometer
52. A carbon resistor is colour coded with bands yellow, violet, brown and silver. Its value is :
(A) 4700 ohm + 5%
53. A wire of resistance 10 ohm is bent to form a complete circle. The resistance between
two diametrically opposite points is :
(A) 2.5 ohm
(C) 20 ohm
3
8
(B)
3
4
2
3
(D)
8
8
56. Which of the following animals has the maximum level of mixing of the oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood in its ventricle ?
(C)
(A) Fish
(B) Frog
(C) Snake
(D) Crocodile
(B) Hypothalamus
(D) Cerebellum
58. Digestive enzymes are released by the pancreas and bile is related by the liver, in
response of the hormone :
(A) Insulin
(B) Zymogen
(C) Cholecystokinin
(D) Secretin
59. In the flame cell system of a planarian, materials are drained directly from the :
(A) Blood
(B) Lymph
(D) Coelom
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Dopamine
(D) Acetylcholine
(B) DNA
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Fructose
[Turn over
(B) Habitat
(C) Range
(D) Territory
(B) Lobster
(C) Millipede
(B) Humerus
(C) Pelvic
(D) Sternum
(B) Siachen
(C) Leh
(D) Anantnag
(B) Kolkata
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Nagpur
(B) March 22
(C) April 22
(D) June 5
(B) English
(C) Latin
(D) German
(C) R K Pachauri
10
73. Which of the Crickters has the honour to complete 100 centuries ?
(A) Sunil Gavasker
(B) S R Ramachandran
75. What is the full form of MHOW, the cantonment town in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Main Headquarters of Windows
11
ROUGH WORK
12
160
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
2.
3.
4.
r
r r
A when A = yx + xy is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) zero
(B) 2
(C)
(D) zero
When one gram of matter is converted into matter, the released energy is equal to :
(A) 3 109 joules
(C)
5.
zxy1
2
6.
7.
8.
9.
3
NKT
2
(B)
NKT
(D) 3 NKT
(B) 1.6 eV
(C) 0.016 eV
(D) 16 eV
(B) 170oK
(C) 120oK
(D) 4 oK
(B) F
(C) pF
(D) milli F
c Compton
To observe Compton effect, the wavelength of incoming photons should be (
wavelength) :
(A) << c
(B) c
(C) >> c
(D) 6000 A
The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then the energy of first excited state
is :
(A) 13.6 eV
(B) 3.40 eV
(C) 3.4 eV
(D) 13.6 eV
[Turn over
(B) p
(C) e
(D) n
(B) Nucleotide
(B) Epimers
(C) Enantiomers
(D) Conformors
) and pi (
) bonds in CH2 = CH2 is :
13. The number of Sigma (
(A) 1 and 5
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 3
(D) 4 and 2
14. Natural proteins are macromolecules consisting of amino acids which are :
(A) Racemic
(B) Non-racemic
(C) L-configured
(D) D-configured
Cl
Ph
CH3
Ph
Cl
II
(A) Enantiomers
(B) Diastereomers
(C) Conformors
(B) F3CCOOH
(C) F2CClCOOH
(D) Cl2CHCOOH
(C) Conformation
(D) Configuration
(D) Racemic
(B) Hybridization
(D) Planarity
21. The most reactive derivative of carboxylic acid towards substitution at carbonyl carbon
is :
(A) An ester
(B) An amide
(D) An anhydride
(B) 5 g
(C) 0.5 g
(D) 0.25 g
(B) Molarity
(C) Normality
(B) 06
(C) 10
(D) 14
(B) KOH
(C) KMnO4
27. 0.1 mole of ethylene will absorb how many grams of bromine (At. wt of Bromine is 80) ?
(A) 16
(B) 08
(C) 04
(D) 02
28. Which of the following halogen acids will boil at higher temperature ?
(A) HF
(B) HCl
(C) HBr
(D) HI
[Turn over
29. Which of the following orbitals has its four lobes along the x and y-axis ?
(A) dxz
(B) dyz
(C) dzx
(D) dx2 y2
(B) 01
(C) 10
(D) 14
31. The sides of a triangular plot are in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 and its perimeter is 300 m.
Its area is :
(A) 1500 sq.m.
32. The probability that a leap year selected at random will have 53 Sundays is :
(A) 1/5
(B) 1/7
(C) 2/5
(D) 2/7
33. The largest positive integer that will divide 398, 436 and 542, leaving remainders 7, 11,
and 15 respectively is :
(A) 17
(B) 19
(C) 21
(D) 15
34. A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination
1500 km. away in time it has to increase its speed by 250 km/hr from its usual speed. Its
usual speed is :
(A) 700 km/hr
35. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of
their ages (in years) was 124. The present age of father is :
(A) 37 years
(B) 36 years
(C) 39 years
(D) 40 years
36. A man arranges to pay off a debt of Rs. 3600 by 40 annual instalments which increase by
a fixed amount every year. When 30 of the instalments are paid, he dies leaving onethird of the debt unpaid. The first instalment is :
(A) Rs. 51
(B) Rs. 50
(C) Rs. 49
(D) Rs. 52
37. The height of a tower is 10 m. The length of its shadow when sun's altitude is 45o is :
(A) 12 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 5 m
(D) 10 m
(B) 10 cm
(C) 8 cm
(D) 6 cm
39. On selling a tea-set at 5% loss and a lemon-set at 15% gain, a crockery-seller gains
Rs. 7. If he sells the tea-set at 5% gain and the lemon set at 10% gain, he gains Rs. 13.
The cost price of tea set is :
(A) Rs. 100
(B) Rs. 80
(C) Rs. 90
40. A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 20. If 9 is added to the number,
the digits interchange their places. The number is :
(A) 54
(B) 45
(C) 36
(D) 20
(D) Polypeptides
(C) Cellulose
(D) Collagen
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Chloroplast
(B) Epistasis
(C) Homeostasis
(B) 47
(C) 48
(D) 49
(B) Nullisomy
(C) Haploidy
(D) Monosomy
[Turn over
(B) Cholesterol
(C) Cortisone
(D) Antihistamine
(B) H1
(C) H2B
(D) H3
(B) Spermatogenesis
(C) Aspermis
(D) Polyspermy
(B) Megaspore
(C) Microspore
(B) Gibberellins
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Ethylene
(B) Pancreas
(C) Stomach
(D) Intestines
(B) Nucleolus
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Nucleosome
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(C) H-factor
(D) Phenylketonuria
(C) Translocation
(D) Deletion
ii.
(B) i to iii
(C) i to iv
(D) i, ii and iv
(B) Serotonin
(C) Ephedrine
(D) Epinephrine
(B) Anti B
(D) None
64. The following drugs are used in treating malaria; identify the one derived from the plant :
(A) Chloroquine
(B) Artemisinin
(C) Primaquine
(D) Quinacrine
65. An ingredient used in a drug formulation without any therapeutic action is called :
(A) Excipient
(B) Synergist
(C) Antioxidant
(D) Antagonist
[Turn over
66. Which one of the following shall not affect the bioavailability of a drug ?
i.
Route of administration
ii.
Rate of absorption
(B) ii to iv
(C) ii and iv
qualitative analysis
ii.
quantitative analysis
(C) ii to iv
(D) i, ii and iv
(B) Lucknow
(C) Delhi
(D) Kolkata
(D) Between 2 to 3 h
10
ii.
(C) i and ii
72. A drug molecule can be marketed after establishing its safety and efficacy in :
(A) experimental animals
(B) Concentration
(C) pH
(D) Temperature
11
ROUGH WORK
12
152
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Maximum Marks : 75
2.
The output of the Nicol prism, when monochromatic natural light is incident on it, is :
(A) Ordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(B) Extraordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
(C) Extraordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(D) Ordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
3.
4.
The radius of carbon atom in the diamond crystal structure having cubic unit cell
edge 16 3 nm is :
5.
(A) 6 nm
(B) 8 nm
(C) 16 3 nm
(D) 8 3 nm
6.
7.
(B) 1Debye=3.331028 cm
(C) 1Debye=31032 cm
(D) 1Debye=31029 cm
[Turn over
8.
9.
The ratio E(axial)/E(Equatorial) between axial and equatorial electric fields due to a
short electric dipole is :
(A) 1.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.5
(B) Bremmstahlung
13. For the alpha decay from natural radionuclides, which of the following observations does
not hold true ?
(A) The emission of alpha particle takes place following tunnelling of barrier
(B) The energetic alpha particles are emitted by radionuclide with shorter half life
(C) The energy required by alpha particle to penetrate a radionuclide is much smaller than the
kinetic energy of alpha particle emitted by that radionuclide
(D) The alpha decaying radionuclides have mass number greater than 200.
14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a under-damped oscillating systems ?
(A) Frequency of oscillations is lower than that for free oscillator
(B) Amplitude of oscillations decreases with each oscillation
(C) Energy of the oscillating system remains conserved throughout the process of oscillation
(D) Dissipative forces are smaller than the restoring forces
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356
15. Calculate the maximum current in the RC harmonic oscillator consisting of inductance of
F, when maximum voltage across the capacitor is 0.1V.
0.2mH and capacitance of 5.12
(A) 16mA
(B) 8mA
(C) 4mA
(D) 10mA
16. The Poynting vector associated with an electromagnetic wave gives the information
about :
(A) Energy flux and direction of propagation of EM wave
(B) Frequency of EM wave
(C) Rate of oscillations of electric and magnetic field intensities
(D) Dispersive power of the medium through which EM wave is propagating
17. The ferromagnetic materials are characterized by :
(A) Negative value of susceptibility
(B) 66.7 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 125 cm
20. The planets revolving around the sun in the solar system obey the law, relating their time
period of revolution and average radius of orbit, expressed as :
(A) T r3
(B) T2 r3
(C) T2 r5
(D) T r
21. A bright nail is placed in a beaker containing aqueous copper sulphate solution. The nail
is taken out after 20 minutes. The deposit formed on iron nail is of :
(A) Copper sulphate
[Turn over
22. A liquid is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves no residue when passed through the
filter paper. The liquid can be classified as :
(A) Oil
(C) A suspension
23. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated
nitric acid, gives :
(A) 2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzene
(B) o-nitrophenol
(C) p-nitrophenol
(D) nitrobenzene
24. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the
oxides and not subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly ?
(A) Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2
(B) CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than CS2
(C) Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides
(D) CO2 is more volatile than CS2
25. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
(A) Sodium chloride is a covalently bonded solid
(B) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six
(C) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase
(D) B2H6.2NH3 is known as inorganic benzene
26. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4
solution in the presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried
out in the presence of HCl, because HCl :
(A) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine
(B) furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid
(C) reduces permanganate to Mn2+
(D) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water
27. The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO2) (NH3)5]Cl2 is :
(A) Nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (III) chloride
(B) Nitrito-N pentaamminecobalt (II) chloride
(C) Pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (II) chloride
(D) Pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356
[Turn over
36. If t of a reaction is halved as the initial concentration of the reaction is doubled. Then
the reaction is :
(A) First order
(B) 78 degrees C
(D) 18 degrees C
38. Addition of solid NaNO3 to a saturated solution of sodium chloride causes crystallization
of solid sodium chloride this can be explained on the basis of :
(A) Le Chateliers principle
40. In the given figure the carbon atom C2 is rotated anticlockwise by 120 about the C2-C3
axis, then the resultant conformation is :
1 CH3
H
H
2
H
(A) gauche
3
H
4 CH3
(B) eclipsed
(C) staggered
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356
(B) hL/k
(C) t/L2
(D) hk/L
(C) boron
(D) selenium
(B) C2H4
(C) CH3CH2OH
(D) HOCH2CH2OH
(B) Protein
(C) Cellulose
[Turn over
(B) Polypropylene
(C) Polystyrene
(C) Pharmaceutical
(B) Bakelite
(C) Polystyrene
10
(B) Polyisoprene
(C) Polybutadiene
(D) Polypropylene
+ icos 2
)4 (sin icos )3 ?
61. What is the imaginary part of (sin 2
(A) sin 11
(B) cos 11
(C) sin 11
(D) cos 11
(D) No solution
5 3
(B) 5, 5
(C) 2, 8
(D) 1, 9
1
z2
1
1
is :
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 1
(D) 2
65. What is the equation of the cone with vertex at origin and passing through the circle
x2 + y2 = 4, z = 2 ?
(A) x2 + y2 + z2 = 0
(B) x2 + y2 z2 = 0
(C) x2 y2 + z2 = 0
(D) x2 + y2 + z2 = 0
11
[Turn over
3
66. The value of [(2x y ) dx + xydy] , where c is the region enclosed by |z| = 1 and |z| = 3
c
is :
(A) 60
(B) 60
(C) 0
(D) 8
67. The radius of curvature at the origin for the curve x3 + y3 2x2 + 6y = 0 is :
(A)
(B) 1
(C)
(D) 2
3/2
x4 + y 4
, show that x u + y u is equal to :
68. If u = loge
x+y
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
69.
is equal to :
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/32
(C) /32
(D) /4
70. For
d2y
dx 2
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
1
s(s 2 + 1)
is :
(A) 1 + sin t
(B) 1 sin t
(C) 1 + cos t
(D) 1 cos t
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 1
12
P2 (x) dx , is equal to :
2
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2/3
(D) 2/5
74. The number of all possible matrices of order 2 2 with each element 0 or 1 is :
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 32
75. If f(x) =
4x
2 + 4x
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
13
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
14
ROUGH WORK
15
76
Sr. No.
Important : Please consult your Admit Card/Roll No. Slip before
filling your Roll Number on the Question Paper cum Answer Sheet
OCET 2012
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
Time : 90 minutes
Maximum Marks : 75
Question Details :
Part I
= 50 marks
Part II
= 25 marks
52
53
54
Marks
Secured
Signatures :
Total
in figures
in words
Invigilator
Evaluator
Checking Assistant
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work, only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/A
PARTI
1.
2.
3.
4.
(B) 13 Schedules
(C) 12 Schedules
(D) 11 Schedules
5.
6.
Recently Gujarat High Court was asked to issue a Writ of Mandamus to the Centre as
well as the state government to make it mandatory for manufacturers of goods to print
the product details like price, ingredients and the date of manufacture in Hindi. However
the Hon'ble court refused to oblige on the plea that :
(A) Hindi is not our national language
(B) Hindi is not our official language
(C) Hindi is not a state language
(D) This direction would not be acceptable to non Hindi states
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
[Turn over
7.
8.
9.
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, 2012 shall be held from :
(A) June 10-12, 2012
(B) Chinese
(C) French
(D) Kannada
Name the winner of General non-fiction category of Pulitzer Prize for the year 2012 :
(A) Stephen Greenblatt
(B) Kamba
(C) Kalidas
(D) Tulsidas
12. The song Jana-gana-mana was first published under the title :
(A) Gana jagrati
13. Who popularized the famous slogan "Satyameva Jayate" (Truth alone will triumph) :
(A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
15. Who has the right to vote in the election of the members of both the lower and upper
houses of the parliament ?
(A) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(B) Members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Elected members of State Legislative Council
(D) Elected members of State Legislative Assembly
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
16. When a chief minister is disqualified from voting in the election of President of India ?
(A) If he himself contests the election
(B) If he has been asked to prove his majority on the floor of the State Legislative Assembly
(C) If he is a member of the State Legislative Council
(D) If he belongs to the same political party to which the presidential candidate belongs
17. The Supreme Court has the power to grant Special Leave to Appeal against the orders of
the lower courts and tribunals under :
(A) Article 226 of the constitution
18. Which Article of the Constitution gives to the High Court control over the subordinate
courts of the concerned state ?
(A) Article 226 of the constitution
19. A political party could be registered as a national party after inter alia it has secured at
least :
(A) 8% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of six states
(B) 9% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of seven states
(C) 14% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of three states
(D) 6% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of four states
20. A product advertisement is designed to appeal mainly :
(A) the manufacturers
Instructions : In the following 5 questions, two statements have been marked as assertion (a)
and reason(r). In the context of the given statements select the correct options :
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct explanation for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct explanation for (a)
(C) (a) is true but (r) is false
(D) (a) is false but (r) is true
21. Assertion :
(a) The Chapter III of our constitution is based on American model of constitutional rights
Reason :
(r) The fundamental rights are enforceable.
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
[Turn over
22. Assertion :
(a) To contest the election of Vice President of India the candidate must be qualified for election
as member of Rajya Sabha
Reason :
(r) The Vice President of India acts as the ex officio chairman of Rajya Sabha
23. Assertion :
(a) Articles 35 to 51 laid down the Directive Principles of the State Policy
Reason :
(r) The Directive Principles of the State Policy enshrine the fundamental principles to be followed
by the governments while framing laws and policies
24. Assertion :
(a) By rule of law we ordinarily mean supremacy of law
Reason :
(r) This means that parliament is free to enact any type of law
25. Assertion :
(a) X marries another woman while his lawfully wedded wife is still alive
Reason :
(r) This indicated that he has divorced his first wife
Select the appropriate answer for each of the following 5 questions on the basis of the given
principle and the facts :
26. PRINCIPLE : Attempt is not an offence until it is an attempt to commit an offence
punishable with imprisonment.
FACTS : Z makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, and finds
after so opening the box, that there is no jewel in it.
(A) Z has done an act towards the commission of theft and therefore is guilty
(B) In the absence of the definition of offence in the stated Principle it cannot be said that Z is
guilty
(C) The stated Principle neither defines the offence nor specifies that the said offence is punishable
with imprisonment. So the position is unclear
(D) Police should arrest Z and produce him before the magistrate as only the court has the
authority to decide his guilt or innocence
27. PRINCIPLE : When anyone uses his property in such a manner as to cause damage to
others, he commits the wrongful act of private nuisance.
FACTS : X and Y are the owners of adjoining flats. X leased his flat to R an AIDS patient
and activist. Fearing the spread of the disease, Y's tenant vacated his flat and since then
no tenant is ready to move in Y's flat. Y repeatedly requested X to change his tenant, but
to no use. Now Y has filed a suit against X for causing private nuisance.
(A) Y will win in the court as X has knowingly caused him financial loss
(B) Y will fail in his case as X has a right to put his flat to any use as per his choice
(C) Y's claim will fall as X could not be held responsible for wrong beliefs and notions of the people
(D) Y will win the case as X has not listened to his repeated requests
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
28. PRINCIPLE : Confession made in the court should be free and voluntary.
FACTS : Sumeet wanted to give an expensive gift to his girl friend on her birthday. But
he did not have the enough money. So he snatched a gold chain from an old lady. Police
arrested Sumeet on suspicion and in the lock up the investigating officer told him that if
he would admit his guilt he shall be set free. Sumeet confesses his guilt in the court.
(A) Sumeet shall be released as he admitted his guilt
(B) Court will set him free because of his truthfulness
(C) Sumeet shall not be punished as the police officer has promised him release
(D) Sumeet shall not be punished merely on the basis of this suggested confession
29. PRINCIPLE : Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a
minor is void.
FACTS : Rohit and Prachi were deeply in love and wanted to marry each other. But their
parents were strongly opposed to the idea as they belonged to different castes. Ultimately
they were compelled to execute an agreement in the presence of a lawyer stating that
they shall not marry each other and the same was signed by their parents as witnesses.
Thereafter both of them fled away from home and solemnized their marriage.
(A) Their marriage is void as they have broken their agreement
(B) Their marriage is voidable and could be declared invalid by any one of them
(C) Their marriage is valid despite the violation of the agreement executed by them
(D) Their marriage is voidable till it is accepted by their parents
30. PRINCIPLE : Anticipatory bail could be granted to any person who apprehends arrest
for a non bailable offence.
FACTS : Z publishes a defamatory statement against a state minister in a local daily.
Police registers a case of defamation, a bailable offence against Z. He files an application
in Supreme Court asking for anticipatory bail.
(A) His application shall be rejected by Supreme Court for want of jurisdiction
(B) His application shall be rejected due to limited circulation of the newspaper
(C) His application shall be entertained by the court as it involves the denial of personal liberty
of Z
(D) His application shall be returned as non maintainable
31. The statement by a victim as to the cause of his death is called :
(A) Res Judicata
(B) Estoppel
(C) Inquest
(D) Dying Declaration
32. Which of the following is not a fundamental right ?
(A) Right to Property
(B) Right to Education
(C) Freedom of Speech and Expression
(D) Protection against Double Jeopardy
33. The term unliquidated damages stands for :
(A) Damages caused by a thing which is not a liquid
(B) The damages to be assessed by court
(C) The damages caused to a partner of liquidated firm
(D) The damages caused to a liquidated firm
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
[Turn over
34. A written statement under oath and signed by the maker as a true statement is called :
(A) Testimony
(B) Affidavit
(C) Contract
(D) Legal Declaration
35. Who is considered as the 'Father of Induced Breeding' in India ?
(A) Satish Dhawan
36. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendations
of :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Jains
(C) Buddhists
(D) Christian
(B) Fine
Choose the alternative which expresses best, the meaning of the given phrase.
41. Talking through one's hat :
(A) To talk straight
(B) Serene
(C) Stoic
(D) Enduring
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
44. Proscription :
(A) Contribution
(B) Prohibition
(C) Prediction
(D) Subscription
(B) Terrorist
(C) Misanthrope
(D) Misogynist
(C) Bhutan
(D) Pakistan
47. The judge of Supreme Court holds office till the age of :
(A) 60 years
(B) 63 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 62 years
49. Name the member of Rajya Sabha who was recently in news for demanding change of
his/ her seat number :
(A) Rekha
(C) Dharaminder
[Turn over
understand its personality, to demystify its behaviour." "If we, as a species, are the
ultimate product of Darwinian selection, then so, too, is this incredible disease that lurks
inside us." Mukherjee weaves together multiple stories about medical advances, doctors
and scientists, and the patients who teach us something in the living or dying. Emperor is
a historical account of cancer; we understand how cancer rose to prominence as a leading
cause of deathas a direct result of human beings living longer now, and more likely to
develop cancer. A greater understanding of the disease however comes with the caveat,
the more you know, and the more aware you are of how much you don't know. Another
doctor/author who combines the three key ingredients that make Emperor such an unputdownable readmedical expertise, literary elegance and the ability to tell a story
is Abraham Verghese. His first two books, My Own Country : A Doctor's Story of a Town
and Its People in the Age of AIDS and The Tennis Partner are gripping and finely crafted
more, they are candid and compassionate. The doctor's story is worth listening to, as
well, hence the popularity of the medical memoir. In Heart Matters : A Memoir of a
Female Heart Surgeon, author Kathy Magliato Strikes a chord when she describes "the
thrill of touching the human heart". As one of the world's very few female heart surgeons,
she offers a different viewpoint on what is largely regarded as a male preserve. Medical
books deal with a subject close to our heartsus, we, ourselves. Perhaps the ones we
are most drawn tothrillers asideare those that give us a deeper insight into how the
mind-body machine works, why we are sick, how we can get betterand, unhappily,
sometimes, why we can't. The doctor-author hyphenates are some of the most talented
storytellers in this field; so when you next get a prescription from your doctor, bear in
mind that within that undecipherable scrawl could lurk the beginnings of a literary
masterpiece.
Answer the following questions :
(15=5)
(i) Which key elements, according to the author, make a medical non-fictional book irresistible
read ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(ii) Why the author of the passage has specially referred to 'the thrill of touching the human
heart' ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(iii) Write down two relationships between humans and cancer ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
10
(iv) Why more and more medical books are appearing on the bestsellers list ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(v) Why Siddhartha Mukherjee calls his book "a biography in the truest sense of the word" ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Write down meaning of the terms (from the above passage) :
(15=5)
(vi) Undecipherable scrawl
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(vii) Memoir
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(viii) Caveat
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(ix) Insidious
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(x) Hyperbole
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
52. Fill up the blanks with suitable words :
(i) They stepped ------------ and began ------------ talk around
(15=5)
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
11
[Turn over
(iii) When the children are ------------ bed, let's listen to music ------------ the radio.
Right to Education
Telemedicine
Legal Profession
Indian Democracy
Child Exploitation
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
12
(15=5)
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
13
[Turn over
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
(15=5)
14
ROUGH WORK
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A
15
540
OCET-2012
Booklet Series Code : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(B) 5 June
(C) 3 May
(D) 10 December
(B) Australia
(C) England
(D) Bangladesh
Who was the Chief Guest at the 63rd Republic Day of India ?
(A) Yingluck Shinawatra
(B) Colombo
(C) Maldives
(D) Nepal
As per census data of 2011, nearly how much population of Indians still live in villages ?
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 65%
(D) 60%
10. 4th Summit of leaders of BRICS nations was held in March 2012 in :
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Brazil
[Turn over
(C) Bentham
(D) Kelsen
12. Who said that law is not universal in its nature. It is like a language, it varies with people
and age ?
(A) Savigny
13. "The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to
contract".
(A) Puchta
(C) Holland
(D) Goodhart
(B) Immunity
(C) No Right
(D) Power
(B) Disability
(C) Immunity
(D) Duty
19. Which school was of the view that law should be studied separately from morals ?
(A) Historical School
(B) Duguit
(C) Pound
(D) Austin
[Turn over
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1950
33. Under which statutory provision the concerned worker enjoys protection during
pendency of proceedings ?
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 29
(C) Section 33
(D) Section 36
34. After the expiry of how many days an award becomes operative :
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 30 days from the date of publication of the award by the appropriate government
(D) 60 days from the date on which it is signed by the presiding officer
35. A company is called a government company :
(A) in which 51% shares are held by the government
(B) in which 3/4th of the shares are held by the government
(C) majority of the shares are held by the central government
(D) majority of the shares are held by the central and/or state governments
36. Maximum members in a private company cannot be more than :
(A) 25
(B) 50
(D) 100
(B) 7 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members
(B) Unlawful
(C) Void
(D) Unenforceable
(B) Voidable
(C) Unlawful
[Turn over
(B) 13 judges
(C) 15 judges
(D) 18 judges
(B) 1946
(C) 1948
(D) 1950
43. Mention regarding the material sources of International Law can be found in :
(A) U.N. Charter
(B) Holland
(C) Austin
(D) Oppenheim
46. 'Service' defined under Consumer Protection Act does not include :
(A) Professional Service
47. What is the limitation period within which a complaint can be filed under the Consumer
Protection Act ?
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 4 years
50. Crime is a :
(A) Private wrong
51. "Fraudulent intention" has been defined as "intention to defraud but not otherwise" in
the IPC section :
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 27
52. Under which section of IPC, an act of a child under the age of 7 years is not considered as
an offence :
(A) 81
(B) 82
(C) 83
(D) 84
53. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act deals with "Maintenance, 'pendente lite' and
expenses of proceedings" ?
(A) 23
(B) 23A
(C) 24
(D) 25
54. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, which of the following persons is not
capable of giving a child in adoption ?
(A) Father
(B) Mother
(C) Guardian having the capacity to give the child in adoption
(D) Grandparent
55. Which report of the Law Commission has recommended that irretrievable breakdown of
marriage should be a ground of divorce ?
(A) 69th
(B) 70th
(C) 71st
(D) 72nd
57. In the case of State of Uttranchal v. Balwant Singh (2011), the Supreme Court has given
important directions with regard to :
(A) Appointment of judges
58. Right to enforce which articles of the Constitution cannot be suspended during
emergency :
(A) 19, 21
(B) 20, 21
(C) 21, 22
(D) 19, 20
[Turn over
(B) 2002
(C) 2005
(D) 2007
60. Under Article 21-A, the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children
of the age :
(A) below 6 years
(D) 6 to 14 years
61. Which of the following articles was added by 1st Amendment to the Constitution ?
(A) Article 15(4)
(B) 44th
(C) 48th
(D) 52nd
63. In which case, the Supreme Court upheld the passive euthanasia ?
(A) Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010)
64. Which article of the Constitution deals with the right of the President to address and
send messages to the houses ?
(A) 83
(B) 84
(C) 85
(D) 86
65. What is the period for which the member of either house of Parliament if remains absent
from all meetings without the permission of the house, the house may declare his seat
vacant ?
(A) 40 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(B) Municipalities
(D) Tribunals
(B) 20(2)
(C) 20(3)
(D) 21
10
68. The minimum strength of Council of Ministers including the Chief Minister cannot be
less than :
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 20
69. Which article of the Constitution deals with the duties of the Prime Minister as respects
the furnishing of information to the President ?
(A) 76
(B) 77
(C) 78
(D) 79
70. In which year the ground of 'internal disturbance' was substituted by 'armed rebellion'
for imposition of National Emergency ?
(A) 1976
(B) 1978
(C) 1980
(D) 1985
(B) 99
(C) 100
(D) 101
72. Who presides over the joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament ?
(A) Vice President
(B) President
(D) Speaker
74. 'Financial Emergency', if imposed and approved by both the houses of Parliament, can
remain in force :
(A) for 6 months
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23
11
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
12
103
OCET-2012
Sr. No. :
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(B) 2n
(C) n
(D) n 1
(B) A = A2
(C) A = I
(D) A = A3
For any homogeneous system Ax = 0, where A is a non zero matrix of order 3 4. Then the
number of linearly independent solutions of the system are
(A) At the most 3
(B) 0
(D) 3
(B) |A| = 1
(C) |A| = 1
(D) |A| = 4
Let V be a vector space of dimension 6. Let V1 & V2 be two subspaces of V, each of dimension
4. Then
(A) V1 V2 =
(B) V1 V2 = 0
(C) V1 V2 0
(D) V1 V2 = V
(C) A is singular
(D) A is symmetric
x1
The points (x1, y1), (x2, y2), (x3, y3) are collinear if and only if the rank of matrix x 2
x
3
(A) less than 3
y1 1
y 2 1 is
y 3 1
[Turn over
9.
x 2 y2
+
= 1 is
The locus of a point of intersection of two perpendicular tangents to the ellipse
4
9
given by
(A) x2 + y2 = 36
(B) xy = 36
(C) x2 + y2 = 13
(D) x + y = 5
10. Condition that the line lx + my + n = 0 (l, n 0) touches the parabola y2 = 4ax is
(A)
an
= m2
l
l
= n2
am 2
(B)
am 2
(C) n =
l
(D) n =
l
am 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 1
12. The cone ax 2 + by 2 + cz 2 + 2fyz + 2gzx + 2hxy = 0 admits of sets of three mutually
perpendicular generators if and only if
(A) a = b + c
(B) b = a + c
(C) a = b + c
(D) c = a + b
13. Semivertical angle of a right circular cone with three mutually perpendicular generators is
(A) cot1
(C) cos1
( 2)
sin1 ( 2 )
(B) tan1
( 2)
(D)
14. If two spheres of radii r1 and r2 cut orthogonally, then the radius of the common circle is
(A) r1r2
(B)
(D)
n =2
r12 + r22
r1r2
r12 + r22
1
,p>0
n(logn) p
16. Between any two real roots of ex sin x = 1, there is at least one real root of
(A) ex cos x + 1 = 0
(B) ex cos x + 1 = 0
(C) ex cos x 1 = 0
(D) ex sin x 1 = 0
x, x irrational
17. The function f(x) =
is
x, x is rational
(A) Continuous everywhere
18. The curve through point (1, 0) and having at each of its points the slope x/y is
(A) x2 y2 = 1
(B) x2 + y2 = 1
(C) x2 + y2 = 2
(D) x2 y2 = 2
dy 3 3 y
(x y e xy) + 3x2y3ey + y3 + y2 = 0 is
dx
(A)
1
y2
(B)
1
y3
(C)
1
y
(D)
3
y2
1
2
n
(x) dx is
(A)
1
2n + 1
(B)
2
2n 1
(C)
1
2n 1
(D)
2
2n + 1
1
is
s(s + 9)
2
(A)
1
(1 cos 3t)
9
(B)
1
(1 cos 3t)
3
(C)
1
(1 cos t)
9
(D)
1
(1 + cos t)
3
[Turn over
22. If f(t) for t 0 be a continuous function and of exponential order on [0, ) such that f(0) = 0
then Laplace transform of f '(t) is
(A) SF(s)
(B)
F(s)
s
(C) S2F(s)
(D)
F(s)
s2
23. Solution of the equation x(y2 a2)dx + y(x2 z2)dy z(y2 a2)dz = 0 is
(A)
(x2
z2 )
(y2
a 2)
x 2 z2
=c
(B) 2
y a2
=c
y2 + a 2
(C) 2 2 = c
x z
1
1
1
1
+
+
+ ..... +
+ ..... has the sum
2.3 3.4 4.5
(n + 1)(n + 2)
(A) 1
(C)
1
3
(D)
1
2
(B)
n =1
3n 1 1
is
6n 1
(A)
1
5
(B)
2
5
(C)
3
5
(D)
4
5
x4
26. The limit of the function f(x, y) = 4
as (x, y) (0, 0) is
x + y2
1
2
(A) 1
(B)
(C) 0
x2 +y 2
2
(e 1)
2
(B)
(C)
(D)
dx2
24 (xe ++1)1)
p
(A) 2
(B) 2 +
(C) 2
(D) 2 +
n =1
1
is
n(n + 1)
(A) 2
(B)
1
2
(C) 1
(D)
1
3
(B) 2
(D)
[Turn over
32. The work done by the conservative field F = yzi + xzj + xyk along any smooth curve C joining
point A (1, 3, 9) to B(1, 6, 4) is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 2
(B) A(|A|)
(C) A( | A | ) (n 2)
(D) A|A|
34. The area of the cap cut from the hemisphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 2, z 0 by the cylinder x2 + y2 = 1 is
(B) 2 2
(A)
(C) 2 + 2
(D) 2 2 2
(B) 0
(C) 2
(D) 1
P (x)dx
n
is
36. Let x and y be positive integers such that 3x + 7y is divisible by 11. Which of the following
must also be divisible by 11 ?
(A) 4x + 6y
(B) x + y + 5
(C) 9x + 4y
(D) 4x 9y
37. What is the remainder when 234 235 236 237 238 239 is divided by 120 ?
(A) 119
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) 2
39.
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 31
(D) 33
limn n1/n
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C)
40. Let f be a function defined for all real numbers. Which of the following conditions assures that
f has an inverse function.
(A) f is periodic
(B) f is continuous
41. Let f : [0, 1] |R be a continuous function such that f (0)=1 and f(1) = 0. Which of the
following statements is not true ?
(A) There is u [0, 1] such that f(u) f(x) for all x [0, 1]
(B) There is u [0, 1] such that f(u) = 1/2
(C) There is u [0, 1] such that f(u) = 3/2
(D) For all h (0, 1), limx h f (x) = f(h)
42. A particle moves on the curve y = log x so that the x component has the velocity x'(t) = t + 1 for
t 0. At time t = 0, the particle is at point (1, 0). At t = 1, the particle is at the point :
(A) (2, log 2)
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
44. Let G be a group of order 6. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) G has an element of order 2
45. What is the greatest integer that divides p4 1 for every prime number p greater than 5 ?
(A) 30
(B) 48
(C) 120
(D) 240
2
x 1 and g(x) = x + 1. Then for any real number x
(A) g(f(x)) = x
(B) X-axis
(C) Y-axis
[Turn over
1
1
1
+
+ .... +
=
49. lim
n n + 1
n+2
2n
(A) 0
(B) log 2
(C) 1
(D)
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 10
52. Let |R |R be a continuous function such that f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y). Then which of the
following statements are true ?
(i)
f is an odd function
53. Consider the ring R = {(x, y) : x, y ZZ} with component-wise addition and multiplication.
Then the number of all solutions of equation x2 = 1 in R is :
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
54. Which of the following cannot be a root of a polynomial of the form 9x3 + ax2 + b, where a and b are
integers ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/4
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 11
10
56. Let R be a ring such that r2 = r for all r R. Which of the following statements are true ?
(i)
r + r = 0 for all r R.
57. Let R be a ring of 2 2 matrices with integer entries. Which of the following statement is not true ?
(A) R has zero divisors
(B) R is not a commutative ring
(C) a R is a unit if and only if the determinant of a is not zero
(D) R has a proper right ideal
58. Find the complete solution to the inequality :
x3 8 7x 14
(A) x 3 or x 1
(B) 3 x 1
(C) 3 x 1 or x 2
(D) x 3 or 1 x 2
(B) 2 + 2, 2 2
(C) 2, 6
(D) No solutions
60. Find the point on line y = 2x 3 which lies closest to (4, 0).
(A) (1.5, 0)
(B) (2, 1)
(C) (2.5, 2)
(D) (3, 3)
(B) 2x2 4x + 1
(C) 2x2 + 4x 2
(D) x2 2x 2
62. A line contains (2, 7) and ( 4, 2). Which statement is not true ?
(A) The line has Y-intercept 4
(B) The line is parallel to 3x 2y = 6
(C) The line is perpendicular to 3y = 2x + 12
(D) No portion of the graph of the line lies in the first quadrant
11
[Turn over
63. When a polynomial P(x) is divided by x 2, the quotient is 3x2 x 5 and the remainder is 1.
Then P( 1) equals
(A)
(B) 3
(C)
(D) 7
64. Let f and g be differentiable functions such that : f(1) = 2, f'(1) = 3, f'(2) = 4 and g(1) = 2,
g'(1) = 3, g'(2) = 5. Then (f o g)' (1) =
(A)
(B) 4
(C)
12
(D) 15
(B)
(C)
(D)
no solutions
(C)
67. In a ring ZZp, where p is a prime, the product of all non-zero elements is :
(A)
(B) 0
(C)
68. Let f and g be function from |R to |R. The negation of the following statement :
For each a |R, there is b |R such that if f(a) > 0, then g(b) > 0 is which of the following ?
(A)
For each b |R there does not exist a |R such that if f(a) > 0, then g(b) > 0.
(B)
For each b |R there exists a |R such that f (a) > 0 and g(b) 0
(C)
There exists b |R such that for each a |R, f(a) > 0 and g(b) 0
(D)
There exists b |R and there exists a |R such that f(a) 0 and g(b) 0
69. Determine the r so that tr (t > 0) is a solution of the differential equation t2y" 7ty' 20y = 0
(A)
r = 2 or 5
(B) r = 2 or 10
(C)
r = 2 or 10
(D) r = 4 or 5.
12
70.
k2
=
K!
(A)
2e
(B) e2
(C)
e + e2
(D) e/2
k =1
1 6
1 3
(B) 2
(C)
(D) 5
(A)
2f ' (x)
(C)
f ' (x)2
(D) f "(x)
(A)
y=
(C)
xy = k, k an arbitrary constant
(B)
y=
x
2
(D) y = 0
et
(B) (1 + t) et
(C)
et+1
(D) t + et
(B) 7
(C)
(D) 1
13
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
14
ROUGH WORK
15
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ROUGH WORK
16
161
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Words
In Figures
In Words
In
Maximum Marks : 85
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
M.B.A. (Executive)/A
1.
2.
(B) Fathometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Manometer
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Which of the following cereal was among the first to be used by man ?
(A) Barley
(B) Oat
(C) Rye
(D) Wheat
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
[Turn over
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(C) Pineapple
(D) Coconut
(B) Africa
(B) Wellesley
(B) Iraq
(C) Turkey
(D) Egypt
16. Who among the following won the first Oscar for Pakistan on February 26, 2012 ?
(A) Ashgar Farhadi
18. The standard time of a country differs from the GMT in multiples of :
(A) Two hours
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
19. Who among the following won the Album of the year award on February 12, 2012 at the
54th Grammy awards ?
(A) Tonny Bennett
(D) Adele
20. Which of the following commands is used to select the whole document ?
(A) Ctrl+A
(B) Alt+F5
(C) Shift+S
(B) Quasi-federal
24. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Multilateral Convention Mutual
Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters that was signed by India in November 4, 2011?
(A) It offers automatic exchange of information, multilateral simultaneous tax examination and
international assistance in the collection of tax due
(B) It offers a wide range of tools for cross-border tax cooperation
(C) The convention imposes safeguards to protect the confidentiality of the information exchanged
(D) All of the above
25. According to the data released on March 1, 2012 the trade deficit during April-January
2011-2012 was :
(A) $ 148.66 billion
26. According to the advance estimates of national income 2011-2012 released by the Central
Statistic Office on February 7, 2012 the Gross Domestic Product growth in the Fiscal
2011-2012 would be :
(A) 7.1 percent
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
[Turn over
27. According to the official data released by the Commerce Ministry on March 1, 2012 the
volume of exports was _____ during April-January 2011-2012 :
(A) $ 242.79 billion
28. National Thermal Power Corporation on September 6, 2011 did sign a deal with which of
the following country to set up India's first thermal power plant abroad :
(A) Malaysia
(C) Bhutan
(D) Bangladesh
29. The Reserve Bank of India made it clear to banks in February 2012 that LTV ratio in
respect of house loans should not exceed 80 percent. What is the full form of LTV ?
(A) Loan to Value
30. India and Pakistan on February 21, 2012 agreed to extend the agreement to reduce the
risk from accidents related to nuclear weapons for another how many years ?
(A) Five
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) Two
31. India and Indonesia on October 4, 2011 formally launched the negotiations for a
Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) at the Indonesia-India
Biennial Trade Ministers Forum held in :
(A) Jakarta
(C) Mumbai
(D) Bali
32. The Union Cabinet on September 15, 2011 approved the approach paper for the 12th five
year plan (20122017) which seeks to raise the annual economic growth rate to ______
percent during the five year period, up from 8.20 percent estimated in 11th plan.
(A) 8.50
(B) 8.75
(C) 9.00
(D) 9.20
33. Which of the following banks on November 15, 2011 became the most valuable lenders
in India overtaking State Bank of India in Market capitalization capping Rs. 1,10,200
crore ?
(A) HDFC Bank
34. The Central Government on July 16, 2011 announced to have draw up plans to set up
______ new textiles parks across the country.
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 35
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
35. Padma Bhushan awardee classical singer Ustad Sultan Khan passed away on November
27, 2011. Which of the following musical instrument was revived by Ustad Khan ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Rudraveena
(C) Sarod
(D) Sarangi
36. "A Shot at History" is a book about the Olympic Champion Shooter Abhinav Bindra,
authored by _______ .
(A) Sharda Ugra
For questions 37-41 : Study the following table carefully to answer these questions :
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six subjects
Students
Subjects
A (out of 60) B (out of 40) C (out of 80) D (out of 50) E (out of 120) F(out of 75)
80
65
58
68
75
87
55
70
67
74
88
78
74
54
72
84
62
76
68
76
82
56
72
64
75
68
64
72
80
72
82
78
75
67
68
82
(B) 138
(C) 168
(D) 156
38. What is the average marks obtained by all the students in subjects C ? (Rounded off to
the nearest integer)
(A) 56
(B) 58
(C) 54
39. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all the student in Subject A ?
(A) 73
2
3
(B) 43
2
5
(C) 72
1
3
(D) 48
3
5
40. Approximately what is the overall percentage of marks obtained by student Q in all the
subjects ?
(A) 77
(B) 72
(C) 78
(D) 74
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
[Turn over
41. What is the total marks obtained by all the students together in subject E ?
(A) 522
(B) 488
(C) 445
(D) 534
Directions (42-46) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow :
Madhu and Shobha are good in Dramatics and Computer Science. Anjali and Madhu are good in
Computer Science and Physics. Anjali, Poonam and Nisha are good in Physics and History. Nisha and
Anjali are good in Physics and Mathematics. Poonam and Shobha are good in History and Dramatics.
42. Who is good in Physics, Dramatics and Computer Science ?
(A) Shobha
(B) Poonam
(C) Madhu
(D) Anjali
(B) Shobha
(C) Madhu
(D) Anjali
(B) Shobha
(C) Madhu
(D) Anjali
(B) Nisha
(C) Madhu
(D) Anjali
46. Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics but not in Computer Science ?
(A) Poonam
(B) Nisha
(C) Madhu
(D) Anjali
(B) 51/5
(C) 21/2
(D) 7 1/7
(B) 2/3
(C) 3
(D) 4/3
49. If the two hands in a clock are 3 minutes division apart, then the angle between them is :
(A) 3
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) 60
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
50. Pipe A can fill a tank in 5 hours, pipe B in 10 hours and pipe C in 30 minutes. If all the
pipes are open, in how many hours will the tank be filled ?
(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 3
(D) 3.5
51. A man walking at the rate of 5 km/h crosses a bridge in 15 minutes. The length of the
bridge (in meters) is :
(A) 600
(B) 700
(C) 1000
(D) 1250
52. The difference of two numbers is 25% of the larger number. If the smaller number is 30,
then the larger number is :
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 48
(D) 50
53. A man invests Rs. 14400 in purchasing shares of a company paying 5% dividend at the
time when a Rs. 100 share costs Rs. 120 in the market. What is his annual income ?
(A) 500
(B) 680
(C) 600
(D) 700
Directions (54-58) : What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions ?
54. (1024 263 233) (986 764 156) = ?
(A) 9
(B) 6
(C) 8
55. 384 12 2 = ?
(A) 9024
(B) 9216
(C) 6676
(D) 6814
57.
(A) 3780
(B) 4725
(C) 5355
(D) 5040
2704 2209 = ?
(A) 1996
(B) 2444
(C) 2452
(D) 1983
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
[Turn over
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 9
59. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Suraj said "she is the only daughter of my father's son-in-law".
How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
(A) Niece
(B) Cousin
(C) Sister
(D) Daughter
60. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters 'OEHM' using each
letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
61. 'K' walked 5 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metres. He then
took a right turn and walked for 20 metres. How far he is from the starting point ?
(A) 20 metres
(B) 15 metres
(C) 25 metres
(D) 30 metres
62. What is the sum of all two digit numbers that give a remainder of 3 when they are divided
by 7 ?
(A) 666
(B) 676
(C) 683
(D) 777
63. If a, a+2 and a+4 are prime numbers, then the number of possible solutions for a is :
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(B) OP
(C) QR
(D) NO
(B) EIM
(C) EJO
(D) EMI
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
10
Directions (66-68) : In the following questions, four alternatives are given, out of which three
are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
66. (A) Flood
(C) Explosion
67. (A) Nephrology
(C) Astrology
68. (A) Broad : Wide
(C) Tiny : Small
(B) Hurricane
(D) Earthquake
(B) Entomology
(D) Mycology
(B) Light : Heavy
(D) Big : Large
(B) NOIETCRID
(C) RIDTCENOI
(D) NORTECDII
(B) Transpiration
(C) Reflection
(D) Illusion
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 11
72. What is the ratio of volumes of two spheres whose radii are in the ratio of 2 : 3 ?
(A) 2:3
(B) 4:9
(C) 4:6
(D) 8:27
73. A piece of cloth costs Rs. 70. If the piece is 4 m longer and each metre costs Rs. 2 less,
the cost remains unchanged. How long is the piece ?
(A) 8 m
(B) 9 m
(C) 10 m
(D) 12 m
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
11
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74. Assertion (A) : Our country is progressing fast in all fields of life.
Reasoning (R) : The middle class people are silent sufferers as usual.
(A) A explains R
(B) R explains A
75. The position of the first and fifth digits in the number 53498167 is interchanged. Similarly
the position of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the
following will be the last digit after the rearrangement ?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 3
Directions (76-80) : In the following questions, you have one brief passage with some questions
following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question
out of four alternatives.
One simple physical concept lies behind the formation of the stars : gravitational instability. The concept
is not new. Newton first perceived it late in the 17th centaury.
Imagine a uniform, static cloud of gas in space. Imagine then that the gas is somehow disturbed so that
one small spherical region becomes a little denser than the gas around it so that the small region's
gravitational field becomes slightly stronger. It now attracts more matter to it and its gravity increases
further, causing it to begin to contract. As it contracts its density increases which increases its gravity
even more so that it picks up even more matter and contracts even further. The process continues until
the small region gas finally forms a gravitational bound object.
76. The primary purpose of the passage is to :
(A) Describe a static condition
(B) Support a theory considered outmoded
(C) Depict the successive stages of a phenomenon
(D) Demonstrate the evolution of the meaning of a term
77. It can be inferred from the passage that the author views the information contained
within it as :
(A) Lacking in elaboration
78. With which of the following words can you replace the word uniform as given in this
passage ?
(A) Uniting
(B) Varying
(C) Gaseous
(D) Unvarying
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
12
79. What does the underlined word 'it' stands for in the passage ?
(A) Gravitational instability
(D) Matter
80. The author provides information that answers which of the following questions ?
1.
What causes the disturbances that changes the cloud from its original static condition ?
2.
How does this small region's increasing density affect its gravitational field ?
3.
What is the end result of the gradually increasing concentration of the small region
of gas ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Directions (81-82) : In the following questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in
with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the
correct alternative out of the four.
81. The court ______ cognizance of the criminal's words.
(A) Took
(B) Made
(C) Gave
(D) Allowed
82. __________ wins this civil war there will be little rejoicing at the victory.
(A) Whichever
(B) Whoever
(C) Whatever
(D) Wherever
Directions (83-85) : In the following questions, you have one brief passage with some questions
following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question
out of four alternatives.
In May 1966, the World Health Organisation was authorized to initiate a global campaign to eradicate
smallpox. The goal was to eradicate the disease in one decade. Because the similar projects for malaria
and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated, but eleven years
after the initial organization of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations, but also to isoate patients with active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission. Rewards
for reporting small-pox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers. One-by-one, each small
-pox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. At the same time, the entire
village where the victim had lived was vaccinated.
Today small-pox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.
83. Which of the following is the best title for the passage ?
(A) The World Health Organisation
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
13
[Turn over
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
14
ROUGH WORK
M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347
15
188
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Subject : MBACIT
Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
MBACIT/A
1.
2.
3.
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists :
List-I
List-II
(Type of Asset)
(Example)
A. Intangible Assets
1. Gas wells
B. Fixed Assets
2. Preliminary expenses
C. Fictitious Assets
D. Wasting Assets
4. Generators
5. Cash balance
Code :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
[Turn over
4.
Match List-I and II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Principles of Insurance)
(Explanation)
A. Uberrimae fidei
1. Immediate cause
B. Insurable interests
C. Indemnity
3. Mutual trust
D. Causa proxima
Code :
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Maslow's need hierarchy theory of motivation has classified the human needs into following
five categories :
1.
Safety needs
2.
Esteem needs
3.
Social needs
4.
Physiological needs
5.
Self-actualisation needs
Which one of the following is correct hierarchy of the above needs from low order to high
order ?
(A) 1-4-3-2-5
(B) 4-1-3-2-5
(C) 5-3-2-4-1
(D) 4-1-2-5-3
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
6.
Match List-I and II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Contributor)
(Management Thought/Theory)
1. Human Relation
B. Henri Fayol
2. Integration Theory
C. Elton Mayo
3. Scientific Management
D. F W Taylor
4. 14 Principles of Management
Code :
7.
8.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which one of the following transactions does not affect the Balance Sheet totals ?
(A) Purchase of Rs. 5,000 supplies on credit
Match List-I and II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Item)
(Accounting Standards)
1. AS-3
2. AS-20
C. Inventory valuation
3. AS-1
4. AS-2
Code :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
[Turn over
9.
Which one of the following function is concerned with synchronizing and unifying the
action of a group of people in an organisation ?
(A) Directing
(B) Controlling
(C) Coordinating
(D) Staffing
10. A company limited by shares has to call the statutory meeting within a period of not less
than One month and not more than six months. The period is counted with reference to
which one of the following ?
(A) The date of incorporation
(B) The date at which the company is entitled to commence business
(C) The date of actual receipt of certificate of incorporation
(D) The date of actual commencement of business
11. What does payout ratio mean ?
(A) Ratio of debtor to creditors
(B) Ratio of profit distributed to profit retained
(C) Ratio of dividends per share and earnings per share
(D) Retained earnings
12. Working papers should not record :
(A) The audit plan
(B) The nature, timing and extent of audit procedures performed
(C) The conclusions drawn from the evidence obtained
(D) The audit programmes
13. The doctrine of indoor management seeks to :
(A) Protect outsider against the company
(B) Protect company against the outsider
(C) Determine the relation between company and director
(D) Determine the relation between Director and Auditor
14. Hewlett-Packard (HP) is the world dominant leader in its laser printer business with high
growth and high market share. As per Boston Consulting Graph (BCG) matrix, HP falls
in which one of the following categories ?
(A) Cash cows
(B) Stars
(C) Dogs
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
15. Which one of the following helps in determining long term objectives of an organisation,
adoption of course of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve the set
goal ?
(A) Rules
(B) Policies
(C) Procedure
(D) Strategies
(C) Correlation
20. Consumer reaches a saturation point for a product when marginal utility (MU) is :
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(B) ICRA
(C) ICICI
(D) CARE
22. Priority to heavy industry was given for the first time in :
(A) First five year plan
(B) BIFR
(C) SIA
(D) DGTD
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
[Turn over
(B) 1992-97
(C) 1985-90
(D) 1983-88
(B) FEMA
(B) Dividend
(C) Interest
(D) Rent
(B) Concave
(C) L-shaped
(B) Utility
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) Infinity
32. 240 MB file is transferred at a rate of 400 Kbps. How long will it take approximately ?
(A) 10 minutes
(B) 60 minutes
(C) 80 minutes
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
(B) Impact
(D) CRT
35. During execution of a program, both the program and the data it is analyzing are held in
which portion of the computer ?
(A) ROM
(B) RAM
(D) CD-ROM
(C) Tape
37. An interface that allows you to perform actions or pick options from menus by using a
mouse is called a/an .
(A) Command Line Interface
39. When you cut or copy a block of text in a word processor, it is placed on the .
(A) desktop
(C) ruler
(D) clipboard
40. The only language that the computer can understand and execute is called :
(A) Machine language
41. Which of the following printers gives excellent resolution and tends to be quiet ?
(A) Laser
(B) Dot-Matrix
(C) Daisy-Wheel
(D) Inkjet
43. Personal computers used a number of chips mounted on a main circuit board. What is the
common name for such boards ?
(A) Daughterboard
(B) Motherboard
(C) Fatherboard
(D) Childboard
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
[Turn over
44. All of the following are commonly used output devices except .
(A) A keyboard
(B) A monitor
(C) A printer
(D) Speakers
45. Who among the following is famous for being one of the Co-Founders for the Microsoft
Corporation that was formed in 1975 after he dropped out of Harvard ?
(A) William Gates
48. Who amongst the following is the RBI governor as on May 2012 ?
(A) Venkatraman
(D) D. Subbarao
(B) Rumsfeld
(C) Cheney
50. Three women, Rekha, Jaya and Vidya, are sitting side by side on a bench, not necessarily
in that order. One of the women is a teacher, one is a singer, and one is a pharmacist. The
women sitting to Jaya's right is the teacher, and the woman sitting to Rekha's right is the
singer. What is Vidya's profession ?
(A) She must be a singer
51. Which of the following countries does not play International Cricket ?
(A) Russia
(B) England
(D) Pakistan
52. Many times we read in financial newspaper about 'FII'. What is the full form of 'FII' ?
(A) Final Investment in India
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
10
53. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on
money flow in equity through 'P Notes'. What is the full form of 'P Notes' ?
(A) Permanent Notes
54. 'BRIC' which was the Organisation of 4 nations namely Brazil, Russia, India and China
has now become 'BRICS'. Which is the fifth nation included in it ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Singapore
(C) Spain
(B) Knights
(C) Pawns
(D) King
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
(B) Condemned
(C) Inevitable
(D) Fulsome
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
11
[Turn over
(B) Mundane
(C) Plain
(D) Modest
(B) by
(C) for
(D) in
(B) Overlooking
(C) Focusing on
(D) Negating
65. Choose the most appropriate meaning for the following idiom : 'To fish in troubled waters'.
(A) To make the situation worse
(B) Candid
(C) Famous
(D) Indifferent
Directions for the Questions 67-68 : In each of the following questions, a sentence is given
with a blank followed by four alternatives. Choose the word or phrase that most correctly
completes the sentences.
67. Mamta did not attend office yesterday. She for a picnic.
(A) will have gone
(D) would go
(B) is
(C) can be
(D) could be
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
12
Directions for the Questions 69-72 : For each italicized and underlined word in a sentence,
select the word or phrase among the four choices that is nearest in meaning to the word :
69. He joined the ordnance factory.
(A) Scheduled
(B) Ordinary
70. North Korea has been vigorously pursuing a clandestine weapons programme.
(A) Progressive
(B) Systematic
(C) Secretive
(D) Nefarious
(B) Dead
(C) Dormant
(D) Extant
(B) Enduring
(C) Threatening
(D) Beautiful
Analogies
Questions 73-75 :
Directions : Each of the following questions consists of a pair of capitalized words followed by
four choices lettered A to D. The capitalized words bear some meaningful relationship to
each other. Choose the lettered pair of words whose relationship is most similar to that
expressed by the capitalized pair :
73. WRITING : PLAGIARISM
(A) confidence : deception
MBACIT-A/FRH-41397
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68
OCET 2012
Sr. No. :
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
economic theory
(B)
political science
(C)
sociology
(D) history
Alternative courses of action among which business choices are made are called
(A)
hypothesis
(B)
business strategies
(C)
actions
(D) objectives
economy as a whole
(C)
Amartya Sen
(B)
A. Marshall
(C)
Joan Robinson
(D) J. Stiglitz
(B)
Pigou
(C)
Ricardo
(D) Marshall
The difference between what the consumer is willing to pay and what he actually pays is
(A)
marginal utility
(C)
consumers surplus
When the percentage change in quantity demanded of a good is greater than the
percentage change in its price, the demand for that good is said to be
(A)
inelastic
(C)
elastic
(D) low
demand forecasting
(B)
demand elasticity
(C)
demand management
(B)
(C)
(D)
[Turn over
(B)
selling at no profit
(C)
perfect competition
(D)
monopoly
(B)
oligopoly
(C)
perfect competition
J.B. Say
(B)
Todaro
(C)
Ricardo
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
GNP Depreciation
a classical economist
(B)
a modern economist
(C)
an Indian economist
level of production
(B)
level of income
(C)
level of advertisement
(D) sales
17. Marginal Propensity to Consume is the ratio of change in consumption to the change in
(A)
demand
(B) supply
(C)
production
(D) income
1/1-MPC
(B)
1/1-MPS
(C)
saving
(D) investment
sampling survey
(C)
trend method
20. The division financial of resources between the centre and the states is governed by the recommendations
of the
(A)
(B)
Ministry of Finance
(C)
21. The period from April 1, 2010 to 31 March, 2015 is covered by the
(A)
(B)
(C)
1991
(B)
1951
(C)
1947
(D) 2011
Nurkse
(B)
Rostow
(C)
Marshall
(D) Ricardo
24. Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to
(A)
monetary economics
(B)
econometrics
(C)
welfare economics
(C)
Saving
(D) Investment
(B)
(C)
(C)
agriculture
(B)
industry
(C)
service sector
(D) manufacturing
agriculture
(B)
(C)
service sector
(D) manufacturing
industry
[Turn over
(B)
MRTP Act
(C)
RBI
(D)
Ministry of Finance
Prime Minister
(B)
SEBI
(C)
SBI
(D) IDBI
(C)
inclusive growth
2012-17
(B)
2013-18
(C)
2005-10
(D) 2007-12
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
a neutral tax
(B)
a direct tax
(C)
an indirect tax
(D) a subsidy
Adam Smith
(B)
Joan Robinson
(C)
David Ricardo
IMF
(B)
WTO
(C)
RBI
(C)
(B)
(C)
standard deviation
(B)
(C)
(D)
all ones
a square matrix
(C)
a rectangular matrix
Agro-processing
(B)
(C)
Agricultural Policy
import substitution
(B)
import liberalisation
(C)
free imports
SEBI
(B)
FEMA
(C)
LERMS
(D) FDI
46. Most indirect taxes at the central and state levels are likely to be replaced by
(A)
Service tax
(C)
47. In order to exercise fiscal discipline, the following Act was enacted :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
FERA
[Turn over
48. Presently the flagship programme of the Government of India for providing jobs to the rural poor is
(A)
IRDP
(B)
NREP
(C)
MGNREGA
(D) JNNURM
(B)
(C)
(D)
unit set
(C)
null set
(B) zero
(C)
du/dx
(D) infinity
52. dy/dx of 2x 25 =
(A)
2x
(B)
25
(C)
() 25
(D) 2
53. The demand curve for a monopolist is given by q = 100 4p, marginal revenue is :
(A)
100
(B)
25 q/2
(C)
zero
(D) 4
intercept
(C)
dependent variable
55. A diagonal matrix where all diagonal elements are equal is called a
(A)
unit matrix
(B)
determinant
(C)
scalar matrix
unemployment
(B) inflation
(C)
economic growth
(C)
58. When the government borrows in order to repay the debt, it is known as
(A)
credit creation
(C)
debt trap
59. The annual budget presented by the Finance Minister reflects the
(A)
monetary policy
(C)
fiscal policy
capital market
(B)
money market
(C)
cooperative banks
(D) RBI
inside trading
(B)
business combinations
(C)
capital transactions
(D) sensex
(B)
EU countries
(C)
SAARC countries
(B)
OECD
(C)
OPEC countries
Amartya Sen
(B)
Pranab Mukherjee
(C)
Adam Smith
(D) Robbins
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(C)
[Turn over
Bill Clinton
(C)
correlated
(B) independent
(C)
associated
(D) dependent
correlation
(C)
dispersion
(D) mean
(B)
0.16
(C)
0.04
(D) 16
World Bank
(B)
IMF
(C)
GATT
(D) TRIPS
(B)
(C)
losses occur
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
10
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11
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12
228
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Maximum Marks : 75
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
M.Com.(Business Innovation)/A
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(C) Nauru
(D) Tuvalu
Who was the most expensive player at the 2012 IPL auction ?
(A) Ravindra Jadeja
Which author was awarded the Booker Prize-2008 for his novel 'The White Tiger' ?
(A) Kiran Desai
(B) 206
(C) 207
(D) 208
What was the codename of the CIA Operation which eliminated Osama Bin Laden ?
(A) Eagle Assist
(B) Jibril
Which moon of Uranus shares its name with a famous Shakespearean character ?
(A) Oberon
(B) Macbeth
(C) Caesar
(D) Achilles
Which long-range intercontinental ballistic missile was recently lauched by India from
Wheeler Island ?
(A) Agni-III
(C) Agni-V
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
(B) Agni-IV
(D) Agni-VII
[Turn over
(B) Slave
(C) Khilji
(D) Sayyid
12. What number president of the Republic of India is Pratibha Devisingh Patil ?
(A) Tenth
(B) Eleventh
(C) Twelfth
(D) Thirteenth
13. How many times has London hosted the Olympics in the past ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(B) Libya
(C) Tunisia
(D) Egypt
(B) Campa
(C) Coke
(D) Thumps Up
17. The base line for which brand's latest advertisement reads 'har ghar kuch kehta hai' ?
(A) Nerolac
18. Which company manufactured the ballot boxes for India's first general election that was
held in 1951 ?
(A) Hind Metal Works
19. In which year, for their humanitarian work, was the Noble Peace Prize awarded to Grameen
Bank ?
(A) 2007
(B) 2006
(C) 2005
(D) 2001
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
20. Who is the current Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Infosys Technologies ?
(A) K. V. Kamath
(B) S. Gopalakrishnan
(C) S. D. Shibulal
(D) V. Balakrishnan
21. Which company acquired beleaguered software company Satyam Computer Services in
2009 ?
(A) Tech Mahindra
22. Who said these words 'Stay Hungry Stay Foolish' in his commencement address at Stanford
University in 2005 ?
(A) Bill Gates
23. Who is the present Managing Director of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
(A) Horst Kohler
24. In economics, BRIC is a grouping acronym that refers to the countries of Brazil, Russia,
India and China. Who coined this acronym ?
(A) Tushar Poddar
(C) Eva Yi
25. Which of the following term is used to represent a market when everything in the economy
is great, people are finding jobs, gross domestic product (GDP) is growing and stocks are
rising ?
(A) Bears
(B) Chickens
(C) Bulls
(D) Pigs
(B) Lectures
28. Which publishing house publishes the famous news daily 'Economic Times' ?
(A) Reckitt Benckiser
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
[Turn over
(B) Fiat
(C) Toyota
(D) Peugeot
32. Who is currently the Chairman of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)which aims to provide a unique identification number for all residents of India ?
(A) Nandan Nilekani
33. Which of the following term refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs ?
(A) Corporate social responsibility
(B) Sustainability
(D) Convergence
34. What is the potential for change in value of a foreign-currency denominated transaction
due to an exchange rate change called as ?
(A) Transaction exposure
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
Reasoning
Directions (36-40): In the series of terms given in each of the questions below, identify the
terms which does not fit in the series.
36. Which one number does not belong to the series ?
11, 2, 21, 3, 32, 4, 41, 5, 51, 6
(A) 21
(B) 11
(C) 32
(D) 51
(B) PIU
(C) PJW
(D) PKX
(B) mn
(C) no
(D) op
(B) 106
(C) 100
(D) 102
40. Which sequence of the letters when placed at the blanks one after another will complete
the given letter series ?
b__b __bb__bbb__bb__b
(A) bbbbba
(B) bbaabb
(C) ababab
(D) aabaab
41. Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different marks in a test, C scored more than D but
not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored less than B. Who did score third
highest marks ?
(A) B
(B) A
(C) C
42. Mohan walked 30 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 40 metres. He
again took a left turn and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 100 metres
(B) 60 metres
(C) 70 metres
(D) 40 metres
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
[Turn over
43. In a certain code 'MOUSE' is written as 'PRUQC". How is 'SHIFT' written in that code ?
(A) VKIRD
(B) VKIDR
(C) VJIDR
(D) VIKRD
44. How many such digits are there in the number '37152869' each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when digits are arranged in ascending order within
the numbers ?
(A) none
(B) one
(C) two
(D) three
45. A man pointing to a photograph says, "The lady in the photograph is my nephew's maternal grandmother". How is the lady in the photograph related to the man's sister who has
no other sister ?
(A) Cousin
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Mother
(D) Mother-in-law
46. Raman is 7 ranks ahead of Suman in a class of 39. If Suman's rank is seventeenth from
the last. What is Raman's rank from the start ?
(A) 14th
(B) 15th
(C) 16th
(D) 17th
(B) 60
(C) 64
(D) 70
(B) 9/32
(C) 9/24
(D) None
Directions (49-50) : In the following questions, four alternatives are given, out of which three
are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
49. (A) Ladder
(B) Staircase
(C) Bridge
(D) Escalator
(B) Saturn
(C) Earth
(D) Mercury
(B) Ireland
(C) Netherland
(D) Borneo
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
Directions (52-55) : Read the following information carefully and answer the question that
follow :
Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F are marching in a line. They are arranged according to their height, the
tallest being at the back and the shortest in front.
F is between B and A
E is shorter than D but taller than C who is taller than A
E and F have two boys between them
A is not the shortest among them
52. Where is E ?
(A) Between A and B
(B) Between C and A
(C) Between D and C
(D) In front of C
53. Who is the tallest ?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) F
(D) A
54. If we start counting from the shortest, which boy is fourth one in the line ?
(A) E
(B) A
(C) D
(D) C
55. Who is the shortest ?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) B
(D) F
Quantitative Aptitude
56. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs. 312.
What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same
time ?
(A) Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C) Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
57. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much
would each person get ?
(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 23,468
(C) Rs. 37,420
(D) Rs. 19,562
58. Terry consumes 1600 ml of milk everyday. How many litres of milk will she consume in
four weeks ?
(A) 42.6
(B) 43.4
(C) 44.8
(D) 41.6
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
[Turn over
59. A and B invested in a trade. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio 2 :3
of their investment. If A invested Rs. 40 then the amount invested by B is :
(A) Rs. 30
(B) Rs. 60
(C) Rs. 90
60. Five men can complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days will 12 men
complete the same piece of work ?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 10
61. How many numbers, between 1 and 300 are divisible by 3 and 5 together ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 100
(B) 0
(C) 2
(D) 4
63. A clock gains 15 minutes per day. It is set right at 12 noon. What time will it show at
4:00 am, the next day ?
(A) 4:10 am
(B) 4:45 am
(C) 4:20 am
(D) 5:00 am
64. Ratio of the two numbers is 3:4 and the sum of these two numbers is 420. The sum of
their square is :
(A) 9103
(B) 9104
(C) 9105
(B) 2450
(C) 2205
(D) 1470
66. By selling 66 metres of cloth a man loses the selling price of 22 metres. Find the loss
percent.
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 35%
67. What would be the simple interest, if the compound interest on the same sum for 2 years
at 4% be Rs. 408 ?
(A) Rs. 400
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
10
(B) 32
(C) 48
(D) None
69. X can do a piece of work in 15 days. If he is joined by Y who is 50% more efficient, in what
time will X and Y together finish the work ?
(A) 10 Days
(B) 6 Days
(C) 18 Days
(B) 166 m2
(C) 175 m2
(D) 168 m2
71. If x is a number midway between 10 and 16, and y is half of 78, then y/x =
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
72. A bag contains Rs. 187 in the form of 1 rupee, 50 paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio of
3:4:5, the number of one rupee coins is :
(A) 102
(B) 136
(C) 170
(D) 132
73. What is the least number of 4 digits which when divided by 5, 8 10 and 15 leaves 2 as
remainder in each case ?
(A) 1076
(B) 1084
(C) 1080
(B) 7269
(C) 7260
(D) 7280
75. The area of a square is equal to the area of a rectangle. The difference between the
length and breadth of the rectangle is 48 cms and the breadth of the rectangle is onefourth of its length. What is the side of the square ?
(A) 32 cm
(B) 16 cm
(C) 64 cm
M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357
11
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
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176
OCET 2012
Sr. No. :
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
[Turn over
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Cloth merchant
(B)
Bacteriologist
(C)
Chemist
Robert Koch
(C)
Louis Pasteur
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(B)
Escherichia coli
(C)
Bacillus anthracis
Yoghurt
(B)
Beer
(C)
Cheese
(D) Idli
Nucleotides
(C)
tRNA structure
(D) Introns
(B)
(C)
(D)
Salmonella
(B)
Proteus
(C)
Bacillus
(D) Candida
Aspergillus
(B)
Bacillus
(C)
Clostridium
(D) Staphylococcus
(B)
(C)
(D)
[Turn over
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Nopaline
(B)
Octopine
(C)
TC-T-DNA
(D) TL-T-DNA
Hydrogen bond
(B)
(C)
Covalent bond
14. Spectrophotometer works on the principle of Beer-Lamberts law. According to Beer-Lamberts law
intensity of transmitted light is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Protease is an exotoxin
(B)
LPS is a pyrogen
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D) CH 4, NH 3, H 2O, H 2
1010 cells
(B)
(C)
1016 cells
10 13 cells
[Turn over
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
NMR only
(D) HPLC
21. According to Watson and Crick Model of DNA, the adjacent nitrogenous bases are separated by
(A)
3.0
(B)
3.4
(C)
3.8
(D) 4.0
(B)
(C)
mRNA
(B) rRNA
(C)
tRNA
TATAAT
(B)
TAATAT
(C)
TATTAA
(D) TAATTA
(B)
(C)
(D)
[Turn over
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
28. An enzyme requires Zn2+ in order to catalyze the conversion of substrate to product. Zinc is best identified
as a :
(A)
Coenzyme
(B) Cofactor
(C)
Co-substrate
(D) Zincozyme
H2
(B)
(C)
H3
(D) H1
H5
(B)
(C)
Hydrogen bond
(B)
Covalent bond
(C)
Ionic bond
32. The percentage of DNA base sequences similar in all human beings is
(A)
99 %
(B)
90 %
(C)
85%
(D) 80 %
Acridine Orange
(B)
(C)
Commassie Blue
Crystal Violet
[Turn over
Agar gels
(B)
Agarose gels
(C)
Acrylamide gels
(B)
(C)
(C)
37. In which phase of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes come together, become shortened and form a
pair ?
(A)
Leptotene
(B) Zygotene
(C)
Pachytene
(D) Diplotene
38. Which phase of the human cell cycle consumes maximum time
(A)
G1
(B)
G2
(C)
(D) M
(B)
(C)
(D)
-Helix
(B) -Helix
(C)
-Turns
(D) -sheets
Phenyl alanine
(B)
Tryptophan
(C)
Glycine
(D) Proline
(C)
PDB
(B)
(C)
GenBank
(D) DDBJ
PROSITE
7
[Turn over
44. Which of the following cannot be used as Vector for gene cloning purpose ?
(A)
Phage
(B)
Plasmid
(C)
Bacterium
(D) M13
(B)
a collection of DNA fragments that make up the entire genome of a particular organism
(C)
(D)
Spherical
(B)
Icosahedral
(C)
Rods
(D) Helical
splicing of exons
(C)
Repair
(B) Splicing
(C)
Methylation
(D) Degradation
(B)
Aminoacylation of tRNA
(C)
(D)
50. Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein synthesis,
serving as a template for translation, and transporting amino acid, respectively, are :
(A)
(B)
(C)
Pyrimidine dimers
(C)
Base deletions
DNA ligases
(B)
(C)
DNA helicases
DNA polymerases
[Turn over
Hormone synthesis
(B)
Beta-carotene synthesis
(C)
Protein synthesis
Jalebi
(B) Rasgulla
(C)
Idli
(D) Vada
(B)
(C)
(D)
56. How much of the biological carbon present on the Earth is accounted for by microbes ?
(A)
30%
(B)
40%
(C)
50%
(D) 60%
Vitamin C & K
(B)
Vitamin A & C
(C)
Vitamin A & B
58. Which of the amino acid is not present in the cell wall of Bacteria ?
(A)
L-Ala
(B)
L-Glu
(C)
D-Ala
(D) D-Glu
(C)
Chemolithoautotrophs
(B)
Chemolithoheterotrophs
(C)
Chemoorganoautotrophs
(D) Chemoorganoheterotrophs
61. Which of the following component is not a part of nutrient medium prepared for the growth of
Cyanobacteria ?
(A)
Sodium nitrite
(B)
(C)
Glucose
(D) EDTA
Citric acid
[Turn over
(B)
(C)
63. In the relationship between two organisms, if only one organism benefits, such association is called
(A)
Mutualism
(B) Neutralism
(C)
Commensalism
(D) Opportunism
64. The most distinguishing parameter in differentiation between Bacteria and Archaea is
(A)
(B)
Extreme habitats
(C)
tRNA sequences
Sterols
(B)
Cholesterols
(C)
Hopanoids
(D) Haponoids
Motility test
(B)
Voges-Proskeur test
(C)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Glycine
(B)
Lysine
(C)
Proline
(D) Valine
Helicobacter
(B)
(C)
Mycobacter
(D) Mycobacterium
Mycoplasma
10
[Turn over
(B)
(C)
Positive charge
(B)
Negative charge
(C)
Neutral
Lag Phase
(B)
Log Phase
(C)
Stationary Phase
(D) Enzymophase
(B)
(C)
Acinetobacter
(B)
(C)
Azotobacter
(D) Rhizobium
Nitrobacter
11
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
12
[Turn over
82
OCET-2012
Sr. No. :
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
2.
3.
4.
(B) 128
(C) 64
(D) 64
(B) 2 solutions
(C) 4 solutions
The value of
(A) cos 34
(B) sin 34
(C) cot 56
(D) tan 56
(C)
5.
6.
7.
cos 11 + sin 11
is :
cos 11 sin 11
3
2
1
2
5
2
(B)
(D)
1
4
(D) (0, 0)
(B) (~ q p) (p ~ p)
(C) (~ q p) (p ~ p)
(D) (p q) (~ (q q))
8.
[Turn over
9.
3 10
(B) +
3 1
10
3
(C) + 2
3
1
3 10 9
(D) 2
3 1
10. Let f(x) be the mean of the five numbers : 4, 9, 7, 5 and x. Let g(x) be the median of these five
numbers. For how many values of x, a real number, is f(x) = g(x) ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
11. Assume that p is a polynomial function on the set of real numbers. If p(0) = p(2) = 3 and
2
xp"(x) dx =
0
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 2
12. Let f be a function such that f(x) = f(1 x) for all real number x. If f is differentiable everywhere, then f'(0) =
(A) f(0)
(B) f(0)
(D) f '(1)
0 1
3 0
6
1
2
(B)
0
1
1
(C)
0
9
10
(D)
11
14. Which of the following CANNOT be a root of a polynomial in x of the form 9x5 + ax3 + b, where
a and b are integers ?
(A) 9
(C)
(B) 5
1
4
(D)
1
3
15. Consider the following system of linear equations over the real numbers, where x, y and z are
variables and b is a real constant :
x+y+z=0
x + 2y + 3z = 0
x + 3y + bz = 0
Which of the following statements are true ?
I.
II. There exists a value of b for which the system has exactly one solution.
III. There exists a value of b for which the system has more than one solution.
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
16. If f is a continuous function on the set of real numbers and if a, b are real numbers, which of
the following must be true ?
I.
II.
b+ 3
a+3
f(x) dx =
f(x 3) dx
3a
[Turn over
(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 24
(D) 128
n+2
32
30
(D)
32 !
30 ! 2 !
1 3 7 15
+ + + +...... upto n-terms is :
2 4 8 16
1
2n
1
2n
(B) n +
1
2n
(D) n + 1 +
1
2n
20. The maximum value of sin(x + /6) + cos(x + /6) in interval (0, /2) is attained at
(A) /12
(B) /6
(C) /3
(D) /2
(B) 1
(C) 3 / 5
(D) 17 5 / 15
22. The lines 2x 3y = 5 and 3x 4y = 7 are the diameters of a circle of area 154 square units.
= 22/7)
Then the equation of this circle is (
(A) x2 + y2 + 2x 2y = 62
(B) x2 + y2 + 2x 2y = 47
(C) x2 + y2 2x + 2y = 47
(D) x2 + y2 2x + 2y = 62
(B) (1, 2)
(C) (3/4, 1)
(D) (5/4, 1)
(x + 1) (x 3)
24. f(x) =
is a real-valued function in the domain :
(x 2)
(A) ( , 1] [3, )
(B) ( , 1] (2, 3]
(C) [ 1, 2) [3, )
(D) [ 1, 2]
25. How many words can be formed out of the letters of the word PECULIAR beginning with P
and ending with R ?
(A) 100
(B) 120
(C) 720
(D) 150
dn y
26. If y = logex and n is positive integer, then
is equal to
dx n
e
(A)
x
(C) (n 1) ! x n
(B) (n 1)xn
(D) (1)n 1 (n 1)! x n
1 1
27. If and are the root of 4x2 + 3x + 7 = 0, then the value of + is :
(A)
(C)
3
4
3
7
(B)
(D)
3
7
4
7
28. The medians of a triangle meet at (0, 3). While its two vertices are (1, 4) and (5, 2), the third
vertex is at
(A) (4, 5)
(B) (1, 2)
(C) (7, 3)
(D) ( 4, 15)
[Turn over
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 12
30. The area of the triangle having the vertices (4, 6), (x, 4), (6, 2) is 10 sq units. The value of x is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
31. If cos
+ sin
=
2 sin
(A)
(C)
, then cos
is equal to
sin
2 cos
2 sec
(B)
sin
2
(D)
32. A number is chosen from each of the two sets {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} and {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,
8, 9}. If P denotes the probability that the sum of the two numbers be 10 and Q the probability
that their sum be 8, then (P + Q) is
(A)
(C)
16
81
(B)
137
729
(D)
137
81
| sin x |
is :
x
(A) 1
(B) 1
(C)
34. For a frequency distribution of marks in Mathematics for 100 students, the average was found
to be 80. Later it was discovered that 48 was misread as 84. The correct mean is :
(A) 80.36
(B) 79.36
(C) 79.64
(D) 80.64
(B) 1/2
(C) 2
(D) 2
2y
2
36. The only integral root of the equation 2
5y
3
3
6
= 0 is :
10 y
(A) y = 0
(B) y = 1
(C) y = 2
(D) y = 3
37. The harmonic mean of two numbers is 4. The arithmetic mean A and geometric mean G of these
two numbers satisfy the equation 2A + G2 = 27. The two numbers are :
(A) 3, 6
(B) 4, 5
(C) 2, 7
(D) 1, 8
38. The root of x3 2x 5 = 0, correct to three decimal places by using Newton-Raphson method
is :
(A) 1.0404
(B) 2.0946
(C) 1.7321
(D) 0.7011
39. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = |x 1| and y = 3 |x| is
(A) 2 sq units
(B) 3 sq units
(C) 4 sq units
(D) 6 sq units
dy y
+ = sin(x) is :
dx x
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 16
43. A 600 MB file is transferred at a rate of 500 Kbps. Approximately, how long will it take ?
(A) 20 minutes
(D) 1 hour
[Turn over
44. Which of the following is responsible for the management and coordination of activities and
the sharing of the resources of the computer ?
(A) Application Software
(B) Motherboard
(D) RAM
(B) Sound
(C) Image
List II
1.
Linux
P.
2.
Mozilla Firefox
3.
Notepad
R.
Operating System
4.
JPEG
S.
Web Browser
(B) 1 S, 2 R, 3 Q, 4 P
(C) 1 R, 2 P, 3 S, 4 Q
(D) 1 Q, 2 S, 3 P, 4 R
48. What is a specialized software program that allows input and output devices to communicate
with the rest of the computer system ?
(A) Utility driver
(B) WAN
(C) LAN
(D) Internet
50. Millisecond is
(A) Thousandth of a second
10
51. ______ is simply a fast port that lets you connect computer peripherals and consumer
electronics to your computer without restart.
(A) Freeware
(B) Shareware
(C) Firewire
(D) Firmware
(B) Cache
53. Which of the following decimal numbers has an exact representation in binary notation ?
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.5
X= X;
Y=Y;
}
Z = 0;
while (Y > 0)
{
Z=Z+X;
Y=Y1;
}
Assume that X, Y and Z are integer variables, and that X and Y have been initialized. Which of
the following best describes what this code segment does ?
(A) Sets Z to be the sum X + Y
11
[Turn over
57. A test has 50 questions. A student scores 1 mark for a correct answer, 1/3 for a wrong answer,
and 1/6 for not attempting a question. If the net score of a student is 32, the number of
questions answered wrongly by that student cannot be less than
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 3
(D) 9
58. A paper of size L W (L > W) is folded in half along and longer dimension. It is then folded in
half along the other dimension and a third time, along the direction of the first fold. What are
the dimensions of the folded paper ?
(A)
L W
4 4
(B)
L W
8 4
L W
L W
(D)
8 8
4 2
59. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total number of
bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had after division. Find the original number
divided.
(C)
(A) 15
(B) 18
(C) 21
(D) 24
60. At 10 a.m. two trains started traveling toward each other from stations 287 miles apart. They
passed each other at 1:30 p.m. the same day. If the average speed of the faster train exceeded
the average speed of the slower train by 6 miles per hour, which of the following represents the
speed of the faster train, in mile per hour ?
(A) 38
(B) 40
(C) 44
(D) 48
61. A certain street has 1000 buildings. A sign-maker is contracted to number the houses from 1 to
1000. How many zeroes will he need ?
(A) 100
(B) 142
(C) 192
(D) 250
62. There are three envelopes on a table and one of them contains a secret formula. On the first
envelope, it is written, The formula is not in here. It is in Envelope 2. On the second it is
written, The formula is not in Envelope 1. It is in Envelope 3. On the third, it is written,
The formula is not in here. It is in Envelope 1. It both the statements on one of the envelopes
are true; one statement is true and one is false on another envelope; and, both the statements
are wrong on the remaining one, which envelope contains the formula ?
(A) In Envelope 1
(B) In Envelope 2
(C) In Envelope 3
12
63. Given the sequence A, BB, CCC, DDDD............and so on, the 253rd letter in the sequence will
be :
(A) V
(B) U
(C) T
(D) W
64. Walking at of his usual speed, a man is late by 2 hours. The usual time is :
(A) 10 hours
(B) 7 hours
(C) 15 hours
(D) 6 hours
65. Of the two-digit numbers (those from 11 to 95, both inclusive) how many have a Second digit
greater than the first digit ?
(A) 37
(B) 38
(C) 36
(D) 35
Questions : 6668.
Directions : For each word in capital letters, select the word or phrase among the four choices that is
most nearly opposite in meaning to the word.
66. Meager
(A) Extravagant
(B) Average
(C) Excessive
(D) Plentiful
67. Mundane
(A) Heavenly
(B) Excellent
(C) Exciting
(D) Superb
68. Beguile
(A) Flatter
(B) Smile
(C) Persuade
(D) Cheat
Questions : 6971.
Directions : For each word in capital letters, select the word or phrase among the four choices that is
nearest in meaning to the word.
69. Inebriate
(A) Stupefied
(B) Dreamy
(C) Drunken
(D) Unsteady
70. Counsel
(A) Oppose
(B) Advise
(C) Correct
(D) Publish
13
[Turn over
71. Jeopardy
(A) Adventure
(B) Magic
(C) Enmity
(D) Danger
Questions : 7275.
Directions : Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentences.
72. A cure for all diseases
(A) Panacea
(B) Antibiotic
(C) Excorcism
(D) Incantation
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Omnipotent
(D) Insolvent
(B) Lagoon
(C) Archipelago
(D) Isthmus
(B) Nubile
(C) Versatile
(D) Gifted
14
ROUGH WORK
15
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
16
565
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
M.E.(Chemical)/A
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
(B) CD = 24/Re.p
(C) CD = 18.4/Re.p
(D) CD = 0.079/Re.p0.25
A plant has a capacity of producing 25000 units per year. The annual fixed cost is Rs.
90000. The variable cost per unit is Rs. 16. The price of the product is Rs. 20 per unit.
The break-even point in terms of the capacity of the plant will be :
(A) 20%
(B) 70%
(C) 80%
(D) 90%
What will be the weight of air required for the combustion of 3 kg of carbon ?
(A) 34.783 kg
(B) 36.298 kg
(C) 36.248 kg
(D) 36.254 kg
6.
7.
8.
(B) PD
(C) PI
(D) PID
In a laminar boundary layer, the nominal thickness varies with the longitudinal distance
x as :
(A) x
(B) x1/3
(C) x
(D) x
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
[Turn over
9.
Kicks law assume that energy required for size reduction is proportional to the
logarithm of the ratio between initial and final diameters. The unit of Kicks constant is :
(A) kW sec/kg
(B) kWh/kg
(C) kWh/sec.kg
(D) kg/sec
10. Slope of the feed line, if feed to a distillation column is a saturated liquid, is :
(A) 0
(B)
(C) > 1
(D) < 1
(B) K2CO 3
(C) HCl
(B) Rubber
(C) Polyester
(D) Pesticide
13. Transition length for a turbulent fluid entering into a pipe is around ............... times the
pipe diameter.
(A) 5
(B) 50
(C) 500
(D) 1000
16. In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the hydraulic radius for heat transfer (for a
fluid flowing through the annulus) would be :
(A) Same as that for fluid flow
(B) Less than that for fluid flow
(C) More than that for fluid flow
(D) D2D1 (D1 and D2 are inner diameter of inner and outer pipes respectively)
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
18. It is not desirable to design a heat exchanger for LMTD correction factor, FT, of less
than :
(A) 0.99
(B) 0.95
(C) 0.80
(D) 0.55
20. Separation of a binary mixture of gases by absorption in the liquid solvent depends upon
their differences in :
(A) density
(B) solubility
(C) viscosity
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 2/3
22. A reaction in which one of the products of reaction acts as a catalyst is called :
(A) Homogeneous catalytic reaction
i +3
23. Given i = 1, the ratio
is given by :
i +1
(A) i
(B) 2
(C) i + 2
(D) i + 1
(B) 500
(C) 750
(D)
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
[Turn over
(B) 8
(C) 2
(D) 3
(B) 640
(C) 1160
(D) 1180
30. If the pressure on 100 c.c. of air is halved, then its volume (at the same temperature)
would be
(A) 100 c.c.
(B) 50 c.c.
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
(B) negative
(C) positive
(D) infinity
33. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2) is :
(A)
T2 T1
T2
(B)
T2 T1
T1
(C)
T1 T2
T2
(D)
T1 T2
T1
34. A liquid mixture containing 50 mole per cent each of benzene and toluene at 40 C is to be
continuously flash vaporized to vaporise 60 mole per cent of the feed. The residual liquid
product contains 35 mole per cent benzene. If enthalpies per mole of feed,
distillate and the residue are 5, 30 and 2 kJ/kmol, respectively, what is the heat added in
kJ per mole of vapour product ?
(A) 18.28 kJ
(B) 25.67 kJ
(C) 22.99 kJ
(D) 13.27 kJ
(B) 1
(C) > 1
(D) < 1
[Turn over
40. Dittus-Boelter equation cannot be used for molten metals mainly due to its very low :
(A) Prandtl number
(D) viscosity
(B) 50C
(C) 45C
(D) 40C
CA
z
(B) J A = D AB
CA
z
(C) J A = D AB
2CA
z 2
(D) J A = D AB
2C A
z 2
43. The dew point of an unsaturated mixture of water vapour and air at constant
temperature and pressure :
(A) does not change with change in absolute humidity
(B) increases with increase in absolute humidity
(C) decreases with increase in absolute humidity
(D) decreases linearly with increase in absolute humidity
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
(A) Ro
(B) 1 + R
o
Ro
1+ R o
(C) 1 R
o
(D) 1 R
o
(B) 240 W
(C) 320 W
(D) 480 W
49. The relative volatility of component A relative to component B is equal to the ratio of
vapour pressure of component A to vapour pressure of component B at the existing
temperature if :
(A) total pressure is 1 atm
(B) liquid phase behaves as an ideal solution
(C) vapour phase behaves as an ideal gas
(D) both the liquid phase and vapour phase are ideal
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
[Turn over
(B) 0.5 nm
(C) 0.05 nm
(D) 0.05 m
(B) Unsteady
(C) Laminar
(D) Vortex
52. Slope of the operating line for the rectifying section of the distillation column is :
(A)
(B) 0
(C) > 1
(D) < 1
53. A thin flat plate 2 m 2 m is hanging freely in air. The temperature of the surroundings
is 25 C. Solar radiation is falling on one side of the plate at the rate of 500 W/m2.
Temperature of the plate will remain constant at 30 C, if the convective heat transfer
coefficient (in W/m2. C) is :
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 200
56. What drag force is exerted at sea level by a 3.5 m braking parachute when the speed is
20 m/s ? CD = 1.20. CD value remains constant. air (sea level) = 1.225 kg/m3 air (at
2000 m) = 1.007 kg/m3
(A) 2828.6 N
(B) 282.86 N
(C) 28.28 N
(D) 2.828 N
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
10
57. Water at 20 C flowing through a 20 cm diameter pipe. Take kinematic viscosity of water
at 20C = 0.0101 stoke. Assume changes from laminar to turbulent at Re = 2320. The
critical velocity will be :
(A) 1.117 cm/sec
58. Which of the following forces does not act in case of fluids ?
(A) Centrifugal force
60. If V is the mean velocity of flow, then according to Darcy-Weisbach equation for pipe
flow, energy loss over a length of pipe is proportional to :
(A) V
(B) 1/V
(C) V2
(D)
(A) Leather
(B) Paper
(C) Plastic
62. The emf (mV) of a thermocouple maintained at two junctions at different temperatures is
as follows :
Hot
Cold
emf
1000C
0C
41.32
30C
0C
1.20
1000C
30C
?
(A) 41.32
(B) 40.12
(C) 21.26
(D) 42.56
E dt = 0
(B)
(C)
E dt = 1
0
E dt =
(D)
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
11
E dt =
[Turn over
dp A
= K.p 2A
dT
(B) (hr)1
(C) atm1.(hr)1
69. In order to obtain high purity and porosity, excellent transparency and electrical properties
in PVC, vinyl chloride should be polymerised by :
(A) Bulk polymerisation
70. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric equation is called :
(A) elementary reaction
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
12
71. Yield of tar from high temperature carbonisation of dry coal is about :
(A) 3%
(B) 8%
(C) 20 %
(D) 24%
73. Crude oil of kinematic viscosity 2.25 stokes flows through a 20 cm diameter pipe, the
rate of flow being 1.5 litres/sec. The flow will be :
(A) laminar
(B) turbulent
(C) uncertain
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
13
ROUGH WORK
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
14
ROUGH WORK
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364
15
52
OCET 2012
Sr. No. :
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
[Turn over
M.Com. (Honours)/A
1.
If opening stock is Rs. 10,000; Net Purchase Rs. 70,000; Wages Rs. 2500; carriage inward
Rs. 500 and closing stock Rs. 15,000, what is merchandising cost ?
2.
(A)
Rs. 65,000
(C)
Rs. 68,000
2.
3.
3.
(A)
1 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Type of Asset)
(Example)
A.
Intangible Assets
1.
Gas wells
B.
Fixed Assets
2.
Preliminary expenses
C.
Fictitious Assets
3.
D.
Wasting Assets
4.
Generators
5.
Cash balance
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
[Turn over
4.
What is the preferential order of payments of the following in the event of winding up of a company ?
1.
2.
3.
Debentures
4.
Equity shares
5.
(A)
1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 1, 3, 2
(C)
3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 3, 2, 4
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Principles of insurance)
(Explanation)
A.
Uberrimae fidei
1.
Immediate cause
B.
Insurable interests
2.
C.
Indemnity
3.
Mutual trust
D.
Causa proxima
4.
Codes :
6.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Theory of Motivation)
(Contributors)
A.
X, Y Theory
1.
Frederick Herzberg
B.
Expectancy theory
2.
J Stacey Adams
C.
3.
Douglas Mc Gregor
D.
Equity theory
4.
Victor Vroom
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
[Turn over
7.
Maslows need hierarchy theory of motivation has classified the human needs into following five
categories :
1.
Safety needs
2.
Esteem needs
3.
Social needs
4.
Physiological needs
5.
Self-actualisation needs
Which one of the following is correct hierarchy of the above needs from low order to high order ?
8.
(A)
1-4-3-2-5
(B) 4-1-3-2-5
(C)
5-3-2-4-1
(D) 4-1-2-5-3
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Contributors)
(Management Thought/theory)
A.
1.
Human Relation
B.
Henri Fayol
2.
Integration Theory
C.
Elton Mayo
3.
Scientific Management
D.
FW Taylor
4.
Principles of management
Codes :
9.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Gangplank theory of communication, advanced by Henri Fayol, is an example of which one of the
following ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
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10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Items)
(Accounting Standards)
A.
1.
AS-3
B.
2.
AS-20
C.
Inventory valuation
3.
AS-1
D.
4.
AS-2
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Capital expenditure
(C)
12. The balance of old provision for doubtful debts on 1.4.2006 was Rs. 10,000. The bad debts written
off during the year 2006-07 amounted to Rs. 12,000, and the new provision required on 31.3.2007
was Rs. 15,000. What is the total amount to be debited to Profit and Loss account on account of bad
debts and provision for doubtful debts ?
(A)
Rs. 37,000
(C)
Rs. 17,000
13. Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making
payments of claim ?
(A)
Subrogation
(C)
Contribution
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
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14. Which of the following companies do not have the obligation to get its Articles of Association registered
along with the Memorandum of Association ?
(A)
(C)
15. A company limited by shares has to call the statutory meeting within a period of not less than
One month and not more than six months. The period is counted with reference to which one of the
following ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Reason (R)
Codes :
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(D)
Codes :
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(D)
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
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18. The following particulars are available from the account of Mr. X :
Rs.
Direct expenses
8,000
Opening stock
12,000
Purchases
1,00,000
Interest paid
3,000
Closing stock
12,000
Rs. 1,00,000
(C)
Rs. 1,08,000
19. While preparing final accounts, adjustment entries deal with which of the following ?
1.
Expenses incurred
2.
Income received
3.
Expenses outstanding
4.
1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C)
3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
While preparing Trading and Profit and Loss account and Balance Sheet, Adjustments
given outside the Trial Balance are treated twice.
Reason (R)
Codes :
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(D)
5,000
Closing capital
6,000
Drawings
1,000
500
Rs. 2,000
(C)
Rs. 1,000
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
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22. Intrinsic value of shares is calculated on the basis of which one of the following ?
(A)
Total assets
(C)
Fixed assets
23. A company with a paid up capital of 5,000 shares of Rs. 10 each has a capital turnover of four times
with a margin of 8% on sales. What is the return on investment (ROI) of the company ?
(A)
28%
(B) 32%
(C)
35%
(D) 42%
Trading on equity is recommended in a situation when rate of return is higher than the
cost of capital.
Reason (R)
Codes :
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(D)
25. The manufacturing and other companies (Auditor Report) Order, 1988 (M A O C A R O) does not
include a company engaged in which one of the following activities ?
(A)
(B)
Trading
(C)
The business of financing, investment, chit fund, nidhi or mutual benefit society
(D)
Insurance
The duty of the auditor is to prepare the audit report and sign it.
It is not the duty of the auditor to see that his report has been sent to Shareholders.
Codes :
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(D)
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
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27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Types of errors)
(Example)
A.
Errors of commission
1.
B.
Compensating errors
2.
C.
Errors of principle
3.
Incorrect recording
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
3
2
3
1
3
2
2
1
1
(D)
(C)
2.
3.
4.
2341
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C)
4321
(D) 1 2 3 4
(C)
Marketability of securities
Mutual funds can participate in options trading and carrying forward transactions in Securities
2.
Mutual funds can invest in transferable securities in the money and capital markets.
1 only
(B) 2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
10
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32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
A.
List-I
List-II
(Characteristic)
1.
B.
2.
C.
3.
D.
4.
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Existing assets
(C)
Re-insurance
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
A.
Marine insurance
1.
B.
Voyage policy
2.
C.
Block policy
3.
Lloyds Association
D.
Jettison
4.
5.
Cargo
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
11
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35. Which of the following qualities are the four essential requirements of active listening ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
A.
Typing test
1.
Personality test
B.
2.
Aptitude test
C.
3.
Achievement test
D.
Clerical test
4.
Intelligence test
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37. Which one of the following statements about selection is not valid ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Organisational variables affect the number of subordinates that can be effectively supervised by a
manager.
2.
The use of technology in the organisation affects the number of subordinates that can be effectively
supervised by a manager.
1 only
(B) 2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
12
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Of an outsider having an actual or implied knowledge of the lack of authority of the person acting on
behalf of the company.
2.
When the outsider has no knowledge of the Memorandum and Articles of Association of the company.
1 only
(B) 2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(B)
(C)
By a special resolution in AGM and permission from the Company Law Board
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Establishment of the fact that assets and liabilities exist as per position statement
2.
3.
1, 2 and 3
(C)
1 and 2 only
(D) 1 only
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
13
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44. Hewlett-Packard (HP) is the world dominant leader in its laser printer business with high growth
and high market share. As per Boston Consulting Graph (BCG) matrix, HP falls in which one of the
following categories ?
(A)
Cash cows
(B) Stars
(C)
Dogs
45. Which of the following international standards are going to be implemented in India w.e.f.
01-04 2011 ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47. Given :
Opening Stock
Rs. 50,000
Sales
Carriage inwards
Sales return
Gross profit on sales
Net loss
Purchases
=
=
=
=
=
=
Rs. 1,50,000
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 60,000
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 1,00,000
Purchases returns
Rs. 9,000
Rs. 61,000
(C)
Rs. 48,000
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
14
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48. According to which one of the following conventions of accounting, stock-in-trade is valued at Market
price or cost price whichever is lower ?
(A)
Consistency
(B) Materiality
(C)
Conservatism
49. Depreciation amount provided in the sinking fund method as compared to annuity method is :
(A)
Higher
(B) Lower
(C)
Equal
As provisions
(C)
As current liabilities
Marine insurance policies are valued policies and the market fluctuations are avoided. In case of fire
insurance policies, doctrine of indemnity is followed and only the market value of the property at the
time of loss is compensated.
2.
Marine insurance policies cannot be freely assignable whereas fire insurance policies are freely
assignable.
1 only
(B) 2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(B)
(C)
(D)
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is responsible for audit, therefore auditor is not
appointed
53. Which one of the following does not relate to the issues of securities ?
(A)
(C)
Secondary market
54. Where income tax laws allow deduction of only a part of an item of expenditure, the disallowed
amount would result in :
(A)
Timing difference
(C)
Permanent difference
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
15
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55. In funds flow analysis, net increase in working capital will appear as :
(A)
Sources of funds
(B)
Uses of funds
(C)
(D)
56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
A.
List-II
1.
Going-concern concept
2.
Materiality convention
3.
4.
Full-disclosure convention
less depreciation
B.
C.
D.
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
3.
1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C)
3 only
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
16
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Index
(C)
Correlation
59. Identify the correct sequence of the following with regard to delegation of authority :
1.
Creation of obligation
2.
Authorisation of actions
3.
4.
Assignment of duties
3-2-4-1
(B) 1-2-4-3
(C)
1-4-2-3
(D) 3-4-2-1
Warranties
(C)
Total loss
(D) Liabilities
61. Under which of the following methods of depreciation the amount of an asset is never reduced to
zero ?
(A)
(C)
Tangible assets
2.
Intangible assets
3.
Fictitious assets
1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C)
1 only
(D) 2 only
Improve liquidity
(C)
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
17
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64. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Technique of auditing)
A.
(Explanation)
Vouching
1.
B.
Verification
2.
C.
Investigation
3.
D.
Valuation
4.
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Liability of auditor)
(Example)
A.
1.
B.
2.
C.
Criminal liability
3.
D.
4.
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
18
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Indemnity
(B) Guarantee
(C)
Contribution
(D) Subrogation
67. A Provision is a :
(A)
General reserve
(C)
Capital reserve
68. An estimate of the assets and liabilities of a firm as on a given date is called :
(A)
Balance sheet
(C)
Statement of capital
Journal
(C)
Ledger
70. In a three column cash book, apart from cash and bank account, the third column is for :
(A)
(C)
Shareholder fails to pay the amount of the call during the stipulated period
(B)
(C)
(D)
72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
A.
Leverage ratio
1.
B.
Liquid ratio
2.
Earning capacity
C.
Turnover ratio
3.
D.
Profitability ratio
4.
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
19
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Implicit cost
(C)
Sunk cost
Keynes
(C)
J.R. Hicks
(D) Allen
75. Consumer reaches a saturation point for a product when marginal utility (MU) is :
(A)
Positive
(B) Negative
(C)
Zero
Extension
(B) Increase
(C)
Contraction
(D) Decrease
Monopolistic competition
(B) Oligopoly
(C)
Duopoly
852
(B) 940
(C)
925
(D) 965
50%
(B) 90%
(C)
74%
(D) 55%
1997-2002
(B) 1992-97
(C)
1985-90
(D) 1983-88
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
20
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81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
(Sector)
A.
Service
1.
40%
B.
Manufacturing
2.
35%
C.
Infrastructure
3.
18%
D.
Construction
4.
7%
Codes :
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1947
(B) 1948
(C)
1951
(D) 1954
FERA
(B) FEMA
(C)
MRTP Act
(C)
(D) OCTEI
85. Rolling settlement was introduced by SEBI for the first time in :
(A)
1990
(B) 1994
(C)
1998
(D) 2000
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
21
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ROUGH WORK
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
22
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ROUGH WORK
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
23
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ROUGH WORK
M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A
24
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114
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
2
*
2.
3.
A resistance 'R' and inductance of 'L' H are connected across 240 V, 50 Hz supply.
Power dissipated in the circuit is 300 W and the voltage across R is 100 V. In order to
improve the power factor to unity, the capacitor that is to be connected in series should
have a value of :
(A) 43.7 F
(B) 4.37 F
(C) 437 F
(D) .437 F
To a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The angle between
voltage and current will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
4.
1
j
5.
6.
(B) 0.5
(C) 4/3
(D) 1
A circuit with a resistor, inductor, and capacitor in series is resonant of f Hz. If all the
component values are doubled, the new resonant frequency is :
(A) 2f
(B) still f
(C) f/2
(D) f/4
Which one of the following is the correct Fourier Transform of the unit step signal
1 for t > 0
u(t) =
:
0 for t 0
(A) ( )
(C)
1
+ ( )
j
(B)
(D) 2 ( )
3
*
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7.
8.
9.
If
Inverse z-transform of 1 is :
(A) (n + 1)
(B) (n)
(C) (n 1)
(D) u(n)
n
n=0
a n is :
(A)
1
1+ a
(B)
1
1+ a2
(C)
1
1 a
(D)
1
a
10. A causal LTI system with rational system function H(z) is stable if and only if all the poles
of H(z) lie inside the unit circle i.e. they must all have magnitude :
(A) Greater than 1
11. A pn junction in series with a 100 ohms resistor is forward biased so that a current of
100 mA flows. If voltage across this combination is instantaneously reversed to 10V at
t = 0, then reverse current that flows through the diode at t = 0 is approximately given
by :
(A) 0 mA
(B) 100 mA
(C) 200 mA
(D) 50 mA
4
*
16. Avalanche photodiodes are preferred over PIN diodes in optical communication systems
because of :
(A) speed of operation
17. The dynamic emitter resistance of a BJT operating in the active region is of the order
of :
(A) 0.01
(B) 1
(C) 100
(D) 10 K
18. In an npn transistor operating in active region the main current crossing the collector
junction from base side is :
(A) hole drift current
19. After firing an SCR, if the gate pulse is removed, the SCR current :
(A) remains the same
(C) rises up
100
. For a unit step input to the
( s + 1) ( s + 100)
system the approximate settling time for 2% criterion is :
(B) 4 sec
(C) 1 sec
5
*
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25
. If the system
s + 8s + 25
initially at rest is subjected to a unit step input at t = 0, the second peak in the response
will occur at :
(A) sec
(B) / 3 sec
(C) 2 / 3sec
(D) / 2 sec
23. The open loop DC gain of a unity negative feedback system with closed loop transfer
function
s+4
is :
s + 7s + 13
2
4
9
(A)
(B)
(C) 4
(D) 13
24. The characteristic polynomial of a system is q(s) = 2s5 + s4 + 4s3 + 2s2 + 2s + 1. The system
is :
(A) Stable
(C) Unstable
(D) Oscillatory
25. Which of the following points in NOT on the root-locus of a system with the open-loop
transfer function :
G(s) = k/s (s + 1) (s + 3) ?
(A) s = + j 3
(B) s = 1.5
(C) s = 3
(D) s =
26. The phase margin (in degrees) of a system having the loop transfer function
is :
(A) 45o
(B) 30o
(C) 90o
(D) 30o
27. The open loop transfer function of a feedback control system is G(s)H(s) =
gain margin of the system is :
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
6
*
1
. The
(s + 1)3
28. In the Bode plot of a unity feedback control system, the value of phase of G (j) at the
gain cross over frequency is 125. The phase margin of the system is :
(A) 125o
(B) 55o
(C) 55o
(D) 125o
5
. The second order
(s + 5)(s 2 + s + 1)
approximation of T(s) using dominant pole concept is :
(A)
1
( s + 5)( s + 1)
(B)
(C)
5
s + s +1
(D)
5
( s + 5)( s + 1)
and y = x1 + u.
31. Identify which one of the following will NOT satisfy the wave equation :
(A) 50 e j ( t 3 z)
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/3
(D) 5/6
7
*
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(B) 50
(C)
36. Choose the correct statements : For a wave propagating in the air filled rectangular
waveguide.
(A) Guide wavelength is never less than the free space wavelength
(B) Wave impedance is never less than the free space impedance
(C) Phase velocity is never less than the free space velocity
(D) TEM mode is possible if the dimensions of the waveguide are properly chosen
37. An airfield rectangular waveguide has inner dimensions of 3 cm 2 cm. The wave
impedance of the TE20 mode of propagation in the waveguide at a frequency of
) :
30 GHz is (free space impedance 0 = 377
(A) 308
(B) 355
(C) 400
(D) 461
(B) 0.01
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.25
39. A person with a receiver is 5 km away from the transmitter. What is the distance that this
person must cover further to detect a 3 dB decrease in signal strength ?
(A) 942 m
(B) 2070 m
(C) 4978 m
(D) 5320 m
40. A transmission line is feeding 1 watt of power to a horn antenna having a gain of 10 dB.
The antenna is matched to the transmission line. The total power radiated by the horn
antenna into the free-space is :
(A) 10 watts
(B) 1 watts
8
*
42. Consider a multiplexer with X and Y as data inputs and Z as control input. Z = 0 selects
input X and Z = 1 selects input Y. What are the connections required to realize the
2-variable Boolean function f = T + R, without using any additional hardware ?
(A) R to X, 1 to Y, T to Z
(B) T to X, R to Y, T to Z
(C) T to X, R to Y, 0 to Z
(D) R to X, 0 to Y, T to Z
44. In which one of the following types of analog to digital converters the conversion time is
practically independent of the amplitude of the analog signal ?
(A) the dual slope integrating type
45. Which one of the following is used as the interface chip for data transmission between
8086 and a 16-bit ADC ?
(A) 8259
(B) 8255
(C) 8253
(D) 8251
46. Which one of the following addressing modes is used in the instruction PUSH B ?
(A) Direct
(B) Register
(D) Immediate
D input
(C) 0001
(D) 0000
9
*
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49. For the 8085 assembly language program given below, the content of the accumulator
after the execution of the program is :
3000
MVI A, 45H
3002
MOV B, A
3003
STC
3004
CMC
3005
RAR
3006
XRA B
(A) 00H
(B) 45H
(C) 67H
(D) E7H
50. A 4-bit ripple counter and a 4-bit synchronous counter are made using flip-flops having a
propagation delay of 10ns each. If the worst case delay in the ripple counter and the
synchronous counter be R and S respectively, then :
(A) R = 10ns, S = 40ns
51. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10 KW, the power in the carrier for modulation
index of 0.6 is nearly :
(A) 8.24 KW
(B) 8.47 KW
(C) 9.26 KW
(D) 9.6 KW
52. In a low level AM system, the amplifier which follows the modulated stage must be the :
(A) linear device
53. For a 10-bit PCM system, the signal to quantization noise ratio is 62 db. If the number of
bits is increased by 2, then the signal to quantization noise ratio will :
(A) increase by 6 db
(B) increase by 12 db
(C) decrease by 6 db
(D) decrease by 12 db
54. When the channel is noisy, producing a conditional probability of error p = 0.5, the channel
capacity and entropy function would be respectively :
(A) 1 and 1
10
*
55. In a certain 12 channel TDM system, it is found that channel number 3 and channel
number 8 are connected to the same input signal. This technique :
(A) wastes the channel capacity
(B) takes care of different sampling rates
(C) is required when different bandwidth signals are to be transmitted
(D) reduces noise
56. A band pass signal has significant frequency components in the range of 1.5 MHz to
2 MHz. If the signal is to be reconstructed from its samples, the minimum sampling
frequency will be :
(A) 1 MHz
(B) 2 MHz
(D) 4 MHz
57. In a single error correcting Hamming code, the number of message bits in a block is 26.
the number of check bits in the block would be :
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 7
58. If binary PSK modulation is used for transmission, the required minimum bandwidth is
9600 Hz. To reduce the transmission bandwidth to 2400 Hz, the modulation scheme to be
adopted should be :
(A) quadrature phase shift keying
60. The bit rate of a digital communication system is 34 M bit/s. The modulation scheme is
QPSK. The baud rate of the system is :
(A) 68 Mbits/s
(B) 34 Mbits/s
(C) 17 Mbits/s
11
*
[Turn over
62. For a transistor, parameters are = 180 and VA = 150 V, and it is biased at ICQ = 2 mA.
If collector of the transistor is connected to the base terminal, then small signal resistance
re = vce /ic of this two terminal device is :
(A) 12.88 K
(B) 12.87
(C) 2.33
(D) 1.53
63. Class AB operation is often used in power (large signal) amplifiers in order to :
(A) Get maximum efficiency
64. If an amplifier with resistive negative feedback has two left half planes poles in its open
loop transfer function then amplifer :
(A) Will always be unstable at high frequencies
(B) Will be stable for all frequencies
(C) May be unstable, depending upon the feedback factor
(D) Will oscillate at low frequencies
65. A differential amplifier is invariably used in the input stage of all OP-AMPs. This is done
basically to provide OP-AMPs with a very high :
(A) CMRR
(B) Bandwidth
66. An op-amp, having a slew rate of 62, 8 V/m sec, is connected in a voltage follower
configuration. If maximum amplitude of the input sinusoid is 10 V, then minimum frequency
at which slew rate limited distortion would set in at the output is :
(A) 1.0 MHz
67. For good differentiation one must ensure the time period T of signal is related to time
constant RC as :
(A) T = RC
(B) T < RC
(C) T = RC/2
(D) T > RC
68. For the frequency 100 Hz and C = 0.1 F, determine the value of R for RC phase shift
oscillator.
(A) 6.5 K
(B) 16 K
(C) 65 K
(D) 1.6 K
12
*
input
(A)
(C)
(B)
V Bias
V Bias
(D)
70. For the depletion MOSFET shown in the figure below, find W/L for ID = 100
A,
2
A/V and VD = 1V.
Kn = 20
5V
RD
ID
VD
(A) 30
(B) 20
(C) 10
(D) 100
13
*
[Turn over
71. An LTI system having transfer function (s2 + 1) / (s2 + 2s + 1) and input x(t) = sin(t + 1) is
in steady state. The output is sampled at a rate s rad/s to obtain the final output y(k).
Which of the following is true ?
(A) y(k) is zero for all sampling frequencies s
(B) y(k) is non zero for all sampling frequencies s
(C) y(k) is non zero for s > 2, but zero for all s < 2
(D) y(k) is zero for s > 2, but non zero for all s < 2
72. The 4-point discerete Fourier transform (DFT) of a discrete-time sequence {1.0.2.3} is :
(A) 0, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j
(B) 2, 2 + 2j, 6, 2 2j
(C) 6, 1 3j, 2, 1 + 3j
(D) 6, 1 + 3j, 0, 1 3j
is :
(A) Z 1/Z
(C) Z/(Z 1)
(D) (Z 1)2/Z
(C) x(t 2)
(D) x(t + 2)
t) is :
75. The power in the signal s(t) = 8cos(20 t /2) + 4sin(15
(A) 40
(B) 41
(C) 42
(D) 82
14
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ROUGH WORK
15
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ROUGH WORK
16
*
163
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
'Benchmark' means :
(A) Products line up on bench
As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within
how many days of the closure of the initial public offer (IPOs) ?
(A) 60 days
(B) 12 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 45 days
The new version of MGNREGA included more than 25 agricultural and allied activities.
The new version of the act will be implemented from which of the following dates ?
(A) 1 April 2012
(B) Silver
Which of the following challenges will be most the crucial from human existence on earth
in the days to come ?
(A) Pollution
(B) 2.5 %
(D) 6 %
[Turn over
10. The atmospheric gas that is mainly responsible for Greenhouse Effect :
(A) Ozone
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Carbon-dioxide
11. The parliament can legislate on subjects given in the Union list only in consultation with
the state government for the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Rajasthan
(D) Kerala
(C) Monopoly
(D) Duopoly
(C) Senior Most Among the three service chiefs (D) President
14. The 2014 FIFA (Foot Ball World Cup) will be held in which of the following countries ?
(A) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) Brazil
15. The Olympic games 2012 will be held at which of the following cities ?
(A) London
(B) Cannes
(C) Perth
(D) Brisbane
16. According to the latest World Health Organization analysis published on February 04,
2012, out of the estimated 1.3 million people who died of tuberculosis in 2008 globally
India alone accounted for :
(A) 2.4 Lakhs
17. Who among the following won the coveted GD Birla Award for Scientific Research for
2011 in February 2012 ?
(A) Tapas Kumar Kundu
18. Capital market regulator Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) on February 1,
2012 notified new rules for private placement of shares to institutional investors through
a new window called the IPP. What is the full form of IPP ?
(A) Institutional Private Placement
19. Which of the following states on February 13, 2012 announced that bollywood superstar
Shahrukh Khan would be the state's brand ambassador ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Delhi
20. The Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh on February 1, 2012 approved the constitution
of a National Council for Senior Citizens. The committee which recommended such
council, was headed by :
(A) Kapila Vatsyayan
21. Which of the following fruit was declared by the scientists in October 2011 as "wonder
drug" for it contains concentrated Punicalagins which may cure many ailments ?
(A) Apple
(B) Pineapple
(C) Pomegranate
(D) Strawberry
22. According to WTO's World Trade Report 2011, India's rank in service exports during
2010 stood :
(A) 20th in the world
23. With which of the following countries India did sign a revised Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreement on November 27, 2011, which would replace the agreement on double
taxation avoidance signed in 1987 ?
(A) China
(B) Russia
(C) Nepal
24. With which of the following countries India did sign the Bilateral Investment Promotion
and Protection Agreement (BIPPA) on October 21, 2011 ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) China
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
25. Union Communications and IT minister Kapil Sibal on September 30, 2011 unveiled which
of the following for better management of spectrum ?
(A) National Frequency Allocation Plan-2011
26. On which date in 2011 did India ratify the United Nations Convention against
Corruption ?
(A) May 12
(B) May 16
(C) May 18
(D) May 9
[Turn over
(B) Iron
(C) Lead
(D) Tungsten
(B) Vishnu
(C) Buddha
(D) Shiva
32. When the East India Company was set-up, India's ruler was :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Akbar
(C) Jehangir
(D) Humayun
33. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the constitution ?
(A) JB Kriplani
(C) JL Nehru
(D) BR Ambedkar
34. "Do or die" was one of the most powerful slogan of India's freedom struggle. Who gave
it ?
(A) M.K. Gandhi
(B) JL Nehru
(C) BG Tilak
Direction (Q. 37 to 42) : Study the following table to answer the given questions :
Production (in crore units) of six companies over the years
COMPANY
YEARS
1997
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
Total
TP
103
150
105
107
110
132
707
ZIR
75
80
83
86
90
91
505
AVC
300
300
300
360
370
340
1970
CTU
275
280
281
280
285
287
1688
PEN
25
30
35
40
42
45
217
SIO
85
87
89
91
92
96
540
Total
863
927
893
964
989
991
5627
37. The production of company AVC in 2000 is approximately what percent of its average
production over the year ?
(A) 300
(B) 110
(C) 136
(D) 118.25
38. For SIO, which year was the percent increase or decrease in production from the
previous year the highest ?
(A) 2001
(B) 1998
(C) 2002
(D) 2000
39. Which company has less average production in the last three years compared to that of
first three years ?
(A) SIO
(B) CTU
(C) ZIR
40. The total production of six companies in the first two given years is what percent of that
of last two given years ? (round off upto two decimal places).
(A) 87.08
(B) 104.55
(C) 90.40
(D) 10.62
[Turn over
41. For ZIR, which of the following is the difference between production in 2002 and then in
2001 ?
(A) 10,00,00,000
(B) 1,00,00,000
(C) 10,00,000
(D) 40,00,000
42. For how many companies did the production increase every year from that of the
previous year ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Direction (Q. 43 to 47) : Each of the questions below consist of a question and two statements
numbered (i) and (ii) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer questions. Read both the statements and give answer.
(a) Statement (i) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (ii) alone is not sufficient.
(b) Statement (ii) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (i) alone is not sufficient.
(c) Both Statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is
sufficient.
(d) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
43. What is the value of x ?
(i)
44. Kundu and Puttu can do a work in 12 days, in how many days will Puttu complete the
work working alone ?
(i)
Varun's mother remembers that Varun was born before nineteenth but after fifteenth
(ii) Varun's sister remembers that Varun was born before seventeenth but after twelfth.
47. Which direction is Shashidhar facing ?
(i)
In the early morning Shashidhar was standing in front of a puppet and the shadow of the
puppet was falling to the right of Shashidhar.
(ii) In the early morning Shashidhar was standing on the ground. His shadow was falling behind
him when he turned to his left.
48. Introducing a man, a woman said, His wife is the only daughter of my mother. How is the
woman related to that man ?
(A) Aunt
(B) Wife
(C) Mother-in-law
49. E is the son of A. D is the son of B. E is married to C.C is B's daughter. How is D related
to E ?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Brother-in-law
(B) PT
(C) QU
(D) QT
51. Ramakant walks northwards. After a while, he turns to his right and a little further to his
left. Finally, after walking a distance of one kilometer, he turns to his left again. In which
direction is he moving now ?
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
52. Manish is fourteenth from the right end in a row of 40 boys. What is his position from the
left end ?
(A) 24th
(B) 25th
(C) 26th
(D) 27th
53. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one
that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Tiger
(B) Wolf
(C) Cat
(D) Fish
(B) Track
(C) Transport
(D) Car
55. If 'MOBILE' is coded as 'OMIBEL' and 'PAGERS' is coded as 'APEGSR', how will
'MOUSSE' be coded as in the same code ?
(A) OSMESU
(B) OMEUSS
(C) OMUSES
(D) OMSUES
Direction (Q. 56 to 58) : In each of the following questions, select the related words/ letters/
number from the given alternatives :
56. 7:50 : : 17 : ?
(A) 288
(B) 118
(C) 290
(D) 324
(B) Spectacle
(C) Snel
(D) Object
[Turn over
59. The ratio between the present ages of Jyoti and Amit is 8 : 9 respectively. After four
years Jyoti's age will be 28 years. What was Amit's age 8 years ago ?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 20 years
(D) 19 years
Direction (Q. 60-61) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series ?
60. 620 428 332 284 260 (?)
(A) 246
(B) 258
(C) 262
(D) 248
61. 7 11 20 36 61 (?)
(A) 97
(B) 86
(C) 99
(D) 85
62. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'CONFIRM' each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Direction (Q. 63-67) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by
three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seen to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
63. Statements :
Some pens are pencils.
All pencils are caps.
All caps are buses.
Some buses are trains.
Conclusions :
I.
10
64. Statements :
All shirts are skirts.
All skirts are banks.
All banks are roads.
All roads are brushes.
Conclusions :
I.
65. Statements :
Some fishes are plates.
Some plates are spoons.
Some spoons are plants.
All plants are crows.
Conclusions :
I.
66. Statements :
Some eggs are hens.
Some hens are ducks.
All ducks are pigeons.
All pigeons are sparrows.
Conclusions :
I.
11
[Turn over
67. Statements :
No man is tiger.
No tiger is cat.
Some cats are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions :
I.
68. Members of a club are gentlemen. Some members are officers. Officers are
invited to a party. Therefore, we may deduce that :
(A) All members are invited to a party
(B) All gentlemen are invited to a party
(C) Officers who are gentlemen are invited to a party
(D) Some gentlemen are invited to a party.
69. A goes 4 km south, then 8 km west, then 6 km north, then 8 km east and then 2 km
south. How far is A from the starting point ?
(A) 2 km
(B) 1 km
(C) 0 km
(D) 3 km
70. A clock seen through a mirror shows 8 o'clock. What is the correct time ?
(A) 8:00
(B) 4:00
(C) 12:20
(D) 12:40
Directions (71-72) : fill in the blanks with the most logical choice.
71. Revenge : Mercy : : Cruelty :
(A) Aggression
(B) Anger
(C) Kindness
(D) Despair
(B) Poison
(C) Prison
(D) Room
12
73. Meghna is taller than Sujata but she is not taller than Natasha of the same class. Indira
is shorter than Natasha but taller than Meghna. If Natasha is the tallest in the class, who
is shortest ?
(A) Meghna
(B) Indira
(C) Sujata
74. Per capita income is maximum in which of the following states in India ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat
(D) Goa
13
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
36
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
(B) Stack
(C) Heap
(D) B-Tree
The following numbers are inserted into an empty binary search tree in the given order :
10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the height of the binary search tree (the height is the
maximum distance of a leaf node from the root) ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
How many distinct binary search trees can be created out of 4 distinct keys ?
(A) 5
(B) 14
(C) 24
(D) 42
A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The levelorder traversal of the heap is given below : 10, 8, 5, 3, 2. Two new elements 1 and 7 are
inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the
insertion of the elements is :
(A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1,
(B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5
(C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5
(D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5
(C) OR 1111101010101111
Number of swaps required to sort n elements using selection sort in the worst case :
(A) (n2)
(B) (n log n)
(C) (n)
Suppose an unpipelined processor with 25ns cycle time is divided into 5 pipeline stages
with latencies of 5,7,3,6 and 4 ns. If pipeline latch latency is 1 ns, what is cycle time of
resulting processor ?
(A) 8 ns
(B) 9 ns
(C) 10 ns
(D) 12 ns
[Turn over
8.
9.
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
If the following program is executed and user entered number 4 as input, then output is :
#include <stdio.h>
void main( )
{ int a, b = 8 ;
scanf("%d", & a);
if (a = 0) b*=2; else b/=2;
printf("%d",b++);
}
(A) 16
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 5
10. If in a program it is required that a local variable must retain its value during various
function calls to it, its storage must be :
(A) Static
(B) Register
(C) Auto
(D) Extern
(B) O
(C) OCET
13. A computer has 32 bit instructions and 12 bit address. If there are 250 two address
instructions how many maximum one address instructions can be formulated ?
(A) 26576
(B) 27456
(C) 24576
(D) 25476
(B) 0-100+100-1
(C) 0-1+100-10+1
(D) 00-10+100-1
15. If (73)x (in base-x number system) is equal to (54)y (in base-y number system), the possible values of x and y are :
(A) 8,16
(B) 10,12
(C) 9,13
(D) 8,11
16. A machine stores floating point numbers in 7-bit word. The first bit is stored for sign of
the number, the next three for the biased exponent and the next three for the magnitude
of the mantissa. In order to represent 35.35 in the above representation, the error would
be :
(A) underflow
(B) overflow
(C) NaN
[Turn over
17. The probability that two friends share the same birth month is :
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/12
(C) 1/144
(D) 1/24
18. Suppose A is a finite set with n elements. The number of elements in the largest
equivalence relation of A is :
(A) 1
(B) n
(C) n + 1
(D) n2
(B) 9
(C) 18
(D) 512
20. In a population of N families, 50% of the families have three children, 30% of the
families have two children and the remaining families have one child. What is the
probability that a randomly picked child belongs to a family with two children ?
(A) 3/23
(B) 6/23
(C) 3/10
(D) 3/5
21. Two 16:1 and one 2:1 multiplexers can be connected to form a :
(A) 8:1 multiplexer
23. A PDM behaves like a TM when the number of auxiliary memory it has, is :
(A) 0
(B) 1 or more
(C) 2 or more
24. A grammar that is both left and right recursive for a non-terminal, is :
(A) Ambiguous
(B) Unambiguous
(C) Information is not sufficient to decide whether it is ambiguous or not
(D) None of the above
25. Which one of the following regular expressions is NOT equivalent to the regular
expression (a + b + c)* ?
(A) (a* + b* + c*)*
26. A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum
number of hosts that can belong to this subnet ?
(A) 14
(B) 30
(C) 62
(D) 126
(B) 416
(C) 464
(D) 512
30. In a network of LANs connected by bridges, packets are sent from one LAN to another
through intermediate bridges. Since more than one path may exist between two LANs,
packets may have to be routed through multiple bridges. Why is the spanning tree algorithm used for bridge-routing ?
(A) For shortest path routing between LANs
[Turn over
33. The fourth normal form (4NF) is concerned with dependencies between the elements of
compound keys composed of :
(A) one attribute
34. If a table has Functional dependency from A to B and A is not the candidate key, then
which of the following is true ?
(A) Table is not in 2NF
35. Let E1 and E2 be the two entities in an ER diagram with simple single valued attributes.
R1 and R2 are the relationships between E1 and E2, where R1 is one-to-many and R2 is
many-to-many. R1 and R2 do not have any attributes of their own. What is the maximum
number of tables required to represent this situation in the relational model ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
2-phase locking
39. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transforms a file key into a record location is :
(A) a B-tree file
(B) an indexed file
(C) a hashed file
(D) A sequential file
40. Which of the following is true concerning open-source DBMS ?
(A) Is not competitive against PC-oriented packages and is fully SQL compliant
(B) Is competitive against PC-oriented packages and is not fully SQL compliant
(C) Is free or nearly free database software whose source code is not publicly available
(D) Is free or nearly free database software whose source code is publicly available
41. Which of the following types of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of total
maintenance effort in typical commercial application ?
(A) Adaptive maintenance
(B) Corrective maintenance
(C) Preventive maintenance
(D) Perfective maintenance
42. What is the output of the following program :
#include<stdio.h>
main( )
{
enum status {low, medium, high};
enum status rain; rain = 1 ;
if(rain = = low)
printf("Rain =%d", rain);
}
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) No output
(D) Error
43. What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures ? Mean Time
Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days, Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours :
(A) 1%
(B) 24%
(C) 99%
(D) 99.009%
44. Which of the following statements are valid in C, if p is a pointer ?
(A) p = &x
(B) &x++
(C) &x=&y
(D) &x-45. An abstract data type is :
(A) Same as abstract class
(B) A data type which can not be instantiated
(C) A data type for which only the operations defined on it can be used but none else
(D) All of the above
M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A
[Turn over
(B) 3
(C) 2
49. The size of the decoder to select all memory devices of capacity 256 4 each to make a
memory of 4K 8-bit memory is :
(A) 3:8
(B) 4:16
(C) 5:32
50. Which of the following keyword is used to achieve run time polymorphism ?
(A) const
(B) explicit
(C) mutable
(D) virtual
53. HTML has language elements which permit certain actions other than describing the
structure of the web document. Which one of the following actions is NOT supported by
pure HTML (without any server or client side scripting) pages ?
(A) Embedding web objects from different sites into the same page
(B) Refresh the page automatically after a specified interval
(C) Automatically redirect to another page upon download
(D) Display the client time as part of the page
M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A
10
54. How much time would it take to transmit a 1024*1024 image with 256 gray levels using a
56K baud modem ? Transmission is accomplished in packets consisting of a start bit, a
byte (8 bits) of information, and a stop bit :
(A) 157.25 sec
55. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps. What
is throughput of a system (all stations together) produces 250 frames per second ?
(A) 80%
(B) 70.4%
(C) 15.2%
(D) 8.4%
56. Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process ?
(A) Stack
57. A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the following
does the organization need to practice beside Process Change Management and
Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5 ?
(A) Defect Detection
58. Suppose that two parties A and B wish to setup a common secret key (D-H key) between
themselves using the Diffle-Hellman key exchange technique. They agree on 7 as the
modulus and 3 as the primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and party B chooses 5 as their
respective secrets. Their D-H key is :
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
59. Consider the following message M = 1010001101. The cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
for this message using the divisor polynomial x5 + x4 +x2 + 1 is :
(A) 01110
(B) 01011
(C) 10101
(D) 10110
11
[Turn over
61. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this
host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video
transmission ?
(A) It uses error control mechanisms
(B) It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions
(C) It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses
(D) It uses multiple port numbers
62. Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD ?
(A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol
(B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
(C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network
(D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network
63. A system uses FIFO policy for page replacement. It has 4 page frames with no pages
loaded to begin with. The system first accesses 100 distinct pages in some order and
then accesses the same 100 pages but now in the reverse order. How many page faults
will occur ?
(A) 196
(B) 192
(C) 197
(D) 195
64. Which of the following is the programmable internal timer ?
(A) 8250
(B) 8251
(C) 8253
(D) 8275
65. The clock interrupt handle on computer requires 2 msec per clock tick. The clock runs at
60hz. What percent of CPU time is devoted to the clock ?
(A) 1.2
(B) 7.5
(C) 12
(D) 18.5
66. Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to instructions :
(A) CALL and RET
(B) PUSH and POP
(C) STA and LDA
(D) MOV and JMP
67. When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instructions
stored in/on the :
(A) stack pointer
(B) accumulator
(C) program counter
(D) stack
68. The main memory of a computer has 2m blocks while the cache has 2c blocks. If the
cache uses set associative mapping scheme with two blocks per set, then block k of the
main memory maps to the set :
(A) (k mod m) of cache
(B) (k mode c) of cache
(C) (k mod 2c) of cache
(D) (k mod 2m) of cache
M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A
12
69. Registers which are partially visible to users and used to hold conditional codes are
known as :
(A) PC
(D) Flags
70. The access time of a cache memory is 100 ns and that of main memory is 1000 ns. It is
estimated that 80% of memory requests are for read and remaining 20% are for write.
The hit ratio for read access only is 0.9 and write through procedure is used. What is
average access time of the system considering only memory read cycles ?
(A) 200 ns
(B) 300 ns
(C) 720 ns
(D) 800 ns
(D) Anti-aliasing
(B) 0
(C) 8
74. Consider a machine with 64 MB physical memory and a 32-bit virtual address space. If
the page size is 4KB, what is the approximate size of the page table ?
(A) 16 MB
(B) 8 MB
(C) 2 MB
(D) 24 MB
13
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
14
ROUGH WORK
15
301
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Paper : I
Subject : M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)
Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
The open loop DC gain of unity negative feedback system with closed-loop transfer
function
2.
3.
4.
s+4
is :
s + 7 s + 13
2
(A) 4/13
(B) 4/9
(C) 4
(D) 13
For a second order system, if both the roots of the characteristic equation are real and
equal then the value of damping ratio will be :
(A) < 1
(B) Zero
(C) 1
(D) 1
An electromechanical closed-loop control system has the following characteristics equation S3 + 6KS2 + (K + 2) S + 8 = 0 where K is the forward gain of the system. The
condition for closed-loop stability is :
(A) K = 0.528
(B) K = 2
(C) K = 0
(D) K = 2.528
If the open-loop transfer function is a ratio of a numerator polynomial of a degree 'm' and
a denominator polynomial of a degree 'n', then the integer (n m) represents the
number of :
(A) break away points
(D) asymptotes
10
5.
6.
7.
(A) 20 dB
(B) 40 dB
(C) 60 dB
(D) 80 dB
A system has ten poles and two zeros. The slope of its highest frequency asymptote in its
magnitude plot is :
(A) 40 dB/decade
1 2
0
X=
x + u ; Y = [b 0] x, where be is unknown constant the system is :
1
0 1
(A) observable for all values of b
[Turn over
8.
9.
A function f(t) = sin 1.1 t + sin 3.3 t has the time period :
(A) /1.1
(B) 2/1.1
(C) 2/3.3
(D) 3/2.2
The Nyquist plot of a loop transfer function G(jw) H(jw) of a system encloses the (1, 0)
point. The gain margin of the system is :
(A) Less than zero
(B) Zero
(D) Infinity
3
4
B= C
2
3
(B) 4/3
(C) 2/3
(D) 1/3
(C) energy
(B) 162 W
(C) 200 W
(D) 400 W
V2 (s)
10 s
is for an active :
= 2
V1(s) s + 10 s + 100
(B) 3 counts
(C) 2 counts
20. The open-loop gain of an operational amplifier is 105, a signal of 1 mV is applied to the
inverting input with non-inverting input connected to the ground. The supply voltages are
10 V. The output of the amplifier will be :
(A) +100 V
(B) 100 V
(C) +10 V
(D) 10 V
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 6
A, B
RAL
MOV
B, A
(B) multiplies B by A
[Turn over
23. In a digital voltmeter, the oscillator frequency is 400 kHZ, the ramp voltage falls from
8 V to 0 V in 20 msec. The number of pulses counted by the counter is :
(A) 8000
(B) 4000
(C) 3200
(D) 1600
24. Which of the following transducers can be used for magnetic flux density measurement ?
(A) LVDT
(B) Synchro
(D) Thermocouple
(B) 10 ohm
(D) 1 M ohm
(B) CRO
28. The most commonly used null detector in power frequency ac bridge is a :
(A) vibration galvanometer
(D) tachometer
(B) voltmeter
(D) megger
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) X
(D) X
31. Which of the following does not require auxiliary circuitry if used as transducer ?
(A) capacitance
(B) photocell
(C) resistance
(D) inductance
(B) 1000
(C) 3 digit
(D) 1 mV
35. Which of the following connections of the three phase transformer causes interference
to the nearby communication system ?
(A) Delta-star
(B) Star-delta
(C) Star-star
(D) Delta-delta
38. For a slip ring induction motor, if the resistance is increased, then :
(A) Starting torque and efficiency increases
(B) Starting torque and efficiency decreases
(C) Starting torque decreases but efficiency increases
(D) Starting torque increases but efficiency decreases
[Turn over
39. An amplifier with no feedback has a gain bandwidth product of 5 MHz. Its closed loop
gain is 50. The new bandwidth will be :
(A) 250 kHz
(C) 10 kHz
(D) 20 kHz
42. In an RC phase shift oscillator, the minimum number of R-C networks to be connected in
cascade will be :
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
45. A voltage wave containing 20% harmonics is applied to an inductor. The percentage of
third harmonics in the current wave will be :
(A) much less than 20%
(C) 20%
(D) 10%
46. The voltages measured across R, L and C in a series RLC circuit connected with a
sinusoidal source are 3 V, 14 V and 10 V respectively. The input voltage is :
(A) 27 V
(B) 5 V
(C) 24 V
(D) 10 V
(B) 1020%
(C) 2025%
(D) 2530%
50. Breakdown in a silicon UJT was observed to occur at a voltage of 6 V for a VBB = 10 V.
Its (stand off ratio) is :
(A) 1.66
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.54
(D) 0.4
T /2
1
(C) relaxes indefinitely
(D) oscillates continuously
f (t ) dt
T T / 2
54. A differential amplifier essentially consist of :
(A) two input and two output terminals
(B) only resistors and transistors
(C) two transistors
(D) two CE amplifiers having their emitters directly coupled to each other
55. In Fourier expression, the Coefficient a0 is found by :
1
(B) 2T
(A)
T /2
1
(C) T f (t ) cos t dt
T / 2
2
(D) T
T /2
f (t ) dt
T / 2
f (t ) dt
0
[Turn over
56. The figure below shows the circuit of which one of the following ?
+ VDD
vO1
V in
vO2
57. In the circuit given below, both transistors have same voltage VT. What is the
approximate value of the highest possible output voltage Vout, if Vin can range from 0 to
VDD ? Assume 0 < VT < VDD .
V DD
V out
V in
(A) VDD VT
(B) VDD
(C) VT
(D) Zero
j 20
50 0o V
ZL
(A) 25 W
(B) 30.6 W
(C) 62.5 W
(D) 110 W
10
59. Which one of the following sets of equations is independent in Maxwell's equations ?
(A) Two curl equations
(B) Two divergence equations
(C) Both curl and divergence equations
(D) Two curl equations combined with continuity equation
60. The signal flow graph for a system is shown below. The number of forward paths is :
a42
a23
a12
x2
x1
a44
a32
a34
a45
x4
x3
x5
a35
a52
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
61. The equivalent inductance of system shown below is :
L1
L2
M
1'
(A) L1 + L2
(B) L1 + L2 + 2M
(C) L1 + L2 2M
(D) L1 L2 2M
62. The current flowing through the load resistor RL in the circuit is :
+
6V
RL =
(A) 0.2 A
(C) 0.5 A
(B) 0.25 A
(D) 1.0 A
11
[Turn over
(B) f (t ) = a0 +
(C) f (t ) =
n =1
n =1
n =1
(D) f (t ) = a0 +
(cos n t + sin n t )
n =1
64. Which of the following is not the tree of the given graph ?
5
2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12
i8 = 6 A
i6
i5
i4
i7 = 3 A
i3= 4 A
i1 = 2 A
i2
(A) 2A
(B) 2A
(C) 5A
(D) 5A
66. The waveform shown below is given to dc meter. The reading of the meter will be :
I
10 mA
(A) 5 mA
(B) 10 mA
(C) 7.1 mA
(D) 6.3 mA
R1
Load
R2
rV
(A) a voltage source with voltage R || R
1
2
r || R2
V
R1
r || R2 V
R2
V
(C) a current source with current R + R r (D) a current source with current R + R r
1
2
1
2
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343
13
[Turn over
(B) 0024 H
(C) 0028 H
(D) 002C H
69. In the switching circuit shown in the figure below, RC time constant is much switching
longer as compared to the time period of its input pulse signal.
Vin
C
R
Vin
Vin
O
Vout
O
O
(A)
(B)
(C) +V
(D)
+V
O
70. Differential mode voltage gain of the amplifier for the figure is :
R
R
vo
v1
o1
o2
v2
R
vu
hfe RL
(A)
hic
RL
(B) 2R
E
RL
(C) R
E
(D)
14
h fc R L
RE
71. AC-to-DC circulating current dual converters are operated with which of the following
relationship between their triggering angles ?
(A) 1 2 = 180
(B) 1 + 2 = 360
(C) 1 + 2 = 180
(D) 1 + 2 = 90
72. The fully controlled SCR converter in the figure is fed from a single-phase source. When
the firing angle is zero, the DC output voltage of the converter is 300 V. What will be the
output voltage for a firing angle of 60o, assuming continuous conduction ?
+
V dc
(A) 150 V
(B) 210
(C) 300
(D) 100
2
73. The differential equation d x + 10 dx + 25x = 0 will have a solution of the form :
dt
dt 2
s + bs + ba
Log
ab
s + as +
(B) C1e2t
e at e bt
is :
t
sb
(A) s + b
(B)
(C)
(D)
75. A plane electromagnetic wave travelling along = z direction, has its electric field given by
t) and Ey = 2 cos(
t + 90). The wave is :
Ex = 2 cos (
(A) Linearly polarized
15
ROUGH WORK
16
100
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Maximum Marks : 75
1.
2.
3.
(C) Plasmids
(D) Chondroids
4.
5.
6.
7.
(B) 2000
(C) 50,000
(D) 2,00,000
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Cholera
8.
[Turn over
9.
Import of Vitamin B12 into gram negative bacterial cells is facilitated by special class of
proteins in the outermembrane known as :
(A) Integrins
(C) Tubulins
10. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(B) Adhesins
(D) Porins
(C) Enterotoxin
(D) Deoxyribonuclease-B
14. The first physician to make practical application of the germ theory of disease to surgery
was :
(A) Louis Pasteur
15. All of the following statements are true about pneumococci except :
(A) Pneumococci cause lobar pneumonia
16. Which part of the adult female genital tract is usually not involved in gonorrhea ?
(A) Cervix uteri
(C) Endometrium
17. Which of the following statement is true with regard to the nature of viriods and prions ?
(A) Viriods are DNA and prions are RNA
(B) Rhizobium
(C) Nostoc
(D) Bradyrhizobium
[Turn over
(B) Coagulase
(C) Catalase
(D) DNase
27. Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicating DNA ?
(A) Ethidium bromide
(B) Nitrosogeranidine
(B) T4 Phage
(C) Neutrophils
(D) Eosinophils
(B) Semiconservative
(C) Dispersive
(B) Hormones
(C) RNA
(D) DNA
34. First genetically engineered and biotechnologically produced vaccine was against :
(A) AIDS
(D) Hepatitis B
35. Tobacco and tea leaves are fermented to give flavour and taste. This type of
fermentation is known as :
(A) Alcohol fermentation
(B) Curing
(C) Degradation
(B) Catalase
(C) Coagulase
(D) Hyaluronidase
(B) Headspace
(C) Impeller
(D) Sparger
(B) Penicillin
(B) 30oC50oC
(C) 20oC50oC
(D) 25oC30oC
41. The strain of fungi used for the larger scale production of penicillin is :
(A) Penicillium chrysogenum
(B) P. notatum
(B) Ciprofloxacin
(D) Gatifloxacin
(B) Species
(C) Strain
(D) Family
44. Which of the following bacteria are unlikely to be examined in food sample ?
(A) Salmonella
(B) Clostridium
[Turn over
(B) Glycerine
(B) 40-60bp
(C) 35-55bp
(D) 40-45bp
47. Bacteria are more sensitive to the action of antibiotics at which phase of the growth
curve ?
(A) Decline phase
(B) Lactobacilli
(C) Bacilli
(B) Corn
(D) Molasses
50. Isolation of which of the following bacteria from the blood of a patient with signs of sepsis
is highly suggestive of an underlying malignancy ?
(A) Bacteroides fragilis
51. All of the following are RNA viruses with helical symmetry except :
(A) Reoviridae
(B) Bunyaviridae
(C) Orthomyxoviridae
(D) Paramyxoviridae
(C) folding
(D) charge
56. All of the following are used to characterize prokaryotic organisms for the First Edition
of Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology except :
(A) Gram-staining properties
57. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon entry with :
(A) Methylase
(B) Endonuclease
(C) Ligases
(D) Exonucleases
58. How many disulfide bonds are there in a typical immunoglobulin molecule ?
(A) 25
(B) 69
(C) 1020
(D) 28
59. The lowest temperature that kills all microorganisms in a liquid suspension in 10 minutes
is known as the :
(A) decimal reduction time
60. Toll like receptors play an important role in immune defense by recognizing :
(A) Microbial components
(B) Conformational changes in antigenic proteins
(C) MHC peptide complexes
(D) Anti-idiotypic immunoglobulins
61. Differential Interference Contrast microscopy :
(A) compares two identical specimens on the same microscope
(B) illuminates the specimen with light of two different colors
(C) illuminates the specimen with light of two different phases
(D) illuminates the specimen with both reflected and transmitted light
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375
[Turn over
(B) Leucine
(C) Histidine
(D) Tyrosine
64. Bacteria do not always swim aimlessly but are attracted by nutrients such as sugar and
amino acids, and are repelled by harmful substances and bacterial waste products.
Movement toward chemical attractants and away from repellents is called :
(A) Swimming motility
(C) Tumbling
(D) Chemotaxis
66. Which of the following molecules form the part of specific immune response ?
(A) Complement components
(B) Interferons
(D) Cytokines
(B) Neutrophils
(D) Macrophages
69. A mutation :
(A) Is a stably inherited change in the genotype
(B) Is a stably inherited change in the phenotype
(C) Always involves a change in the amino acid sequence of the affected gene product
(D) Is a stably inherited change in the genotype and phenotype
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375
10
70. Which of the following parasites does not have the cystic stage ?
(A) Trichomonas vaginalis
71. Which of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of electron donors in their
environments ?
(A) Chemotroph
(B) Lithotroph
(C) Autotroph
(D) Heterotroph
72. Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may do any of the following but NOT :
(A) Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis
(B) Cat
(C) Dog
(D) Chicken
75. The ability of Vibrio fischeri to produce bioluminescence chemicals only when a certain
population density has been reached is an example of :
(A) Liebig's Law of the minimum
11
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
12
136
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(B) Challenge
(C) Continuity
(D) Integrity
If a match live commentary in Delhi commences at 10.00 am, at what time the viewer at
London should tune into it ?
(A) 4.00 a.m.
Who was the first male sprinter to win Olympic gold in 200 m and 400 m races at the
same time ?
(A) Michael Johnson
(B) Billiards
(C) Bridge
(D) Snooker
(B) Endurance
(C) Exercise
(D) Co-ordination
[Turn over
9.
Which Principle of Training is being applied when a coach devises two different training
programmes for two different athletes, even though they are training for the same
event ?
(A) Specificity
(B) Progression
(C) Reversibility
10. ATLAS OF MAN which describes the body types was written by :
(A) Heath
(B) Carter
(C) Kretchmer
(D) Sheldon
(B) Agility
(C) Strength
(D) Speed
(B) G. D. Sondhi
(C) H. C. Buck
(D) Vaidya P. R.
(B) Potassium
(C) Calcium
(D) Glycogen
15. Which country is said to be the pioneer in starting the Recreation movement in the
world ?
(A) USA
(B) England
(C) China
(D) Germany
16. The best indicator for measuring the intensity of your workout is :
(A) The total time of the conditioning bout
17. Which countrys Olympic athletes sport the letters RSA on their vests ?
(A) Russia
(B) Extensors
(C) Abductors
(D) Adductors
19. Which of the following is a set of five events included in Modern Pentathlon ?
(A) Cycling, Skating, Shooting, Gymnastics, Running
(B) Judo, Shooting, Swimming, Cycling, Running
(C) Horse riding, Fencing, Shooting, Gymnastics, Running
(D) Horse riding, Fencing, Shooting, Swimming, Running
20. The rate of progress in learning slows down and reaches a limit beyond which further
improvement seems impossible. It is known as :
(A) Plateau
(C) Boredom
21. Exercise for the body and music for the soul : in which country this common adage was
used ?
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Greece
(D) Germany
22. The initial steep rise in the learning graph is an indication of quick progress and is
technically known as :
(A) End spurt
23. Which among the following sports is NOT a part of the London Olympics ?
(A) Taekwondo
(B) Baseball
(D) Triathlon
(B) 18-24
(C) 18.5-24.9
(D) 18.2-24.2
(B) Hunger
(C) Appetite
(D) Weakness
[Turn over
28. In races that do not start in lanes, competitors may be divided into two groups and placed
on separate arced starting lines according to the following :
(A) 65% of runners placed on outer lanes arced line
(B) 35% of runners placed on inner lane arced line
(C) 65% of runners placed on inner lane arced line
(D) None of the above
29. The inner lining of heart is called :
(A) Myocardium
(B) Pericardium
(C) Endocardium
(D) Epicardium
30. Which city will host the 2014 Winter Olympic Games ?
(A) Sochi
(B) La Rinconada
(D) Vancouver
31. The gladiatorial combats were a very popular past time for all sorts of people in
ancient :
(A) Greece
(B) Rome
(C) China
(D) Germany
32. Who is the first Indian woman to reach the semi finals of All England Badminton
Championship ?
(A) Jawala Gutta
33. Which of the following should be the primary objective of an intramural program ?
(A) Involving the greatest possible number of students in the program
(B) Providing for well-balanced competition in individual and team sports throughout the
program
(C) Stimulating the interest of spectators and gaining Newspaper coverage of intramural events
(D) Providing a wide variety of activities for teams and for individuals
34. Which sport was originally called Mintonette ?
(A) Basketball
(B) Volleyball
(C) Handball
(D) Football
(D) Supraspinatus
36. Russian athletes took part in Olympic Games for the first time in :
(A) 1908
(B) 1912
(C) 1896
(D) 1904
(B) Musculogy
(C) Myology
(D) Mytology
38. The two principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are :
(A) Actin and Troponin
[Turn over
43. Which of these combined events is NOT part of track and field ?
(A) Triathlon
(B) Pentathlon
(C) Decathlon
(D) Heptathlon
44. The summer Olympic Games have been held in 3 different cities in the USA : Los
Angeles and Atlanta are two of them. Which is the other ?
(A) Chicago
(B) Umpires
(D) Marshals
47. What does the second letter in the acronym IAAF stand for ?
(A) Amateur
(B) Association
(C) Athletics
(D) Asian
48. The exchanging of gases for the purpose of producing energy is called _________.
(A) Breathing
(B) Respiration
(C) Circulation
(D) Restitution
(B) Trampoline
(C) Shooting
(D) Golf
(B) Oblique
(C) Coronal
(D) Transverse
(C) Ribs
(B) Lords
(C) Carisbrook
54. In 1976 Montreal Olympics, who was the first Asian to reach the finals of 800m race in
Athletics ?
(A) Harichand
(B) Shivnath
(B) Somalia
(C) Spain
(D) Singapore
(B) Galon
(C) Aristotle
(D) Socrates
(B) Heredity
(C) Conditioning
(D) Reasoning
60. The onset of puberty for boys is between _________ years; for girls it is between
_________ years of age.
(A) 9-13; 10-12
(B) 10-14 cm
(C) 10-16 cm
(D) 5-9 cm
[Turn over
63. What will you do as Principal if a teacher of the school does not come to a function of
school on time ?
(A) You will ask him to meet you after the function is over
(B) You will complain this to the management committee of the school
(C) You will scold him before everyone
(D) You will tell him about his responsibilities
64. How many apparatus are used in women artistic gymnastics ?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) Four
(B) Nucleus
(D) Cytoplasm
10
70. When we mark two starting lines in long distance events it is called _________.
(A) Split start
71. The maximum weight of the cross bar shall be _________ in pole vault.
(A) 2 kg
(B) 2.25 kg
(C) 2.50 kg
(D) 2.75 kg
72. Which Official shall check the readiness of baton in relay race ?
(A) Starter
(B) Recaller
(B) 94
(C) 73
(D) 81
(B) Competence
(D) Performance
11
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
12
132
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Maximum Marks : 75
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
When a human donor gives a pint of blood, it usually requires how many weeks for the
body reserve of red corpuscles to be replaced ?
(A) 1 week
(B) 3 weeks
(C) 7 weeks
(D) 21 weeks
Lengthening of long bones in humans occurs in a particular area of the bone. This area is
called the :
(A) Medullary canal
(C) Periosteum
(D) Epiphysis
The part of the human brain which is an important relay station for the sensory impulses
and also is the origin of many of the involuntary acts of the eye such as the narrowing of
the pupil in bright light is the :
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Midbrain
(D) Cerebellum
(B) Anaphase
(C) Telophase
(D) Extophase
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(C) Grandmothers
(D) Urethra
[Turn over
11. The valve between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery is the :
(A) Mitral valve
(B) Colon
(C) Mouth
(D) Stomach
13. The complex of sugar polymers and proteins which are patchily distributed on the plasma
membranes of animal cells is called :
(A) Cellulose
(B) Chitin
(C) Glyocalyx
(D) Cytoskeleton
14. The type of gene interaction in which the effects of one gene override or mask the
effects of other entirely different genes is called :
(A) Linkage
(B) Mutation
(C) Pleitropy
(D) Epistasis
(C) Influenza
(D) Tuberculosis
16. What is the daily energy requirement of a person doing very hard work ?
(A) 400 kJ
(B) 600 kJ
(C) 800 kJ
(D) 16000 kJ
17. National Immunization Schedule of India gives OPV to the children for preventing :
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Polio
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Elephantasis
(B) Collenchyma
(C) Pericycle
(D) Endodermis
19. Mycorrhizas is :
(A) An association between Fungus and Plant root
(B) An association between Algae and Plant root
(C) An association between Bacteria and Plant root
(D) An association between Virus and Plant root
Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349
(C) Liver
(D) Pancreas
(D) Peritonium
(B) Coronal
(C) Sagittal
(D) Occipital
(D) Autism
(B) Phytochemicals
(C) Pollutants
(D) Enzymes
27. Which of these dark-green leafy vegetables is not a good source of calcium ?
(A) Spinach
(B) Broccoli
(C) Kale
(D) Mustard
(B) Vertebrae
(D) Ligaments
[Turn over
(B) 3 minutes
(C) 12 minutes
31. Which of the following is not the way to make sure you meet the highest standards of
personal hygiene ?
(A) Limit the jewellery that you wear
(B) B
(C) AB
(D) O
34. Oxfam is :
(A) Drug
(B) Medicine
(C) Organisation provides relief of sufferings as a result of wars or other causes in world
(D) Diseases
35. Berksons bias is a form of :
(A) Information bias
(B) Village
(D) Country
(C) in literature
(D) in statistics
38. Elimination of leprosy as a public health problem was defined by the WHO as :
(A) The disease pathogen does not exist in that region
(B) The reduction of prevalence to a level below one per 1,000
(C) The reduction of prevalence to a level below one per 10,000
(D) The reduction of prevalence to a level below one per 1,00,000
Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349
(B) Cholera
(C) Shigella
(D) Malaria
40. Salutogenesis is :
(A) A type of disease
(B) Shushruta
(C) Hahnemann
(D) Hippocrates
(B) Animal
(D) Disease
[Turn over
(C) Influenza
50. Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness (IMNCI) strategy is adopted
under :
(A) RCH I
(B) RCH II
(C) NGO
(D) FRU
(D) Having 4 Kg wt
(C) K. Gough
54. People in the cybernetic age are categorized into Alpha and Beta. Which one of the
following belongs to Alpha category ?
(A) Illiterate tribal
(B) Cultivator
(B) E. Evans-Pritchard
(C) A. Powell
(D) A. Giddens
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
[Turn over
66. How much space is recommended for a person sufficient for keeping him healthy ?
(A) 1-2 cubic feet/person
67. Which of the following is not a health effect due to Radiation Pollution ?
(A) Leukemia
(D) Carcinogenesis
68. Leachate is a :
(A) Liquid mixed air
(D) Pesticide
(D) Scientist
72. In Bhopal gas tragedy which poisonous gas was not released ?
(A) MIC
(B) HCN
(C) CO
(D) Chlorine
73. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green Revolution ?
(A) Mechanized agriculture
(D) Monoculture
(B) Cr+3
(C) Cr+6
(D) Cr0
10
ROUGH WORK
11
160
OCET-2012
Sr. No. :
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
2.
The output of the Nicol prism, when monochromatic natural light is incident on it, is
(A) ordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(B) extraordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
(C) extraordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(D) ordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
3.
4.
The colours observed on the surface spilled on the roads are due to
(A) Thin film interference
(B) Newton ring formation
(C) Dispersion of light by the oil film
(D) Scattering of different colours of white light by thin film
5.
6.
A thick sheet of glass 3.7 m is placed in the path of one of the interfering beams, of the wavelength 550 nm, in the Fresnel biprism arrangement. If the central maximum is shifted to the
position earlier occupied by the 5th bright fringe, the refractive index of the sheet is
(A) 1.65
(B) 1.54
(C) 1.74
(D) 1.43
Calculate the radius of 3rd half period zone of the zone plate of focal length 1.5 m illuminated
by light of wavelength 593 nm
(A) 2.04 mm
(B) 1.98 mm
(C) 1.07 mm
(D) 1.63 mm
[Turn over
7.
8.
9.
Which of the following is not an experimental technique to obtain a polarised beam of light ?
(A) Dichorism
10. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60. If the reflected and refracted light are
perpendicular to each other, the refractive index of the glass is
(A) 1.3
(B) 2.1
(C) 1.9
(D) 1.7
11. In the Youngs double slit experiment performed with white light, the colour of the central fringe
will be
(A) white
(B) black
(C) red
(D) violet
14. Calculate the maximum current in the RC harmonic oscillator consisting of inductance of
0.2 mH and capacitance of 5.12 F, when maximum voltage across the capacitor is 0.1 V.
(A) 16 mA
(B) 8 mA
(C) 4 mA
(D) 10 mA
15. The forced series LCR electrical oscillator is not characterised by which of the following
properties ?
(A) at resonance, the inductive and capacitive reactance counterbalance each other
(B) The current is maximum at resonance
(C) The power absorption from source is minimum at resonance
(D) Oscillation frequency solely depends upon the inductance and capacitance at resonance
16. When electromagnetic wave propagates through a dielectric medium, then
(A) Electric and magnetic fields oscillate in phase and with same frequency
(B) Electric and magnetic fields oscillate in phase but not with same frequency
(C) Magnetic field oscillates with a phase lag relative to electric field
(D) Electric field oscillates with a phase lag relative to magnetic field
17. The relative permittivity of the medium is 3.24. The refractive index of this medium will be :
(A) 2.2
(B) 1.8
(C) 1.6
(D) 2.0
18. The Poynting vector associated with an electromagnetic wave gives the information about :
(A) power flux and direction of propagation of EM wave
(B) frequency of EM wave
(C) rate of oscillations of electric and magnetic field intensities
(D) dispersive power of the medium through which EM wave is propagating
19. The electric field intensity (in SI units) inside a charged spherical shell of radius 15 m and surface
charge density 15 C per m2 is
(A) 1
(B) 1/15
(C) 0
(D) 15
20. The electric lines of force at any point on the equipotential surfaces
(A) are parallel to it
[Turn over
21. A current of 10A flows through a conductor of cross-section 1 mm2. If the density of charge
carriers is 1021 cm3, then calculate the drift velocity of electrons
(A) 6.25 cm/s
(C) Increase in mean free path of electrons (D) Increase in charge carrier density
23. The magnetic field intensity due to a long current carrying solenoid is proportional to
(A) Inversely proportional to current
(B) Directly proportional to number of turns of wire
(C) Independent of permeability of core introduced
(D) Inversely proportional to permeability of core
24. Electrical resistance of conductor owes its origin to
(A) surface barrier potential binding the electrons
(B) thermal vibration of electrons
(C) scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions
(D) scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions as well as impurity atoms/ions
25. Which of the following processes makes use of electromagnetic induction ?
(A) Charging a storage battery
(B) Magnetising an iron piece with a bar magnet
(C) Generation of hydroelectricity
(D) Magnetising a soft iron piece by placing inside a current carrying solenoid
26. The atomic unit of electric dipole moment is
(A) 1 Debye = 3.33 1030 cm
27. The ratio E(axial)/E(Equatorial) between axial and equatorial electric fields due to a short electric
dipole is
(A) 1.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.5
28. Two streams of electrons moving parallel to each other in the same direction
(A) Attract each other
32. A bar magnet is cut into two equal pieces. The pole strength of either piece will be
(A) halved
(B) unchanged
(C) doubled
(B) ebonite
(C) metal
35. In a region where electric field is 5 N/C, 40 lines of electric force are crossing per m2. The number of lines crossing per m2, where the electric field intensity is 10 N/C will be
(A) 20
(B) 80
(C) 100
(D) 200
[Turn over
36. The length of the metre stick moving parallel to its length, when its mass is 1.5 times its rest
mass, is
(A) 150 cm
(B) 66.7 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 125 cm
37. The planets revolving around the sun in the solar system obey the law, relating their time
period of revolution and average radius of orbit, expressed as :
(A) T r3
(B) T2 r3
(C) T2 r5
(D) T r
39. The radius of carbon atom in the diamond crystal structure having cubic unit cell edge
16 3 nm is
(A) 6 nm
(B) 8 nm
(C) 16 3 nm
(D) 8 3 nm
(B) Bremmstahlung
43. Which of the following energy terms does not contribute in the binding energy formula derived
using liquid drop model for nucleus ?
(A) Surface energy
44. For the alpha decay from natural radionuclides, which of the following observations does not
hold true ?
(A) The emission of alpha particle takes place following tunnelling of barrier
(B) The energetic alpha particles are emitted by radionuclide with shorter half life
(C) The energy required by alpha particle to penetrate a radionuclide is much smaller than the kinetic energy of alpha particle emitted by that radionuclide
(D) The alpha decaying radionuclides have mass number greater than 200
45. Which of the following properties is not associated with the neutrino particle ?
(A) nearly zero mass
(B) no charge
46. A radioactive specimen, consisting of 10000 active atoms, has a half life of 1 hour. How many
radioactive atoms will be left in the specimen after a duration of 3 hours ?
(A) 1250
(B) 5000
(C) 2500
(D) 7500
47. A radionuclide, with mass number A and Atomic number Z, undergoes positron decay. The product
will be characterized by
(A) Mass number = A, Atomic number = Z 1
(B) Mass number = A, Atomic number = Z + 1
(C) Mass number = A + 1, Atomic number = Z 1
(D) Mass number = A 1, Atomic number = Z 1
48. Which of the following does not support the shell structure of the nucleus ?
(A) Extra stability for nuclei with proton or/and neutron number equal to one of the magic numbers
(B) Low natural abundance of nuclei with proton or/and neutron number equal to one of the magic
numbers
(C) Nuclei with proton or/and numbers equal to magic numbers are spherical in shape
(D) Nuclei, with proton or/and neutron numbers equal to one of the magic numbers, have large number
of isotopes
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A
[Turn over
(C) zero
27Al
(A) 4.8 fm
(B) 3.6 fm
(C) 3.0 fm
(D) 4.2 fm
13
nucleus will be
52. The kinetic energy of each of the electron and positron generated in the pair production of
1.522 MeV will be
(A) 0.756 MeV
53. A photon of 45 picometre wavelength undergoes scattering by loosely bound electron nearly at
rest. The maximum wavelength of the scattered photon will be
(A) 40.2 picometre
54. Which of the following phenomena are not explicable using wave nature of light ?
(A) photoelectric effect
55. The photoelectric emission of K-shell electron, with binding energy of 3.2 eV, is caused by a
6.5 keV photon. The kinetic energy of emitted electron is
(A) 9.7 keV
3 2
(C)
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A
(B)
3
2
(D)
10
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 4
58. For the van der Waals force, the dependence of the interaction energy on distance r is proportional to
(A) ~ r6
(B) ~ r7
(C) ~ r3
(D) ~ r2
59. A 214Pb (Z = 82) nucleus decays via two decays and one alpha decay, the resulting nucleus is
(A)
210Pb
(B)
210Bi
(C)
210Au
(D)
210Pt
60. Miller indices of the plane parallel to the x-axis and y-axis are
(A) (0, 0, 1)
(B) (1, 0, 0)
(C) (0, 1, 0)
(D) (1, 1, 0)
61. In case of a system of identical, indistinguishable particles obeying Pauli exclusion principle,
the number of particles in each state at the temperature T is proportional to (k is Boltzmann
constant and f is the Fermi energy)
1
exp[( f ) /(A)
kT ] + 1
1
(C) 1 exp[( ) / kT ]
f
1
(B) exp[( ) / kT ] 1
f
(D)
1
exp[ / kT] + 1
(B) ~ 1012 m
(C) ~ 1010 m
(D) ~ 1013 m
11
[Turn over
64. In full wave rectifier with input frequency of 50 Hz, the frequency of the output is
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 100 Hz
(C) 150 Hz
(D) 200 Hz
(B) A1 + A2
(C) A1 A2
(D) A1/A2
68. The least preferred principal crystal structures for the metallic crystals is
(A) Simple cubic
(D) Hexagonal
(C) metallic
70. A reverse voltage of 10 V is applied across a Si diode. The magnitude of voltage across the depletion
layer will be
(A) 0 V
(B) ~ 0.7 V
(C) ~ 10 V
(D) ~ 1.1 V
12
71. The thermally generated electrons and holes acquire sufficient energy from the applied
potential to produce new carriers by removing valence electrons from their bonds. These new
carriers in turn produce additional carriers again through the process of disrupting bonds. The
cumulative process is referred to as
(A) Avalanche breakdown
(B) GalnP
(C) GaAllnP
(D) InAs
(D) no gate
13
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
14
ROUGH WORK
15
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
16
276
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Maximum Marks : 75
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)/A
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
(B) Aluminium
(C) Nicrome
(D) Platinum
Which of the following material is best suited for resistance of high value ?
(A) Manganin
(B) Nickel-chromium
(C) Constantan
The fact as to how closely the instrument reading follows the measured variables is
called the :
(A) Accuracy
(B) Precision
(C) Fidelity
(D) Sensitivity
7.
8.
9.
The efficiency of an instrument is defined as the ratio of the measured quantity at full
scale to the power taken by the instrument at :
(A) One-fourth scale
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
[Turn over
(B) Ammeter
(C) Wattmeter
(B) Logarithmic
(C) Exponential
14. Moving iron and PMMC instruments can be distinguished from each other by looking at
the :
(A) Pointer
(C) Scale
(B) Small a. c.
(C) Small d. c.
(D) Large d. c.
16. To which of the following you will prefer to extend the range of an a. c. voltmeter ?
(A) Low series resistance
(C) CT
(D) PT
(B) Current
(C) Phase
(D) Energy
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
(B) Capacitance
(B) Hi R
(C) Low L
(D) Hi L
23. Which of the following is used to measure the resistance of an electrical installation ?
(A) Multimeter
(D) Megger
(D) Recording
(B) Potentiometer
26. Stator of the phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an a. c. potentiometer
usually has a ___________ winding.
(A) 1-
(B) 2-
(C) 3-
(D) 6-
(B) RL combination
(D) LC combination
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
[Turn over
31. The __________ earthing device is used to remove all the earth capacitance from the
bridge circuit.
(A) Phase
(B) Schering
(C) Wagner
(D) Maxwell
33. The impurity in liquid having significant effect in reducing the breakdown strength is :
(A) Dust
(B) Moisture
34. The main difference between electronic and electrical instrument is that an electronic
instrument has :
(A) An indicating device
(C) A transducer
(B) Ohm/A
(C) A/division
(D) Ohm/V
(C) Frequency BW
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
(B) Delta
(C) Series
(D) Parallel
(B) 10 k
(C) 100
(D) 1M
44. How many time base circuits does a dual trace CRO has ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
45. Which one of the following oscillator is used for generation of hi-frequencies ?
(A) RC phase shift
(C) LC oscillator
(B) Digital IC
(B) Linear
(D) Low BW
(B) An integrator
(C) A multiplier
(D) An exponential
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
[Turn over
(B) 1100101
(C) 1011001
(D) 1001001
(B) JFET
(C) MOSFET
52. A _________ crystal is used for accurate and stable time base circuit in a digital frequency
meter.
(A) Quartz
(C) Aluminium
(D) Carbon
(B) DC
(C) AC voltage
(D) DC voltage
(B) 88%
(C) 50%
(D) 40.6%
(D) Diamond
(B) Silicon
(D) Carbon
(C) A switch
(D) A resistor
(B) 66%
(C) 50%
(D) 40%
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
(B) Class B
(C) Class AB
(D) Class C
64. The 2732 is 40968 EPROM. How many address lines does it have ?
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 50
(D) 32
66. Which of the following bus is used to transfer data from main memory to peripheral
device ?
(A) DMA bus
(B) 0024h
(C) 0028h
(D) 002Ch
69. A program that translates symbolically represented instructions into their binary
equivalents is called :
(A) Loader
(B) Assembler
(C) Link
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
[Turn over
70. American standard code for information interchange (ASCII) employs a coded character
set consisting of :
(A) 7 bit
(C) 8 bit
(B) VSB
(C) FM
(D) AM
(B) 10W
(C) 10KW
(D) 10mW
(B) PWM
(C) PCM
(D) PEM
(B) Transformer
(C) Regulator
(D) Reflector
(B) Parabolic
(C) Dipole
(D) Helical
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
10
ROUGH WORK
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346
11
160
OCET-2012
Booklet Series Code : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Maximum Marks : 75
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)/A
1.
2.
Hole gate oxide tunneling is lesser than electron gate oxide tunneling in a thin silicon
oxide MOSFET because :
(A) Holes are heavier and the barrier heights offered to them are larger than electrons
(B) Holes are lighter and the barrier heights offered to them are larger than electrons
(C) Holes are heavier and the barrier heights offered to them are lower than electrons
(D) Holes are lighter and the barrier heights offered to them are lower than electrons
3.
4.
5.
6.
(B) DRAM
(C) MRAM
(D) NMOS
Silicon nitride capping when deposited over the gate of a MOSFET results in :
(A) Biaxial Strain
7.
8.
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
[Turn over
9.
(B) Metallization
(D) Etching
(C) Polydepletion
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
[Turn over
(B) HF
(C) HCL
33. Oxides grown by wet oxidation are poorer than oxides grown by dry oxidation mainly
because :
(A) Hydrogen oozes out of the oxide
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
34. Dry etching is better than wet etching because dry etching :
(A) Is isotropic
(B) Is anisotropic
(C) Is anisotropic
(B) DDD
(C) Vertical
(B) SRAM
(C) FRAM
(D) PRAM
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
[Turn over
(C) DRAM
(D) MRAM
47. The output swing of an enhancement mode MOSFET inverter where supply voltage Vdd
and enhancement load threshold Voltage Vtn is :
(A) Vdd+Vtn
(B) Vdd
(C) Vdd-Vtn
(B) Multiplier
(C) XOR
(C) Tetrode
52. HBT :
(A) is used to increase current gain
(D) is a MOSFET
(B) Semiconductors
(C) Ferroelectrics
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
(B) PRAM
(D) MOSFETs
56. MINIMOS is :
(A) Circuit simulator
(B) BJTs
(C) Resistors
(D) Capacitors
(B) BJT
(C) Capacitor
(D) JFET
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
[Turn over
63. BIST is a :
(A) Short channel effect
65. Which of the following is true about a CMOS inverter and MOSFET inverter with
depletion load ?
(A) Each type has three PMOS transistors
(C) 6 NMOS
(D) 9 PMOS
70. BSDL is :
(A) Testing language
(B) DRAM
(C) FRAM
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
10
(B) tox = 2 Lg
(C) Inp
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
11
ROUGH WORK
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344
12
236
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Maximum Marks : 75
2.
3.
4.
5.
The part of machine level Instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be
done, is :
(A) Operation code
(B) Address
(C) Locator
(D) Flip-Flop
(D) Cotyledons
A computer assisted method for the recording and analyzing of existing or hypothetical
systems is :
(A) Data transmission
For a series LCR circuit at resonance, the statement which is not true is :
(A) Peak energy stored by a capacitor = peak energy stored by an inductor
(B) Average power = apparent power
(C) Wattless current is zero
(D) Power factor is zero
6.
7.
8.
9.
(B) Classifying
(C) Reproducing
(D) Summarizing
One byte can be used to encode any integer between 'O' and -inclusive :
(A) 16
(B) 256
(C) 128
(D) 255
(B) Electrolysis
(C) Osmosis
(D) Cataphoresis
(B) Keyboard
(C) Mouse
(B) 1976
(C) 1950
(D) 1992
13. The ability of a computer system to remain operational despite various failures is :
(A) Relation
(B) Schema
(C) Resilience
(D) Versatility
15. Pollen grains of a plant whose 2n =28 are cultured to get callus by tissue culture method.
What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the callus ?
(A) 21
(B) 14
(C) 56
(D) 28
(B) Cycadopsida
(C) Coniferopsida
(D) Sphenopsida
(D) Autosomes
[Turn over
19. Which of the following computer language is used for artificial intelligence ?
(A) Fortran
(B) Prolog
(C) C
(D) Cobol
21. With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true ?
(A) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
(B) Darwin
(C) De Vries
(D) Mendel
(B) Galactose
(C) Fructose
(D) Arabinose
25. A certain current on passing through a galvanometer produces a deflection of 100 divisions.
When a shunt of one ohm is connected, the deflection reduces to 1 division. The
galvanometer resistance is :
(A) 100
(B) 99
(C) 10
(D) 9.9
26. The atomic numbers of Ni and Cu are 28 and 29 respectively. The electron configuration
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 represents :
(A) Cu+
(B) Cu2+
(C) Ni2+
(D) Ni
27. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph of K.E. of the photoelectron
emitted from the metal versus the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line
graph, whose slope :
(A) is same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the incident radiation
(B) depends on the nature of the metal
(C) depends on the intensity of the incident radiation
(D) depends on the nature of the metal and also on the intensity of incident radiation
M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342
(B) Isochoric
(C) Isobaric
(D) Isothermal
33. Osmotic pressure observed when benzoic acid is dissolved in benzene is less than that
expected from theoretical considerations. This is because :
(A) benzoic acid is an organic solution
(B) benzoic acid has higher molar mass than benzene
(C) benzoic acid gets associated in benzene
(D) benzoic acid gets dissociated in benzene
34. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons in a photoelectric effect does not depend
upon :
(A) wavelength
(B) frequency
(C) intensity
[Turn over
(B) Tourmaline
(C) Mica
(D) Selenite
36. The acceleration due to gravity becomes(g/2), where g = acceleration due to gravity on
the surface of the earth at a height equal to :
(A) R/2
(B) 2R
(C) R/4
(D) 4R
37. A Carnot engine has efficiency 25%. It operates between reservoirs of constant
temperatures with temperature difference of 80C. What is the temperature of the
low-temperature reservoir ?
(A) 25C
(B) 25C
(C) 33C
(D) 33C
38. A particle of charge e and mass m move with a velocity v in a magnetic field B applied
perpendicular to the motion of the particle. The radius r of its path in the field is ______.
(A) (Bv) /(em)
39. A radioactive substance contains 10,000 nuclei and its half life period is 20 days. The
number of nuclei present at the end of 10 days is :
(A) 7,500
(B) 8,000
(C) 9,000
(D) 7,070
40. One end of a towel dips into a bucket full of water and other end hangs over the bucket.
It is found that after some time the towel becomes fully wet. It happens :
(A) Because viscosity of water is high
(B) Because of the capillary action of cotton threads
(C) Because of gravitational force
(D) Because of evaporation of water
41. For tap water and clean glass, the angle of contact is :
(A) 0
(B) 90
(C) 140
(D) 8
42. When there are no external forces, the shape of a liquid drop is determined by :
(A) Surface tension of the liquid
43. The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube does not depend upon :
(A) Angle of contact
(B) 2y2
(C) 4y
(D) 4y
45. In the figure below, AD is a diameter of the circle with center O and AO = 5. What is the
length of arc BCD ?
O
36
(A) /2
(B)
(C) 3/2
(D) 3
46. If m and p are positive integers and (m + p) x m is even, which of the following must be
true ?
(A) If m is odd, then p is odd
47. The region of an infra-red spectrum where many absorptions take place is known as
the :
(A) thumbprint region
(B) n + 1
(C) 2n
(D) 4n +1
[Turn over
51. A 19-liter mixture consists by volume of 1 part juice to 18 parts water. If x liters of juice
and y liters of water are added to this mixture to make a 54-liter mixture consisting by
volume of 1 part juice to 2 parts water, what is the value of x ?
(A) 17
(B) 18
(C) 27
(D) 35
52. In the incomplete table below, the sum of the three integers in each row, column, and
diagonal is the same. If the numerical values in four of the blocks are as shown, what is
the value of w ?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 5
(B) Cl
(C) Br
(D) CH3
(B) Guanidine
55. A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32. The molecular mass of the metal nitrate
is :
(A) 192
(B) 188
(C) 182
(D) 168
57. Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The reaction
is called :
(A) Wurtz's reaction
58. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic strengths :
CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, NH3
(A) (CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2 NH
(B) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3 N < NH3
(C) NH3 < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
(D) NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
59. Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a :
(A) secondary alcohol
(B) aldehyde
(C) ketone
(D) ester
(B) anion
(D) cation
63. In the brown ring test, the brown colour of the ring is due to :
(A) ferrous nitrate
(B) 2 N
(C) 0.3 N
(D) 9 N
(B) Terylene
(C) Bakelite
(D) Melamine
[Turn over
68. The product formed when hydroxylamine condenses with a carbonyl compound is called :
(A) hydrazone
(B) hydrazine
(C) oxime
(D) hydrazide
C + B+ C+ + B
(ii) A+ + D No reaction
(iii) C+ + A No reaction
(iv) D + B+ D+ + B
The correct arrangement of A, B, C, D in order of their decreasing ability as reducing
agent.
(A) D > B > C > A
70. To check that a secondary alcohol has been completely oxidised to a ketone you can :
(A) check that the IR spectrum has absorptions at 3500 cm1 and 1650 cm1
(B) check that the IR spectrum has no absorption around 3500 cm1
(C) check that the IR spectrum has no absorption around 1650 cm1
(D) check that the IR spectrum has no absorption at 3500 cm1 and 1650 cm1
71. Signals in a proton nmr spectrum do not provide information about :
(A) the relative number of hydrogen atoms in a particular environment
(B) the number of chemically different hydrogen atoms on adjacent atoms
(C) the environment of different hydrogen atoms in a molecule
(D) the molecular mass of an organic molecule
72. The correct order for the basic features of a mass spectrometer is :
(A) acceleration, deflection, detection, ionisation
(B) ionisation, acceleration, deflection, detection
(C) acceleration, ionisation, deflection detection
(D) acceleration, deflection, ionisation, detection
M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342
10
73. The fluorescence emission of the following compound is enhanced upon protonation due
to :
N
(C) FRET
74. Certain crystals produced electric signals on application of pressure; this phenomena is
called :
(A) Ferroelectricity
(B) Pyroelectricity
(C) Piezoelectricity
(D) Ferrielectricity
11
ROUGH WORK
12
120
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Maximum Marks : 75
1.
2.
3.
A rickshaw puller remembers a large number of places and has the ability to find
shortcuts and new routes between familiar places. Which region of brain is responsible
for this ?
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Pituitary
(C) Thalamus
(D) Hippocampus
How do you calculate maximum predicted heart rate in beats per minute ?
(A) 222 minus Age
4.
5.
6.
What is the percentage of maximal predicted heart rate is considered an adequate stress
test ?
(A) 75%
(B) 65%
(C) 55%
(D) 85%
(B)
7.
ci of activity ?
How many MBq will correspond to 40
(A) 1.85
(B) 0.85
(C) 1.48
(D) 0.48
[Turn over
8.
9.
(C) CT Imaging
(D) GM Counter
10. Which of the following enzymes is useful for dissolution of blood clots ?
(A) Streptokinase
(C) Peroxidase
(B) Li+
(C) Zn++
(D) K+
12. Which of the following radiation is used for the treatment of Polycythemia Vera ?
(A) Gamma rays
(D) X rays
(B) 2
(C) 22
(D) 2
15. Which of the following holds true for a hexagonal crystal system :
(A) a = b = c = = 90o, = 120
(C) a = b = c = = = 90o
(D) a = b = c, = = 90o
(B) 49, 26
18. The resting of non-dividing stage between two successive mitotic divisions is termed as :
(A) Interphase
(B) Prophase
(C) Telophase
(D) Metaphase
19. Among the following which process does not occur in the nucleus :
(A) Transcription
(B) Replication
(C) Translation
(D) Mutation
(B) 46
(C) 48
(D) 42
23. In Alzheimer's Disease, symmetric decreases in perfusion and metabolism occur in the :
(A) Frontal lobes
24. Decreased glucose metabolism and perfusion in caudate nucleus and puamen, is usually
present in which of the following diseases ?
(A) Huntington's Disease
25. What is the sensitivity of an increased alkaline phosphatase for skeletal metastasis from
prostate cancer ?
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 70%
[Turn over
27. A solution of NaCl absorbs half of the incident light intensity at 280 nm when placed in a
1.00 cm spectrophotometer cell. What would be the width of cell that would absorb 75%
of the incident light intensity ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1.5
(D) 0.75
28. An X ray tube operates at 30 kV and the current through it is 2 mA. The number of
electrons hitting the anode per second is :
(A) 3.2 1021
29. Which of the following hormones crosses the plasma membrane and initiates its action ?
(A) Insulin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Estradiol
(D) Norepinephrine
30. Which MALDI method summarizes for the production of gas phase ions for mass
spectrometry ?
(A) Sample is forced through a capillary tube and solvent vaporizes
(B) Sample is embedded in a crystalline matrix and impinged by laser beams
(C) Sample is heated and then bombarded by electrons
(D) Sample is hit by a low energy xenon beam
31. Kirromycin inhibits protein synthesis by acting on :
(A) Ribosomes
(B) t-RNA
(C) GTP
32. Which of the following feature does not change when an ultrasound wave moves through
a tissue ?
(A) Frequency
(B) Amplitude
(C) Intensity
(D) Waveform
33. Which of the following from the list given below provides only spin active nuclei ?
(A) 1H, 2H, 12C
(D) Neutrons
(B) 2.5 eV
(C) .25 eV
(D) .025 eV
(B) BLAST
(C) PROSPECT
39. A mountaineer climbs on a mountain of 10000 feet in the Himalayas. What will happen to
his arterial PCO2 and pH ?
(A) Both will be lower than normal
(B) The pH will fall and PCO2 will rise
(C) Both will be higher than normal due to the physical exertion
(D) The pH will rise and PCO2 will fall
40. Which of the following types of transition requires lowest energy ?
(A) electronic
(B) vibrational
(C) rotational
[Turn over
42. The field of view of a microscope with a 10X ocular and a 5X objective is 5mm. What will
be the field of view with a 10X objective ?
(A) 0.5 mm
(B) 0.1 mm
(C) 2.5 mm
(D) 25 mm
(C) Interference
(B) Nylon
(C) Keratin
(D) Catgut
(B) 10 days
(C) 5 days
(D) 1 day
47. The ejection fraction of the gall bladder can be evaluated using :
(A) Cimitidine
(B) Dipyridamole
(C) Cholecystokinin
(D) Dobutamine
49. Which photon processes are dominant in the context of diagnostic radiology ?
(A) Compton scattering and photoelectric effect
(B) Photoelectric effect and pair production
(C) Compton scattering and pair production
(D) Compton scattering and Rayleigh scattering
50. The dose rate from potassium-40 in the human body is :
(A) 0.1 mSv/yr
(B) Nerves
(C) Tendons
(D) Ligaments
(B) [He2]2+
(C) He+
(D) He
[Turn over
(B) and
(C) 1 and
(D) and 0
64. The auger effect occurs most frequently in elements with atomic number (Z) :
(A) Z < 25
(B) Z < 50
66. Sound waves and ultrasound waves when they travel from moon towards earth :
(A) Sound waves shall reach first
(B) Protein
(C) Lipid
(D) Glycoprotein
(B) Cerebellum
(D) Pons
(B) Charge
(D) Ionization
71. When a radionuclide is administered to a living body, the damage to biological tissues is
because of :
(A) Gamma radiations
10
73. What is the distance between oppositely charged atoms in an optimal electrostatic
interaction ?
(A) 2.8 angstroms
(C) 3 angstroms
11
[Turn over
ROUGH WORK
12
124
OCET-2012
Sr. No. :
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A
1.
Three containers are filled with water upto the same height as shown. The pressures at the bottom
of the containers are denoted as P1, P2 and P3.
P1
P2
P3
3.
4.
In an orifice meter, if the pressure drop across the orifice is overestimated by 5%, then the percentage
error in the measured flow rate is :
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 2.5
(D) 5
5.
6.
Two identically sized spherical particles A and B having densities A and B respectively, are settling
in a fluid of density . Assuming free settling under turbulent flow conditions, the ratio of terminal
settling velocity of particle A to that of particle B is given by :
(A)
(A )
(B )
(B)
(C)
B
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
(B )
(A )
(D)
A
3
[Turn over
7.
The critical speed (revolutions per unit time) of a ball mill of radius R, which uses balls of radius r
is :
(A)
1
2
(C)
1
2
g
Rr
g
r
(B)
1
2
g
R
(D)
1
2
g
Rr
8.
An aqueous sodium chloride solution (10 wt%) is fed into a single effect evaporator at a rate of
10000 kg/h. It is concentrated to a 20 wt% sodium chloride solution. The rate of consumption of
steam in the evaporation is 8000 kg/h. The evaporator capacity (kg/h) and economy are :
(A) 5000, 0.625
(B) 10000, 0.625
(C) 5000, 1.6
(D) 10000, 1.6
9.
If a stands for the edge length of the cubic systems : simple cubic, body centred cubic and face
centred cubic, then the ratio of the radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively :
1
1
a : 3a :
a
2
2
(A)
1
3
1
a:
a:
a
2
4
2 2
(B)
(C)
1
3
2
a:
a:
a
2
2
2
(D) 1a : 3a : 2a
10. Bernoullis equation for steady and frictionless flow states that :
(A) total pressure at all sections is same
(B) total energy at all sections is same
(C) velocity head at all sections is same
(D) total momentum at all sections is same
11. 1 g of ice is mixed with 1 g of steam. After thermal equilibrium is achieved, assuming no heat loss,
the temperature of the mixture is :
(A) 100C
(B) 55C
(C) 75C
(D) 0C
12. The time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction, with CAO as the initial concentration
of the species, is :
(A) CAO/2k
(B) CAOk
(C) 2k/CAO
(D) CAO/k
13. A perfectly insulated container of volume V is divided into two equal halves by a partition. One side
is under vacuum while the other side has one mole of an ideal gas (with constant heat capacity) at
298 K. If the partition is broken, the final temperature of the gas in the container :
(A) will be greater than 298 K
(B) will be 298 K
(C) will be less than 298 K
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
14. A liquid is boiling in an airtight vessel. Using an exhaust tube the vapour is pumped out at a faster
rate. What will happen to the liquid ?
(A) Temperature will go down but boiling will occur
(B) Temperature will rise and boiling will continue
(C) boiling will stop
(D) Whatever vapour inside will collapse
15. The relationship PV = constant, where is the ratio of the specific heats of ideal gas is applicable to :
(A) adiabatic process
16. A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction with a constant speed of 10 m/s. It is subjected to a
retarding force 0.1 J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to x = 30 m. Its final kinetic energy will be :
(A) 475 J
(B) 450 J
(C) 275 J
(D) 250 J
1.
Q. Froude number
2.
R. Weber number
3.
4.
(A) P 1, Q 2, Q 3
(B) P 2, Q 3, Q 4
(C) P 3, Q 2, Q 1
(D) P 4, Q 3, Q 2
(B) increases
(D) decreases
(B) (CH2OH)2
(C) CH3CHO
(D) CH3COCH3
20. In which of the following polymers, the intermolecular forces of attraction are weakest ?
(A) Nylon
(C) Cellulose
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
[Turn over
(B) decreases
24. Ability of a material to resist fracture due to high impact load is called :
(A) toughness
(B) stiffness
(C) plasticity
(D) hardness
25. A thin flat plate 2m 2m is hanging freely in air. The temperature of the surroundings is 25C. Solar
radiation is falling on one side of the plate at the rate of 500 W/m2. The temperature of the plate will
remain constant at 30C, if the convection heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2 C) is :
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 200
26. An equimolar liquid mixture of species 1 and 2 is in equilibrium with its vapour at 400 K. At this
temperature, the vapour pressures of the species are P1sat = 180 kPa and P2sat = 120 kPa. Assuming
that Raoults law is valid, the value of y1 is :
(A) 0.3
(B) 0.41
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.6
27. Which is the most critical measurement in the following relation used for the computation of M
from the following equation ?
x 4 y3/2 z 4/5
M=
6
p
(A) X
(B)
(C) Z
(D) P
28. In constant pressure filtration, rate of filtration follows the relation (v : filtrate volume, t : time, k
and c : constants) :
(A)
dv
= kv + c
dt
(B)
dv
1
=
dt
kv + c
(C)
dv
= kv
dt
(D)
dv
= kv2
dt
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
x=
(A) 932
(B) 432
(C) 423
(D) 364
is
ab 0
(A)
0 1
b 0
(B)
a b
1 / a 0
(C)
0 1 / b
0 a
(D)
b 0
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
[Turn over
36. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
ListI
ListII
(Dimensionless quantity)
(Application)
a.
Stanton number
1.
Natural convection
b.
Grashof number
2.
Mass transfer
c.
Peclet number
3.
Forced convection
Schmidt number
4.
Codes :
a
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37. A 20 cm dia, 1.2 m long cylinder loses heat from its peripheral surface by convection. Surface
temperature of the cylinder is constant at 100C and the fluid temperature is constant at 20C. The
average convection heat transfer coefficient over the surface of the cylinder is 25 W/m2K. The heat
transfer rate is :
(A) 120 W
(B) 240 W
(C) 320 W
(D) 480 W
38. A lubricant 1000 times more viscous than water would have a viscosity (in Pa-s) :
(A) 0.1
(B) 10
(C) 1
(D) 1000
(B) maximum at x = 1
(C) minimum at x = 2
(D) maximum at x = 2
41. In Hagen-Poiseuille flow through a cylindrical tube, the radial profile of shear stress is :
(A) constant
(B) cubic
(C) parabolic
(D) linear
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
42. The flooding velocity in a plate column, operating at 1 atm pressure, is 3 m/s. If the column is
operated at 2 atm pressure, under otherwise identical conditions, the flooding velocity will be :
(A) 3/2
(B) 3/2
(C) 1
(D) 3/4
43. Match each of the following techniques of polymerisation in Group I, with the corresponding process
characteristics in Group II :
Group I
Group II
P. Bulk
Q. Solution
R. Suspension
S. Emulsion
44. Under fully turbulent flow conditions, the frictional pressure drop across a packed bed varies with
the superficial velocity V of the fluid as :
(A) V1
(C) V3/2
(B) V
(D) V2
45. In petroleum refining operations, the process used for converting paraffins and naphthenes to
aromatics is :
(A) catalytic reforming
(C) hydrocracking
(D) alkylation
46. According to the penetration theory of mass transfer, the mass transfer coefficient (k) varies with
diffusion coefficient (D) of the diffusing species as :
(B) D1/2
(A) D
(C) D1/2
(D) D3/2
47. The active component of catalysts used in steam reforming of methane to produce synthesis gas is :
(A) Nickel
(B) Iron
(C) Platinum
(D) Palladium
d2y
dx
dy
6y = 0
dx
[Turn over
49. The feed to a binary distillation column has 40 mol % vapour and 60 mol % liquid. The slope of the
q-line in McCabe-Thiele plot is :
(A) 1.5
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.6
(D) 1.5
50. Match the product in Group I with the name of the process in Group II :
Group I
Group II
P. Sodium Carbonate
1. Haber
Q. Ammonia
2. Solvay
R. Sulphuric Acid
3. Fischer-Tropsch
4. Contact
(A) P 2, Q 1, R 4
(B) P 4, Q 1, R 2
(C) P 3, Q 4, R 2
51. Given : i =
(D) P 2, Q 1, R 3
i+3
1 , the ratio i + 1 is given by :
(A) i
(B) 2
(C) i + 2
(D) i + 1
52. Property of a material due to which recovery after unloading is complete and instantaneous is
called :
(A) elasticity
(B) plasticity
(C) anelasticity
(D) viscoelasticity
53. Which one of the following process sequences is used in the sugar industry ?
(A) Ca2HPO4/Lime treatment crystallisation crushing
(B) Ca2HPO4/Lime treatment multiple stage evaporation crystallisation
(C) crushing crystallisation Ca2HPO4/Lime treatment
(D) multiple stage evaporation crystallisation Ca2HPO4/Lime treatment
54. Parameters a and b in van der Waals and other cubic equations of state represent :
(A) amolecular weight
(B) amolecular size
bmolecular polarity
bmolecular attraction
(C) amolecular size
(D) amolecular attraction
bmolecular speed
bmolecular size
55. Minimum reflux ratio in a distillation column results in :
(A) optimum number of trays
(B) minimum reboiler size
(C) maximum condenser size
(D) minimum number of trays
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
10
56. An operator was told to control the temperature of a reactor at 60C. The operator set the set-point
of the temperature controller at 60. The scale actually indicated 0 to 100% of a temperature range
of 0 to 200C. This caused a runaway reaction by over-pressurising the vessel, which resulted in
injury to the operator. The actual set-point temperature was :
(A) 200
(B) 60
(C) 120
(D) 100
57. Select the most appropriate pump from Group II to handle fluid given in Group I :
Group I
Group II
P. Highly viscous fluid
1. Piston pump
Q. Fluid containing large amount of abrasive 2. Gear pump
solids
3. Plunger pump
4. Centrifugal pump
(A) P 2, Q 1
(B) P 2, Q 4
(C) P 3, Q 4
(D) P 4, Q 3
58. Which of the following is desirable in gasoline but undesirable in Kerosene ?
(A) Aromatics
(C) Naphthenic acid
59. Cast iron contains carbon approximately :
(A) 0.2 to 0.4%
(C) 2 to 4%
(B) Mercaptans
(D) Paraffins
(B) 1 to 1.3%
(D) 4 to 6.67%
60. In the sulphite process for paper manufacture, the cooking liquor is :
(A) Magnesium bisulfite and sulphur dioxide in acid medium
(B) Magnesium sulfite and magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium sulfite and magnesium sulfite
(D) Sodium sulphite, Sodium bisulfite and sulphur dioxide
61. Which of the following represents the Carnot cycle ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
S
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
P
11
[Turn over
is :
(A)
(B)
1
2
(C) 1
(D)
63. Two identical reservoirs open at the top are drained through pipes attached to the bottom of the
tanks as shown below. The two drain pipes are of the same length but of different diameters
(D1 > D2).
L
D1
D2
Assuming the flow to be steady and laminar in both drain pipes, and the volumetric flow rate in the larger
pipe is 16 times of that in the smaller pipe, the ratio D1/D2 is :
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
x
sin x
as x 0 is :
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D)
65. Fluid flows in an annulus of inner diameter 0.8 m and outer diameter 1 m. The equivalent diameter
for flow is :
(A) 0.45
(B) 0.2
(C) 1.64
(D) 0.9
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365
12
69. In a tray column, separating a binary mixture, with non-ideal stages, one of the following statements
is true :
(A) Point efficiency can exceed 100%
(B) Murphree efficiency cannot exceed 100%
(C) Murphree efficiency can exceed 100%
(D) Both point efficiency and Murphree efficiency can exceed 100%
70. Which one of the following statements is true ?
(A) Heat can be fully converted into work
(B) Work cannot be fully converted into heat
(C) The efficiency of a heat engine increases as the temperature of the heat source is increased while
keeping the temperature of the heat sink fixed
(D) a cyclic process can be devised whose sole effect is to transfer heat from a lower temperature to a
higher temperature
71. The following differential equation is :
d2y
dy
+ yex = sinh x
dx
dx
(A) first order and linear
2
+ sin x
[Turn over
72. The weight fraction of methanol in an aqueous solution is 0.64. The mole fraction of methanol will
be :
(A) 0.75
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.2
73. Nylon 6, 6 is manufactured from :
(A) caprolactum
(B) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(C) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic acid
(D) dimethyl terphthalate and ethylene glycol
74. Match the systems in Group I with equipments used to separate them in Group II :
Group I
Group II
P. Gassolid
1. filter press
Q. Liquidliquid
2. cyclone
3. decanter
4. thickener
(A) P 1, Q 2
(C) P 3, Q 4
(B) P 2, Q 3
(D) P 4, Q 1
75. For a particle in water settling at its terminal settling velocity, which of the following is true ?
(A) buoyancy = weight + drag
(B) weight = buoyancy + drag
(C) drag = weight + buoyancy
(D) drag = weight
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28
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
2.
3.
4.
Two strings may be joined end to end with _____ in a perl program script.
(A) dot operators
(B) x operators
(C) + operators
(D) * operators
(B) semicolon
5.
A computational program, for reading DNA and then writing its protein code, must
examine :
(A) three reading frames from sense strand
(B) three reading frames from Antisense strand
(C) all six reading frames from both strands
(D) any reading frame as selected by the programmer
6.
7.
8.
(B) Parsing
(C) Prunning
(D) Perling
In B type of DNA the distance between two successive nitrogenous base pairs is :
(A) 34
(B) 36
(C) 20
(D) 3.4
[Turn over
9.
(B) Polymerase
(D) Gyrase
(C) Kinomics
(D) Proteomics
11. The study of gene expression, its regulation as well as phenotype production is called :
(A) Structural genomics
(C) Metabolomics
(D) Proteomics
(C) Y-shaped
14. If in a DNA segment on analysis it is found that it has 60 adenine and 50 cytosine bases.
The total number of nucleotides in that segment of DNA will be :
(A) 110
(B) 120
(C) 100
(D) 220
15. Which of the following would represent the correct complementary strand of a DNA
fragment having base sequence CATGACTAG ?
(A) CATTAGGAC
(B) CTAGTCATG
(C) GATGTCATC
(D) GTACTGATC
18. The first genome sequence project was accomplished in which of the following species :
(A) H influenzae
(B) D melanogaster
(C) S cerevisae
(D) A thaliana
19. Transcriptomics is :
(A) the reverse transcription of RNA produced by the genome at any one time
(B) complete set of genes to be transcribed by the genome at any one time
(C) the study of complete set of RNA transcripts produced by the genome at any one time
(D) the study of complete set of genes
20. Identify the two groups of an amino acid that react to form a peptide bond :
(A) The side chain carboxyl group and the alpha-amino group
(B) The side chain carboxyl group and the side chain amino group
(C) The alpha-carboxyl group and the side chain amino group
(D) The alpha-carboxyl group and the alpha-amino group
21. The double helix as determined by Watson and Crick is composed of :
(A) Two, parallel complementary strand
22. Which single word best describes the reaction catalyzed by a restriction endonuclease ?
(A) Redox
(B) Hydrolysis
(D) Isomerization
23. The free energy released upon breakdown of one mole of glucose to two moles of lactate
is stored in which of the following forms :
(A) Two moles of NADH and two moles of ATP
(B) Two moles of NADH
(C) Two moles of glyceraldehydes-3 phosphate
(D) Two moles of ATP
24. Absence of which of the following enzyme prevents muscle to regulate Blood Glucose :
(A) hexokinase
(B) phosphofructokinase
(C) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
(D) glucose-6-phosphatase
25. What is the cellular location of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle ?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Ribosomes
[Turn over
(B) Glucagon
(C) Testosterone
(B) Threonine
(C) Lysine
(D) Alanine
29. What is the most important factor in determining the native, three dimensional structure
of a protein ?
(A) The number of disulfide bonds
(B) The sequence of amino acids in the protein
(C) Interactions of the protein molecules with the solvent
(D) The origin of the protein
30. Select the fibrous protein from the list mentioned below :
(A) Myoglobin
(B) Hemoglobin
(C) Albumin
(D) Keratin
33. Which of the following segments of duplex DNA may be restriction enzyme cleavage
site ?
(A) 5'ACGA
3' TGCT
(B) 5'CGAT
3'GCTA
(C) 5'ACGT
3'TGCA
(D) 5'ACCC
3' TGGG
34. The enzymes phosphoglucomutase catalyzes the isomerisation of glucose-6-phosphate
to :
(A) Glucose-1-phosphate
(B) Fructose-6-phosphate
(C) Galactose-6-phosphate
(D) Fructose-1-phosphate
(B) Fructose
(B) tRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) miRNA
(B) TGCCCCATCCT
(C) TGCGCCATGCT
(D) TGCGCCTACCT
(B) Streptomycin
(C) Puromycin
(D) Chloramphenicol
(B) myosin
(C) actin
(D) insulin
[Turn over
41. All of the following can be associated as part of activities of RNAs except :
(A) splicosomes
(B) ribozymes
(C) isozymes
(D) lariats
47. During which cycle of PCR amplification you would first time get the exact size of DNA
fragments :
(A) 5th cycle
(B) H2S
(C) H2S2
(D) H2SO4
(B) Toxins
(C) Lysins
(D) Defensins
51. By convention the bacterial dimensions can be measured in which of the following units :
(A) Millimeter
(B) Micrometer
(C) Nanometer
(D) Picometer
[Turn over
(D) Tetrahydrofolate
(B) Supercomputer
(C) Network
(B) Kilobyte
(C) Binary
(D) Representational
59. Which of the following statement is not true regarding transport proteins in cell
membranes ?
(A) They are present in cell membranes
(B) The serve to carry polar molecules across the hydrophobic cell membrane
(C) They are required to transport amino acids across cell membranes
(D) They are required to transport hydrophobic steroids cell across membrane
60. During which of the following process there is a sudden increase in absorbance at 260 nm
of a DNA solution isolated from mammals :
(A) Denaturation
(B) Renaturation
(C) Supercoiling
(D) Precipitation
(B) RAPD
(C) STS
(D) HPLC
63. The minimum size of foreign gene required for cloning in Yeast artificial chromosomes
is :
(A) 25 kb
(B) 50 kb
(C) 75 kb
(D) 100 kb
10
64. Which of the following scientists are associated with their respective discovery :
(a)
(i)
Arthur Koenberg
(b)
(ii)
Griffith
(c)
Discovery of penicillin
(d)
(iv)
Ian Flemming
(C) extraction of recombinant DNA molecules (D) transport of recombinant DNA molecules
66. Which of the following is not a property exhibited by Phagemids ?
(A) Origin of replication from plasmid ColE1
(C) Intergenic region from a filamentous phage (D) Transposable intergenic regions
67. To generate radiolabelled probes, nicks in the probe DNA can be extended using a
Labelled deoxyribonucleotide with the help of :
(A) restriction enzyme
68. A technique of tracing protein location or modification over a time using radioactive
agents is described as :
(A) Pulse chase experiment
69. Match each of the Vitamins listed in the first column with its related coenzyme :
(a) Riboflavin
(i)
FAD
(b) Vitamin B6
(ii) NAD
(c) Niacin
(iii) Tetrahydrofolate
70. A single strand of DNA having 35 nucleotides would have how many phosphodiester
bonds when present as covalently closed circle and as linear chain ?
(A) 35 and 34
(B) 34 and 33
(C) 34 and 34
(D) 33 and 33
11
[Turn over
(B) A = G; T = C
(C) A + T = C + G
(D) A = T = C = G
72. Recombinant DNA molecules are introduced into plant cells with the aid of which
bacterium ?
(A) Agrobacterium tuberosis
73. Which of the following activity cannot be categorized as post translational modification ?
(A) Proteolytic cleavage
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60
OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
In Figures
In Words
In Words
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(B) Hyman
(C) Diller
(B) Cysticercus
(C) Sporocyst
(D) Miracidium
(B) Xenopus
(D) Equus
(B) Mollusca
(C) Crustacea
(D) Annelida
(B) Bolitoglossa
(C) Ambystoma
(D) Eleutherodactylus
(B) Ribosomes
(D) Lysosomes
(B) Recessive
(C) Co-dominant
Non-allelic genes effecting same trait but one's expression is masked by second's
expression are called :
(A) Lethal genes
(B) Arachnida
(C) Insecta
(D) Brachiopoda
[Turn over
(B) Pila
(C) Unio
(D) Cardium
15. Which of the following air sacs are not paired in pigeon ?
(A) Cervical
(B) Interclavical
(C) Thoracic
(D) Abdominal
17. The outer layer of placenta which is selectively permeable and hormone secreting is :
(A) Chorion
(B) Amnion
(C) Allantois
(B) Demecology
(C) Phytosociology
(D) Ecosystem
20. Aphrodite is :
(A) Sea hare
21. Deficiency of which of the following hormones causes the dwarfism and excess of the
same causes gigantism and acromegaly :
(A) Thyrotropin
(B) Somatotropin
(C) Cortisone
(D) Parathormone
(D) Angina
(B) 2n+1
(C) 2n+1+1
(D) 2n2
(B) Spongilla
(C) Euplectella
(D) Hyalonema
(B) Annelida
(C) Urochordata
(D) Cephalopoda
(B) Stigma
(C) Ommatidium
(B) Spermiogenesis
(C) Capacitation
(D) Spermatogenesis
[Turn over
(C) Niacin
(D) Cyanocobalamine
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Ozone
33. Diapedesis is :
(A) Bipedal walk
(B) Ability of WBC to pass through blood vessels
(C) Reproduction in Paramecium
(D) Doubling of chromosomes
34. Acetabulum is part of :
(A) Sternum
(B) Skull
(B) Scoliodon
(C) Uromastix
(D) Columba
(B) Adult
(C) Pupa
(D) Egg
38. Structures with similar functions but having different origins are called :
(A) Analogous
(B) Autologous
(C) Vestigial
(D) Homologous
(B) Microlecithal
(C) Cleidoic
(D) Centrolecithal
(B) Absorption
(C) Partitioning
42. Which of the following amino acids is the precursor for the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 ?
(A) Tryptophan
(B) Lysine
(C) Tyrosine
(D) Histidine
46. Which of the following is natural inducer of the lac operon in E-coli ?
(A) Allolactose
(B) Galactose
(C) Lactose
(D) IPTG
47. The region where RNA polymerase binds to promoter in prokaryotes is called :
(A) Pribnow box
(C) Homeobox
(D) Lysosomes
(B) Claudin
(C) Adherin
(D) Integrin
(B) Cobra
(C) Viper
(D) Krait
[Turn over
(B) Birds
(C) Grasshopper
(D) Drosophila
(B) Polychaeta
(C) Echinodermata
(D) Cestoda
(B) Amphibians
(C) Fishes
(D) Birds
(B) Cephalochordata
(C) Urochordata
(D) Cyclostomata
(C) Medulla
(D) Hypothalamus
56. In most of the ecosystems, the greatest amount of energy flows through the :
(A) Secondary consumers
(B) Herbivores
(C) Decomposers
(D) Carnivores
(B) Community
(C) Ecosphere
(D) Ecosystem
(B) CCC
(C) UUU
(D) UAG
(C) Ectothermic
(B) Heart
(C) Notochord
(D) Kidney
62. An animal that warms its body mainly by heat of cellular respiration is :
(A) a poikilotherm
(B) an exotherm
(C) an ectotherm
(D) an endotherm
(B) Mammals
(C) Crocodile
(D) Turtles
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Dopamine
(D) Acetylcholine
65. The first true hominids in the fossil record have been placed in the genus ?
(A) Homo
(B) Australopithecus
(C) Dryopithecus
(D) Aegyptopithecus
(B) Rotifer
(C) Fluke
67. The total collection of genes at one time in a unit of evolution is called as :
(A) Genotype
(B) Demotype
69. Genetic drift occurs when a few individuals of a species colonize an Island. This particular
phenomenon is known as :
(A) Bottle-neck effect
70. The meiotic process by which homologues are paired during prophase l is called :
(A) Chiasma
(B) Interkinesis
(D) Synapsis
[Turn over
71. Which enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of new strands of DNA molecule, by linking
nucleotide to the developing strand ?
(A) DNA ligase
(D) Topoisomerase
(B) Fifteen
(C) Eight
(D) Ten
(B) Deletion
(C) Inversion
(D) Translocation
(B) Jaws
(C) Ovipositor
(D) Maxillae
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