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Exam Review
Exam Name: 023 - 12 Apr 2011
1.
2.
3.
4.
In patients undergoing laparoscopy, there is a association between the incidence of POSTOPERATIVE nausea and vomiting (PONV) and a high INTRA-OPERATIVE arterial
partial pressure of which of the following gases:
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Nitrous oxide
Review:Anesthesia-Intravensous Ana Agents--Oxygen-Efficacy of intra-operative hyperoxia in
combatting PONV was demonstrated. -Carbon dioxide- Although intra-operative PaCO2
measurements have not been correlated with the incidence of PONV, there seems little doubt
that 'Gaslesses' laparoscopy (which is associated with a lower end-tidal PaCO2) is associated
with a lower incidence of PONV. -Nitrogen - This is a natural consequence of 'oxygen' if
nitrous oxide is not the balancing gas. -Nitrous oxide. Use of N2O increases the incidence of
PONV.
5.
A 34 year old female presents with collapse and vomiting precedes by an occipital
headache of acut onset. On examination she was conscious and alert with photophobia
but no neck stiffness. CT brains is reported as normal. Which one of the following
investigations would yield the diagnosis?
a) CT brain with contrast
7.
8.
9.
10. A patient during examination found to be Roberg's sign positive on closed eyes. What is
the diagnosis in this patient?
a) Friedrich's ataxia
b) Cerebellar lesion
c) Epilepsy
d) Wilson disease
Review:Medicine-11. Bronchiectasis means ______ of bronchi
a) Inflammation
b) Dilatation
c) Cavitation
d) All
Review:Pathology-Lung12. Blood clots after__ of death
a) 1/2 hr
b) 45 min
c) 1/4 hr
d) 1 1/2 hrs
Review:FM-Death,Post Mor. Changes & Autopsy13. When used as an anti-emetic for prophylaxis of Post Operative Nausea and Vomiting
(PONV), a single dose of dexamethasone EXCEPT
a) Has no cilinically relevant side-effects if administered to an otherwise healthy patient
b) Exerts its effects for at least 12 hours.
c) Is more effective if administered with a 5HT3 antagonist
d) Should be given to an adult in a dose of 0.5 mg/kg
Review:Anesthesia-Intravensous Ana Agents-The drug appears to have no clinically relevant
side effects when used in otherwise healthy patients. It is more effective if used in combination
with a 5HT3 antagonist and exerts its effects for about 24 hours. The appropriate dose of
dexamethasone is antiemetic campared with placebo without evidence of any cinically relevant
toxicity in otherwise healthy patients. Late(i.e., up to 24 hours) efficacy seems to be most
pronounced. It is likely that the best prophylaxis of PONV currently available is achieved by
combining dexamethasone with a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist.
14. A 35 year old previously healthy woman complains of a severe, excruciating headache and
then has a transient loss of consciousness. There are no focal neurologic findingss. The
next step in evaluation is:
a) CT scan without contrast
b) CT scan with contrast
c) Holter monitoring
d) Carotoid angiogram
Review:Medicine-Neurology15. Most common tumor of parotid galnd
a) Warthin's tumor
b) Pleomorphic adenoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Hemangloma
Review:Sugery-Head & Neck-Plemorphic adenomas (Mixed tumors) are the commonest
tumors of the parotid gland and account for 80-90% of tumours in the Parotid.
16. Main nerve supply of the palatine tonsils is
a) Uremia
b) Brain metastasis
c) Abdominal metastasis
d) Liver metastasis
Review:Obs-Dyplasias and Carcinoma of Cervix-The mentioned symptoms are features of
ureteric obstruction following parametrial involvements leading to Uraemia.
23. Rise of pulmonary arterial pressure is caused by
a) Hypoxia
b) Acidosis
c) Alkalosis
d) All of the above
Review:Physiology-24. Mean, median and mode tend to be zero, when the distribution of the data is
a) Normal
b) Standard
c) Standard normal
d) Skewed to the left
Review:SPM-Biostatistics25. An infant is crying excessively even after being given good feed. He is passing a large
quantity of urine and repeatedly getting dehyrated. Urine examination shows no
proteinuria and a specific gravity of 1004. The most likely diagnosis is
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Congenital nephrotic syndrome
d) Protein losing enterpathy
Review:Paediatrics-Endocrinology26. Following is a regressive lesion:
a) Venous angioma
b) Strawberry anogioma
c) Port-wine stain
d) Juvenile angioma
Review:Paediatrics-Neonatal27. All are the direct articulations of the true rib except
a) Costosternal joint
b) Costochondral joint
c) Costotransverse joint
d) Costovertebral joint
macrophages, contain material which stains. Strongly with periodic acid Schiff, in the
lamina propria. The most probable condition is:
a) Secondary steatorrhoea
b) Sprue
c) Coeliac disease
d) Whipple's disease
Review:Pathology-52. Remnant of paramesonephric duct in adult is
a) Appendix of testis
b) Prostatic utricle
c) Gartner's duct
d) Appendix of epididymis
Review:-Urology53. The most common and ultimately lethal extramedullary complication of multiple
myeloma is
a) amyloidosis of the brain
b) amyloidosis of the liver
c) kidney disease
d) peritonitis
Review:Pathology-Blood & the Lymphoid Organs54. Balloon degeneration is seen in
a) Contact dermatitis
b) Pemphigus
c) Herpes zoster
d) Darier's disease
Review:Dermatology-55. The most common cause of Dementia is
a) Alzheimer's disease
b) Multi-infarct dementia
c) Pick's disease
d) HIV induced dementia
Review:Psychiatry-Organic Disorders56. All are affective disorder except
a) Insomnia
b) Pressure on speech
c) Disorientation
d) Granduer delusion
Review:OBG-63. Massive transfusion in previous healthy adult male can cause hemorrhage due to
a) Increased tPA
b) Dilutional thrombocytopenia
c) Vitamin K deficiency
d) Decreased Fibrinogen
Review:Pathology-Red Blood cell and Bleeding Disorders64. A 78- year- old retired coal miner with an intraluminal tracheal tumor is scheduled for
tracheal resection. Which of the following is a relative contraindication for tracheal
resection?
a) Need for postoperative mechanical ventilation
b) Tumor located at the carina
c) Documented liver metastases
d) Ischemic heart disease with a history of congestive heart failure
Review:Anesthesia-General-Operations on the trachea may be indicated in patients who have
tracheal tumors or patients who had a previous trauma to the trachea resulting in tracheal
stenosis or tracheomalacia. Eighty percent of the operations on the trachea involve segmental
resection with primary anastomosis, 10% involve resection with prosthetic reconstruction and
another 10% involve insertion of a T-tube stent. These operations frequently are very
complicated and require constant communication between the surgeon and the anesthesiologist.
Preoperative pulmonary function tests are indicated in all patients who are to undergo elective
tracheal resection. Severe lung disease necessitating postoperative mechanical ventilation is a
relative contraindiction for tracheal resection because positive airway pressure may cause
wound dehiscence
65. In a patient with marked muscle weakness and fatigability, the diagnosis of myasthenia
gravis is made by a positive edrophonium test, repetitive nerve stimulation test of a weak
muscle, and anti acetylcholine receptor antibody assay. MRI of the mediastinum is now
indicated in this patient of myasthenia gravis to:
a) Rule out tuberculosis before starting prednisone
b) Rule out thymoma
c) Look for small cell carcinoma and Lambert-Eaton syndrome
d) Rule out sarcoidosis
Review:Medicine-Neurology66. All of the following drugs are used in treatment of mania except
a) Haloperidol
b) Trihexphenidyl
c) Lithium
d) Carbamazepine
Review:Psychiatry-67. The secreto - motor nerve fibers of Sphenopalatine ganglion supply the
a) lacrimal gland
b) Parotid gland
c) Submandibular gland
d) Sublingual gland
Review:-68. Delivery of the after-coming head in breech presentation following forceps/methods are
used except:
a) Wrigely's forceps
b) Kielland's forceps
c) Das's variety forceps
d) Mauriceau smellie, veit technique
Review:OBG-Malpresentations69. Maximum malignant potential is in:
a) Superficial naevus
b) Epidermal naevus
c) Junctional naevus
d) Intradermis naevus
Review:PATHO-70. Ear is sensitive to which frequency of sound
a) 500-3500 Hz
b) 1000-3000 Hz
c) 3000-5000 Hz
d) 5000-8000 Hz
Review:ENT-71. Spherocytes in peripheral smear are seen in
a) Chronic liver disease
b) Thalassemia
c) Auto immune haemolytic anaemia
d) Sickle cell anamia
Review:MEDICINE-72. Kveims test is positive if there is
a) Induration of more than 7 mm
b) Erythematous change
c) Breakdown of the skin at the test site
d) Non caseating follicles in biopsy
Review:Pathology-Lung73. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III with no colposcopy activity treatment of choice
a) Hysterectomy
b) Radiotherapy
c) Conization
d) Follow-up after 1 year
Review:Obs-Dyplasias and Carcinoma of Cervix--Conization for CIN is as effective as
hysterectomy provided the cone margins are free of disease.
74. The temperature of the body rises up for the first two hours after death. The probable
condition include following except
a) Sun stroke
b) Frost bite
c) Septicemia
d) Tentanus
Review:FM-Death,Post Mor. Changes & Autopsy-This is called post mortem caloricity 1. In
sun stroke - Regulation of heat production had been severaly disturbed 2. Tetanus, strychnineGreat increase in heat production due to convulsions 3. Septicaemia- Excessive bacterial
activity
75. Ampicillin is used in all except
a) Pseudomonas
b) Proteus
c) Streptococci
d) Staphylococci
Review:Medicine-Infections76. First rank symptoms help in the diagnosis of
a) Dementia
b) Schizophrenia
c) Schizophreniform disorder
d) Depression
Review:Psychiatry-Schizophrenia77. Which of the following is the best treatment option for the thyroid nodule of 2 cm in the
left lobe in a 40-year-old woman? FNAC diagnosed it as a papillary carcinoma of thyroid
a) Near total thyroidectomy with modified radical neck dissection
b) Left hemithyroidectomy
c) Subtotal thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection
d) Regular follow-up
Review:Surgery-78. All the following are causes of Acute Pancreatitis except:
a) Gall stones
b) Alcohol
c) Hemochromatosis
d) Hypercalcemia
b) Articular cartilage
c) Condyles
d) Marrow
Review:ORTHOPAEDICS-91. Not correct about CNS Pathology in HIV
a) Foci of necrosis, gliosis, and demyelination
b) Inclusion body
c) Microglial nodules, macrophages, and multinucleated cells
d) Involves subcortical areas, with relative sparing of cerebral cortex
Review:Medicine-92. The normal concentration of alpha2 globulins in plasma proteins is
a) 0.2 gms% to 0.4 gms%
b) 0.4 gms% to 0.4 gms%
c) 0.2 gms% to 0.4 gms%
d) 0.2 gms% to 0.4 gms%
Review:Biochemistry-Proteins93. The axillary nerve supplies the skin over
a) Lower half of deltoid muscle
b) Upper half of deltoid muscle
c) Shoulder region
d) Posterior surface of arm
Review:Anatomy-Superior Extremity-The skin over the upper half of the shoulder is supplied
by spinal segaments C2, C3, C4 via the supraclavicular nerves.
94. The most common post-partum psychosis is
a) Mania
b) Depression
c) Dementia
d) Schizophrenia
Review:Psychiatry-General95. Lichen nitidus is characterized by
a) May predipose to malignancy
b) Violaceous colour
c) Penille lesions
d) Hyperpigmented sequelae
Review:Dermatology-96. In absence of auditory hallucination, visual or tactile hallucinations are in favour of one
the following conditions
a) Conversion disorder
b) Panic disorder
c) Manic disorder
d) Organic brain syndrome
Review:Psychiatry-Organic Disorders97. All are features of Bleulers' emphasis on schizophrenia except
a) Automatism
b) Flattened affect
c) Loose associations
d) Ambivalance
Review:Psychiatry-Schizophrenia98. I.C.D.S. Scheme was started in the year
a) 1965
b) 1970
c) 1975
d) 1985
Review:SPM-Demo, FP, MCH99. Which does not cause hydrops foetalis
a) Syphilis
b) Rh immunization
c) ABO incompatibility
d) None of the above
Review:OBG-Special Cases100. The commonest cause of viral hepatitis in India
a) Hepatitis type A virus
b) Hepatitis type B virus
c) Enterically transmitted NANB virus
d) Parenteraly transmitted NANB cirus
Review:Microbiology-VirologyP.S.
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