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AP PGECET 2015 Question Papers & Answer Keys
AP PGECET 2015 Question Papers & Answer Keys
A
SET
BT - 15
Bio Technology
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
BT-15-A
2.
1 0 3
(A)
(C)
3.
4.
5 5
,
2
2
1, 5, 5
1,
5+ 5 5 5
,
2
2
(D) purely imaginary
(B)
1,
u
u
x2 y2
If u ( x, y ) = 2
then x + y
is equal to
2
x
y
x +y
1
u
(A) 4u
(B)
(C) 2u
2
The Fourier series expansion of f ( x) = sin3 x
1
3
sin x sin3 x
(A)
(B)
4
4
3
1
sin x sin3 x
(C)
(D)
4
4
(D)
1
u
4
5.
6.
(B)
2
2 y
2 y
=
c
is of the form
t 2
x 2
An electronic assembly consists of two subsystems A and B. From the past experience,
it is known that P(A fails) = 0.20, P(A and B fail) = 0.20 and P(B fails alone) = 0.15.
The probability that P (A fails / B has failed) is
3
2
4
(A)
(B) 0.15
(C)
(D)
7
15
7
Set - A
BT
8.
9.
By intermediate value theorem one of the interval in which one root of the function
f(x) = x2 x 2 lies is
(A) (0, 1)
(B) (1, 0)
(C) (1, 3)
(D) None of these
10.
dy
= x 2 + y with the
dx
x 2 + x3
2
x 2 x3
1+ x + +
2 3
1+ x +
x2
2
x3
(D) 1 + x +
3
(B)
1+ x +
11.
12.
A carrier female for taysachs disease marries a man who is also carrier for the same
condition. What will be the probability that their first child is normal female ?
(A) 2/8
(B) 1/8
(C) 4/8
(D) 3/8
13.
In a dihybrid two genes A and B are located at a distance of 16 map units. If the dihybrid
is in repulsion phase, what will be the proportion of Ab gametes ?
(A) 84%
(B) 42%
(C) 21%
(D) 8%
14.
15.
16.
Set - A
BT
17.
How many high energy bonds are required for the recruitment of 2nd amino acid in
Ribosomes in translation ?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
18.
19.
20.
If an mRNA has 207 nts length, what will be the molecular weight of protein synthesized
from that mRNA ?
(A) 8.8 KD
(B) 7.6 KD
(C) 7.5 KD
(D) 8.7 KD
21.
Which of the following toxins inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis through the
depurination of a single adenine residue in 28 S ribosomal RNA (r RNA)
(A) Diptheria toxin
(B) Ricin
(C) -Sarcin
(D) Colicin E-3
22.
23.
The process in which a molecule is transported into the cell while being chemically
altered is called
(A) Passive transport
(B) Group translocation
(C) Facilitated transport
(D) Active transport
24.
During the transformation in bacteria the exogonate DNA combines with endogonate
DNA to form a triple stranded structure. Which protein is involved in the formation of
double cross-over between exogonate and endogonate strands ?
(A) Rec B
(B) Rad 51
(C) Rec A
(D) Ruv A
25.
Proteins which are responsible for induction of lytic phase from lysogenic phase in
bacteriophases
(A) CI
(B) Cro
(C) Gag
(D) Pol
26.
Set - A
(D) Sorghum
BT
27.
28.
Halobacterium and other extremely halophillic bacteria have significantly modified the
structure of their proteins and membranes by
(A) increasing intracellular Na+ and K+ levels.
(B) increasing intracellular Ca++ levels.
(C) increasing extracellular Cl ions.
(D) increasing intracellular Cl ions.
29.
(D) Tryptophan
30.
31.
32.
An alpha helix made up of 114 aminoacid residues. What will be the value of its axial
length and also length when polypeptide chain is fully extended?
(A) 171 , 410.4
(B) 171 , 171
(C) 410.4 , 171
(D) 410.4 , 410.4
33.
34.
35.
(D) Glutamine
36.
Rb and P53 both are genes that function in regulating the cell cycle transition from
(A) S to G2
(B) G2 to M
(C) M to G1
(D) G1 to S
37.
Set - A
BT
38.
The difference in the Theoretical and practical time duration of protein folding is called
(A) Levinthal paradox
(B) C-Value paradox
(C) Raven paradox
(D) Rosss paradox
39.
40.
Three restriction enzymes A, B and C have six, eight and four base pairs as their
recognition sites respectively. The ratios of the number of fragments that will generate on
restriction digestion of a genomic DNA of E. coli are approximately
(A) 1 : 64 : 16
(B) 16 : 256 : 6 (C) 16 : 256 : 1 (D) 256 : 16 : 1
41.
The secretory IgM was electrophoresed on SDS PAGE under reduced and denaturing
conditions. The number of polypeptide bands detected on the gel is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
Set - A
BT
47.
48.
Which cells first recognise grafted foreign tissue and starts the process of rejection ?
(A) Helper T-cells
(B) Macrophages
(C) Cytotoxic T-cells
(D) B-cells
49.
50.
The primer used for the amplification had the following composition. Calculate the
annealing temperature, A = 6, T = 4, G = 5, C = 5
(A) 60 C
(B) 50 C
(C) 70 C
(D) 40 C
51.
On an average each human chromosome contains 0.1 billion base pairs of DNA. The
carrying capacity of a yeast vector is 103 Kbp. How many molecules of YAC required for
inserting the chromosomal DNA ?
(A) 102
(B) 103
(C) 104
(D) 105
52.
53.
54.
In a sequencing reaction, instead of d ATP, dd ATP was added, what will be the
consequence ?
(A) Normal DNA synthesis would occur
(B) No DNA synthesis would occur
(C) Synthesis would terminate randomly regardless of the nucleotide incorporated
(D) Synthesis would always stop at the position at which the first A was incorporated
55.
The structural analogue of folic acid which is widely used to control cancer
(A) Methotraxate (B) Nalidixic acid (C) Cisplatin
(D) Etoposide
Set - A
BT
56.
57.
58.
59.
Which of the following enzymes do not require template for the synthesis of DNA and
RNA ?
(A) DNA polymerase 5
(B) RNA pol 1
(C) reverse transcriptase
(D) terminal deoxy nucleotidyl transferase
60.
A restriction fragment obtained with a type II endonuclease was subjected to MaxamGilbert sequencing which results as shown in the autoradiogram below. What will be the
sequence of fragmented DNA ?
G
A+G
C+T
(A) 5ICATCGATCGTAATCG 3I
(C) 5I CATCGAGCTTAATCG 3I
Set - A
(B) 3ICATCGATCGTAATCG 5I
(D) 3I CATCGATCGAATTCG 5I
8
BT
61.
62.
63.
Which of the following is not used as crosslinking agent for immobilization of enzymes ?
(A) Hexamethylene di isocyanate
(B) Diazonium salt
(C) N-N` polymethyelene bis iodoacetinamide
(D) Cyanogen bromide
64.
65.
An organism grows under given conditions on a given substrate with max 0.75 h1 and
Ks with respect to substrate is 0.01 kg m3. What will be the growth rate of the organism
under the given conditions when the substrate concentration is 0.25 kg m3 ?
(A) 0.75 h1
(B) 0.76 h1
(C) 0.72 h1
(D) 0.73 h1
66.
For industrial production of vitamin B12 which of the following bacteria is used ?
(A) Propionibacterium freudeureichii (B) Clostridium acetobutylicum
(C) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
(D) Sarcina ventriculi
67.
(C)
(D) One molecule pyruvate, two mol of ATP, NAD(P)H2 and NADH2
Set - A
BT
68.
During the fermentation process of penicillinG, which of the following is not added to
medium ?
(A) Phenyl acetic acid
(B) Phenyl acetamide
(C) Phenyl ethylamine
(D) Phenoxy acetic acid
69.
70.
71.
In plants proline is produced from ornithine under normal condition, however under
stress condition it is made directly from
(A) Aspartate
(B) Glutamate
(C) Glutamine
(D) Lysine
72.
73.
Which of the following transcription factor is involved in the expression of the cold
responsive genes ?
(A) CBF1
(B) HSF
(C) Bxn
(D) Oct4
74.
Vincristine and Vinblastine are anti cancerous drugs which are obtained from
(A) Crocus sativus
(B) Chrysanthemum species
(C) Catharanthus roseus
(D) Atropa belladonna
75.
Set - A
10
BT
76.
77.
78.
79.
Artificial seeds (synthetic seeds) are produced from somatic embryos encapsulated with
(A) Sodium carbonate
(B) Sodium alginate
(C) Calcium alginate
(D) Sodium nitrate
80.
81.
82.
83.
All the statements are true regarding RFLP and RAPD except
(A) RAPD is a quick method compared to RFLP
(B) RFLP is more reliable than RAPD
(C) Species specific primers are required for RAPD
(D) Radioactive probes are not required in RAPD
84.
Aquatic fern which is an excellent bio fertilizer also form symbiotic association with
Anabaena ?
(A) Salvinia
(B) Marsilea
(C) Azolla
(D) Pteridium
Set - A
11
BT
85.
86.
87.
Column B
1.
Bioinsecticide
2.
Bacteriocide
3.
Biofungicide
4.
Bioherbicide
(B) a 3, b 4, c 1
(D) a 4, b 3, c 2
88.
89.
90.
91.
Once the sequences are obtained from next generation sequencing experiment, what is
the first thing to do ?
(A) Perform a bioinformatics analysis of your data
(B) Publish your results
(C) Further investigate the sequence of interest
(D) Check data using a different method
92.
Set - A
BT
93.
Clustal W :
(A) Multiple sequence alignment
(B) Protein secondary structure prediction tool
(C) Data retrieving tool
(D) Nucleic acid sequencing tool
94.
95.
RASMOL
(D) BLAST
96.
97.
98.
99.
If you were using proteomics to find out the causes of muscle disorder, which technique
is preferred ?
(A) Creating genomic library
(B) Sequencing the gene responsible for disorder
(C) Determining which environmental factor influences the expression of your gene of
interest annotating the gene sequence
(D) Developing physical map from genomic clones
100.
Set - A
13
BT
101.
102.
103.
104.
For profiling mammalian cells the buffering capacity of the medium is increased by
(A) NaHCO3
(B) K2HPO4
(C) CaCO3
(D) MgSO4
105.
106.
In monolayer cultures, Gap junctions allow intra cellular exchange of ions and molecules
with
(A) 1100 D
(B) 900 D
(C) 500 D
(D) 2000 D
107.
108.
109.
The most recent method for screening large synthetic antibody libraries
(A) ELISA
(B) Phage display (C) Bio display (D) RIA
110.
Set - A
14
BT
111.
Tumour cells can grow in suspension or in a semi solid agar gel because of
(A) loss of contact inhibition
(B) high telomerase activity
(C) reduced levels of Glycolysis
(D) increased levels of blood circulation
112.
113.
Two homeodomain transcription factors which are the first proteins identified as
essential for both early embryo development and pluripotency maintenance in embryonic
stem cells
(A) TRA-1-60, TRA-1-81
(B) CD 349, frizzled-9
(C) SSEA-1, SSEA-4
(D) Oct-4, Nanog
114.
Which of the following interleukin is required for the development of basophils from
hematopoietic stem cells
(A) IL-3
(B) IL-12
(C) IL-1
(D) IL-9
115.
116.
When heated above the melting point, sucrose forms a brown substance called
(A) Monellin
(B) Caramel
(C) Saccharin
(D) Alitame
117.
118.
Human DNA contains 40% GC content, what will be the melting temperature ?
(A) 80.3 C
(B) 90.3 C
(C) 85.3 C
(D) 92.5 C
119.
The transcription of ribosomal RNA gene cluster by RNA Pol I in the nucleus generates
(A) 55 S Pre r RNA transcript
(B) 28 S Pre r RNA transcript
(C) 18 S Pre r RNA transcript
(D) 45 S Pre r RNA transcript
120.
Set - A
15
BT
Set - A
16
BT
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
BIO-TECHNOLOGY (BT)
SET-A
D
41
B
81
B
42
A
82
C
43
C
83
C
44
B
84
C
45
A
85
C
46
C
86
D
47
C
87
A
48
C
88
B
49
C
89
A
50
A
90
C
51
A
91
D
52
D
92
B
53
A
93
B
54
D
94
A
55
A
95
B
56
C
96
C
57
C
97
C
58
A
98
B
59
D
99
C
60
A
100
C
61
A
101
A
62
C
102
B
63
D
103
C
64
A
104
B
65
C
105
A
66
A
106
D
67
C
107
A
68
D
108
B
69
D
109
D
70
A
110
B
71
B
111
A
72
A
112
B
73
A
113
C
74
C
114
D
75
A
115
D
76
D
116
C
77
A
117
A
78
A
118
C
79
B
119
C
80
C
120
D
C
C
C
B
A
B
B
A
A
A
C
A
D
D
D
A
B
C
C
A
D
C
A
B
B
A
C
C
C
A
A
D
A
C
B
A
C
D
A
Booklet No. :
A
SET
CE - 15
Civil Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
CE-15-A
2.
3.
8 6 2
(A)
4.
l 2 + m2 + n 2
If C is the ellipse
(A) ab
5.
7.
(C)
l 2 + m2 + n 2
(D) 0
1
x2 y2
+ 2 = 1 then the value of 2 (xdy ydx) is
2
c
a
b
ab
(B)
(C) ab2
(D)
2
a2b
(C)
none
(D)
1 1
( 1) + cos2 x
8 16
(C)
2
( s 2)3
(D)
2
( s + 2)3
z2
at the pole z = 2 is
The residue of the function f ( z ) =
( z 1)2 ( z + 2)
(A)
8.
p
l+m+n
(B)
1
sin 2 x is
D 4
1 2
1
(B)
sin x
+ cos2 x
4
8
The value of
(A)
6.
(D)
1
2
2
5
9
(B)
1
2
(C)
4
9
(D) 0
If a random variable X has the PDF f(x) = (1 p)x1p, x = 1, 2, and 0 < p < 1. Then
the mean of X is
(A) p + 1
(B) p2 + p
(C) p
(D) 1
Set - A
CE
9.
10.
f (xn)
f '(xn) is
(A)
(B)
f ' ( xn ) < 1
(C)
f ' ( xn ) > 1
(D)
11.
12.
If the shear force at a section of a beam under bending is equal to zero, then the bending
moment at the section is
(A) zero
(B) maximum
(C) minimum
(D) minimum or maximum
13.
Of the four elastic constants, Youngs modulus, Bulk modulus, Rigidity modulus and
Poissons ratio, the number of constants required to be determined experimentally to
obtain the rest are
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
14.
Two bars of different materials are of the same size and are subjected to same tensile
forces. If the bars have unit elongations in the ratio of 4:5, then the ratio of moduli of
elasticity of the two materials is
(A) 5:4
(B) 4:5
(C) 4:9
(D) 16:25
15.
The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 5 MPa (compressive) and 3 MPa
(tensile) respectively. The maximum shear stress at the point is
(A) zero
(B) 2 MPa
(C) 4 MPa
(D) 8 MPa
16.
Set - A
CE
17.
The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a rectangular beam section
to that of a circular beam section is in the proportion of
(A) 9:8
(B) 8:9
(C) 3:4
(D) 2:3
18.
19.
A solid circular shaft of 6m length is built in at its ends and subjected to an externally
applied torque 60 kN m at a distance of 2 m from the left end. The reactive torques at the
left end and the right end are respectively
(A) 20 kN m and 40 kN m
(B) 40 kN m and 20 kN m
(C) 30 kN m and 30 kN m
(D) 15 kN m and 45 kN m
20.
When both ends of a column are fixed, the crippling load is P. If one end of the column is
made free, the value of crippling load is
(A) P/16
(B) P/4
(C) P/2
(D) 4P
21.
If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire span,
then any section of the arch is subjected to
(A) normal thrust only
(B) normal thrust and shear force
(C) normal thrust and bending moment
(D) normal thrust, shear force and bending moment
22.
23.
24.
25.
The ratio of the moment-carrying capacities of a beam of a square section of size D and a
beam of circular section of diameter D is
(A) 3/8
(B) 8/3
(C) 16/3
(D) 3/16
Set - A
CE
26.
The maximum bending moment under a particular point load among a train of point
loads crossing a simply supported girded occurs when that load is
(A) at mid-span
(B) at one-third span
(C) at one-quarter span
(D) so placed that the load point and the point of CG of the train of loads are
equidistant from the mid-span
27.
28.
A fixed beam of 6 m span supports two point loads of 300 kN each at 2 m and 4 m from
one end. The bending moment under each load is
(A) 400 kN m
(B) 300 kN m
(C) 250 kN m
(D) 200 kN m
29.
30.
31.
In the limit state method, balanced design of a reinforced concrete beam gives
(A) smallest concrete section and maximum area of reinforcement
(B) largest concrete section and maximum area of reinforcement
(C) smallest concrete section and minimum area of reinforcement
(D) largest concrete section and minimum area of reinforcement
32.
Minimum clear cover in mm to the main steel bars in slab, beam, column and footing
respectively, are
(A) 10, 15, 20 and 25
(B) 15, 25, 40 and 75
(C) 15, 25, 30 and 40
(D) 20, 35, 40 and 75
33.
The following two statements are made with reference to a simply supported underreinforced RCC beam :
I.
Failure takes place by crushing of concrete before the steel has yielded.
II. The neutral axis moves up as the load is increased.
Of the statements
(A) I and II are false
(B) I is true but II is false
(C) I and II are true
(D) I is false but II is true
Set - A
CE
34.
35.
A simply supported rectangular beam is uniformly loaded and is pre-stressed. The tendon
provided for pre-stressing should be
(A) straight, above centroidal axis
(B) straight, below centroidal axis
(C) parabolic, convexity upward
(D) parabolic, convexity downward
36.
The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and
superimposed load is
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 350
37.
38.
39.
40.
The sections when arranged in the decreasing order of their shape factors are
(A) I, circular, diamond, rectangular (B) circular, I, rectangular, diamond
(C) diamond circular, rectangular, I
(D) diamond, I, circular, rectangular
41.
42.
43.
The porosity of a certain sample was found to be 80% and its specific gravity is 2.7, the
critical hydraulic gradient is
(A) 0.34
(B) 0.92
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.5
Set - A
CE
44.
On analysis of particle size distribution of a soil, it is found that D10 = 0.1 mm, D30 = 0.3 mm
and D60 = 0.8 mm. The uniformity coefficient and curvature coefficient are respectively
(A) 8 and 3
(B) 2.67 and 1.125
(C) 2.67 and 3
(D) 8 and 1.125
45.
In a wet soil mass, air occupies one-fourth of its volume and water occupies one-half of
its volume. The void ratio of the soil is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
46.
The liquid limit (LL), plastic limit (PL) and shrinkage limit (SL), of a cohesive soil
satisfy the relation
(A) LL>PL<SL (B) LL>PL>SL (C) LL<PL<SL (D) LL<PL>SL
47.
A flow net under a sheet pile has Nf = 4, Nd = 8 and KH = 8 105 m/s and KV = 2 105
m/s. If the head loss through the soil is 2 m, the quantity of seepage per metre length of
the pile is
(A) 2 105 m3/s (B) 4 105 m3/s (C) 8 105 m3/s (D) 16 105 m3/s
48.
In a saturated clay with a unit weight of 20 kN/m3, if the water table is at ground surface,
the effective stress at 3 m depth in kN/m2, is
(A) 60
(B) 66
(C) 30
(D) 30
49.
A 2 m thick clay will be 90% consolidated in 6 years. The time required to achieve the
same degree of consolidation in a 8 m thick stratum of the same clay is
(A) 12 years
(B) 48 years
(C) 72 years
(D) 96 years
50.
The ratio of compactive effort provide in modified Proctor test to standard Proctor test is
(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 3
(D) 4.5
51.
52.
Set - A
CE
53.
The total active thrust on a vertical wall 3 m height retaining a horizontal sand backfill
(unit weight = 20 kN/m3, angle of internal friction = 30), when the water table at the
bottom of the wall is
(A) 30 kN/m
(B) 35 kN/m
(C) 45 kN/m
(D) 75 kN/m
54.
The stability of upstream and downstream slopes of an earth dam has to be checked for
(A) steady seepage condition
(B) sudden drawdown condition
(C) steady seepage and sudden drawdown conditions respectively
(D) sudden drawdown and steady seepage conditions respectively
55.
The gross bearing capacity of a footing is 440 kN/m2. If the footing is 1.5 m wide and is
at a depth of 1m in a clayey soil which has a unit weight of 20 kN/m3, the safe bearing
capacity with a factor of safety of 3 is
(A) 133 kN/m2 (B) 140 kN/m2
(C) 160 kN/m2
(D) 420 kN/m2
56.
The ratio of ultimate bearing capacities of circular footing and a square footing founded
on the surface of a purely cohesionless soil (the side of the square footing being equal to
the diameter of the circular footing) is
(A) 0.75
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.33
(D) 1.75
57.
Ultimate settlement of footings on cohesive soils is best estimated using the data from
(A) plate load test
(B) consolidation test
(C) cone penetration test
(D) standard penetration test
58.
A 30 cm square bearing plate settles by 1.5 cm in a plate loading test on a cohesive soil
when the intensity of loading is 200 kN/m2. The settlement of prototype shallow footing
1m square under the same intensity of loading is
(A) 1.5 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 16.67 cm
59.
60.
Set - A
CE
61.
62.
The velocities at two points in a pipeline are V and 3V. Both the points are at the same
elevation. The fluid density is . The flow can be assumed to be incompressible, inviscid,
steady and irrotational. The difference in pressures between the points is
(A) V2
(B) 2V2
(C) 4V2
(D) 8V2
63.
If the Reynolds number of pipe flow is 640, the friction factor of the pipe material is
(A) 0.16
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.016
(D) 0.01
64.
The ratio of head loss per unit length of a pipe flowing full to that of the same pipe
flowing half-full at the same mean velocity is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
65.
In network of pipes
(A) the algebraic sum of head (pressure and datum) drops around each circuit is zero
(B) the algebraic sum of discharges around each circuit is zero
(C) the algebraic sums of head (pressure and datum) drops and discharges around each
circuit are zero
(D) the elevation of hydraulic gradient line is assumed for each junction point
66.
The thickness of laminar boundary layer on a flat plate at a point P is 1 cm and at a point
Q, 1 m downstream of P, is 2 cm. The distance of P from the leading edge of the plate is
(A) 0.33 m
(B) 0.67 m
(C) 1 m
(D) 1.25 m
67.
68.
69.
In a channel the bed slope changes from a mild slope to a steep slope. The resulting
gradually varied flow profiles are
(A) M1, S2
(B) M2, S1
(C) M2, S2
(D) M1, S1
Set - A
CE
70.
71.
The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a horizontal rectangular channel is 5. The
Froude number before the jump is
(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 35
(D) 120
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
A line connecting points having equal time of travel of surface runoff to the catchment
outlet is an
(A) isochrone
(B) isovel
(C) isopleth
(D) isohyet
77.
78.
A 6 h storm had 6 cm of rainfall at uniform rate and the resulting runoff was 3 cm. If the
index remains at the same value, the runoff due to 12 cm of uniform rainfall in 9
hours in the catchment is
(A) 9 cm
(B) 4.5 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 7.5 cm
Set - A
10
CE
79.
80.
For a catchment with an area of 200 km2, the equilibrium discharge of the S curve
obtained by summation of 2 h unit hydrographs is
(A) 36 m3/s
(B) 100 m3/s
(C) 278 m3/s
(D) 400 m3/s
81.
82.
A culvert is designed for a peak flow of 10 m3/s on the basis of rational formula. If the
storm of same intensity as used in the design but of duration thrice larger occurs, the
resulting peak discharge is
(A) 3.33 m3/s
(B) 5 m3/s
(C) 10 m3/s
(D) 30 m3/s
83.
84.
The volume stored in a saturated column of aquifer with a porosity of 0.3, cross-sectional
area of 2 m2 and of 4 m depth is
(A) 1.2 m3
(B) 2.4 m3
(C) 4 m3
(D) 8 m3
85.
If duty is 1200 hectares/cumec and base period is 120 days for an irrigated crop, then
delta is
(A) 0.864 m
(B) 0.432 m
(C) 1 m
(D) 10 m
86.
Lysimeter and Tensiometer are used to measure respectively, one of the following groups
of quantities
(A) evaporation and permeability
(B) capillary potential and evapotranspiration
(C) evapotranspiration and capillary potential
(D) velocity and vapour pressure
87.
Set - A
11
CE
88.
89.
According to Khosla s theory, the exit gradient in the absence of downstream cutoff is
(A) zero
(B) unity
(C) zero or unity (D) infinity
90.
91.
92.
(B) Fluorides
(D) Calcium and Magnesium
93.
A water treatment plant treats 6000 m3 of water per day. If it consumes 20 kg chlorine
per day, then the chlorine dosage would be
(A) 3 mg/l
(B) 3.75 mg/l
(C) 4.25 mg/l
(D) 3.33 mg/l
94.
95.
96.
Which of the following operational problems relate to the functioning of rapid gravity
filter ?
1.
Inadequate media comprising filter bed
2.
Mud balls
3.
Negative head
Which of the above are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
Set - A
12
CE
97.
98.
The most suitable method of analysis of water distribution system for long and narrow
pipe system is
(A) Circle method
(B) Equivalent pipe method
(C) Hardy-Cross method
(D) Electrical analyser method
99.
100.
Most suitable section of sewer for both combined and separate systems is
(A) semi-elliptical
(B) circular
(C) horse-shoe shaped
(D) egg shaped
101.
If the slope of sewer A is 1/400 and that of sewer B is 1/100, the velocity of flow in the
two sewers will have a ratio of (other parameters being same)
(A) 1:2
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:4
(D) 4:1
102.
During sewage treatment, effluent from which one of the following treatment units has
minimum amount of suspended solids ?
(A) Detritus channel
(B) Primary sedimentation tank
(C) Secondary sedimentation tank
(D) Activated sludge process aeration tank
103.
104.
The unit in which both sedimentation and digestion processes of sludge take place
simultaneously is
(A) Skimming tank
(B) Imhoff tank
(C) Detritus tank
(D) Digestion tank
105.
A sewage sludge has a water content of 99%. The concentration of suspended solids in
the sludge is
(A) 10 mg/l
(B) 100 mg/l
(C) 1000 mg/l
(D) 10,000 mg/l
Set - A
13
CE
106.
107.
A water supply of 15,000 m3 per day is treated with 0.5 ppm of chlorine. The
requirement of 30% bleaching powder per day is
(A) 2.25 kg
(B) 4.5 kg
(C) 2.5 kg
(D) 25 kg
108.
109.
110.
The secondary pollutant among the air pollutants, NO, SO2, soot and O3, is
(A) NO
(B)
SO2
(C)
soot
(D) O3
111.
112.
113.
In a flexible pavement
(A) vertical compressive stresses decrease with depth of the layer
(B) vertical compressive stress is maximum at the lowest layer
(C) tensile stresses get developed
(D) maximum stress induced by a given traffic load is dependent on the location of
load on the pavement surface
Set - A
14
CE
114.
115.
At an intersection, the critical lane volume on the major road increases while that on the
minor road remains unchanged. The green time for the signal will
(A) increase for the major road and remain same for the minor road.
(B) increase for the major road and decrease for the minor road.
(C) decrease for both the roads.
(D) remain unchanged for both the roads.
116.
The bearings of lines OP and OQ are 20 30" and 342 20" respectively. The included
angle QOP is
(A) 321 50"
(B) 162 20"
(C) 69 30"
(D) 38 10"
117.
(D) 2, 3 and 4
118.
119.
The plotting of inaccessible points in a plane-table survey can be done by the method of
(A) Interpolation (B) Radiation
(C) Intersection (D) Traversing
120.
Set - A
15
CE
Set - A
16
CE
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
D
C
B
B
A
C
B
B
D
A
A
D
D
A
D
A
D
B
B
D
A
C
C
B
D
B
D
B
B
D
B
C
A
B
B
D
B
D
C
A
Booklet No. :
A
SET
CH - 15
Chemical Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
CH-15-A
2.
If 5 and
(A) 2
3.
(C)
(D) 1
(B)
+2
(C)
(D) 1
5.
(B)
The percentage of error in the area of an ellipse when an error of +1 percentage is made
in measuring the major and minor axis is
(A)
4.
1 2 2
5 are eigen values of the matrix 1 2 1 then the third eigen value is
1 1 0
(B)
i j
(C)
2i + 3 j
(D)
x
sin2 x
4
(B)
x
cos 2 x
4
(C)
1
sin2 x
8
(D)
1
s2
(D)
1
sin2 x
4
1
6.
1
(A)
7.
8.
t is
(B)
(C)
2z +1
The residue at the pole 2 of the function z 2 z 2
3
3
1
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D)
1
s
5
3
Set - A
CH
9.
10.
If h is the step size and if f ( x) is given in the table then by Simpson 1/3rd method
x5
x0
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
y ( x)dx is equal to
x0
x1
x2
x3
x4
x5
y(x)
y0
y1
y2
y3
y4
y5
h
y0 + 2 ( y1 + y3 ) + 4 ( y2 + y4 ) + y5
2
h
y0 + 4 ( y1 + y3 ) + 2 ( y2 + y4 ) + y5
3
h
y0 + 2 ( y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 ) + y5
2
h
y0 + 2 ( y1 + y3 ) + 4 ( y2 + y4 ) + y5
3
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Dynamic similarity is
(A) the similarity of discharge
(B) the similarity of forces
(C) the similarity of stream line patterns (D) the similarity of location
Set - A
CH
16.
17.
18.
19.
(B)
K (Sg)
(C)
K (Sg)2
(D) K (Sg)1.5
The ratio of point velocity to the maximum velocity in laminar flow through a pipe is
(A) 1 (r/R)2
(B)
1 (r/R)
(C)
(r/R)2
(D) (r/R)
20.
21.
A foot valve is a
(A) direction control valve
(C) pressure reducing valve
22.
23.
24.
For compressing and moving gases, the pressure difference produced is the maximum for
(A) Fans
(B) Vacuum Pumps
(C) Blowers
(D) Compressors
25.
Set - A
(D) 6 cm
CH
26.
(B)
(C)
<1
(D) 2
27.
The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of any screen to that in the next smaller screen in
that series is
(A) 1.41
(B) 2
(C) 1.19
(D) 1.73
28.
29.
(B)
(C)
inversely proportional
directly proportional
(D) 2 %
30.
31.
32.
Critical speed of a ball mill depends on (r is ball radius and R is mill radius)
(A) only on mill radius, R
(B) Only on ball radius, r
(C)
33.
Difference in R and r
(D) (R r)1/2
34.
35.
36.
(B)
L1
(C)
M1L
Set - A
(D) M1L1
37.
38.
39.
Vane pumps
(A) operate at low efficiencies
(B) cannot provide variable displacement
(C) do not depend on centrifugal force for their operation
(D) can have large discharge under high pressures
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
(D) Soot
(D) polyester
(D) C2F4
Set - A
(C)
6
C2F2
CH
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
CH4, CO and N2
CH4, CO and H2
(D) NaHCO3
(C)
Radiation
53.
A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all made of the same material and having the
same mass, are available at a temperature of 250 C. When they are exposed to the
ambient air, which object will provide the lowest heat transfer rate ?
(A) circular plate
(B) cube
(C) sphere
(D) all will cool at the same rate
54.
Set - A
CH
55.
The maximum heat loss from a pipe occurs when the radius of insulation equals
(A) the ratio of thermal conductivity to heat transfer coefficient
(B)
(C)
57.
(B)
(C)
Stanton number
Rayleigh number
(C)
both A and B
When the Prandtl number is greater than unity, the thermal boundary layer
(A) and hydrodynamic boundary layer are identical
(B)
(C)
(D) disappears
59.
(C)
(C)
is characterized by high heat transfer coefficients than that for drop wise
condensation
(D) is characterized by a thin liquid film forming over the entire surface
Set - A
CH
61.
(C)
The total emissive power (E) of a gray body at a surface temperature of T is given by
(A) E = T4
63.
(B)
=1
(C)
(D)
>1
(B)
decrease
(D) none
A certain quantity of liquid is heated for 10 minutes by an electric resistor, which draws
3 amperes current at 200 volts. The liquid is continuously stirred by a paddle wheel,
which was operated by a 200 W rating motor. The amount of energy transferred to the
liquid is
(A) 480 kJ
66.
E = (1)T4 (D) E = T4
If some of the tubes in a heat exchanger are sealed, the effective heat transfer area will
(A) increase
65.
E = (1)T4 (C)
For the same process temperatures, the ratio of LMTD in parallel flow to the LMTD in
counter flow in liquidliquid heat exchanger is always
(A) <1
64.
(B)
(B)
360 kJ
(C)
800 kJ
(D) 240 kJ
The thermal efficiency of an ideal Rankine cycle is lower than that of a Carnot cycle
operating between the same temperature limits because
(A) energy rejection does not take place at constant temperature
(B)
(C)
A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed reversibly from the initial state (P1, V1) to
the final state (P2, V2) according to the path, PVn = constant. The work done on the gas
(A) n(P1V1 P2V2)
(C)
Set - A
P(V1 V2 )
n
(B)
(D)
P2 V 2 P1V1
1 n
P(V1 V2 )
1 n
CH
68.
69.
70.
A 1ton air conditioning unit, with a seasonal energy efficiency rate of 10 is used for
1000 hr per year. If the cost of electricity is ` 5 per kWh, the annual cost of power
consumption by the air conditioner is
(A) ` 10000
(B) ` 5000
(C) ` 6000
(D) `12000
71.
72.
(B)
G /RT
(C)
GE /RT
(D) G /RT
T&S
(D) T & H
73.
A system, going from P to Q, absorbs 100 kJ of heat and does 30 kJ of work. In the
return direction if the system does 30 kJ of work, what is the heat effect ?
(A) 70 kJ
(B) 100 kJ
(C) 40 kJ
(D) 130 kJ
74.
75.
76.
Set - A
(B)
(temp)1.5
(C)
10
(temp)2
(D) (temp)1
CH
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
(A) y / (1y)
(B)
(C)
(1y) / y (1x)
(B)
(C)
(B)
DAB
(C)
84.
(C)
DAB1.5
(D) DAB0.7
83.
P = 1/ Diffusivity
82.
y/x
(B)
(B)
(C)
Dew temperature
Set - A
(B)
(C)
11
(D) 2
CH
85.
If the activity coefficient crosses unity as mole fraction of more volatile component in a
binary mixture changes, the indication is that
(A) an azeotrope is formed
(B) the separation is easier
(C) the separation is difficult
(D) the system is ideal
86.
Absorption factor is
(A) Slope of the driving force line/ slope of the operating line
(B) Number of transfer units/ number of theoretical plates
(C) Slope of the equilibrium curve / slope of the operating line
(D) Slope of the operating line / slope of the equilibrium curve
87.
88.
If the vapour pressure of water retained by a solid is less than the vapour pressure of pure
water, then the water content is known as
(A) Critical Moisture content
(B) Free Moisture content
(C) Bound Moisture
(D) Equilibrium Moisture content
89.
90.
91.
Liquid A decomposes by an irreversible first order reaction and the halflife of this
reaction is 20 min. The time required for 75 % conversion is
(A) 30 min
(B) 35 min
(C) 40 min
(D) 25 min
92.
In a chemical reaction, it is observed that the rate increases 4-fold, as the concentration is
doubled. What is the order of the reaction ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1.5
(D) 4
93.
Set - A
12
CH
94.
95.
More Complete
96.
99.
KCAO2
(C)
1/(KCAO)
(D) CAO
(B)
(C)
(D) 2
For identical CAO, FAO and XA, and for all positive reaction orders, the ratio of volume
of a CSTR to that of a plug flow reactor is
(A) <1
98.
(B)
For an isothermal gas phase reaction, A 2B +C, the fractional change in volume of the
system between complete and no conversion is
(A) 3
97.
(B)
>1
(C)
=1
N plug flow reactors in series, each with a volume of V/N will give the same conversion
as a single plug flow reactor of volume V, all else remaining the same. This is valid for
(A) first order reactions
(B)
(C)
Heat of reaction
For large values of the Thiele modulus (L(k/D)1/2), in case of solid catalyzed first order
reaction, effectiveness factor () is given by
(A) = 1
Set - A
(B)
1 / L(k/D)
(C)
13
= 1 / L(k/D)1/2
(D)
L(k/D)1/2
CH
102.
103.
104.
105.
When a first order system(time constant T) is subjected to a ramp input(At) , the dynamic
error is
(A) (AT)0.5
(B) AT
(C) 0.5 AT
(D) 2 AT
106.
107.
Flow
(D) Temperature
108.
109.
110.
For a stable system, as per Bode stability criterion, the amplitude ratio at a phase angle of
(180)
(A) shall be greater than unity
(B) shall be equal to zero
(C) shall be less than unity
(D) shall be equal to unity
111.
Set - A
CH
112.
113.
A piece of equipment has an initial value of ` 25000, a service life of 8 years and finally
a salvage value of ` 1000. What is the annual depreciation cost as per straight line
method ?
(B) ` 2500
(C) ` 2600
(D) ` 3000
(A) ` 2400
114.
N : P2O5 : K2O
(D) N : P : K2O
115.
116.
117.
The angle subtended by a vertical line to the point directly overhead on the line of sight
of the sun is called
(A) latitude angle
(B) declination angle
(D) Incident angle
(D) Zenith angle
118.
Which method of depreciation computation will provide the lowest book value at all
times
(A) Straight line method
(B) Diminishing balance method
(C) Sinking fund method
(D) Sum of the years digit methods
119.
120.
A cylindrical vessel needs to be designed to store a highly volatile liquid, under high
pressure. Which closure head do you recommend ?
(A) Hemispherical
(B) Torispherical
(C) Ellipsoidal
(D) Flat end
Set - A
15
CH
Set - A
16
CH
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING(CH)
SET - A
C
41
B
81
D
42
B
82
B
43
B
83
A
44
A
84
A
45
D
85
D
46
D
86
D
47
C
87
D
48
A
88
D
49
A
89
B
50
B
90
51
C
91
C
C
52
B
92
B
53
C
93
D
54
D
94
B
55
A
95
D
56
D
96
C
57
B
97
A
58
C
98
A
59
B
99
D
60
D
100
B
61
B
101
B
62
A
102
A
63
A
103
D
64
C
104
B
65
A
105
B
66
C
106
A
67
B
107
C
68
D
108
D
69
A
109
B
70
C
110
B
71
C
111
C
72
A
112
A
73
C
113
D
74
D
114
C
75
B
115
A
76
B
116
C
77
D
117
A
78
C
118
D
79
D
119
A
80
A
120
A
C
B
B
A
D
B
C
D
C
C
B
D
A
A
D
B
C
A
A
C
B
A
D
B
D
A
B
C
C
A
D
A
C
D
B
D
B
A
C
Booklet No. :
A
SET
CS - 15
Computer Science & Information Technology
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
CS-15-A
1.
2.
3.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) none
The value of the constant k so that the function
kx(1 x), 0 < x < 1
f ( x) =
otherwise
is a proper density function, is
0,
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/6
A signal received at a detector may be Gaussian N(200, 100) at time t. The probability
that the signal is larger than 230 micro volts, given that it is larger than 210 micro volts is
(A)
1 2
. e 2 z
.
. e 2 z
.
230
.
.
1 2
1 2
(B)
1 z2
e 2
. e 2 z
.
(C)
.
.
210
210
4.
5.
6.
7.
(D) None
1 z2
e 2
8 6 2
If the eigen values of the matrix A = 6 7 4 are 0, 3 and 15, then the eigen
2 4 3
values of the matrix B = 2 A + I are
(A) 8, 7, 3
(B) 1, 7, 31
(C) 0, 3, 15
(D) do not exist
f (x )
The condition for convergence of Newton Raphson iteration scheme x1 = x0 0 at
f ( x0 )
x = x0 is
(A)
f ( x0 ) f ( x0 ) 0
(C)
f ( x0 ) f ( x0 ) f ( x0 )
(B)
f ( x0 ) 1
By secant method the next approximation root for the function f ( x) = x 2 x 2 in the
interval (1, 2) is
(B) x1 = 2
(C) x1 = 0
(D) x1 = 3/2
(A) x1 = 1
4
8.
.
If f(x) is given in the following table then the value of .f(x)dx by Simpson 1/3 rule is
(A) 26
Set - A
x
f(x)
(B) 15
0
1
1
1
2
3
3
7
(C) 18
2
4
13
(D) 17.33
CS
9.
10.
If f(x) = (x 1)(x 2) is defined in the interval [1,3] the value of c at which the Lagrange
Mean Value is satisfied at
(A) c = 0
(B) c = 3 / 2
(C) c = 1
(D) c = 2
( x, y , z )
If x = v + w, y = w + u, z = u + v the value of (u, v, w) is
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 2
11.
The total number of possible records in a database table, if it contains two fields, a
5-letter name, and a 2-digit age, is
(A) 1188137600
(B) 3906252 1010
(C) 11881476
(D) 2600
12.
Number of ways a row of n houses can be painted with k colours such that no two
consecutive houses can have same colours
(A) n.(n-1).(n-2) (n+k-1)
(B) n.(n-1).(n-2) (n-k+1)
k-1
(C) (n-1)
(D) k.(k-1)n-1
13.
An urn contains 40 balls, namely 10 each of the colours Cyan, Magenta, Yellow and
Black. If 3 balls are picked up (repeat colours allowed) from the urn, how many different
colour combinations we can get ?
(B) 6! / (2.3!)
(C) 10C3
(D) 6C3
(A) 40C3
14.
15.
an = an-1 + 14
(D) an = 2an-1 1
16.
17.
18.
Set - A
CS
19.
20.
If a graph A can be redrawn such that it looks exactly like graph B, then
(A) A is dual of B
(B) A and B are isomorphic
(C) A and B are isographs
(D) A is a line graph of B
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
Consider the definition: A prime number is an integer greater than 1 and not divisible by
any number other than itself and 1. The equivalent logical expression is
(A) N (( N>1) m ((m>1) (m<N) (mod(N, m) = 0))) prime(N)
(B) N (( N>1) m ((m>1) (m<N) (mod(N, m) = 1))) prime(N)
(C) N (( N>1) m ((m>1) (m<N) (mod(N, m) = 0))) prime(N)
(D) N (( N>1) m ((m>1) (m<N) (mod(N, m) = 0))) prime(N)
27.
(A B) (B A) is equivalent to
(A) A B
(C) a tautology
Set - A
(B) a contradiction
(D) (A B) (A B)
4
CS
28.
A
B
F
Time
Identify the logical function that gives rise to the above timing diagram.
(A) F = A' B
(B) F = A' B + A B'
(C) F = A + B'
(D) F = A'B'
29.
1
1
1
The Boolean expression corresponding to the above K-map is
(A) XY + Y'Z
(B) YZ + X'Y
(C) ZX + X'Y
(D) XY + X'Y'
30.
31.
32.
(D) 48 bits
33.
What is the minimum number of states possible in a sequential circuit with four flip-flops ?
(A) 1
(B) 16
(C) 2
(D) 15
34.
35.
(D) 72
A 32-bit processor
(A) has only 32-bit machine instructions
(B) has 32-bit address space
(C) can directly perform operations on 32 bit data
(D) must have 32-bit data bus
Set - A
CS
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
RISC instruction sets have smallest number of the following type of instructions :
(A) register to register
(B) machine control
(C) arithmetic
(D) memory to register
41.
42.
In a computer system the access time of main memory is 100 ns, and the access time of
cache is 5 ns. If the hit rate is 96%, what is the average access time ?
(A) 8.8 ns
(B) 8.6 ns
(C) 52.5 ns
(D) 9.0 ns
43.
44.
Set - A
CS
45.
(D) 10 30
46.
Consider a stack having the elements 10, 30, 5, 50 with 50 being the top element. What
will be the values in the stack after performing the following operations ?
pop a ; pop b; pop c ; swap(b,c) ; push b ; push c ; push a;
(A) 50, 30, 5, 10
(B) 10, 30, 50, 5
(C) 10, 5, 30, 50
(D) 10, 30, 5, 50
47.
48.
Consider the following pseudo code where parameters are passed using call-by-name
technique :
int a, b, c ;
function g(x)
begin print b ; a = x + 1 ;
b = b + c ; print x ; end ;
main()
begin a = 1; b = 2; c = 3 ; x = 10 ;
g(a+b) ; print x ; print b ; end ;
What is the output if the above code is executed ?
(A) 2 3 10 5
(B) 2 3 3 2
(C) 2 9 10 5
(D) 2 9 9 2
49.
50.
Set - A
CS
51.
52.
The steps involved in inserting a node pointed to by p1, after a node pointed to by p2 in a
linked list
(A) ptr = p1link; p1link = p2link; p2=ptr;
(B) ptr=p2link; p2link=p1link; p1link=ptr;
(C) p1link=p2link; p2link=p1;
(D) p2link=p1link; p1link=p2;
53.
For implementing priority queues, the following data structure gives better performance
(A) Array
(B) Linked list
(C) Heap
(D) Binary tree
54.
55.
In AVL tree, the height of right sub tree minus the height of left sub tree for every node
is
(A) greater than 1
(B) zero
(C) between -1 and 1
(D) less than one
56.
57.
Algorithm analysis
(A) generates the source code from flowchart
(B) estimates the resources needed by an algorithm
(C) gives a procedure for developing efficient algorithms
(D) gives the result of executing the algorithm
58.
59.
(C)
O(log2N)
(D) O(log10N)
Set - A
CS
60.
(B)
O(1.1N)
(C)
O(N2)
(D) O(log10N)
61.
Which is the best sort algorithm to use, if our list is already sorted except for the last two
elements ?
(A) Bubble sort (B) Heap sort
(C) Insertion sort (D) Quick sort
62.
(C)
Consider the problem of choosing the smallest number of coins that add up to 40 using
coin denominations 1, 5, 10, 20, 25. The denomination of the first coin chosen by a
Greedy algorithm
(A) 1
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 25
64.
What is the order of complexity of searching for an item among N items stored in a Hash
table of size M, assuming M >>N ?
(A) O(M+N)
(B) O(M)
(C) O(N)
(D) O(1)
65.
The following data structure is most suitable to implement depth-first traversal of a graph
without recursion
(A) Stack
(B) Array
(C) Queue
(D) Linked list
66.
In dynamic programming,
(A) the problem cannot be divided into sub problems
(B) sub problems are allowed to overlap
(C) recursion must be used
(D) our solutions normally have O(aN) complexity
67.
An NP-complete problem is
(A) always polynomial time
(C) NP and NP-hard
68.
Set - A
CS
69.
70.
Given a computer program and an input, deciding whether the program finishes or runs
for ever is called
(A) Godels problem
(B) Turing problem
(C) Neumann problem
(D) Halting problem
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
Set - A
10
CS
78.
79.
A TLB stores
(A) page table entries
(C) frequently executed instructions
(B) PCBs
(D) subroutine return addresses
80.
81.
82.
83.
A hypervisor is
(A) an operating system
(C) a virtual operating system
84.
85.
86.
87.
Set - A
11
CS
88.
89.
90.
John
25
101
Hema
21
What are the constraints violated by the above table ?
(A) Referential integrity only
(B) Entity and Domain integrities
(C) Referential and Domain integrities (D) Relationship integrity
91.
In a B+ tree of height H, the number of nodes to access, in the best case, to get the
address of the data record is
(A) 1
(B) H
(C) H+1
(D) logH
92.
What is the highest normal form to which the following table confirms ?
student (RollNo, name, subjectID, subjectName, marks)
(A) BCNF
(B) 2nd normal form
rd
(C) 3 normal form
(D) 1st normal form
93.
94.
Set - A
12
CS
95.
96.
You have ordered some groceries in the local super market and paid through your card.
The items are expected to be home delivered the next day, but it never happens. What
property of the transaction is violated ?
(A) Durability
(B) Consistency
(C) Isolation
(D) Atomicity
97.
98.
99.
100.
Set - A
13
CS
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
(C)
(B) IP addresses
(D) Host names
Size of an IP packet
(A) 1024 bits
(B)
(C)
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
65536 bytes
65535 bytes
(D) 6
Set - A
14
CS
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
An XML document
(A) is a structured document
(C) can not use HTML tags
118.
119.
120.
HTML is
(A) a scripting language
(C) a programming language
Set - A
15
CS
Set - A
16
CS
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
D
B
B
B
A
C
C
C
B
B
C
D
D
B
C
D
B
A
D
C
A
B
B
D
A
A
B
C
D
C
A
C
C
A
A
D
C
A
D
B
Booklet No. :
A
SET
EC - 15
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
EC-15-A
2.
2 2 1
If two eigen values of A = 1 3 1 are 2 and 3 then the third eigen value is
1 2 2
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 7
3.
.
2
The value of . x3 ex dx is equal to
(A)
1
2
(B)
1
3
(C)
3
2
(D)
2
3
4.
5.
6.
7.
(A)
8.
9.
1
3
(B)
1
9
z2
at the pole z = 1 is
( z 1)2 ( z + 2)
5
2
(C)
(D)
9
9
1 12 z 2
e
If the random variable Z has the probability density function f ( z ) =
then the
2
variance of Z is equal to
1
(A) 0
(B)
(C) 2
(D) 1
2
If there is no repetition in the ranks and if di , i = 1,, n then the rank correlation is given by
(A)
Set - A
(B)
(C)
2
d
1
n
2
i
(D)
6 di2
n(n 2 + 1)
EC
10.
11.
(B)
(B)
(A) 10 mA
(B)
(D)
i1
[4 (t ) e u(t )] A
[4e u(t ) 4 (t )] A
0.4 mA
50
(C)
10 mA
0.4 mA
(D) 10 mA
I o ( s)
s
=
, If ii (t ) = 4 (t ) then io (t ) will be
I i (s) s + 1
(B)
(D)
[e u(t ) (t )] A
[4 (t ) 4e u(t )] A
t
15.
1+ x
100
14.
(D)
(C)
30 mA
13.
(C)
x2
2
Consider the network graph shown in the figure. Which one of the following is NOT a
tree of this graph
(A)
12.
x2
1 x +
2
dy
= x y with y = 1
dx
Z L = RS + jX S (B) Z L = RS
(C)
Z L = jX S
(D)
delivers
Z L = RS jX S
Set - A
(B)
32 V
+
Va
50
(C)
3
40 V
(D) 32 V
EC
16.
Io
1H
1/3 F
Is
4
Io
The current ratio transfer function I is
s
s(s + 4)
(A)
(B)
s 2 + 3s + 4
(C)
s 2 + 3s + 4
s(s + 4)
(D)
s(s + 4)
(s + 1)(s + 3)
(s + 1)(s + 3)
s(s + 4)
17.
A parallel circuit has R=2 K, C=50 F and L=10 mH. The quality factor at resonance is
(A) 141.42
(B) 70.7
(C) 20
(D) 32.3
18.
10
V1
(A)
19.
0.03 1
1 10
(B)
I2
30
10
1
0.03 1
(C)
V2
0.3 1
1 10
(D)
1
10
1 0.03
The differential equation for the current i(t) in the circuit of the figure is
3
i(t)
2H
1F
sin t
(A)
(C)
Set - A
d 2i(t)
dt 2
d 2i(t)
dt 2
di(t)
+ i(t) = cos t
dt
(B)
d 2i(t)
di(t)
+2
+ 3i(t) = sin t
2
dt
dt
di(t)
+ 3i(t) = cos t
dt
(D)
+3
+3
d 2i(t)
dt 2
+3
di(t)
+ i(t) = sin t
dt
EC
20.
3V
(A) -1.4 A
3A
9
(B)
2A
(C)
1A
(D) 1.4 A
21.
The condition for the electrical symmetry in the two port network is
(A) h12= h21
(B) AD BC = 1 (C) Z12 = Z21
(D) A = D
22.
In the ac network shown in the figure, the phasor voltage VAB (in volts) is
A
5
530 A
-j3
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
j3
B
(A) 0
(B) 530
(C) 12.530
(D) 1730
A p-n junction diodes dynamic conductance is directly proportional to
(A) The applied voltage
(B) The temperature
(C) Its current
(D) The thermal voltage
If = 0.981, ICO =6 A and IB=100 A for a NPN transistor, then the value of IC will be
(A) 2.3 mA
(B) 3.1 mA
(C) 4.6 mA
(D) 5.2 mA
In an integrated circuit, the SiO2 layer provides
(A) Electrical connection to external circuit (B) Physical strength
(C) Isolation
(D) Conducting path
A PIN diode is frequently used as a
(A) Peak clipper
(B) Voltage regulator
(C) Harmonic regulator
(D) Switching diode for frequencies up to 100 MHz range
In the monostable multivibrator as shown in Figure, R=100 k ohm and the time delay
T=200 m sec. Calculate the value of C.
+Vcc
8
Trigger
Input
R
7
555
6
5
0.1F
O/P
(A) 8.1 F
Set - A
(B)
2 F
(C)
5
3 mF
(D) 1.81 F
EC
28.
A diode that has no depletion layers and operates with hot carriers is called ____ diode.
(A) Schottky
(B) Gunn
(C) tunnel
(D) PIN
29.
30.
For a JFET in the pinch off region as the drain voltage is increased the drain current
(A) Becomes zero
(B) Abruptly decreases
(C) Abruptly increases
(D) Remains constant
31.
In the circuit shown below Vref = 0 V, Vi = 1Vpp sine wave and saturation voltage of
12 V, determine threshold voltages VUT
R3=100 k
_
Vi
V0
R1=50 k
R2=100
Vref = 0 V
(A) VUT = 2 mV
(C) VUT = 26 mV
(B) VUT = 24 mV
(D) VUT = 26 mV
32.
33.
34.
In the Circuit shown below if R1= R2= R3 = R = RF/2, then find the value of V0
RF
R Va
2V
3V
(A) 7 V
Set - A
1V
(B)
R1
_
V0
R2
R3
3V
(C)
6
6V
(D) 8 V
EC
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
Vi
V0
VS
(A)
(B)
Vi
Vi
Vm
(VS+V)
(VS+V)
Vm
(C)
Vi
(D)
Vi
Vm
Vm
Set - A
EC
42.
If both emitter-base and collector-base junctions of BJT are forward biased the transistor is in
(A) Active region
(B) Saturation region
(C) Cut-off region
(D) Inverse mode
43.
44.
In the circuit shown, for achieving good stabilisation we should have [Rb= R1//R2]
VCC
RC
R1
V0
Vi
(A)
Re
1
Rb
(B)
R2
Ce
Re
Rb
1
Re
(C)
Rb
1
Re
(D)
Rb
1
Re
45.
For a transconductance amplifier the ideal values of input resistance (Ri) and output
resistance(R0) are
(A) Ri = , R0 = 0
(B) Ri = 0, R0 =
(C) Ri = , R0 =
(D) Ri = 0, R0 = 0
46.
47.
An amplifier with midband gain A = 500 has negative feedback applied of value
= 1/100. Given the upper cut-off without feedback is 60 kHz with feedback it becomes
(A) 10 kHz
(B) 12 kHz
(C) 300 kHz
(D) 360 kHz
48.
(B) AC to DC convertor
(D) AC to AC convertor
49.
The resolution of a 5-bit ADC is 0.32 Volts. For an analog input of 6.4 V, what is the
output of the ADC ?
(A) 10100
(B) 10010
(C) 10011
(D) 10001
50.
D-FlipFlop is used as
(A) Delay Switch
(C) Toggle Switch
Set - A
EC
51.
52.
(D) 62
For the logic circuit shown, the Boolean expression in its simplest form at the output A is
X
Y
A
Z
(A) A=X
(B)
A=Y
(C)
A=Z
(D) A= X+Y
53.
54.
The non complement output Qn of edge trigger JK-Flip-flop is 0. If J=1, what will be the
state of output Qn+1
(A) Cannot determined
(B) Zero
(C) One
(D) Race around
55.
z( x + y)
56.
57.
58.
A 4-bit Mod-16 ripple counter uses a J-K flip-flop. If the propagation delay of each flipflop is 50 ms, the maximum clock frequency is equal to
(A) 20 MHz
(B) 10 MHz
(C) 5 MHz
(D) 4 MHz
59.
60.
The code used to reduce the error due to ambiguity in reading of a binary encoder is
(A) Octal code
(B) Excess-3 code
(C) Gray code
(D) BCD code
Set - A
EC
61.
What is the maximum frequency of a clock pulse at which a 4 bit ripple counter operates
reliably, with flip-flop delay of 40 ns and pulse width of strobe signal 25 ns
(A) 5.8 MHz
(B) 5.4 MHz
(C) 6.2 MHz
(D) 6.5 MHz
62.
63.
Fourier transform of A
(A)
2A ()
(B)
A()
(C)
A() +
A
(D)
j
A () +
1
j
64.
A signal of maximum frequency 20 kHz is sampled at Nyquist rate, and then the time
interval between two successive samples is
(A) 25 s
(B) 2.5 s
(C) 50 s
(D) 20 ms
65.
x( )h(t )d , then
The Nyquist rate for the signal, x(t) = 5 sin 200 t + 8 cos 500 t is
(A) 200 Hz
(B) 500 Hz
(C) 700 Hz
(D) 300 Hz
67.
68.
(z + 1)
A system is described by H(z) =
, the final value of the system is
z(z 2)(z + 2)
(A) 1
(B) 1/4
(C) 4
(D)
69.
The trigonometric Fourier series representation of a function with half wave symmetry
consists of
(A) cosine terms only
(B) sine terms only
(C) odd harmonics
(D) even harmonics
70.
71.
The impulse response of a system is h(n)= anu(n) . The condition for the system to be
BIBO stable is
(A) a is real and positive
(B) a is real and negative
(C) a> 1
(D) a < 1
Set - A
10
EC
72.
The DFT of a signal x (n) of length N is X (k). When X (k) is given and x (n) is
computed from it, the length of x(n)
(A) is increased to infinity
(B) remains N
(C) becomes 2N 1
(D) becomes N2
73.
74.
(B)
(D)
z sin
2
z + 2z cos + 1
z sin
z 2 + 2z cos 1
If x1(k) = 2nu(k), x2(k) = (k) and x3(k) = x1(k)*x2(k) then X3() is given by
1
1
(A)
(B)
j
1 2e
1 2e j
1
1
(C)
(D)
j
1 + 2e
1 + 2e j
5
75.
(t 6)dt =
2
(A) 1
(B)
(C)
(6)
(D) 3
76.
The system having input x(n) related to output y(n) as y(n) = cos (x(n)) is
(A) causal, stable
(B) causal, not stable
(C) non-causal, stable
(D) non-causal, not stable
77.
78.
If the unit step response of a system is a unit impulse function, then the transfer function
of such a system is
(A) 1
(B) s
(C) 1/s
(D) s2
79.
I(s)
V(s )
in the signal flow graph shown in the figure is
I(s )
s
>
V(s)
>
>
1/s
(A)
Set - A
s2
s2 + s + 1
(B)
s2 s 1
s
(C)
11
s
s + 1/s
(D)
s
s2 + s + 1
EC
80.
81.
For a feedback control system of type 2, the steady state error for a ramp input is
(A) infinite
(B) constant
(C) zero
(D) indeterminate
82.
83.
84.
(1 + 0.5s)
represents a
(1 + s)
lead network
(B) lag network
lag-lead network
(D) proportional controller
85.
The frequency at which the Nyquist diagram crosses the negative real axis is known as
(A) gain crossover frequency
(B) phase crossover frequency
(C) damping frequency
(D) natural frequency
86.
20 dB/dc
100
(A)
(C)
87.
40
s(1 + 0.1s)
4
(1 + 00.1s)
(B)
(D)
4
s(1 + 0.1s)
20
(1 + 0.1s)
The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is given by
k(s + 2)
G(s) = 2
, the centroid and angle of root locus asymptotes are respectively
s(s + 2s + 2)
(A) Zero and + 90, 90
(B) 2/3 and + 60, 60
(C) Zero and +120, 120
(D) 2/3 and 90 and 90, +90
Set - A
12
EC
88.
89.
90.
When zero-mean Gaussian process is given as input to LTI system, its output will be
(A) Zero-mean Gaussian process
(B) Gaussian process but not necessarily zero mean
(C) Zero mean process but not necessarily Gaussian
(D) Depends on the nature of h(t) of the system
91.
(C) USB
(D) VSB
92.
93.
94.
95.
An SSB transmitter has a 24-V dc power supply. On voice peaks the current achieves a
maximum of 9.3 A. What will be its Peak Envelope Power ?
(A) 223.2 W
(B) 2.5 W
(C) 446.4 W
(D) 61.9 W
96.
97.
Which one of the following digital modulation scheme is not preferred when the channel
is non-linear?
(A) QAM
(B) BFSK
(C) BPSK
(D) MSK
Set - A
13
EC
98.
99.
100.
For M-ary PSK system the best trade-off between bandwidth efficiency and transmitted
power is given for a value of M equal to
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
(D) DPSK
106.
107.
108.
109.
For a transmission line terminated in its characteristic impedance, which of the following
statement is incorrect ?
(A) It is a smooth line
(B) The energy distribution between magnetic and electric field is not equal
(C) Standing wave does not exist
(D) Efficiency of transmission of power is maximum
Set - A
14
EC
110.
Ez 0; Hz = 0
(D) Ez 0; Hz 0
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
(D) Complex
117.
The intersection of the constant-r circle with positive real axis gives the position of
(A) average voltage on the line
(B) minimum voltage on the line
(C) maximum voltage on the line
(D) RMS voltage on the line
118.
119.
120.
(B)
90
(C)
45
(D) 180
Set - A
15
EC
Set - A
16
EC
Booklet No. :
A
SET
EE - 15
Electrical Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
EE-15-A
1.
2 1 1
If A = 0 1 0
1
(A) A 5A2 + 7A + 3I = 0
(C) A3 5A2 + 7A 3I = 0
3
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
(B) x + y + z
(D) (x y) (z y)(z x)
(C)
x cos 4x
(D) x sin 4x
7.
(B) A3 + 5A2 + 7A 3I = 0
(D) A3 + 5A2 + 7A + 3I = 0
u(x, y) = 4e
3
y
2
(B)
3
x+ y
2
u(x, y) = 4e
3
y
2
2
.(z + 1) dz, where c : | z 1 | = 1 is
. (z2 1)
c
(A) i
8.
9.
(B)
i/2
(C)
2i
(D) i
0
elsewhere
variable X, then k =
(A) 2/3
(B) 3/2
(C) 1/2
(D) 1
The correlation coefficient of twelve pairs of data having x = 730, y = 1017,
x2 = 44932, y2 = 86801 and xy = 62352 is
(A) 0.5674
(B) 0.68
(C) 0.83
(D) 0.857
Set - A
EE
10.
11.
(B)
0.2
(C)
1.02
(D) 1.1
n branches
(C)
The power delivered by the current source in the circuit shown in Figure.
2
_
6V +
1.5A
4
(A) 9 W
13.
(B)
12 W
(C)
18.5 W
(D) 22.5 W
(A) 2 V
14.
+
_
2A
(B)
4V
(C)
8V
4V
(D) 12 V
_
6V +
(A) 0.5 A
Set - A
(B)
+
_ 2V
2A
1.0 A
(C)
3
1.5 A
(D) 2 A
EE
15.
The current through the circuit shown in Figure, if switch, S is closed at time, t = 0
2 k
S
_
5V +
16.
(A)
10 10 3 e 0.5 t
(B)
10 103 e2 t
(C)
7.5 103 e 2 t
(D)
The damping ratio of an under damped R-L-C circuit with step response is
(A)
17.
1 mF
(B)
L/C
2 L/C
(C) 2 R L / C
(D)
R
2 C/L
The Thevenin equivalent across X-Y for the circuit shown below :
X
1
20A
j3
j2
Y
18.
(A)
2 45o V, (1 + j1)
(B)
(C)
2 2 45o V, (1 + j1)
(D)
2 45o V, (1 + j1)
2 45o V, (1 j1)
+
V1
Zb
V2
Zc
(A)
Z a + Z c
Z
c
(C)
Z a + Z c
Z
c
Set - A
Z b + Z c
_Z
Zc
Z b + Z c
c
(B)
Z a Zc
Z
c
Zb Z c
(D)
Zc Z a
Z
c
Z c Z a
Zc
Zc
EE
19.
In a 3-phase balanced system the phase voltages with a-b-c phase sequence are
Van = V p 0 o and Vbn = V p 120o . The line voltages are
(A)
Vab = V L 30 o , Vbc = V L 90 o
(B)
(C)
Vab = V L 30 o , Vbc = V L 90 o
(D)
20.
Two parallel conductors are separated by a distance, d carrying a current, I in the same
direction. The magnetic field along a line running parallel to the conductors and midway
between them is
(A) zero
(B) proportional to I
(C) proportional to d
(D) proportional to the permeability of the medium.
21.
22.
23.
The capacitance of a coaxial conductor of length L, having inner radius, a, outer radius, b
and permittivity,
2 L
2 L
2 L
2 L
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
a
b
a+b
(a + b)/2
ln
ln
ln
2
b
a
24.
If x1 (t) is an odd signal and x2 (t) is an even signal then the condition to prove that the
product of the signals, y(t) is
(B) even and y( t) = y(t)
(A) odd and y(t) = y(t)
(C) odd and y( t) = y(t)
(D) even and y(t) = y(t)
25.
A continuous time signal x(t) is sampled and the periodic impulse train of period is
given by s(t) =
(A)
(C)
26.
S ( j ) =
S ( j ) =
(ks )
(B)
S ( j ) = 2
n =
( ks )
(D)
n =
S ( j ) =
(ks )
n =
(s )
n =
Set - A
EE
27.
(A)
x ( n) z
n =0
(B)
x(n) z
(C)
n =
x( n) z
n =
(D)
x ( n) z
n =1
28.
29.
30.
The per unit I 2 R losses and per unit reactance of a transformer at 0.8 leading power
factor is 0.1 and 0.03, respectively. The per unit regulation of the transformer is
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.01
(C) 0.04
(D) 0.026
31.
In star-star connection of 3-phase transformer, the triplen harmonics are suppressed by using
(A) star connected tertiary windings (B) delta connected tertiary windings
(C) neutral conductor
(D) additional insulation for the phases
32.
If two 3-phase transformers with unequal voltage ratios are connected in parallel, the
result is
(A) circulating current on no-load
(B) no circulating current on no-load
(C) dead short-circuit
(D) equal no-load secondary emfs
33.
In a 6-pole wave wound dc machine the number of conductors is 70. The back pitch and
commutator segments, respectively, are
(A) 11and 35
(B) 12 and 34
(C) 13 and 35
(D) 14 and 34
34.
35.
36.
37.
In a dc shunt generator critical field circuit resistance line is the line drawn
(A) above the OCC
(B) below the OCC
(C) tangent to the saturation curve
(D) tangent to the linear portion of OCC
38.
A 200 V dc motor takes a field current of 2 A to generate a back emf of 180 V. If the
field winding resistance is 80 , the resistance of the shunt field regulator is
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 100
(D)
180
Set - A
EE
39.
40.
The mechanical power developed and the rotor copper losses of a 3-phase induction
motor in terms of slip, s are in the ratio of
(A) 1 s : s
(B) s : 1 s
(C) 1 + s : s
(D) (1 s)/s : s
41.
In a single-phase induction motor the slip with respect to forward and backward rotating
magnetic fields, respectively, are
(A) s and (1 s) (B) s and (1 + s) (C) s and (2 s) (D) (1 s) and (2 s)
42.
(D) 4
43.
44.
The ratio of air-gap line voltage from open-circuit characteristic and armature current
from short-circuit characteristic for a particular value of the field current in a
synchronous generator is
(A) synchronous reactance
(B) synchronous impedance
(C) unsaturated synchronous reactance
(D) unsaturated synchronous impedance
45.
When two synchronous machines are connected in parallel the synchronizing power
tends to
(A) accelerate the faster machine
(B) retard the faster machine
(C) retards the slower machine
(D) pull the faster machine out of step
46.
47.
48.
VE
V2
cos
Set - A
EE
49.
50.
A plant with 10 MW installed capacity produces an annual output of 6 106 kWh and
remains in operation for 2000 hours in a year. The Plant Use Factor is
(A) 0.33 %
(B) 3.33 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 30 %
51.
52.
The sending end current and receiving end current of a medium transmission line are
(120 j 15) A and (180 j 90) A, respectively. The charging current is
(A) (300 j 105) A
(B) ( 60 + j 75) A
(C) (60 j 75) A
(D) 135 A
53.
The minimum potential gradient of a single-core cable with core diameter, d, internal
sheath diameter, D and the potential difference between the conductor and sheath, V is
2V
2V
V
V
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
D
D
D
D
D log e
d log e
d log e
D log e
d
d
d
d
54.
55.
The base kV and base MVA are halved and the per unit impedance new value is 0.5. The
per unit impedance of the original circuit element is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.625
(D) 1.0
56.
(C)
Set - A
EE
58.
In a power flow program the input and output data, respectively, at the k th load bus are
(A) Pk , Vk and Q k , k
(B) Pk , Q k and Vk , k
(C ) Vk , k and Pk , Q k
(D) Pk , k and Vk , Q k
59.
60.
61.
62.
The injected complex power for a given bus system, given Ybus, Zbus, bus voltage for
i = 1, 2, .n
n
(A)
YimVmVi
m =1
(B)
YimVmVi*
(C)
m =1
Z imVmVi*
m =1
(D)
Vm*Vi
im
m =1
63.
The voltage profile of a n-bus power system can be improved by controlling the
(A) load angles
(B) active power flows
(C) reactive power flows
(D) complex power flows
64.
T = 1 a a 2 , the matrix equation for positive, negative and zero sequence currents is
1 a 2 a
1
(A) V1, 2 ,0 = TVa ,b ,c
(B) V1, 2,0 = 3 TVa ,b ,c
1
(D) V1, 2,0 = TVa ,b,c
(C) V0,1, 2 = TVa ,b ,c
2
65.
Two 3-phase synchronous generators with reactance 60% and 40% feed a fault current of
1200 A up to short-circuit fault point. The short-circuit current is
(A) 1200 A
(B) 2400 A
(C) 4000 A
(D) 5000 A
Set - A
EE
66.
67.
68.
69.
The voltage that appears across the contacts of the circuit breaker after the arc extinction
is called as
(A) arc voltage
(B) recovery voltage
(C) re-striking voltage
(D) extinction voltage
70.
71.
For a synchronous machine swing curve, the load angle swings between min and max ,
if the damping constant is
(A) equal to zero
(B) greater than zero
(C) less than zero
(D) equal to normalized inertia constant
72.
73.
74.
75.
Set - A
10
EE
76.
1 + sT
1 + sT1
(B) minimum phase system
(D) unstable system
77.
The
closed-loop
transfer
function
of
unity feedback
K
R
G1 ( s) = and G2 ( s ) =
in the forward path is
s
RCs + 1
KR
RCs 2 + s
(A)
(B)
KRs 2 + s + RC
RCs 2 + s + KR
RC
KR
(C)
(D)
2
2
RCs + s + KR
RCs + s + KR
78.
(C)
1
1 K pK
KpK
Ts + 1
(D)
system
with
K pK
79.
For a unity feedback system with a transfer function G(s) and input R(s), the steady state
error is
sR( s)
R( s )
1
R( s)
(A) lim
(B) lim
(C) lim
(D) lim
s 0 1 + G ( s )
s 0 1 + G ( s )
s 0 1 + G ( s )
s 0 s (1 + G ( s ))
80.
81.
The Nyquist plot of a unity feedback minimum phase system is drawn for different
values of gain, K. The system is stable if the plot
(A) does not enclose the ( 1 + j 0) point
(B) passes through the ( 1 + j 0) point
(C) encloses the ( 1 + j 0) point
(D) passes through the ( 2 + j 0) point
82.
For unity feedback control system, the magnitude of G(j1) at the phase cross-over
frequency, 1is measured as 2/3 from the Bode plot. The gain margin is
(A) 2/3
(B) 3/2
(C ) 4/9
(D) 9/4
83.
Set - A
11
EE
84.
85.
In the Bode plots, the magnitude and phase angle of the factor (1 + j T) are
1
1
, tan 1 T
(A) 20 log 1 + jT , tan 1
(B) 20 log
1 + jT
T
(C)
1 + jT , cos 1T
(D)
20 log
1
, 0
1 + jT
86.
For the state equation X& = AX where X = n-vector and A = n n constant matrix. Given
the initial state X(0), the solution of the state equation
(A) X (t ) = e At X (0)
(B) X (t ) = A 1 X (0)
(C) X (t ) = e At X (0)
(D) X (t ) = AT X (0)
87.
The mathematical model of a system is &y& + 3 y& + 2 y = u , where u = input, and y = output.
The matrix state equation for y = x 1 , is
1 x1
x&1 0 1 x1
x&1 0
(A) =
(B) =
x& 2 2 3 x2
x& 2 2 - 3 x2
(C)
88.
x&1 0
x& = 2
2
1 x1 1
+
[u ]
- 3 x2 0
(D)
x&1 0
x& = 2
2
1 x1 0
+
[u ]
- 3 x2 1
89.
90.
91.
92.
The full scale range of PMMC voltmeter is 100 V and its sensitivity is 1000 /V. If the
meter reads 50 V, the current through the voltmeter is
(A) 0.05 mA
(B) 0.5 mA
(C) 5 mA
(D) 50 mA
Set - A
12
EE
93.
The power in a 3-phase load is measured by two watt meters. If one watt meter reads
zero, then the load power factor is
(A) Zero
(B) 0.5
(C ) 0.866
(D) unity
94.
95.
96.
The most accurate instrument for measuring phase difference between two signals is
(A) X Y plotter
(B) oscilloscope
(C) phase sensitive detector
(D) electronic counter/timer
97.
98.
99.
100.
The region consisting of holes and electrons near the p-n junction of a diode is
(A) diffusion region
(B) neutral zone
(C) recombination region
(D) depletion region
101.
102.
Set - A
13
EE
103.
104.
105.
(C)
IC 74153
(D) IC 74157
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
Set - A
14
EE
112.
cos
(B)
cos
(C)
unity
(D)
cos 2
113.
114.
The duty ratio of a step-up chopper with an output voltage of 200 V from a 80 V dc
source, is
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.5
(C ) 0.6
(D) 1.5
115.
The fundamental component of rms output voltage of a full-bridge single-phase squarewave inverter with Vdc as input voltage, is
(A)
Vdc
(B)
Vdc
(C)
4Vdc
2
(D)
4Vdc
3
116.
The starting torque of a V/f controlled inverter-fed 3-phase induction motor operating at
25 Hz as compared with the same motor operating at 50 Hz is
(A) more
(B) double
(C) equal
(D) less
117.
Regenerative breaking of ac-dc converter fed dc motor is possible when firing delay
angle of SCRs is
(A) 30
(B) 60
(C ) 90
(D) 120
118.
119.
120.
Set - A
15
EE
Set - A
16
EE
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
C
C
B
B
D
C
C
B
D
A
D
D
B
B
D
B
C
A
A
A
B
B
C
C
C
B
C
D
A
B
B
A
C
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
A
B
D
B
B
C
D
A
B
D
B
D
B
A
B
D
B
C
B
D
A
C
B
D
D
B
A
A
D
C
B
A
C
C
C
A
D
B
B
B
Booklet No. :
A
SET
FT - 15
Food Technology
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
FT-15-A
FOOD TECHNOLOGY
1.
(D) 20 percent
2.
Vitamins are classified as fat-soluble and water soluble and they perform specific
functions in human body. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin ?
(A) vitamin A
(B) vitamin D
(C) vitamin E
(D) vitamin B6
3.
4.
5.
ISO prepared a document called ISO 9000 series in 1987 (modified in 1994) as a
guideline for all organizations on managing quality and standard. Its Indian equivalent is
called :
(A) IS 14000
(B) IS 12000
(C) IS 22000
(D) IS 2000
6.
The Ministry of Food Processing Industries was established in which of the following the
year ?
(A) 1988
(B) 2000
(C) 1996
(D) 2001
7.
8.
9.
There are two important types of time-dependent non-Newtonian liquids, namely shearthinning liquids and shear-thickening liquids. Shear-thinning liquids are also called
(A) Thixotropic fluids
(B) Dilatant liquid
(C)
Pseudoplastic
(D) Newtonian fluids
Set - A
FT
10.
11.
12.
The benefits of size reduction of foods in food processing are as following, except
(A) A similar range of particle sizes allows more complete mixing of ingredients
(B)
Size reduction has little or no preservative effect
(C)
There is increase in the surface area to volume ratio of the food, which decreases
the rate of drying, heating or cooling
(D) Improves the efficiency and rate of extraction of liquid components
13.
Which of the following factors are considered important for the stability of an emulsion ?
(A) The viscosity of the dispersed phase
(B)
The type and quantity of emulsifying agent
(C)
The interfacial forces acting at the surfaces of the globules
(D) The differences between the densities of the dispersed and continuous phases
14.
15.
16.
17.
Aspartame is a low-calorie sweetener resulting from the combination of two amino acids.
The amino acids used are
(A) Alanine and glutamine
(B) Aspartic acid and glutamine
(C)
Aspartic acid and alanine
(D) Aspartic acid and phenylalanine
Set - A
FT
18.
19.
If moisture content of a food is 20% on wet weight basis. Calculate its moisture content
on dry weight basis ?
(A) 22 percent
(B) 25 percent
(C) 31 percent (D) 45 percent
20.
The baking performance of wheat flour improves when they are treated with maturing
agents. Among the maturing agents that may not be added in wheat flour for this purpose
is
(A) Chlorine dioxide gas
(B) Acetone peroxide
(C) Azodicarbonamide
(D) Potassium propionate
21.
Rigor mortis results in increase in lactic acid content in meat which is formed from
(A) Amylopectin (B) Amylose
(C) Glycogen
(D) Dextrins
22.
fermented milk
(B) Aspergillus niger
amylases
(C) Rhizopus nigricans
gluconic acid
(D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
bread
23.
24.
25.
26.
Heat required to change, at constant temperature, the physical state of materials from
solid to liquid, liquid to gas or solid to gas is known as
(A) Sensible heat
(B) Specific heat
(C) Calorie
(D) Latent heat
27.
The dimensionless Reynolds number (Re) characterizes fluid flow. The Reynolds
number less than 2100 indicates
(A) Streamline flow
(B) Transitional flow
(C) Turbulent flow
(D) Unidirectional flow
Set - A
FT
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
Water hardness influences the processed food quality. The hardness of water is measured
in parts per million of
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Calcium chloride
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Calcium oxalate
35.
36.
37.
A process of exposing the raw fruits and vegetables to heat for a few minutes by
immersing in boiling water or with steam is known as
(A) Blanching
(B) Cooking
(C) Thawing
(D) Heating
38.
biscuits
(C) Drying
peas
(D) Freezing
red meat
Set - A
FT
39.
40.
Starch is made up of two distinct polymers, amylose and amylopectin. Waxy wheat
starch has been shown to lack measurable amount of
(A) Amylopectin
(B) Amylose
(C) Both amylose and amylopectin
(D) Neither amylose nor amylopectin
41.
Some of the physical characteristics of food are described below. Find the one, which is
incorrectly defined.
(A) Elasticity the rate at which a deformed food sample goes back to its original
condition after the deforming force is withdrawn.
(B) Gumminess the quantity to stimulate the energy required to disintegrate a semisolid food sample to a steady state of swallowing
(C) Chewiness the quantity to stimulate the energy required to masticate a semi-solid
food sample to a steady state of swallowing
(D) Friability the hardness of a food and its tendency to resist crack.
42.
In a food processing industry, several unit operations are carried out. Identify the one,
which is incorrectly defined ?
(A) Grading the assessment of a number of attributes to obtain an indication of
overall quality of a food
(B) Filtration the separation of liquid from solids by applied pressure
(C) Sorting the separation of foods into categories on the basis of a measurable
physical properties
(D) Ohmic heating direct electrical heating of foods
43.
Naturally occurring pigments in food are generally water-soluble. Identify the one, which
is oil soluble pigment.
(A) Anthocyanins (B) Betalaines
(C) Carotenes
(D) Curcumin
44.
Hard wheat tends to contain relatively low levels of starch and high levels of proteins,
while reverse is true for soft wheat. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(A) Durum wheat flours are best suited for pasta products.
(B) Wheat holds a unique place amongst cereals because upon mixing wheat flour with
water, an elastic matrix called gluten is formed.
(C) High protein flours are best suited for biscuits.
(D) Low protein flours are best suited for cakes and pastries.
Set - A
FT
45.
Different types of maize are classified on the basis of their protein content and the
hardness of the kernel. Much of the niacin in corn is in a bound form and this led to a
disorder in population where corn is the staple food. This niacin deficiency is known as
(A) Pellagra
(B) NTD
(C) Rickets
(D) Jaundice
46.
Oats have a relatively minor status among cereals because they are more difficult to
process and are unstable due to their high lipid content and lipase activity. Reports of the
possible blood cholesterol lowering effect of oat bran have increased the popularity of its
use for human food in developed countries. Which of the following constituents is held
responsible for cholesterol lowering effect of oat ?
(A) Beta amylase
(B) Beta glucan
(C) Lipase activity
(D) High Pentosans
47.
There is a considerable variation in the protein contents among the cereals. Which of the
following cereals contain highest percentage of protein content ?
(A) Brown rice (B) Sorghum
(C) Maize
(D) Pearl Millet
48.
49.
Foods can be classified according to their pH values into low acid, medium acid, acid
and highly acid foods. Which of the following class of food does not have correct pH
value ?
(A) Low acid pH 5.0 and higher
50.
51.
The watery part of milk separated from curd during cheese making is extensively used in
the manufacturing of
(A) Lactic acid (B) Amines
(C) Protein
(D) Starch
52.
The element which is required in the largest amounts by the human body is
(A) Calcium
(B) Zinc
(C) Iodine
(D) Iron
53.
Typical temperatures for a range of food processing operations are indicated below.
Indicate which one of the following is a mismatch.
(A) Spray drying, Baking
200-250 C
(B) Extrusion cooking, UHT
140-150 C
(C) Canning
110-125 C
(D) Pasteurization, hot-air drying
50-100 C
Set - A
FT
54.
Enthalpy is the heat content or energy level in a system per unit mass, and its unit is :
(A) Joules/kg
(B) Joules/kg C
(C) W/m C
(D) None of the above
55.
A technique for separating proteins and nucleic acids on the basis of charge and
molecular size is known as
(A) Chromatography
(B) SE-HPLC
(C) RP-HPLC
(D) Electrophoresis
56.
An analytical procedure where the weight of a food constituent is measured after suitable
treatments is called
(A) Gravimetric analysis
(B) Titrimetric analysis
(C) Physical analysis
(D) Volumetric procedure
57.
Protein can be assessed in foods by several methods. Which one of the following method
is not used for protein estimation ?
(A) Kjeldahl method
(B) Formol titration
(C) Thermal combustion method
(D) Soxhlet method
58.
Which of the following organism play important role in the production of pickles ?
(A) Distiller yeast
(B) S. cerevisiae
(C) Lactobacillus plantarum
(D) Azatobacter
59.
60.
61.
62.
In case of jelly the phenomenon of spontaneous exudation of fluid from a gel is called
(A) Cloudy jelly
(B) Foggy jelly
(C) Weeping jelly
(D) Synegy jelly
Set - A
FT
63.
Tomatoes are processed into a variety of products such as tomato juice, puree, paste and
ketchup. These products should have minimum prescribed total/tomato solid. Which of
the following product has incorrect percentage of solids.
(A) Tomato paste should have not less than 25 percent of tomato solids
(B) Tomato ketchup contains not less than 12 percent tomato solids
(C) Tomato puree contains not less than 20 percent tomato solids
(D) Tomato juice should have a total solids content of 5.66 percent
64.
Vinegar is a fermented product, which contains varying amounts of fruit acids, colouring
matter, salts and a few other fermentation products those impart a characteristics flour
and aroma to the product. It should contain at least
(A) 6 percent acetic acid
(B) 8 percent acetic acid
(C) 10 percent acetic acid
(D) 4 percent acetic acid
65.
66.
For a gram of water to change into gas, 540 calories is required. This energy
requirement is called
(A) Heat of solidification
(B) Heat of vaporization
(C) Heat of fusion
(D) Heat of evaporation
67.
68.
Set - A
FT
69.
Jam is a product with reasonably thick consistency, firm enough to hold the fruit tissues
in position and is made by boiling fruit pulp with sufficient sugar. It contains 0.5-0.6 %
acid and invert sugar in it should not be more than
(A) 40 percent
(B) 35 percent
(C) 25 percent
(D) 10 percent
70.
The finishing or end point of jam can be determined by the following methods, except
(A) Drop test
(B) Jel test
(C) Sheet test
(D) Refractometer test
71.
Which of the following fruit product has incorrect TSS in accordance with FPO
specifications ?
(A) Fruit jam
68 % TSS (minimum)
(B) Fruit jelly
65 % TSS (minimum)
(C) Marmalade 68 % TSS (minimum)
(D) Fruit preserve 68 % TSS (minimum)
72.
73.
The process of drying in which ice is directly converted into vapours is known as
(A) Cabinet drying
(B) Sun drying
(C) Sublimation
(D) Tunnel drying
74.
75.
76.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched for measuring the tenderness of food
items ?
(A) Pastry
Shortometer
(B) Bread
Compressimeter
(C) Apple
Texture analyzer
(D) Grape Jelly
Masticometer
Set - A
10
FT
77.
Night blindness is the problem faced by millions of people all over the world. It is caused
by Vitamin A deficiency. Which of the following is true for Vitamin A ?
(A) Vitamin A is synthesized by using beta-carotene, a chemical present in many
yellow fruits and vegetables.
(B) It is needed for our cardiovascular well-being
(C) It maintains healthy immune system
(D) All of the above
78.
(D) Valine
79.
The liquid separated in the process of milk coagulation by application of either rennet or
acid to precipitate casein is called
(A) Wash liquid
(B) Affluent liquid
(C) Whey
(D) Creamy fluid
80.
81.
82.
About two percent of world population shows allergy called celiac disease to wheat grain
protein. Which of the following is that protein ?
(A) Globulin
(B) Gliadin
(C) Gluten
(D) Albumin
83.
Which of the following statement with respect to vitamin stability in foods is incorrect ?
(A) Vitamin A is normally not affected by heat processing but it is destroyed by UV
rays and air.
(B) Vitamin C is unstable to heat but destroyed by acids
(C) Vitamin D is increased in ultraviolet radiation
(D) B complex Vitamins are more heat stable
Set - A
11
FT
84.
Enzymes and other additives are used as processing aids. Rennet is used in one of
following the food products :
(A) Wine making
(B) Cheese manufacture
(C) Yogurt making
(D) Butter manufacture
85.
The milling process results in some loss of food value. The refinement of cereal grains
result in the loss of vitamin
(A) K
(B) E
(C) B
(D) C
86.
The food constituents undergo changes on processing. Milk fat in butter should be
(A) not less than 80%
(B) 65%
(C) 75%
(D) not less than 90%
87.
The food constituents provide us energy to work. The principal sources of food energy
are
(A) fats and protein
(B) proteins and carbohydrates
(C) carbohydrates and fats
(D) vitamins and carbohydrates
88.
Many diet related disorders occur in human beings. Kwashiorkor is a disease related to
(A) Fatty acid deficiency
(B) Vitamin deficiency
(C) Food energy deficiency
(D) Protein deficiency
89.
Food poisoning occurs due to inadequate processing or poor handling of processed food
articles. The most dangerous food poisoning organism is
(A) Salmonella spp.
(B) Clostridium perfringeus
(C) Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Clostridium botulinum
90.
Raw agricultural commodities are processed for certain advantages. Food preservation
has the principal aim of suppressing
(A) Enzymatic changes
(B) Nutritional changes
(C) Microbial changes
(D) All the above
91.
Parboiling is used in the Asian countries for grain processing. Parboiling technique is
generally applied to
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Millets
92.
Set - A
12
FT
93.
94.
95.
A wet food product contains 70% water. After drying, it is found that 80% of original
water has been removed. How much mass of water is removed per kilogram of wet food ?
(A) 0.56 kg
(B) 0.60 kg
(C) 0.66 kg
(D) 0.76 kg
96.
The moisture content of a food product is 50% (wet basis). What would be the moisture
content on dry basis ?
(A) 100%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 45%
97.
Test weight of rice grain is an important parameter of milling quality of rice. Which one
of the following is the correct range for full kernel weight of rice ?
(A) 15-29 mg
(B) 30-39 mg
(C) 40-49 mg
(D) 59-69 mg
98.
Fruit nectars are produced from fruit slurries or whole fruits by homogenization in the
presence of sugar, water and citric acid/ascorbic acid. The fruit contents in nectars should
be
(A) 25-50%
(B) 15-25%
(C) More than 50%
(D) 65%
99.
100.
101.
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has been established to regulate food
processing industries. It has
(A) Eleven members including chairman
(B) Nine members including chairman
(C) Seven members including chairman
(D) Five members including chairman
Set - A
13
FT
102.
103.
Malting process allows malt amylase and proteinases to degrade starch and protein to
(A) glucose and peptone as well as peptides
(B) glucose and amino acids
(C) maltose and peptone as well as peptides
(D) maltose and amino acids
104.
105.
There are several ways of arriving at the standards for product quality but four methods
are commonly used which are given below, except
(A) Company or voluntary standards (B) Legal standards
(C) Guided standards
(D) Industry standards
106.
How many high molecular weights subunits are contained in a single wheat cultivar ?
(A) 1-2 HMW-GS
(B) 3-5 HMW-GS
(C) 2-6 HMW-GS
(D) 4-5 HMW-GS
107.
Wheat gluten proteins are classified into gluten forming and non-gluten forming proteins.
The average percentage of gluten forming proteins in bread wheat cultivars is
(A) 40 percent
(B) 50 percent
(C) 60 percent
(D) 80 percent
108.
Jam
0.75 aw
(C)
Biscuits
0.30 aw
0.70 aw
(D) Bread
109.
110.
Falling number value is linked to amylase activity in wheat flour. Which of the following
falling number value is recommended in flour for bread making ?
(A) 500 sec
(B) 400 sec
(C) 600 sec
(D) 250 sec
Set - A
14
FT
111.
112.
113.
114.
Much of the niacin in corn is in a bound form and this led to a disorder in population
where corn is the staple food. This niacin deficiency is known
(A) Jaundice
(B) NTD
(C) Rickets
(D) Pellagra
115.
(B)
Amino acid
(C)
Fatty acid
(D) Mineral
116.
117.
118.
Some vitamins also act as antioxidants. Identify such vitamins from the choices given
below:
(A) Vitamin C and E
(B) Vitamin A and B2
(C) Vitamin D and K
(D) Vitamin B-compex
119.
Vitamin A is present in
(A) Green vegetables
(C) Liver
120.
(B) Milk
(D) All the above
Set - A
15
FT
Set - A
16
FT
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
D
D
D
D
A
A
A
D
C
D
C
C
A
B
D
C
D
D
B
D
C
C
C
A
D
D
A
C
B
A
A
B
B
A
B
C
A
D
C
B
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
A
C
B
B
C
A
C
D
D
D
A
D
A
C
A
A
A
A
C
B
A
D
B
A
C
B
D
D
D
D
B
A
D
C
A
D
C
A
D
B
Booklet No. :
A
SET
GG - 15
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
GG-15-A
2.
x = y = 1, z = 1
(C)
y = z = 1, x = 1
0
either -1 or +1
(B)
1
neither 0 nor 1
( x, y)
=
( r , )
(C)
(D) none
(C)
zero
(D) a scalar
5.
(B)
(D)
4.
x = z = 1, y = 1
(D) none
3.
(B)
If u ( x, y ) =
(A)
(B)
irrotational
u
u
x2 y2
then x + y
is equal to
2
2
x
y
x +y
2u
(B)
4u
(C)
1
u
2
(D)
1
u
4
6.
The real and imaginary parts of a complex analytic function are called
(A) even functions
(B) odd functions
(C) none of these
(D) harmonics
7.
(C)
8.
u
v
=
y
x
u v
=
y x
(B)
(D)
u
=0
x
u
=0
y
If the mean and variance of a binomial distributed random variable are 4 and 3
respectively then the probability distribution is
(A)
(B)
(C)
x
16 x
C16
x (1/ 4) (3 / 4)
(D)
None
Set - A
GG
9.
If the number of road accidents during the peak period of a day follow Poisson
distribution with 2 accidents on an average, the probability that on a given day there will
be atleast one accident is
(A)
10.
e2 2
1!
(C)
1 e2
(D) None
1 1z2
The variance of a standard normal distribution
e 2 is
2
(A) 1
11.
(B)
e2 2
1+
1!
(B)
1
2
(C)
0.5
(D)
(C)
Spheroid
(D) Circular
12.
The densest central part of the earth which is composed of the inner and outer cores is
known as
(A) Hydrosphere
(B) Asthemosphere
(C) Lithosphere
(D) Barysphere
13.
(C)
6357 km
(C)
10.72 g/cm3
Isostasy refers to
(A) Gravitational equilibrium
(C) Plate tectonics
14.
15.
(D) 6371 km
(D)
16.
17.
18.
Set - A
5.52 g/cm3
GG
19.
An ice sheet that covers mountains and plains of large section of continent is called
(A) Continental Glacier
(B) Composite glacier
(C) Calving
(D) Cirque
20.
The causes for cyclonic storm wind circulation to be counter clockwise in the Northern
hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere is due to
(A) Deflation
(B) Bore
(C) Gravitation (D) Coriolis effect
21.
22.
Vast plains form deep layer of sediment lying 3500 m below sea level
(A) Submarine canyon
(B) Abyssal plain
(C) Guyot
(D) Trench
23.
The study of regular pattern of faces and angles between the faces and of the internal
structure of the mineral to which it is related, is called
(A) Crystallography
(B) Twinning
(C) Tenacity
(D) Palaeontology
24.
The _______ is the colour of the powdered mineral which is most readily seen by
scraping the mineral across a plate of unglazed hard porcelain.
(A) Streak
(B) Tenacity
(C) Cleavage
(D) lustre
25.
The following is a symbolic structure for the clay minerals and its representing structure
of
(A) Kaolin
(B)
Serpentine
(C)
Illite
(D) Montmorillonite
26.
The relative hardness (H) of quartz as per the arbitrary scale of ten standard minerals,
arranged in Mohs scale of hardness is
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 10
27.
Set - A
GG
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
Rocks that are formed by the accumulation and compaction of fragments from preexisting rocks which have been disintegrated by erosion are called
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) Extrusive rocks
(D) Sedimentary rocks
33.
34.
35.
36.
Set - A
90
GG
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
The contours which are parallel and equidistant of an area, then that area should be
(A) Flat
(B) Steep slope (C) Gentle slope (D) Uniform slope.
42.
The most rapid method of orientation by the three-point method of plane tabling is the
(A) Tracing paper method
(B) Graphical method
(C) Trial and error method
(D) Both A and B
43.
44.
If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is 1.870 m,
the R.L. of the forward station is
(A) 99.345 m
(B) 100.345 m
(C) 100.655 m (D) 101.870 m
45.
The process of revolving the telescope through 360 about its transverse horizontal axis
is known as
(A) Setting
(B) Focusing
(C) Transiting (D) Centering
46.
Set - A
GG
47.
48.
49.
(D) Cylindrical
50.
51.
52.
The process of filling each cell of a new grid with the value of the corresponding cell or
cells in an original grid is termed as
(A) Resampling
(B) Affine
(C) Rubber sheeting
(D) Stretching
53.
Relational database is
(A) A database that is organized at different levels and uses the one-to-many
association between levels.
(B) A database that contains all data in a large table.
(C) A database that consists of a collection of tables and uses keys to connect the
tables.
(D) A database that is based on the built-in-connections across tables.
54.
Conformal Projection is
(A) One type of map projection that uses a cylinder as the projection surface.
(B) One type of map projection that uses a polyconic as the projection surface.
(C) One type of map projection that preserves local shapes.
(D) One type of map projection that retains certain accurate directions. It uses a plane
as the projection surface.
Set - A
GG
55.
56.
57.
58.
Theodolite
Altimeter
59.
60.
If f is the focal length of an Aerial camera lens and H is the flying height above the
mean terrain then f/H is equal to
(A) Tilt
(B) Relief
(C) Vertical exaggeration
(D) Scale
61.
_______ measures (in geometric transformation) the deviation between the actual
location and the estimated location of the tie (control) points.
(A) Mean
(B) Mode
(C) Root Mean Square (RMS)
(D) Chi square
Set - A
GG
62.
Slivers defined as
(A) Overshoot arcs
(B) Undershoot arcs
(C) Very small polygons found along the shared boundary of the two input maps in
map overlay, often resulted from digitizing
(D) A polygon on-polygon overlay method that preserves all features from the input
and overlay maps
63.
64.
The raster data analysis operation that involves a focus cell and a set of its surrounding
cells
(A) Band ratioing
(B) NDVI
(C) Neighbourhood operation
(D) Classification
65.
Geo-referencing is
(A) The process of filling each cell of a new grid with the value of the corresponding
cell or cells in an original grid
(B) The process of using a set of control points to convert images from image
coordinates to realworld coordinates
(C) Selecting Bench Mark
(D) Referring to astronomical survey
66.
67.
The Scattering process which explains about blue sky, red sunset etc. is known as
(A) Rayleigh
(B) Mie
(C) Non-selective
(D)
Selective
Set - A
GG
68.
69.
The average spectrum reflectance values of an object observed for distinct wavelength
bands will indicate
(A) Mean spectral reflectance
(B) Spectral characteristics
(C) Spectral signature
(D) Spectroradiation
70.
71.
highest
varies with focal length of camera lens
72.
73.
Aspect is defined as
(A) The directional measure of slope
(B) The vertical distance between contour lines
(C) A graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction
between sunlight and landform features.
(D) A grid that shows the direction water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.
74.
Map overlay is
(A) A distance tolerance used to force points and lines to be snapped together if they
fall within the specified distance
(B) A GIS operation that combines the geometry and attributes of two digital maps to
create the output
(C) A GIS operation in which areas that are within a specified distance of selected map
features are separated from areas that are beyond
(D) An overlay method that preserves only features that fall within the area extent
defined by the input map
Set - A
10
GG
75.
76.
Specific capacity of a confined well under equilibrium conditions and within the working
limits of drawdown
(A) Is constant at all drawdowns
(B) Decrease with the increasing drawdown
(C) Increases with drawdown
(D) Increases with decreasing drawdown
77.
78.
79.
The rain gauge station density as per BIS recommendation for plains is approximately
equal to one station per _______ sq.km.
(A) 130
(B) 260
(C) 390
(D) 520
80.
81.
82.
Time taken for the runoff to be equal to rainfall in urban catchments is known as
(A) Basin time lag
(B) Rainfall duration
(C) Equilibrium time
(D) Peak flood time
Set - A
11
GG
83.
84.
(B)
(C)
Rational formula
85.
(B)
K/d
87.
88.
91.
(B)
(C)
Below HFL
(B)
(C)
Topographical surveying
Soil test
Confined
(C)
Isotropic
(D) Anisotropic
Aquifer
(D) Hydrograph
(B)
(C)
(D) Spring
Testing well
92.
(D) K*d
(A) Reservoir
90.
K+d
(A) Unconfined
89.
(C)
86.
Runoff-Coefficient Method
(B)
Hydrosphere (C)
Blue Planet is the name given to the earth due to the presence of
(A) Ice
(B)
Ocean
(C)
(D)
Set - A
Water vapour
12
GG
93.
94.
96.
97.
98.
(B)
Calcium
100.
Humus
(D) Microbes
(B)
(C)
Only Bacteria
(B)
(C)
Decomposers
Carnivores
(B)
(C)
Air pollution
Global warming
17th July
(B)
(C)
(D) Petrophs
Heterotrophs
12-16%
(C)
8-12%
(D) 6-10%
The void ratio of a soil sample is 0.5, then porosity of the sample is
(A) 0.5
102.
(C)
(A) 14-20%
101.
Which of the following depends on autotrophs for both energy and raw materials to make
complex organic molecules ?
(C)
95.
Biosphere
(B)
1.0
(C)
0.33
(D)
0.25
The swelling nature of black cotton soil is primarily due to the presence of
(A) Kaolinite
(B)
(C)
(D) Vermiculite
Set - A
Montmorillonite
13
Illite
GG
103.
The liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil sample is 45% and 25% respectively. In the
liquid limit test of the soil sample, its water content varied from 5% to 25%. When the
number of blows increased from 10 to 100, the toughness index of the soil is
(A) 1.0
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.50
(D) 2.0
104.
105.
106.
The Critical void ratio is the void ratio at which volume change is
(A) Constant
(B) Zero
(C) Maximum (D) Minimum
107.
The optimum moisture content is the water content at which the dry density is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Constant
(D) Maximum
108.
(B)
(D)
109.
Soils that are formed by disintegration of rocks in place under various actions are known
as
(A) Residual soils
(B) Alluvial soils
(C) Aeolian soils
(D) Colluvial soils
110.
According to Darcys law, as porosity (n) of soil sample increases, the seepage velocity
(Vs)
(A) increases
(C) decreases
111.
(B) constant
(D) independent of porosity
The function that defines the entry point and exit point of a C program is
(A) printf
(B) scanf
(C) main( )
(D) float c
Set - A
14
GG
112.
113.
115.
119.
(B)
Structures
(C)
Arrays
(D) Pointers
(C)
(!) OR operator
(? :) Conditional operator
else
(C)
char
(D) switch-case
extern
(D) auto
(B)
register
(C)
&a
(D) %a
(B)
Loops
(C)
*a
120.
(B)
(A) a[ ]
118.
Data types
(A) stack
117.
(C)
(A) scanf
116.
Loops
114.
(B)
(B)
add(a,b)
(C)
getch( )
(D) scanf( )
Fuzzy tolerance
(A) Distance tolerance used to force points and lines to be snapped together if they fall
within the specified distance.
(B)
A GIS operation that combines the geometry and attributes of two digital maps to
create the output.
(C)
Very small polygons found along the shared boundary of the two input maps in
map overlay, often resulted from digitizing.
(D) An overlay method that preserves only features that fall within the area extent
defined by the input map.
_____________
Set - A
15
GG
Set - A
16
GG
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
B
C
A
D
C
D
A
C
C
B
C
D
B
D
D
D
B
B
C
A
C
C
C
D
D
B
D
B
A
C
C
B
C
A
B
A
B
D
B
A
Booklet No. :
A
SET
EI - 15
Instrumentation Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
EI-15-A
2.
3.
(B)
(C)
(D) no solution
many solutions
2 0 1
The three eigen values of the matrix 0 2 0 are
1 0 2
(A) 0, 0, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 1, i, i
(B)
7.
F = 2
1
sin 2x is
(D 2)2
1
sin 2x
4
x
cos2
cos 2x
2
(B)
(D) equal to bn
(C)
F =
1
(C)
4
cos 2x
(D) none
(D) none
p + q = 1 is
(A)
z = ax + by + c
(B)
z = x + y +c
(C)
z = ax + (1 a)2y + c
(D)
z = ax + (1 a ) y + c
If f ( z ) =
(A) 0
8.
(B)
6.
5.
(D) 2, 2, 2
If f (x) is an odd function in the interval (L, L), then the Fourier coefficient an is
(A) 1
4.
trivial solution
z
then the residue of f ( z) at z = 2 is
( z + 1)( z + 2)
(B)
(C)
(D) 2
Set - A
(B)
(C)
2
(D) 1
EI
9.
10.
(B)
0 and 1
(C)
1 and 0
(D) 2 and 2
dy
= x + y + x y and y(0) = 1 , then the value of y (0.025) by
dx
Eulers method is
(A) 0.025
11.
(B)
0.15 J
(C)
0.5 J
(B)
6 V
(C)
8 V
(B)
ZP > ZG
(C)
ZP = ZG
(B)
R only
(C)
L only
(B)
3969 mH
(C)
32 mH
(D) 12 V
(D) ZP = 2 ZG
(D) 63 mH
17.
(D) 1.15 J
The maximum value of mutual inductance of two coils inductively coupled coils with
self inductance of L1 = 49 mH and L2 = 81 mH is
(A) 130 mH
16.
(D) none
A DC voltage source is connected across a series RLC circuit. Under steady condition,
the applied DC voltage drops entirely across the
(A) C only
15.
1.025
14.
(C)
13.
1.05
The energy stored in the magnetic field at a solenoid 30 cm long and 3 cm diameter
wound with 1000 turns of wire carrying a current of 10 A is
(A) 0.015 J
12.
(B)
0
1/2
(B)
(C)
1/2
, the two port
0
A circuit which resonates at 1 MHz has a Q of 100. Bandwidth between half-power point is
(A) 10 kHz
Set - A
(B)
100 kHz
(C)
3
10 Hz
(D) 100 Hz
EI
18.
A pressure gauge is calibrated from 0-50 kN/m2. It has a uniform scale with 100 scale
divisions. One fifth of a scale division can be read with certainty. The gauge has
(A) a resolution of 0.5 kN/m2
(B) threshold of 0.15 kN/m2
(C) resolution of 0.1 kN/m2
(D) dead zone of 0.2 kN/m2
19.
20.
21.
In second order system the frequency of damped oscillation is 18 rad /sec. The value of
damping factor is 0.866. The natural frequency of oscillation is
(A) 15.6 rad/s
(B) 19.3 rad/s
(C) 36 rad/s
(D) 9 rad/s
22.
24.
A measurement system with input x(t) and output of y(t) is described by the differential
equation is 3 +5y = 8x. The static sensitivity of the system is
(A) 0.60
(B)
1.60
(C)
1.67
(D) 2.67
25.
26.
In a transducer, the observed output deviates from the correct value by a constant factor
the resulting error is called
(A) dynamic error
(B) hysteresis error
(C) non-conformity error
(D) sensitivity error
Set - A
EI
27.
A resistance potentiometer has a total resistance of 10 k and is rated 4W. If the range of
the potentiometer is 0 to 100 mm, then its sensitivity in V/mm is
(A) 1.0
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.5
(D) 25
28.
29.
Two inductive transducers working on the principle of change of self inductance L are
connected in a push-pull arrangement. If the change of inductance of transducers is L,
the change of inductance of output terminal is
(A) L
(B) 2L
(C) 2L
(D) Zero
30.
31.
32.
A barium titanate crystal has a thickness of 2 mm. Its voltage sensitivity is 12 103 Vm/N.
It is subjected to a pressure of 0.5 MN/m2. Calculate the voltage generated
(A) 3 V
(B) 6 V
(C) 9 V
(D) 12 V
33.
101 mm to 109 mm of Hg
(B)
101 mm to 106 mm of Hg
34.
35.
If the temperature of a radiating body is 1500 C, the wavelength at which the maximum
radiant energy occurs is
(A) 2.8 m
(B) 1.63 m
(C) 1 m
(D) 4.5 m
Set - A
EI
36.
37.
In a venturimeter the flow rate is 0.15 m3/s when the differential pressure is 30 kN/m2.
What is the value of flow when the differential pressure is 60 kN/m2 ?
(A) 0.212 m3/s
(B)
0.106 m3/s
(C)
0.3 m3/s
38.
A diaphragm has a natural frequency of 30 kHz. If both the diameter and thickness are
halved, the natural frequency is
(A) 15 kHz
(B) 240 kHz
(C) 60 kHz
(D) 120 kHz
39.
The torque in a rotating shaft is measured using strain gauges. The strain gauges must be
positioned on the shaft such that axes of the strain gauges are at
(A) 0 with respect to the axis of the shaft
(B)
(C)
41.
The input impedance (Zi) and the output impedance (Zo) of an ideal transconductance
amplifier are
(A) Zi = 0, Zo = 0 (B) Zi = 0, Zo = (C) Zi = , Zo = 0 (D) Zi = , Zo =
42.
A forward-biased silicon diode when carrying negligible current, has a voltage drop of
0.64 V. When the current is 1 A it dissipates 1W. The On-resistance of the diode is
(A) 1.0
(B) 0.64
(C) 0.74
(D) 0.36
43.
44.
The first dominant pole encountered in the frequency response of a compensated op-amp
is approximately at
(A) 5 Hz
(B) 10 kHz
(C) 1 MHz
(D) 100 MHz
Set - A
EI
45.
An n-type semiconductor strain gauge has a nominal resistance of 1000 and gauge
factor of 100. The resistance of the gauge, when a compressive strain of 100 m/m is
applied, is
(A) 900
(B) 990
(C) 1100
(D) 1010
46.
47.
An audio amplifier is designed to have a small-signal bandwidth of 20 kHz. The openloop low-frequency voltage gain of the op-amp is 105 and unity gain bandwidth is
1 MHz. What is the maximum closed-loop voltage gain for this amplifier ?
(A) 500
(B)
5 106
(C)
2 106
(D) 50
48.
49.
A 1st order low-pass Butter-Worth filter has a cut-off frequency of 1 kHz for
C = 0.01 F. Now, if the cut-off frequency has to change by a scaling factor of
0.625.What should be the value of resistor ?
(A) 15.9 k
(B) 25.44 k
(C) 9.95 k
(D) 25.47 k
50.
Three identical amplifiers with each one having a voltage gain of 50, input resistance of
1 k and output resistance of 250 are cascaded. The open circuit voltage gain of the
combined amplifier is
(A) 49 dB
(B) 51 dB
(C) 98 dB
(D) 102 dB
51.
52.
A unity gain buffer amplifier has a bandwidth of 1 MHz. The output voltage of the
amplifier for an input of 2 V sinusoid of frequency 1 MHz will be
(A) 2 V
Set - A
(B)
22 V
(C)
7
(D)
V
EI
53.
The output of an op-amplifier is 2V peak. The slew rate is 5 V/s. The input sinusoidal
which can be reproduced with no distortion has the maximum frequency of
(A) 398 kHz
(B) 398 Hz
(C) 1592 kHz
(D) 1592 Hz
54.
(D) = 0
55.
A differential amplifier having CMRR 50,000 has a differential mode gain of 500.
The common mode gain is
(A) 0.0001
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.001
(D) 0.01
56.
A combinational logic circuit which sends data coming from a single source to two or
more separate destinations is
(A) Decoder
(B) Encoder
(C) Multiplexer (D) Demultiplexer
57.
58.
59.
A 4 bit ripple counter and a 4 bit synchronous counter are made by flip-flops having a
propagation delay of 10 ns each. If the worst case delay in the ripple counter and
synchronous counter be R and S respectively, then
(A) R = 10 ns, S = 40 ns
(B) R = 40 ns, S = 10 ns
(C) R = 10 ns, S = 30 ns
(D) R = 30 ns, S = 10 ns
60.
An 8 bit successive approximation ADC has full scale reading of 2.55 V and conversion
time for analog input of 1 V is 20s. Conversion time for a 2 V input is
(A) 20 s
(B) 10 s
(C) 40 s
(D) 50 s
61.
When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL
instructions stored in/on the
(A) stack pointer
(B) accumulator
(C) program counter
(D) stack memory
62.
The full scale output of a DAC is 10 mA. If resolution is to be less than 40 A, then
required bits of the DAC are
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 12
Set - A
EI
63.
(D) 0001H
64.
A sample and hold amplifier circuit is normally necessary before the following type of
A/D converter :
(A) successive approximation converter
(B) flash type converter
(C) voltage to frequency converter
(D) dual slope integrating converter
65.
Which of these interrupts of 8085 microprocessor will be recognized for both edge and
level triggered inputs ?
(A) INTR
(B) TRAP
(C) RST 7.5
(D) RST 6.5
66.
67.
68.
(A) 2
(C) 2
(B) 2 2
(D)
69.
The Fourier series for a periodic signal is given as x(t) = cos (1.2t) + cos (2t) +
cos (2.8t), the fundamental frequency of the signal is
(A) 1.4 Hz
(B) 1.0 Hz
(C) 0.2 Hz
(D) 0.4 Hz
70.
Identify the transfer function corresponding to an all pass filter from the following :
1 s
1 + s
1
s
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1 + s
1 s
1 + s
1 + s
Set - A
EI
71.
The region of convergence of the Z-transform of the discrete-time signal x[n] = 2n u[n]
will be
(A) |z| > 2
72.
(B)
(B)
75.
(B)
150 Hz
(C)
100 Hz
(D) 50 Hz
180 kHz
(C)
120 kHz
(C)
If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 0.5, the transmitted power
increases by
(B)
25 %
(C)
50 %
(D) 100 %
(C)
800 Hz
(D) 1200 Hz
!"# %
$
$
(B)
is given by
600 Hz
In a Pulse Coded Modulated(PCM) signal sampled at fs and encoded into an n-bit code,
the minimum bandwidth required for faithful reconstruction is
(A) 2nfs
(B)
nfs/2
(C)
nfs
(D) fs
In a digital communication system employing Frequency Shift Keying (FSK) the 0 and 1
bits are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25 kHz respectively. These waveforms
will be orthogonal for a bit interval of
(A) 45 s
79.
(B)
(A) 400 Hz
78.
s(t) =
77.
A DSP convolves each discrete sample with four coefficients and they are equal to 0.25.
This must be an
(A) 12.5 %
76.
|z| >
74.
(C)
A digital filter has the transfer function H(z) = + 1/ + 0.81. If this filter has to reject
50 Hz interference from the input, then the sampling frequency of the input should be
(A) 200 Hz
73.
|z| < 2
(B)
50 s
(C)
200 s
(D) 250 s
(C)
PCM signal
Set - A
(B)
PAM signal
10
EI
80.
(C)
In Kelvin double bridge two sets of readings are taken when measuring a low resistance,
one with the current in one direction and the other with direction of current reversed.
This is done to
(A) eliminate the effect of contact resistance
(B)
(C)
83.
(B)
(C)
84.
(W1 W2 )
(W1 + W2 )
(W1 W2 )
W1 + W2
(B)
W1 + W2
(D)
(W1 W2 )
W1 + W2
A DC ammeter has a resistance of 0.1 and its current range is 0-100 A. If the range of
the ammeter is to extend to 0-500 A the meter requires which of the following shunt
resistance ?
(A) 0.010
85.
(B)
0.025
(C)
0.011
(D) 1.0
A coil has been designed for high Q performance at a rated voltage and a specified
frequency. If the frequency of operation is doubled and the coil is operated at the same
voltage, then the Q factor and the active power P consumed by the coil will be affected as
(A) P is doubled and Q is halved
(B)
(C)
11
EI
86.
87.
88.
The deflection of an electron beam on CRT screen is 10 mm. Suppose the pre-accelerating
anode voltage is halved and the potential between deflecting plates is doubled, the
deflection of the electron beam will be
(A) 80 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 10 mm
89.
The resonant frequency of an RLC series circuit is 1.5 MHz with the tuning capacitors
set at 150 pF. The bandwidth is 10 kHz. The effective resistance of the circuit is
(A) 4.7
(B) 9.4
(C) 14.75
(D) 29.5
90.
An average reading digital multimeter reads 10 V when fed with a triangular wave,
symmetric about the time axis. For the same input an rms reading meter will read
(A) 20 3
91.
(B)
10 3
(C)
20 3
(D) 10 3
92.
A 53 Hz reed type frequency meter is polarized with D.C. voltage. The new range of
frequency meter is
(A) 106 Hz
(B) 26.5 Hz
(C) 53 Hz
(D) 212 Hz
93.
Light load adjustments for induction type energy meters are usually done at
(A) 10% of full load current
(B) 5% of full load current
(C) 50 % of full load current
(D) 1% of full load current
94.
Set - A
12
EI
95.
A transfer function has two zeros at infinity. Then the relation between the numerator
degree (N) and denominator degree (M) of the transfer function is
(A) N = M + 2
(B) N = M 2
(C) N = M +1
(D) N = M 1
96.
&
(A) 6 dB
(B)
Zero
(C)
3.5 dB
(D) 6 dB
97.
An amplifier with resistive negative feedback has two left half plane poles in its openloop transfer function. The amplifier
(A) will be stable for all frequencies
(B) will always be unstable at high frequencies
(C) may be unstable, depending on the feedback factor
(D) will oscillate at low frequencies
98.
The proportional gain (K) of a PID controller can be expressed in terms of its
Proportional Band (PB) as
(A) PB
(B) 100 PB
(C) PB / 100
(D) 100 / PB
99.
The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer
'
function G(s) = is
(A) 15
(B)
30
(C)
45
(D) 60
100.
In the Bode plot of a unity feedback control system, the value of phase of G(jw) at the
gain crossover frequency is 120. The phase margin of the system is
(A) 120
(B) 60
(C) 60
(D) 120
101.
102.
Set - A
13
EI
103.
104.
Which of the following is commonly used to convert the angular position of shaft into an
electric signal ?
(A) Servo motor (B) Synchros
(C) Stepper motor (D) LVDT
105.
106.
107.
A step index optical fiber, whose refractive indices of the core and cladding are 1.44 and
1.40 respectively, is surrounded by air. Its numerical aperture is
(A) 0.12
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.06
(D) 0.34
108.
Infrared spectrometry is used for the determination of the molecular structure of the
molecules having
(A) Ionic bonds
(B) Covalent bonds
(C) Metallic bonds
(D) Hydrogen bonds
109.
Find the distance between two successive positions of the movable mirror of Michelson
interferometer giving best fringes in the case of sodium source with lines of = 5890
and 5896 .
(A) 289 nm
(B) 282 nm
(C) 280 nm
(D) 308 nm
110.
What is the shortest wavelength of X-rays produced in an X-ray tube with accelerating
potential as 70 kV ?
(A) 0.015
(B) 0.018
(C) 0.017
(D) 0.019
111.
Set - A
14
EI
112.
A photo diode made of Ga-As has a band gap of 1.43 eV. Find the wavelength at which
it will start to operate
(B) 0.87 m
(C) 0.73 m
(D) 0.84 m
(A) 0.68 m
113.
The time interval between two successive R peaks in ECG is 0.8 s. Then, the heart rate is
(A) 12.5 bpm
(B) 72 bpm
(C) 60 bpm
(D) 75 bpm
114.
115.
1 th
If half life of the radioactive radon is 3.8 days, then time at the end of which 20 of the
radon sample will remain undecayed is
(A) 3.8 days
(B) 16.5 days
(C) 33 days
(D) 76 days
116.
A He-Ne laser emit light of wavelength 672.8 nm has an output power of 2.3 mW/s.
How many photons are emitted each minute by the laser ?
(B) 4.2 1016 photons/min
(A) 4.6 1017 photons/min
(D) 5.6 1017 photons/min
(C) 9.8 1016 photons/min
117.
The cardiac output is measured with the help of indicator dilution method. The quantity
of indicator injected is 20 mg and the area under the die dilution curve is found to be
180 mg s/L. Find the cardiac output.
(A) 8.66 L/min (B) 8 L/min
(C) 6.66 L/min (D) 6 L/min
118.
119.
120.
In an electromagnetic blood flow meter, the induced voltage is directly proportional to the
(A) square root of the blood flow rate
(B) blood flow rate
(C) square of the blood flow rate
(D) logarithm of the blood flow rate
__________
Set - A
15
EI
Set - A
16
EI
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
D
C
A
B
D
C
B
B
A
D
C
A
B
C
C
B
A
D
B
C
D
A
A
B
C
D
D
B
A
C
D
B
D
A
B
A
C
C
D
B
Booklet No. :
A
SET
ME - 15
Mechanical Engineering
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
ME-15-A
2.
8 6 2
(D)
1
2
2
3.
4.
If C is the ellipse
(A)
5.
7.
1
sin 2 x is
D 4
1 2
1
sin x
+ cos2 x
(B)
4
8
The value of
(A)
6.
ab
x2 y2
1
+ 2 = 1 , then the value of (xdy ydx) is
2
2 c
a
b
ab
(B)
(C) ab 2
(D) a 2 b
2
Set - A
5
9
(B)
1
2
(C)
none
(D)
1 1
(1) + cos2 x
8 16
(C)
2
( s 2) 3
(D)
2
( s + 2)3
z2
at the pole z = 2 is
( z 1)2 ( z + 2)
4
(C)
(D) 0
9
ME
8.
If a random variable X has the PDF f ( x) = (1 p) x 1 p, x = 1, 2,.. and 0 < p < 1 .Then the
mean of X is
(A) p + 1
(B) p 2 + p
(C) p
(D) 1
9.
10.
f ( xn ) f ( xn ) f ( xn )
(C)
f ( xn ) > 1
f ( xn )
is
f ( xn )
(B)
f ( xn ) < 1
(D)
f ( xn ) f ( xn ) f ( xn )
11.
12.
13.
A wheel of mass m and radius r is in accelerated rolling motion without slipping under a
steady torque T. If the co-efficient of friction between the two surfaces is , then the
normal force acting on the surface by the wheel is
T
(A) 0
(B) mg
(C) r
(D) T
14.
15.
An automobile of mass m accelerates uniformly starting from rest. If the engine supplies
constant power P, which of the following relations is correct ?
(A)
16.
(B)
(C)
(D)
A ball of mass of 102 kg strikes on a wall and returns back in the same direction. If its
speed changes from 20 m/s to 10 m/s, the magnitude of impulse acting on the bullet is
(A) 0.1 Ns
(B) 0.3 Ns
(C) 30 Ns
(D) 1 Ns
Set - A
ME
17.
A swinging pendulum eventually stops because its energy is finally converted into
(A) Kinetic energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Potential energy
(D) Electromagnetic energy
18.
A solid sphere of mass M, rolling down an inclined plane has a velocity v along the plane.
Total kinetic energy will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
19.
20.
21.
22.
If a shaft is rotating at N rpm with a Torque T Nm, the power transmitted to the shaft in
Watts is
(A)
23.
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
dM
= constant for the whole length. The shape of the shear force
dx
triangle
(C)
parabola
(D) hyperbola
24.
25.
A bar of circular cross section has a uniformly varying diameter from D to 2D. If
extension in the bar due to a tensile force is calculated assuming it as a cylindrical bar of
mean diameter, the Percentage error in the calculation will be close to
(A) 10
(B) 25
(C) 33
(D) 50
26.
Set - A
ME
27.
A solid shaft of diameter 100 mm, length 100 mm is subjected to a torque T. The
maximum shear stress developed in the shaft is 60 N/mm2. If a through hole of 50 mm
diameter is made throughout the length of the shaft, What must be the torque applied to
keep the shear stress same as before ?
15T
3T
11T
7T
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16
4
12
8
28.
The component of acceleration parallel to the velocity of the particle, at a given instant is
(A) Radial component
(B) Tangential component
(C) Coriolis component
(D) Net acceleration
29.
If the ratio of length of connecting rod to the crank radius increases, then
(A) Primary unbalanced forces will increase
(B) Primary unbalanced forces will decrease
(C) Secondary unbalanced forces will increase
(D) Secondary unbalanced forces will decrease
30.
A body of mass m and radius of gyration k is replaced by two masses m1 and m2 located at
distances h1 and h2 from the center of gravity of the original body. The condition for an
equivalent dynamic system is
(A) h1 + h2 = k
(B) h12 + h22 = k 2 (C) h1h2 = k 2
(D)
h1h2 = k 2
31.
The speed of an engine with a fly wheel varies from 210 rad/s to 190 rad/s. If the
corresponding change in Kinetic energy is 400 Nm, the inertia of the flywheel is
(A) 0.10 kgm2
(B) 0.20 kgm2
(C) 0.30 kgm2
(D) 0.40 kgm2
32.
In a 4 stroke IC engine, the turning moment diagram during the compression stroke is
(A) Positive throughout
(B) Negative throughout
(C) Positive during major portion of the stroke
(D) Negative during major portion of the stroke
33.
The number of pairs of teeth in contact in a gear and pinion if arc of contact is 31.4 mm
and module is 5 are
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 5
34.
The degrees of freedom of a planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute joints is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
35.
For an involute gear, the ratio of base circle diameter to pitch circle diameter is ( is the
pressure angle)
(A) cos
(B) sin
(C) cosec
(D) sec
36.
The ratio of maximum damping co-efficient to the critical damping co-efficient is called
(A) Magnification factor
(B) Logarithmic decrement
(C) Damping factor
(D) Damping co-efficient
Set - A
ME
= 2 , where = forced vibration frequency and
n
n = natural frequency, then transmissibility is
(A) >1
(B) <1
(C) =1
(D) 0
37.
38.
39.
(B)
49 Hz
(C)
d2x
+ 49 x = 0 , the natural frequency
dt 2
7 Hz
(D) 9 Hz
40.
A system with natural frequency 100 Hz has a damping factor of 0.6. The frequency of the
damped system is
(A) 60Hz
(B) 80Hz
(C) 100Hz
(D) cannot be determined
41.
In a forced vibration system with viscous damping, the amplitude is maximum when
(A) Forced frequency is equal to natural frequency
(B) Forced frequency is slightly less than natural frequency
(C) Forced frequency is slightly greater than natural frequency
(D) zero
42.
If the static deflection of a shaft with a flywheel is 4 mm. Considering acceleration due to
gravity is 10 m/s2, the critical speed in rad/s is
(A) 50
(B) 20
(C) 10
(D) 5
43.
A single degree of freedom spring mass damper system is undergoing critically damped
vibrations. If mass is 5 kg and stiffness of spring is 20 N/m, the viscous damping
co-efficient is
(A) 10 Ns/m
(B) 20 Ns/m
(C) 4 Ns/m
(D) 8 Ns/m
44.
45.
Which of the following relation results in a conservative estimate with same factor of
safety ?
(A) Gerber relation
(B) Soderberg relation
(C) Goodman relation
(D) Euler relation
46.
Set - A
ME
47.
48.
49.
While deriving Lewis equation, it is assumed that tangential tooth load acts on the
(A) Pitch point
(B) Tip of the tooth
(C) Root of the tooth
(D) Whole face of the tooth
50.
51.
(C)
Ns/m2
(D) N/m2
52.
A lubricating oil of viscosity 10 Poise is filled between two parallel plates that are 0.5 cm
apart. If the relative velocity between the plates is 2 m/s, then shear stress developed in
lubricating oil is
(A) 20 N/m2
(B) 200 N/m2
(C) 40 N/m2
(D) 400 N/m2
53.
What is the pressure inside a soap bubble over the atmospheric pressure, if the diameter is
1 cm ?
(A) 0.2 N/m2
(B) 0.1 N/m2
(C) 20 N/m2
(D) 10 N/m2
54.
The density of a liquid changes from 250 kg/m2 to 251 kg/m2, when the pressure on the
liquid changes from 4 MPa to 4.5 MPa. What is the average value of bulk modulus of the
liquid over the given pressure range ?
(A) 250 MPa
(B) 125 MPa
(C) 62.5 MPa
(D) 12 MPa
55.
A tank with four equal vertical faces of width w and height h is filled with a liquid. If the
force on any vertical side is equal to the force at the bottom, the value of h/t is
(A) 2
(B) 1.414
(C) 1
(D) 0.5
56.
Buoyant force is
(A) Lateral force acting on a submerged body
(B) Resultant force acting on a submerged body
(C) Vertical force acting on a body due to fluid surrounding it
(D) Vertical force acting on a submerged body
Set - A
ME
57.
58.
For flow through a horizontal pipe, the pressure gradient opposite to the flow direction is
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Cannot be determined
(D) Depends on the fluid properties
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
(D)
1<
hA
<2
kP
A stagnant liquid film of 0.4 mm thickness is held between two parallel plates. The top
plate is maintained at 40 C and the bottom plate is maintained at 30 C. If the thermal
conductivity of the liquid is 0.14 W/mK then the steady state heat flux (in W/m2)
assuming one dimensional heat transfer is
(A) 3.5
(B) 350
(C) 3500
(D) 7000
Set - A
ME
66.
Grashoffs number is
thermal diffusivity
(A)
mass diffusivity
(C)
buoyancy force
viscous force
(B)
sensible heat
latent heat
(D)
inertial force
surface tension force
67.
If the temperature of a solid surface changes from 27 C to 327 C, its emissive power
will increase in the ratio of
(A) 2 :1
(B) 4 :1
(C) 8 :1
(D) 16 :1
68.
69.
70.
(C)
2 steradians (D)
steradians
(D) 1, 2 and 3
71.
In a new temperature scale, the boiling point and freezing point of water are given as 100
units and 300 units respectively. The reading of 0 units on the new scale corresponds to
(A) 0 C
(B) 50 C
(C) 100 C
(D) 150 C
72.
For a mixture of solid, liquid and vapour phase of a pure substance, the number of
intrinsic properties needed to describe the state are
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
73.
The amount of thermodynamic work to be done to inflate a balloon of volume 1m3 with an
internal pressure of 105 Pa. The amount of work done upon the atmosphere by the balloon
is
(A) 0
(B) 100 J
(C) 1 kJ
(D) 50 kJ
Set - A
ME
74.
An ideal gas expands isothermally from volume V1 to V2 and then compressed to original
volume V1 adiabatically. If initial pressure is P1 and final pressure is P3 and total work
done by the gas is W, then
(A) P3>P1, W>0 (B) P3<P1, W<0 (C) P3>P1, W<0 (D) P3=P1, W=0
75.
Air with enthalpy of 100 kJ/kg is compressed to a pressure and temperature where
enthalpy becomes 200 kJ/kg. The loss of heat from compressor is 40 kJ/kg. Neglecting
kinetic and potential energies, the energy required for air flow rate of 0.5 kg/s is
(A) 30 kW
(B) 50 kW
(C) 70 kW
(D) 90 kW
76.
If the time taken by a system to execute a process through a finite gradient is infinitely
large, the process
(A) becomes reversible
(B) remain irreversible
(C) become isothermal
(D) is adiabatic
77.
A Carnot cycle operates between two temperatures T1 and T2 (T1> T2). If 1 is the Carnot
efficiency when T1 is raised by T and 2 is the Carnot efficiency when T2 is decreased
by T , then which of the following is correct ?
(A) 1 = 2
(B) 1 > 2
(C) 1 < 2
(D) Unpredictable
78.
79.
80.
Find the loss of available energy associated with the transfer of 1000 kJ of heat from a
constant temperature system of 600 K to another at 400 K, when the atmospheric
temperature is 300 K
(A) 100 kJ
(B) 150 kJ
(C) 200 kJ
(D) 250 kJ
81.
1kg of water at room temperature is brought into contact with a high temperature thermal
reservoir. The entropy change in the universe is
(A) always positive
(B) equal to entropy change in the reservoir
(C) equal to zero
(D) equal to entropy change of water
Set - A
10
ME
82.
For a system existing at a constant volume and constant temperature, which of the
following parameter is criterion for equilibrium and stability of the system ?
(A) Entropy
(B) Gibbs function
(C) Helmholtz function
(D) Internal energy
83.
Saturated liquid at a higher pressure P1 having hf1 = 1000 kJ/kg is throttled to a lower
pressure P2. The enthalpy of saturated liquid and saturated vapour is 800 kJ/kg and
2800 kJ/kg respectively. The dryness fraction of vapour after throttling is
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.9
84.
85.
86.
87.
= = 90o
(D)
90o
88.
89.
90.
Set - A
11
ME
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
A spherical molten metal drop of radius 4 mm was found to solidify in 10 seconds. A drop
of 8 mm will solidify in
(A) 14.14 s
(B) 20 s
(C) 18.30 s
(D) 40 s
97.
A rolling mill requires 30 kW per roll. Assuming a power loss of 5 kW, the total power
required for the mill is
(A) 35 kW
(B) 25 kW
(C) 65 kW
(D) 55 kW
98.
Set - A
12
ME
99.
13
ME
107. If is the shear angle, is the friction angle and is the rake angle, which of the
following statements is correct according to Merchants analysis ?
(A) 2 + 2 =
(B) 2 + =
4
2
(C) 2 + 2 =
(D) 2 + =
4
4
108. Which of the following property is not a characteristic of Ceramic tools ?
(A) High hardness
(B) High compressive strength
(C) High thermal conductivity
(D) High brittleness
109. The demand and forecast for February are 12000 and 10275 respectively. Using single
exponential smoothening method, forecast for the month of March is (smoothening
co-efficient = 0.25)
(A) 431
(B) 9587
(C) 10706
(D) 13000
110. In forecasting using moving average method, the number of periods of data is independent
of
(A) Criteria of accuracy
(B) Impulse response
(C) Noise damping
(D) Total number of sales
111. Market demand for springs is 8,00,000 per annum. A company purchases these springs in
lots and sells them. The cost of making a purchase order is ` 1200. The cost of storage of
springs is ` 120 per stored piece per annum. The Economic order Quantity is
(A) 400
(B) 2828
(C) 4000
(D) 8000
112. Which of the following is a correct statement for graphical method in linear programming ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
113. For a standard transportation linear program with m sources and n destinations and total
supply equaling total demand, an optimal solution (lowest cost) with the smallest number
of non-zero xij values (amounts from source i to destination j) is desired. The best upper
bound for this number is
(A)
Set - A
mn
(B)
2 ( m + n)
(C)
14
m+n
(D)
m + n 1
ME
114. The expected time in an activity is based on the assumption that activity follows
(A) Poisson distribution
(B) Binomial distribution
(C) Beta distribution
(D) Alpha distribution
115. A maintenance facility has Poisson arrival rates, negative exponential service time and
operates on a first come first serve queue method. Break downs occur on an average of 3
per day with a range of 0 to 8. The maintenance crew can service and average of 6
machines per day with a range of 0 to 7. The mean waiting time for an item to be serviced
would be
1
1
(A)
day
(B)
day
(C) 1 day
(D) 3 days
6
3
116. A manufacturing firm has a fixed cost of ` 18,000. The variable cost consists of ` 8 per
unit and selling price is ` 13. Find the number of pieces to be produced to break even
(A) 1800
(B) 2400
(C) 3600
(D) 5400
117. In an assembly line when workstation times are unequal, the overall production rate of an
assembly line is determined by the
(A) Fastest station time
(B) Slowest station time
(C) Average station time
(D) Average of slowest and fastest station times
118. There are five jobs which are to be processed on a workpiece in a sheet metal shop. The
processing times for each of them are given below :
Job
A
B C
D E
Processing time
4
17 14
19 11
According to shortest processing time rule, the average number of jobs in the system each
day is
(A) 1.23
(B) 2.44
(C) 3.89
(D) 4.84
119. What are the key functions of a master schedule ?
(1) To generate material and capacity requirements
(2) To maintain valid priorities
(3) An effective capacity utilization
(4) Planning the quantity and timing of output over the intermediate time horizons
Select the correct answers from the above options
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
120. Which of the following layout is suitable for low demand and high variety product ?
(A) Group layout
(B) Process layout
(C) Product layout
(D) Static layout
_____________
Set - A
15
ME
Set - A
16
ME
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
A
B
A
C
B
B
B
B
D
C
A
B
D
D
C
D
D
B
D
B
B
B
D
A
D
D
D
C
C
D
C
A
D
C
A
C
B
B
B
B
Booklet No. :
A
SET
MT - 15
Metallurgy
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
MT-15-A
METALLURGY (MT)
1.
2.
The necessary and sufficient condition that the linear system of equations AX = B is
consistent when
(A) Rank ( AB) > Rank ( A)
(B) Rank ( AB) = Rank ( A)
(C)
3.
(D) None
4.
The series
n =1
1
n2 + 1
(A) converges
(C) diverges
5.
If 1 and 2 are normals to the surfaces 1 and 2 , then the angle between the
surfaces is
1.2
1. 2
(A) cos1
(B) tan1
| 1 || 2|
| 1 || 2|
(C) 0
(D) 90
6.
(A)
(C)
7.
(B)
2 Fds
(D) 0
Set - A
.Fds
x
cos x
2
F .nds
1
cos x is
(D + 2 )
(B)
x
sin x
2
(C)
2
sin x
(D)
cos x
MT
8.
9.
M N
=
x
y
(B)
(C)
M N
=
y
x
(D) None
If the mean and variance of a binomially distributed random variable are 3 and 2
respectively, then its probability distribution function is
2
(A) b(9, 3)
10.
11.
(B)
13.
1
b(12, 3)
(C)
1
b(9, 3)
(D) None
(A)
yk +1 = yk +
(C)
yk +1 = yk + hf ( xk , yk )
(B)
yk +1 = y0
(D)
None
h
f ( xk , yk )
2
12.
xM ( x, y ) + y N ( x, y) = 0
one Amp
(B)
(C)
Electro polishing
Electro refining
Self diffusion
(A) is the migration of atoms in pure metals
(B)
(C)
(C)
MT
15.
16.
(B) depletion of Cr
(D) increase of C
17.
18.
19.
20.
1
(A) G against T
(C)
21.
22.
23.
1
G against T 0.5
In an adiabatic process
(A) enthalpy remains constant
(C) heat transfer is zero
(B)
1
G against T 2
(D) G against T
(D) RlnK
Set - A
MT
24.
25.
(B)
(C)
When a gas in a vessel expands, its internal energy decreases. The process involved is
(A) adiabatic
26.
chemical potential
(B)
irreversible
(C)
isothermal
(D) reversible
remains unaffected
(C)
increases
28.
(B)
(C)
29.
30.
k/2
(C)
ln k/2
(D) ln 0.5/k
(A) slow
(B)
(C)
(D) non-spontaneous
always spontaneous
fast
Brick
(C)
Copper
(D) Water
32.
(B)
(A) Air
31.
(B)
(D) turbulent
The ratio of the actual mesh dimensions of Taylors series to that of the next smaller
screen is
(A) 2
Set - A
(B)
(C)
5
1.5
(D) 2.5
MT
33.
34.
35.
37.
(B)
(C)
Arrhenius diagrams
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D) electrolytic
42.
(D) 30%
fire
fractional distillation
Zn
(C)
Ni
(D) Sn
Zirconium
(C)
Zinc
(D) Nickel
41.
35%
40.
Pourbaix diagrams
Flash smelting process is autogenous when the combustant contains about ____ Oxygen
(A) Lead
39.
(A) Pb
38.
Quartzite
(A) 20%
36.
(B)
H2SO4
ferrous ions
(B)
(C)
density
liquidus temperature
(B)
(C)
(D) cubical
cylindrical
semi-spherical
Anode effect occurs in an electrolytic cell when normal Al2O3 level from _____ drops to
below 1%.
(A) 6-10%
Set - A
(B)
18-26%
(C)
6
27-32%
43.
Nickel is produced directly from nickel mattes through the following converter :
(A) Peirce-Smith (B)
44.
47.
48.
(D)
LD
(B)
iron ore
(C)
sinter
(D) coke
46.
(C)
45.
Hoboken
(B)
iron ore
(C)
sinter
(D) coke
(B)
(C)
melting of slag
Sudden sinking of the stock in the blast furnace caused by collapse of scaffold, hanging
etc. is called
(A) channeling
(B)
(C)
slipping
pillaring
(C)
50.
(B)
(C)
suppressed combustion
external heating
(C)
MT
51.
Carbon refractories
(A) dont resist temperature fluctuations
(B) have very low thermal and electrical conductivities
(C) dont burn/oxidize when exposed to air on heating
(D) are not attacked by slags as they are not wetted by melts
52.
53.
(C)
bituminous
(D) peat
54.
55.
56.
During cooling of steel containing 0.8% carbon from 1000 C, pearlite occurs at _______ C.
(A) 910
(B) 480
(C) 768
(D) 723
57.
58.
Case carburizing is the most widely used method for steel parts with
(A) high corrosion resistance
(B) high hardness
(C) low carbon content
(D) low tensile strength
59.
Set - A
MT
60.
61.
62.
63.
(B)
(C)
(D) strength
conductivity
(B)
(C)
(D) weldability
corrosion resistance
(B)
(C)
impact toughness
66.
(B)
Ferritic
(C)
Austenitic
cooled
(D) tempered
annealed
(C)
(B)
(C)
(D) decreases
remains unchanged
increase or decrease
67.
hardenability
(A) normalised
65.
impact resistance
(A) Martensitic
64.
stress relieving
(B)
2%
(C)
1%
(D) 0.5%
(C)
(B)
(C)
Set - A
MT
69.
70.
71.
72.
(B)
(C)
Rare gases
(B)
(C)
De Broglie expression
74.
75.
Kirkendal effect
(B)
(C)
Braggs law
Ficks law
Energy associated with an electron at absolute zero temperature (which is the maximum
value for that electron) is called _______ energy.
(A) fermi
73.
Transition elements
(B)
degenerate
(C)
ionisation
(D) electron
(B)
(C)
Wulff net
Which of the following property of a material is not affected by the grain boundaries
or crystal imperfections ?
(A) Impact strength
(B)
(C)
Yield strength
Hardness
A high reduction of cross sectional area of a metal (on application of tensile load)
indicates that the material has
(A) lost its malleability
(B)
(C)
The thickness of the test specimen in BHN test should not be less than ______ times the
depth of impression.
(A) ten
Set - A
(B)
two
(C)
10
five
(D) seven
MT
77.
78.
79.
(D) Lead
(D) nitriding
remains same
(C)
(D) decreases
80.
81.
(B)
(C)
Radiography
82.
Copper
(C)
Steel
(D) Iron
(B)
hard
(C)
ductile
(D) brittle
Recrystallisation of which of the following metals can occur even at room temperature ?
(A) Nickel
84.
(B)
83.
Ultrasonic testing
(B)
Iron
(C)
Zinc
(D) Copper
(C)
Which type of rolling mill is suitable for the production of very thin strip in hard
materials ?
(A) Tandem
Set - A
(B)
Three high
(C)
11
Four high
(D) Cluster
MT
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
(B)
(C)
decreases ductility
(B)
(C)
hardness
92.
(B)
(C)
Which fuel gas is commonly used for hot machine scarfing of steel ?
(A) LD gas
(B)
(C)
Acetylene gas
A material which does not possess identical properties in all directions is called _______
material.
(C)
anisotropic
(B)
isotopic
(D) homogeneous
(B)
forged parts
(C)
93.
residual stresses
(A) plastic
91.
increases ductility
(B)
Spinning
(C)
Slitting
(C)
12
MT
94.
Which of the following is mainly responsible for tertiary stage creep to occur ?
(A) Low stress and high temperature level
(B)
(C)
95.
96.
97.
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
98.
both ends
(B)
1.5 : 1
(C)
1:1
(D) 2.5 : 1
(C)
99.
(C)
100.
Set - A
(B)
150-300
(C)
13
750-1000
(D) 1500-2000
MT
101.
Ultrasonic welding
(A) is useful for joining sections with different thicknesses
(B)
(C)
103.
(B)
(C)
Which joining process is used for joining two stainless steel foils of 0.075 mm thickness ?
(A) Arc welding (B)
104.
(B)
(B)
(B)
Cast iron
Copper rod
(C)
Flux rod
(D) Solder
oxidizing
(C)
neutral
(D) reducing
Laser
(C)
MIG
(D) TIG
maraging
(C)
high speed
(D) stainless
gas
(D) resistance
110.
(C)
Weld decay occurs in _______ steel when heated in the range of 510 C to 790 C
(A) plain carbon (B)
109.
Aluminium
108.
(B)
107.
106.
105.
Aluminium
(B)
fusion
(C)
Set - A
(B)
MT
111.
112.
The best moulding process for production of intricate castings weighing more than
100 tons is
(A) Cement moulding
(B)
(C)
Pit moulding
113.
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
in-gates
(D) sprue
Lost wax
(C)
Scab
(C)
Swell
(D) Shift
permeability (C)
(B)
<1
(C)
10
(D) 20
(B)
pig
(C)
malleable
(D) nodular
120.
risers
119.
(D) Injection
118.
Pit
The property of sand due to which the sand grains stick together is known as
(A) cohesiveness (B)
117.
(C)
Casting defect which results in mismatching of the top and bottom part of the casting is
known as
(A) Sand wash
116.
Shell
115.
(B)
114.
Ceramic moulding
(B)
chills
(C)
chaplets
(D) sprue
Set - A
(B)
15
MT
Set - A
16
MT
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
B
B
A
C
A
B
B
D
C
D
A
C
A
B
C
B
C
C
D
D
C
C
B
B
D
B
C
A
B
C
D
A
B
A
B
B
C
C
A
B
METALLURGY (MT)
SET - A
41
A
42
A
43
C
44
D
45
D
46
A
47
C
48
B
49
C
50
A
51
D
52
A
53
C
54
D
55
C
56
D
57
A
58
C
59
B
60
D
61
A
62
C
63
A
64
D
65
D
66
B
67
A
68
A
69
C
70
D
71
C
72
A
73
B
74
D
75
C
76
A
77
D
78
B
79
C
80
A
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
A
D
C
B
A
C
D
C
D
C
A
B
C
C
A
B
B
C
D
B
A
C
D
B
A
C
C
D
B
A
C
D
D
B
D
A
C
A
B
D
Booklet No. :
A
SET
NT - 15
Nano Technology
Duration of Test : 2 Hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2.
Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3.
Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4.
This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5.
Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6.
Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7.
OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8.
Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.
NT-15-A
Select the equation that represents the equation of force equilibrium in the x direction.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
3.
Determine the x-coordinate of the location of the center of mass for the masses shown in
Figure.
(A) 0.45m
4.
(C)
0.96m
(D)
0.54m
Find the polar moment of inertia of a square of length a with respect to its
centroid.
(A) a4/6
5.
(B) 0.73m
(B)
a4/12
(C)
a4/3
(D) a4/9
If a force acts in space at a point A whose position vector is , the moment of the force
about the origin is given by
(A) x
(B) .
(C) x
(D) .
Set - A
NT
6.
A particle moving along a circle with variable angular speed will have
(A) tangential component of acceleration only
(B) normal component of acceleration only
(C) no acceleration
(D) both tangential and normal components of acceleration
7.
Centrifugal force is
(A) real force
(C) not an inertial force
8.
A thin ring of mass M and radius R rolls down an incline from a height H without
slipping, the maximum attainable velocity V of its center will be_________
1/2
1/2
3
2
1/2
1/2
(D)
(A) V= (gH)
(B) V= (2gH)
(C) V= 3 gH
2 gH
9.
10.
A disc is fixed at its center to the one end of a shaft of torsional stiffness Kt, the other end
of the shaft is fixed. If the mass moment of inertia of the disc about the axis of the shaft
is I, what is the natural frequency of the torsional system ?
(A) (Kt/I)1/2
(B) (KtI)1/2
(C) (I/Kt)1/2
(D) (2Kt/I)1/2
11.
The area under the stress strain curve (up to elastic limit) gives ________
(A) strain energy
(B) strain energy per unit volume
(C) modulus of elasticity
(D) bulk modulus
12.
In which cross section of a cantilever beam with an end point load, the maximum
bending stress occurs ?
(A) Cross section at free end
(B) Cross section at mid length
(C) Cross section at the fixed end
(D) Depends on the magnitude of the load
13.
The shape of Bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to uniformly
distributed load consists of __________
(A) rectangle
(B) parabola
(C) cubic curve (D) triangle
14.
According to the theory of simple bending, the variation of bending stress across a beam
cross section is ______________
(A) Linear
(B) Zero
(C) Parabolic
(D) Hyperbolic
Set - A
NT
15.
The rate of change of shear force along the length of a beam is equal to _________
(A) bending moment
(B) slope of the beam
(C) intensity of loading
(D) deflection of the beam
16.
17.
For two shafts joined in series, which of the following is the same ?
(A) Shear stress (B) Torque
(C) Angle of twist (D) Stiffness
18.
The ratio of maximum bending stress to maximum shear stress on the cross section when
a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a torque T and bending moment M is _________
(A) M/T
(B) M/2T
(C) 4M/T
(D) 2M/T
19.
The planes of maximum shear stress lie at ________ to the planes of principal stresses.
(A) 45o
(B) 90o
(C) 270o
(D) 120o
20.
For the case of two perpendicular direct stresses with simple shear, the extremities of its
Mohrs stress circle diameter indicate ________
(A) maximum and minimum principal stresses
(B) maximum and minimum shear stresses
(C) maximum principal stress and maximum shear stresses
(D) minimum principal stress and maximum shear stresses
21.
A composite slab has two layers of different materials with thermal conductivity K1 and
K2. If each layer had the same thickness, the equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab
would be
K1 + K 2
2 K 1K 2
(D) K1K2
(C)
(A) K1 +K2
(B)
K 1K 2
K1 + K 2
22.
It is desired to increase the heat dissipation rate over the surface of an electronic device
of spherical shape of 5 mm radius exposed to convection with h=10W/m2K by encasing
it in a spherical sheath of conductivity 0.04 W/m K. For maximum heat flow, the
diameter of the sheath should be
(A) 18 mm
(B) 16 mm
(C) 12 mm
(D) 8 mm
23.
Set - A
NT
24.
The average heat transfer coefficient of an electric heater which has heat flux
6000 W/m2, the surface temperature of 120 C is cooled by air at 70 C is
(A) 60
(B) 120
(C) 180
(D) 240
25.
A flat composite wall with three different materials whose thermal conductivity and
thicknesses are k1, k2, & k3 and x1, x2, & x3 respectively. The surface temperatures are t1,
t2, t3 & t4. The conduction through wall is
k 1A k 2 A k 3 A
(t1 t 4 )A
+
+
Q=
x
x2
x3
k1 k 2 k 3
(A) Q = 1
(B)
+
+
(t 1 t 4 )
x1 x 2 x 3
Q=
(C)
t1 t 4
k 1A k 2 A k 3 A
+
+
x1
x2
x3
Q=
(D)
t1 t 4
x
x1
x
+ 2 + 3
k 1A k 2 A k 3 A
26.
The radial heat transfer rate through hollow cylinder increases as the ratio of outer radius
to inner radius
(A) constant
(B) increases
(C) decreases
(D) decreases first and then increases
27.
A hollow cylinder of internal radius r1, external radius r2, and length L, the heat transfer
in radial direction is
2L log e ( t1 / t 2 )
2L( t1 t 2 )k
(A) Q =
(B) Q =
log10 r2 / r1
(r2 r1 )k
(C)
Q=
2L( t1 t 2 )
k (r2 r1 )
(D)
Q=
2L( t1 t 2 )k
log e r2 / r1
28.
29.
Mean radius of a hollow sphere of outer and inner radii of 16mm and 9mm is equal to
(A) 12.5mm
(B) 14.4 mm
(C) 17 mm
(D) 12mm
30.
31.
Set - A
NT
32.
33.
A furnace wall of thickness 1 m and of surface area 3 m2, is made of a material whose
thermal conductivity is 1 kJ/hr mC. The temperature of inner surface of the wall is
950 C and of outer surface is 150 C. Heat flow through the wall in kJ/hr
(A) 450
(B) 2400
(C) 2650
(D) 2850
34.
Three metal walls of the same cross-sectional area having thermal conductivities in the
ratio 1 : 3 : 5 transfer heat at the rate of 6000 kJ/hr. For the same wall thickness, the
temperature drops will be in the ratio.
1 1
1 1
: :1
(A) 1 : 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 3 : 5
(C) 1 : :
(D)
3 5
5 3
A wall of (surface area A, thickness x and conductivity k) contains hot fluid at
temperature T1 on one side and cold fluid at temperature T2 on the other side. The rate of
35.
(A)
(C)
1
x
1
+
+
h1A kA h 2 A
(T1 T2 )
(T1 T2 )(h 1 h 2 )
A ( x )
(B)
(D)
1
1
(T1 T2 + A
h1 h 2
x
T1 T2
1
1
x
+
+
h1A kA h 2 A
36.
37.
38.
Reynolds number for non-circular cross section in terms of V-mean velocity, v-kinematic
viscosity and P- ratio of cross sectional area to the wetted perimeter is
V.4P
V. P
V. P
VP
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4
2
Set - A
NT
39.
The flow of any fluid, real or ideal, must fulfill the following :
(A) Newtons law of viscosity
(B) Newtons second law of viscosity
(C) Velocity at boundary must be zero
(D) The continuity equation
40.
For a two- dimensional fluid element in x-y plane, the rotational component is given as
1 v u
1 u v
(A) z = +
(B) z =
2 x y
2 x y
1 u v
+
2 x y
Density of water is maximum at
(A) 0 C
(B) 4 C
(C)
41.
z =
(D)
z =
(C)
32 C
1 v u
2 x y
(D) 100 C
42.
If the velocity in a fluid flow does not change with respect to length of direction of flow,
it is called
(A) rotational flow
(B) incompressible flow
(C) uniform flow
(D) steady flow
43.
The cross sectional areas of a Venturimeter at inlet and outlet are A1 and A2 respectively.
If the pressure head h, and coefficient of discharge is Cd then the discharge is
2
(A)
Q = Cd
(C)
Q = Cd
A1 A 2
A1 A 2
2
A1 A 2
2
2gh
(B)
Q = Cd
(D)
Q = Cd
2A1 A 2
2gh
A 1A 2
2
2A1 A 2
A 1A 2
2
A1 A 2
2gh
2gh
44.
45.
Model analysis of aeroplanes and projectile moving at super- sonic speed are based on
(A) Euler number
(B) Mach number
(C) Froude number
(D) Reynolds number
46.
Set - A
1
U 2 C D A
4
FD = U 2 C D A
FD =
NT
47.
The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance x from the leading edge over a
flat plate varies as
(A) x3/5
(B) x1/5
(C) x4/5
(D) x1/2
48.
The relation between co-efficient of friction (f) and Reynolds number (Re) for laminar
flow through a pipe is given by
4
8
12
16
(A) f =
(B) f =
(C) f =
(D) f =
Re
Re
Re
Re
49.
50.
The time period of oscillation of a floating body, whose radius of gyration is k and metacentre height GM, is
(A)
T = 2
GM
gk 2
(B)
T = 2
gk 2
GM
(C)
T = 2
k2
GM g
(D)
T = 2
GM g
k2
51.
52.
53.
(B) G = RT ln K
(D) G = RT ln K
54.
Set - A
NT
55.
56.
57.
(B) F + C = P + 2
(D) P + C = F + 2
58.
59.
(B) dH = P.dv/T.dS
(D) dH = T.dS+V.dP
60.
61.
62.
63.
Set - A
NT
64.
In a heat engine following the carnot cycle and operating between a heat source at T1 and
Heat sink at T2, which of the following will lead to a maximum increase in efficiency
(assume that the extent of the change, T, is the same in all cases) ?
(A) Lowering T2 by T, keeping T1 constant
(B)
(C)
The enthalpy change for a reaction is the same whether it takes place in one or several
stages. This statement refers to
(A) Kirchoffs law
(B) First law of thermodynamics
(C) Hesss law
(D) Second law of thermodynamics
66.
67.
In the reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3 + 92.37 kJ, the formation of NH3 will be favoured by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
low temperature
high temperature
low pressure and high temperature
low temperature and high pressure
68.
69.
Set - A
NT
70.
71.
72.
dP / dT = Hvap/TVvap
(D) A = U TS
G vs 1/T
(D) G0 vs 1/T
(B)
In the Ellingham diagram of oxides, the reaction that is parallel to the temperature axis is
(A) 2C + O2 = 2CO
(B) 2Zn + O2 = 2ZnO
(C)
74.
G = H + T [ (G) / dT]P
73.
(B)
C + O2 = CO2
In the Ellingham diagram of oxides, the position of formation _____ oxide is very low
(A) Fe
(C) Mg
(B) Ca
(D) Al
75.
76.
77.
Set - A
11
NT
78.
79.
80.
81.
(D) 4
82.
The angle between the line vector and burgers vector of an edge dislocation is
(A) 180
(B) 120
(C) 90
(D) 0
83.
[210]
(D) [110]
84.
85.
(B) Strain-rate
(D) Time
86.
87.
Set - A
12
NT
88.
89.
90.
(D) 8
(D) volume
91.
92.
93.
94.
The stacking fault energy of metal A is greater than that of metal B, then
(A) Width of stacking fault will be greater in metal A
(B) Width of stacking fault will be greater in metal B
(C) Cross-slip of screw dislocation will be easier in metal B
(D) Metal A will work harden more than metal B
95.
96.
(D) Sb
97.
98.
Fe - 4% Si
Set - A
13
NT
99.
100.
For soft magnetic materials magnetic coercivity and saturation magnetization should be
(A) low & low
101.
(B)
(C)
(D) H H H CH3
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
feldspar
(D) Al2O3
107.
108.
(C)
silica
109.
110.
If c is the velocity of light in vacuum, and v is the velocity of light in a material, the
index of refraction of the material, n, is given by
(A) n = c/v
(B) n = v/c
(C) n = (v/c)2
(D) n = (c/v) 2
Set - A
14
NT
111.
A very weak form of magnetism that is nonpermanent and persists only when an external
field is applied and manifests itself in a direction opposite to that of the applied field is
called
(A) Diamagnetism
(B) Paramagnetism
(C) Ferromagnetism
(D) Ferrimagnetism
112.
(B) Proportional to b2
(D) Independent of b
113.
The property of a material varies with the orientation or the direction in case of a/an
_________ material
(A) Isotropic
(B) Anisotropic (C) Plastic
(D) Elastic
114.
Schottky Defect is
(A) anion and cation vacancy
(C) inclusion
(B) interstitial
(D) substitutional defect
115.
116.
Insulators have
(A) high dielectric constants
(C) high electrical conductivity
117.
118.
(B) AFM
(D) UTM
(B) CVD
(D) Electrodeposition
119.
120.
Set - A
15
NT
Set - A
16
NT
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
B
C
D
D
C
B
D
C
C
C
C
A
C
B
C
C
C
B
A
C
A
C
C
D
D
B
A
D
C
A
A
B
B
A
D
A
D
B
C
B