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Exam Review
Exam Name: 023 - 12 Apr 2011
1.

HBV is not associated with


a) Chronic active hepatitis
b) Chronic persistent hepatitis
c) Post necrotic cirrhosis
d) Cholangio carcinoma
Review:Pathology-Liver-

2.

Excision of fractured fragment is practised in all fractures except


a) Patella
b) Olecranon
c) Head or radius
d) Lateral condyle humerus
Review:Orthopaedics-Fractures and Dislocations-

3.

What is the typical vital capacity in a male?


a) 500 ml
b) 1500 ml
c) 2500 ml
d) 4500 ml
Review:Respiratory-Pulmonology-

4.

In patients undergoing laparoscopy, there is a association between the incidence of POSTOPERATIVE nausea and vomiting (PONV) and a high INTRA-OPERATIVE arterial
partial pressure of which of the following gases:
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Nitrous oxide
Review:Anesthesia-Intravensous Ana Agents--Oxygen-Efficacy of intra-operative hyperoxia in
combatting PONV was demonstrated. -Carbon dioxide- Although intra-operative PaCO2
measurements have not been correlated with the incidence of PONV, there seems little doubt
that 'Gaslesses' laparoscopy (which is associated with a lower end-tidal PaCO2) is associated
with a lower incidence of PONV. -Nitrogen - This is a natural consequence of 'oxygen' if
nitrous oxide is not the balancing gas. -Nitrous oxide. Use of N2O increases the incidence of
PONV.

5.

A 34 year old female presents with collapse and vomiting precedes by an occipital
headache of acut onset. On examination she was conscious and alert with photophobia
but no neck stiffness. CT brains is reported as normal. Which one of the following
investigations would yield the diagnosis?
a) CT brain with contrast

b) Repeat CT brain in 24th


c) CSF examination
d) 4-vessel Cerebral angiography
Review:Medicine-Neurology6.

Delusions are seen in all except


a) Psychosis
b) Delirium
c) Dementia
d) Schizopherenia
Review:Psychiatry--

7.

Cervical ripening is mainly due to the action of


a) PGE2
b) PGF2
c) PGI2
d) PGG2
Review:OBG-nduction of Labour & Trial of Labour-

8.

Tumour positive for cytokeratin are likely to be


a) Adenoma
b) Melanoma
c) Carcinoma
d) Lipoma
Review:PATHOLOGY-ONCOLOGY-

9.

The following drug is not useful for MRSA


a) Cefaclor
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Vancomycin
Review:PHARMACOLOGY-ANTIBACTERIALS-

10. A patient during examination found to be Roberg's sign positive on closed eyes. What is
the diagnosis in this patient?
a) Friedrich's ataxia
b) Cerebellar lesion
c) Epilepsy
d) Wilson disease
Review:Medicine-11. Bronchiectasis means ______ of bronchi
a) Inflammation

b) Dilatation
c) Cavitation
d) All
Review:Pathology-Lung12. Blood clots after__ of death
a) 1/2 hr
b) 45 min
c) 1/4 hr
d) 1 1/2 hrs
Review:FM-Death,Post Mor. Changes & Autopsy13. When used as an anti-emetic for prophylaxis of Post Operative Nausea and Vomiting
(PONV), a single dose of dexamethasone EXCEPT
a) Has no cilinically relevant side-effects if administered to an otherwise healthy patient
b) Exerts its effects for at least 12 hours.
c) Is more effective if administered with a 5HT3 antagonist
d) Should be given to an adult in a dose of 0.5 mg/kg
Review:Anesthesia-Intravensous Ana Agents-The drug appears to have no clinically relevant
side effects when used in otherwise healthy patients. It is more effective if used in combination
with a 5HT3 antagonist and exerts its effects for about 24 hours. The appropriate dose of
dexamethasone is antiemetic campared with placebo without evidence of any cinically relevant
toxicity in otherwise healthy patients. Late(i.e., up to 24 hours) efficacy seems to be most
pronounced. It is likely that the best prophylaxis of PONV currently available is achieved by
combining dexamethasone with a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist.
14. A 35 year old previously healthy woman complains of a severe, excruciating headache and
then has a transient loss of consciousness. There are no focal neurologic findingss. The
next step in evaluation is:
a) CT scan without contrast
b) CT scan with contrast
c) Holter monitoring
d) Carotoid angiogram
Review:Medicine-Neurology15. Most common tumor of parotid galnd
a) Warthin's tumor
b) Pleomorphic adenoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Hemangloma
Review:Sugery-Head & Neck-Plemorphic adenomas (Mixed tumors) are the commonest
tumors of the parotid gland and account for 80-90% of tumours in the Parotid.
16. Main nerve supply of the palatine tonsils is

a) Lesser palatine nerve


b) Greater palatine nerve
c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
d) facial nerve
Review:-17. Acute pancreatitis severity scoring includes all except
a) Age of patient
b) Serum amylase
c) Hematocrit
d) Blood glucose
Review:SURGERY-18. Most common histological types of lung carcinoma in India is
a) Squamous cell Ca
b) Adeno carcinoma
c) Small Cell Ca
d) Large Cell Ca
Review:PATHOLOGY-ONCOLOGY19. The following drug has teratogenic affects, when given during pregnancy
a) Vitamin B6
b) Vitamin B3
c) Folic acid
d) Vitamin D
Review:PHARMACOLOGY-20. Chemoprophylaxis is not done in
a) Cholera
b) Plague
c) Meningococcal meningitis
d) Typhoid
Review:SPM-21. Asbestosis is usually related to
a) Small cell carcinoma lung
b) Large cell carcinoma lung
c) Mesothelioma
d) Squamous cell carcinoma lung
Review:Pathology-Lung22. A patient with carcinoma cervix developed abdominal distension, abnormal mentation
and intractable hiccoughs. The likely cause is

a) Uremia
b) Brain metastasis
c) Abdominal metastasis
d) Liver metastasis
Review:Obs-Dyplasias and Carcinoma of Cervix-The mentioned symptoms are features of
ureteric obstruction following parametrial involvements leading to Uraemia.
23. Rise of pulmonary arterial pressure is caused by
a) Hypoxia
b) Acidosis
c) Alkalosis
d) All of the above
Review:Physiology-24. Mean, median and mode tend to be zero, when the distribution of the data is
a) Normal
b) Standard
c) Standard normal
d) Skewed to the left
Review:SPM-Biostatistics25. An infant is crying excessively even after being given good feed. He is passing a large
quantity of urine and repeatedly getting dehyrated. Urine examination shows no
proteinuria and a specific gravity of 1004. The most likely diagnosis is
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Congenital nephrotic syndrome
d) Protein losing enterpathy
Review:Paediatrics-Endocrinology26. Following is a regressive lesion:
a) Venous angioma
b) Strawberry anogioma
c) Port-wine stain
d) Juvenile angioma
Review:Paediatrics-Neonatal27. All are the direct articulations of the true rib except
a) Costosternal joint
b) Costochondral joint
c) Costotransverse joint
d) Costovertebral joint

Review:Anatomy-Thorax28. The first CTscan was manufactured by


a) Hitachi, Japan
b) Mitsubishi, Japan
c) Electromusical instruments, England
d) General Electric, USA
Review:Radiology Diagnosis- Diagnosis29. The following drugs may be used in erectile dysfunction except,
a) C4
b) Apomorphine
c) Alprostidil
d) PGEI analogues
Review:PHARMACOLOGY-ANS30. Incidence can be calculated for
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Prospective study
d) Retrospective study
Review:SPM-31. Regarding alpha helix, wrong statement is
a) Right handed alpha helix is less stable than left handed a helix
b) About 3.6 Aminoacid residues occur in 1 turn of helix
c) The pitch of a -helix is 0.54 nm
d) Proline is never found in alpha helix
Review:Biochemistry-Proteins32. In Colles fracture, not seen
a) Proximal impaction
b) Lateral rotation
c) Dorsal angulation
d) Medial rotation
Review:Orthopaedics-Fractures and Dislocations33. In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs?
a) Anaemia
b) CO poisoning
c) Moderate exercise
d) Hypoventilation
Review:Respiratory-Pulmonology-Normal alveolar arterial O2 gradient = 15 mmHg. Exercise:

Increased )2 consumption Increased ventilation Increased alveolar-capillary pO2 gradient


Increased CO2 excretion and production Increased alveolar pCO2 and pO2 Decreased pH and
HCO3. Carbon monoxide has a 257 times greater affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen and thus
reduces arterial oxygen tension. Anaemia also reduces arterial PO2.
34. After removal of a IUD with visible strings, the spontaneous miscarriage rate is
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
Review:OBG-Contraception35. Which of the following is an early manifestation of intracranial tumor
a) Headache
b) Papilledema
c) Epilepsy
d) Vomiting
Review:-Head Injury36. All are true of acute rheumatic fever except
a) Aschoff nodule in myocardium
b) Focal myocardial fiber necrosis
c) Microthrombi in arteriole
d) Lymphocytic myocarditis
Review:Pathology-Heart37. Intercostobrachial nerve is a branch of
a) 1st intercostal nerve
b) 2nd intercostal nerve
c) 3rd intercostal nerve
d) Upper trunk of brachial plexus
Review:Anatomy-UP38. Kerley-B-lines are seen when pulmonary venous pressure is
a) 8 mm Hg
b) 20 mm Hg
c) 25 mm Hg
d) 40 mm Hg
Review:Radiology Diagnosis-Diagnosis39. All are non contraceptive uses of OC pills except
a) Prevents PID
b) Hepatic adenoma
c) Prevents uterine carcinoma

d) Prevents breast carcinoma


Review:PHARMACOLOGY-40. Anganwadi centres are a part of
a) ICDS scheme
b) PHC
c) Middle school
d) Mid day meal programme
Review:P & SM-41. Cherry red spot is seen
a) Retinopathy of prematurity
b) Metachromatic luekodystrophy
c) CRV occlusion
d) Retinitis pigmentosa
Review:Opthal-Tumours, squint, Lacrimal apparatus and miscellaneous-It is round bright
white area at the macula, whose center is occupied by a cherry red circular spot. It is always
bilateral and is observed in:- 1. Tay sachs disease 2. Sandhoff's variant 3. Metachormatic
leukodystrophy 4. Niemann picks disease 5. Farber disease.
42. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding atrophic rhinitis?
a) Mostly it is seen in elderly female
b) Due to chronic use of nasal drops
c) Airway narrowing operation done.
d) Nasal cavities are roomy with atrophied mucosa
Review:ENT-Nose,PNS,Nasopharynx & Tonsils43. Prophylactic administration of Vitamin A in a child is
a) Health promotion
b) Treatment
c) Specific protection
d) Rehabilitation
Review:SPM-Concepts of Health & Disease44. Most important investigation for Dysphagia in 60 year old patient is:
a) Upper GI Endoscopy
b) CT Thorax
c) Barium Swallow
d) MRI
Review:Surger-Esophagus & Stomach45. Paraplegia due to T.B. spine most commonly occurs at
a) Cervical spine

b) Upper throacic spine


c) Lower thoracic spine
d) Lumbar spine
Review:Ortho-Infections46. 2,3 diphosphoglycerate not increased in
a) Chronic anemia
b) Chronic hypoxia
c) Inosine
d) Hypoxanthine
Review:Biochemistry-47. Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (HCG)
a) Acts on uterus to maintain integrity of endometrium In early pregnancy
b) Production is greatest in the last three months of pregnancy
c) Can be identified in the urine of pregnant women by an immunological technique
d) Is a steroid hormone
Review:Physiology-Endocrinology48. Most common type of nonepithelial benign gastric tumor is
a) Leiomyoma
b) Lymphoma
c) sarcoma
d) Lymphosarcoma
Review:SURGERY-49. A 8 yr old boy during a routine check up is found to have E.coil 1,00,000 cc/ml on a urine
culture. The urine specimen was obtained by midstream clean-catch void. The child is
asymptomatic. Which is the most appropriate next step in the management?
a) Treat as an acute episode of urinary tract infection
b) No therapy
c) Prophylactic antibiotics for 6 months
d) Administer long-term urine alakalinizer
Review:Paediatrics-Nephrology50. Normal myeloid:erythroid ratio is
a) 2:1
b) 1:1
c) 3:1
d) 4:1
Review:Pathology-51. The intestinal villi are swollen and distended. There is accumulation of large granular

macrophages, contain material which stains. Strongly with periodic acid Schiff, in the
lamina propria. The most probable condition is:
a) Secondary steatorrhoea
b) Sprue
c) Coeliac disease
d) Whipple's disease
Review:Pathology-52. Remnant of paramesonephric duct in adult is
a) Appendix of testis
b) Prostatic utricle
c) Gartner's duct
d) Appendix of epididymis
Review:-Urology53. The most common and ultimately lethal extramedullary complication of multiple
myeloma is
a) amyloidosis of the brain
b) amyloidosis of the liver
c) kidney disease
d) peritonitis
Review:Pathology-Blood & the Lymphoid Organs54. Balloon degeneration is seen in
a) Contact dermatitis
b) Pemphigus
c) Herpes zoster
d) Darier's disease
Review:Dermatology-55. The most common cause of Dementia is
a) Alzheimer's disease
b) Multi-infarct dementia
c) Pick's disease
d) HIV induced dementia
Review:Psychiatry-Organic Disorders56. All are affective disorder except
a) Insomnia
b) Pressure on speech
c) Disorientation
d) Granduer delusion

Review:Psychiatry-Mood Disorders57. Housemaid's knee is an inflammation of the


a) Suprapatellar
b) Semi membranosus
c) Prepatellar
d) None
Review:Anatomy-LL58. Double bubble sign is seen in
a) Duodenal atresia
b) Pyloric stenosis
c) Esophageal atresia
d) Jejunal atresia
Review:Radiology-59. All are true of Rabies except
a) 100% mortality
b) Spreads from periphery
c) Infects only the brain
d) Prophylactic immunization of people at risk
Review:Microbiology-Virology60. In a maturity onset diabetes mellitus ophthamoscopy should be done at
a) Immediately
b) After 5yrs
c) After 10yrs
d) After 15yrs
Review:OPHTHALMOLOGY--Sreelatha
61. Acute infection of hepatitis B virus is diagnosed by
a) IgM antibody of HbsAg
b) IgM Antibody of HbcAg
c) IgM antibody of HbeAg
d) IgG antibody of HbcAg
Review:Medicine-62. Which of the following ovarian tumour is associated with Meig's syndrome;
a) Fibroma
b) Brenners tumour
c) Serous cystodenoma
d) Sarcoma

Review:OBG-63. Massive transfusion in previous healthy adult male can cause hemorrhage due to
a) Increased tPA
b) Dilutional thrombocytopenia
c) Vitamin K deficiency
d) Decreased Fibrinogen
Review:Pathology-Red Blood cell and Bleeding Disorders64. A 78- year- old retired coal miner with an intraluminal tracheal tumor is scheduled for
tracheal resection. Which of the following is a relative contraindication for tracheal
resection?
a) Need for postoperative mechanical ventilation
b) Tumor located at the carina
c) Documented liver metastases
d) Ischemic heart disease with a history of congestive heart failure
Review:Anesthesia-General-Operations on the trachea may be indicated in patients who have
tracheal tumors or patients who had a previous trauma to the trachea resulting in tracheal
stenosis or tracheomalacia. Eighty percent of the operations on the trachea involve segmental
resection with primary anastomosis, 10% involve resection with prosthetic reconstruction and
another 10% involve insertion of a T-tube stent. These operations frequently are very
complicated and require constant communication between the surgeon and the anesthesiologist.
Preoperative pulmonary function tests are indicated in all patients who are to undergo elective
tracheal resection. Severe lung disease necessitating postoperative mechanical ventilation is a
relative contraindiction for tracheal resection because positive airway pressure may cause
wound dehiscence
65. In a patient with marked muscle weakness and fatigability, the diagnosis of myasthenia
gravis is made by a positive edrophonium test, repetitive nerve stimulation test of a weak
muscle, and anti acetylcholine receptor antibody assay. MRI of the mediastinum is now
indicated in this patient of myasthenia gravis to:
a) Rule out tuberculosis before starting prednisone
b) Rule out thymoma
c) Look for small cell carcinoma and Lambert-Eaton syndrome
d) Rule out sarcoidosis
Review:Medicine-Neurology66. All of the following drugs are used in treatment of mania except
a) Haloperidol
b) Trihexphenidyl
c) Lithium
d) Carbamazepine
Review:Psychiatry-67. The secreto - motor nerve fibers of Sphenopalatine ganglion supply the
a) lacrimal gland

b) Parotid gland
c) Submandibular gland
d) Sublingual gland
Review:-68. Delivery of the after-coming head in breech presentation following forceps/methods are
used except:
a) Wrigely's forceps
b) Kielland's forceps
c) Das's variety forceps
d) Mauriceau smellie, veit technique
Review:OBG-Malpresentations69. Maximum malignant potential is in:
a) Superficial naevus
b) Epidermal naevus
c) Junctional naevus
d) Intradermis naevus
Review:PATHO-70. Ear is sensitive to which frequency of sound
a) 500-3500 Hz
b) 1000-3000 Hz
c) 3000-5000 Hz
d) 5000-8000 Hz
Review:ENT-71. Spherocytes in peripheral smear are seen in
a) Chronic liver disease
b) Thalassemia
c) Auto immune haemolytic anaemia
d) Sickle cell anamia
Review:MEDICINE-72. Kveims test is positive if there is
a) Induration of more than 7 mm
b) Erythematous change
c) Breakdown of the skin at the test site
d) Non caseating follicles in biopsy
Review:Pathology-Lung73. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III with no colposcopy activity treatment of choice
a) Hysterectomy

b) Radiotherapy
c) Conization
d) Follow-up after 1 year
Review:Obs-Dyplasias and Carcinoma of Cervix--Conization for CIN is as effective as
hysterectomy provided the cone margins are free of disease.
74. The temperature of the body rises up for the first two hours after death. The probable
condition include following except
a) Sun stroke
b) Frost bite
c) Septicemia
d) Tentanus
Review:FM-Death,Post Mor. Changes & Autopsy-This is called post mortem caloricity 1. In
sun stroke - Regulation of heat production had been severaly disturbed 2. Tetanus, strychnineGreat increase in heat production due to convulsions 3. Septicaemia- Excessive bacterial
activity
75. Ampicillin is used in all except
a) Pseudomonas
b) Proteus
c) Streptococci
d) Staphylococci
Review:Medicine-Infections76. First rank symptoms help in the diagnosis of
a) Dementia
b) Schizophrenia
c) Schizophreniform disorder
d) Depression
Review:Psychiatry-Schizophrenia77. Which of the following is the best treatment option for the thyroid nodule of 2 cm in the
left lobe in a 40-year-old woman? FNAC diagnosed it as a papillary carcinoma of thyroid
a) Near total thyroidectomy with modified radical neck dissection
b) Left hemithyroidectomy
c) Subtotal thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection
d) Regular follow-up
Review:Surgery-78. All the following are causes of Acute Pancreatitis except:
a) Gall stones
b) Alcohol
c) Hemochromatosis
d) Hypercalcemia

Review:Medi-Hepatology79. Annexin V is mainly related to


a) Necrosis
b) Apoptosis
c) Osteoclast formation and bone resorption
d) Anti-inflammatory activity
Review:Pathology-80. A 50 year old man had an attack of myocardial infarction and developed ventricular
ectopics and low ejection fraction. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drug to be
given
a) Flecainide
b) Mexilitine
c) Beta- blocker
d) Radio-frequency ablation technique
Review:PHARMACOLOGY-81. All are analytical studies except
a) Field trials
b) Case control
c) Cohort
d) Ecological
Review:SPM-82. Villous atrophy is seen in
a) Celiac disease
b) Giardiasis
c) Tropical sprue
d) All of the above
Review:Pathology-83. During abduction at the shoulder region beyond 30 degrees, the rotation of the scapula is
brought about by contraction of
a) Levator scapulae and trapezius
b) Trapezius and serratus anterior
c) Trapezius and latissimus dorsi
d) Subscapularis and teres major
Review:AnatomyAnatomy-Superior Extremity-The trapezius and serratus anterior muscles
bring about scapular rotation. Scapular rotation continues even after humeral abduction has
stopped in the last 30 degrees of abduction.
84. Injury to the popliteal artery in fracture lower end of femur is often due to

a) Distal fragment pressing the artery


b) Proximal fragment pressing the artery
c) Tight plaster
d) Hematoma
Review:Ortho-85. Kerion is
a) Tinea capitis
b) Tinea corporis
c) Viral infection
d) Localized lymphoma
Review:Dermatology-86. Commonest site of skeletal tuberculosis is
a) Tibia
b) Radius
c) Humerus
d) Vertebrae
Review:Ortho-Infections87. Bacteria which does not strictly follow Koch's postulate is
a) Mycobacteria tuberculosis
b) Mycobacterium avium intercellulare
c) Mycobacterium leprae
d) Bacillus anthacis
Review:MICRO-88. Which tendon is frequently absent in the hand
a) Palmaris longus
b) Extensor carpi radialis longus
c) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
d) Flexor carpi ulnaris
Review:AnatomyAnatomy-UP89. True about metastatic calcification
a) Starts in mitochondria
b) Occurs in damaged cardiac valves
c) Occurs in dead tissues
d) Serum calcium levels are not normal
Review:Pathology-90. The first site of pathology involved in rheumatoid arthritis is
a) Synovium

b) Articular cartilage
c) Condyles
d) Marrow
Review:ORTHOPAEDICS-91. Not correct about CNS Pathology in HIV
a) Foci of necrosis, gliosis, and demyelination
b) Inclusion body
c) Microglial nodules, macrophages, and multinucleated cells
d) Involves subcortical areas, with relative sparing of cerebral cortex
Review:Medicine-92. The normal concentration of alpha2 globulins in plasma proteins is
a) 0.2 gms% to 0.4 gms%
b) 0.4 gms% to 0.4 gms%
c) 0.2 gms% to 0.4 gms%
d) 0.2 gms% to 0.4 gms%
Review:Biochemistry-Proteins93. The axillary nerve supplies the skin over
a) Lower half of deltoid muscle
b) Upper half of deltoid muscle
c) Shoulder region
d) Posterior surface of arm
Review:Anatomy-Superior Extremity-The skin over the upper half of the shoulder is supplied
by spinal segaments C2, C3, C4 via the supraclavicular nerves.
94. The most common post-partum psychosis is
a) Mania
b) Depression
c) Dementia
d) Schizophrenia
Review:Psychiatry-General95. Lichen nitidus is characterized by
a) May predipose to malignancy
b) Violaceous colour
c) Penille lesions
d) Hyperpigmented sequelae
Review:Dermatology-96. In absence of auditory hallucination, visual or tactile hallucinations are in favour of one
the following conditions

a) Conversion disorder
b) Panic disorder
c) Manic disorder
d) Organic brain syndrome
Review:Psychiatry-Organic Disorders97. All are features of Bleulers' emphasis on schizophrenia except
a) Automatism
b) Flattened affect
c) Loose associations
d) Ambivalance
Review:Psychiatry-Schizophrenia98. I.C.D.S. Scheme was started in the year
a) 1965
b) 1970
c) 1975
d) 1985
Review:SPM-Demo, FP, MCH99. Which does not cause hydrops foetalis
a) Syphilis
b) Rh immunization
c) ABO incompatibility
d) None of the above
Review:OBG-Special Cases100. The commonest cause of viral hepatitis in India
a) Hepatitis type A virus
b) Hepatitis type B virus
c) Enterically transmitted NANB virus
d) Parenteraly transmitted NANB cirus
Review:Microbiology-VirologyP.S.
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