MCQ Series

Model Paper I

Basic Sciences
Time: 80 mins

PGM

Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 50

Basic Medical Science

Read the instructions at the begining carefully. Please note: There may be more than
one correct answers. This is a practice test series in Basic Science domain which
includes subspecialities from Basic Medical Sciences: Anatomy, Physiology,
Pharmacology, Biochemistry, Pathology, Microbiology. Answer sheet provided

Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.

1. Which of the following is not an inhibitor of steroid hormone synthesis?

A Danazol

C Metyrapone

B ketoconazole

D anastrozole

2. The major source of carbohydrates in the diet

A glucose

C glycogen

B starch

D maltose

3. Not true about thyroxine (T4)

A thyroxine is lipophilic

C normal plasma T4 level 8 g/dL

B about 93% secreted is as T4

D about four times as potent as T3

4. Mycelium and plasmodium are

A opposite

C septate hyphae

B analogous

D coenocytic

5. Atypical pneumoniae is best diagnosed by

A Sputum samples

C Direct microscopy

B Serologic tests

D Bacterial culture

6. Organisms that causes endemic fungal infections include all of the following
except:
A Histoplasma capsulatum

C Coccidioides immitis

B Blastomyces dermatitidis

D Candida albicans

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

7. Regarding the histologic pattern of pheochromocytoma

A chief cells

C origin from chromaffin cells

B clustered with sustenticular cells

D all of the above

8. One which is not a cofactor in the pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) complex

A Vitamin B6

C Vitamin B1

B Vitamin B3

D Vitamin B2

9. A vitamin needed for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine

A Vitamin B12

C Biotin

B Niacin

D Vitamin B6

10. The basic structural unit of gaseous exchange in the lungs

A conducting bronchioles

C respiratory bronchioles

B pulmonary alveolus

D alveolar sacs

11. The clinical course of patients having lowest survival (1-2 years) and worst
prognosis is associated with
A pineoblastoma

C medullary thyroid carcinoma

B pineocytoma

D Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma

12. Before birth, the valve of the shunt between the right atrium and the left atrium is
known as:
A septum secundum

C septum primum

B septum pellucidum

D fossa ovalis

13. Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs causes a disulfiram-like reaction when
taken with alcohol?
A Chlorpropamide

C Tolbutamide

B Metformin

D Rosiglitazone

14. Most common cause of transitional cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis:
A alcohol consumption

C tobacco smoking

B renal calculi

D cyclophosphamide

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

15. Statement that is incorrect about Parathyroid (PTH) hormone

A modulates Calcium excretion

C PTH required to convert Vitamin

D3 into its active form

B controls plasma PO4concentration

D PTH secretion is suppressed in

hypocalcemia

16. In dexamethasone suppression test, high dose dexamethasone is effective in

ACTH suppression in which of the following conditions?
A ACTH-secreting tumors

C adrenal cortical tumors

B Cushing's disease

D normal persons

17. Which of the following drugs is a K+ channel blocker?

A Glibenclamide

C Nicorandil

B Cromakalim

D Diazoxide

18. Example of Type II hypersensitivity reaction

A Serum sickness

C Multiple sclerosis

B Goodpasture syndrome

D Systemic lupus erythematosus

19. Thyroid gland is located at the level of

A C4-T1 vertebrae

C C6-T1 vertebrae

B C3-T1 vertebrae

D C5-T1 vertebrae

20. Regarding Thoracic duct, which of the following statements is/are correct?
A ascends on the left side of the
descending aorta

C begins as cysterna chyli

D ascends on the right side of the
ascending aorta

B pierces diaphragm through the

esophageal hiatus
21. Site of origin of squamous cell carcinoma
A rectum

C upper esophagus

B pancreas

D bladder

22. Pantothenic acid is an enzyme co-factor of

A FAD

C NAD

B Coenzyme A

D Coenzyme Q

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Model Paper I

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23. Which of the following stimulates calcium reabsorption from the kidneys?
A Calcitonin

C Calmodulin

B 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol

D Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

24. A drug that induces histamine release causing 'red man' syndrome on account of
rapid I.V. injection?
A Nedocromil

C Triprolidine

B Acrivastine

D Vancomycin

25. Regarding the process of desensitization, which of the following mechanisms

is/are incorrect?
A increased production of
suppressor T cells depresses Ig
E synthesis

C stimulates production of more Ig

G antibodies
D Ig G neutralizes allergens before
they bind to mast cell-bound Ig E
antibodies

B Ig G antibodies neutralizes Ig E
antibodies on the mast cells
26. Not true about Gram Stain
A red reaction indicates Gram
negative organisms

C permits identification of species

D purple-blue reaction indicates
Gram positive organisms

B useful in the diagnosis of

Kala-azar

27. In ineffective erythropoiesis, all of the following are observed except:

A increased serum haptoglobin

C increased serum LDH

B mild reticulocytosis

D decreased serum haptoglobin

28. Extramedullary hematopoiesis occurs in all of the following organs except:

A Liver

C Kidneys

B lymph nodes

D Spleen

29. Causative agent of carcinoid syndrome includes

A 5-HT

C bradykinin

B histamine

D serotonin

30. Thyroid binding globulin (TBG) levels are depressed in all of the following
conditions except:
A pregnancy

C estrogen therapy

B danazol

D glucocorticoid therapy

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

31. The medium of choice for diagnosis of plasmodium species

A Gram stain

C Giemsa stain

B Wright stain

D Hematoxylin and eosin stain

32. Which of the following is a malignant tumor involving bones?

A osteochondroma

C chondroblastoma

B chordoma

D osteoid osteoma

33. Match the following:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Hyphae
Septa
Coenocyte
Mycelium

A.
B.
C.
D.

hyphae divided by cross-walls

multinucleated hyphae
branching cyclindrical tubules
mass of branching tubules

34. Colon polyps that have no malignant potential

A Familial adenomatous polyposis

C Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

B Juvenile polyps

D Juvenile polyposis syndrome

35. Following is produced asexually:

A ascospore

C sporangiospores

B zygospore

D conidia

36. Enzyme that requires Magnesium for its activity

A DNA polymerase

C Arginase

B Nitrate reductase

D Carbonic anhydrase

37. Plasma T of Rifampin is

A 6-10 hrs

C 1-3 hrs

B 2-5 hrs

D 4 hrs

38. Regarding Cushing Syndrome, what is not true?

A hypokalemia

C hypertension

B hyperkalemia

D increased bone resorption

39. Pheochromocytoma is categorized under which type of Multiple endocrine

neoplasia (MEN)?
A MEN-2B

C MEN-2A

B MEN-1

D none of the above

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

40. What differentiates a benign from a malignant tumor?

A malignant tumors have
polyclonal origin

C altered nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio

in malignant tumors

B benign tumors have atypical

mitotic spindles

D benign tumors are low grade

41. Pick the incorrect statement regarding citrate synthase:

A hydrolyze citroyl CoA

C catalyzes an aldol condensation

reaction

B hydrolyze citryl CoA

D hydrolyze acetyl CoA

42. Cirrhosis of liver may occur due to all of the following conditions except
A Primary hemochromatosis

C Wilson disease

B Paracetamol toxicity

D Chronic alcohol consumption

43. A preservative added for glucose in blood

A EDTA

C Potassium oxalate

B Sodium fluoride

D Sodium citrate

44. The origin of superior thyroid arteries is from the

A subclavian arteries

C internal carotid arteries

B thyrocervical trunk

D external carotid arteries

45. Not true about the hormone ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

A maintains the growth of zona
glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

C stimulates and regulates

glucocorticoid secretion

B activates enzyme protein kinase

A

D controls aldosterone secretion

46. Biological half-life of Thiamin:

A 9-10 days

C 101 days

B 33 days

D 10-20 days

47. Septum transversum forms by the fusion of which of the following cervical
segments?
A 5rd, 6th and 7th

C 3rd, 4th and 5th

B 4th, 5th and 6th

D 2nd, 3rd and 4th

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

48. Muscle which is not enclosed within prevertebral fascia

A splenius capitis

C scalenus medius

B sternocleidomastoid

D trapezius

49. Length of the prostatic part of the male urethra is

A 4 cm

C 2 cm

B 3 cm

D none of the above

50. One which is not a component of the Bronchopulmonary segment:

A alveolar sac

C pulmonary vein

B pulmonary artery

D terminal bronchiole

51. Pituitary gland is derived from which germ cell layer?

A Entoderm

C Mesoderm

B trophoblast

D Ectoderm

52. Half-life of Vitamin A

A About 30 days

C About 4-5 months

B About 60 days

D About 1 year

53. The arterial supply of the Tonsils

A maxillary artery

C lingual artery

B facial artery

D ascending pharyngeal artery

54. Drugs unsafe in the first trimester of pregnancy:

A Promethazine

C Diloxanide furoate

B Ranitidine

D Mebendazole

55. Half-life of Vitamin B6

A 33 days

C 23 days

B 9-18 days

D 17 hours

56. Regarding laboratory findings of testicular seminomas

A elevated alkaline phosphatase

C low lactate dehydrogenase

B elevated alpha-fetoprotein

D raised hCG

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

57. Most aggressive thyroid carcinoma

A Follicular thyroid carcinoma

C Medullary thyroid carcinoma

B Papillary thyroid carcinoma

D Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma

58. An enzyme activated by calcium and inhibited by succinyl CoA

A succinate dehydrogenase

C pyruvate dehydrogenase

B succinyl CoA synthetase

D -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

59. Which of the following micro-organisms lack cell wall?

A Treponema pallidum

C Bacillus anthracis

B Mycoplasma pneumoniae

D Ureaplasma urealyticum

60. Sheehan syndrome involves

A pineal gland

C adrenal gland

B pituitary gland

D thyroid gland

61. A dimorphic fungus

A Blastomyces dermatiditis

C Epidermophyton floccosum

B Sporothrix schenckii

D Madurella mycetomatis

62. The most potent stimulus of Calcitonin secretion:

A dopamine

C gastrin

B phosphate

D glucagon

63. Commonly used urine preservatives include

A EDTA

C acetic acid

B lithium oxalate

D sodium iodoacetate

64. Tinea nigra palmaris is caused by

A Hortaea werneckii

C Tinea capitis

B Tinea unguium

D Piedraia hortai

65. One which decreases serum phosphate levels

A 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol

C Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

B Calcitonin

D none of the above

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

66. Total body store of Vitamin B12 in an adult man:

A 1 mg

C 2-5 mg

B 0.5-2 g

D 2-5 g

67. Which of the following nerves helps to form the pulmonary plexus?
A right vagus nerve

C left phrenic nerve

B greater splanchnic nerve

D right phrenic nerve

68. Traditional mycological medium for growth and isolation of fungi

A Blood agar

C Regan-Lowe agar

B Chocolate agar

D Sabouraud's agar

69. Statement that is not true about Mallory hyaline bodies

A found in Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B found in Indian childhood
cirrhosis

C cytoplasmic basophilic hyaline

inclusions
D characteristic of acute alcoholic
hepatitis

70. Most common biochemical cause of Congenital lactic acidosis is due to the
deficiency of enzyme
A lactate dehydrogenase

C pyruvate dehydrogenase

B isocitrate dehydrogenase

D -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

71. Which of the following Vitamins has a cobalt atom attached to its core?
A Vitamin B1

C Vitamin B3

B Vitamin B6

D Vitamin B12

72. Which of the following does not cross the placenta?

A progesterone

C thyroxine

B maternal free insulin

D ketone bodies

73. An enzyme that does not follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics

A phosphofructokinase

C acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

B pyruvate carboxylase

D chymotrypsin

74. Which of the following foodstuff do not contain any Vitamin B6 at all?
A Spinach

C Orange

B Banana

D Carrot

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

75. Regarding mycoplasma, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

A lacks cell wall

C produces exotoxin

B contains sterols

D pleomorphic cocci

76. Incorrect regarding Myxoedema:

A low BMR -30 to -50%

C elevated plasma cholesterol level

B dwarfed and mentally retarded

D swollen edematous face

77. Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs may interfere with probenecid?
A Ethionamide

C Rifampin

B Isoniazid

D Pyrazinamide

78. The clinical triad of Reiter's disease does not involve

A urethritis

C arthritis

B Conjunctivitis

D hepatitis

79. Which one of the following is not an isoprenoid derivative?

A Dicoumarol

C Ubiquinone

B Warfarin

D Vitamin K1

80. A flavoenzyme with molybdenum and iron-sulfur centers in its prosthetic group:
A reductase

C aconitase

B nitrogenase

D xanthine oxidase

81. Statement which is true about secondary biliary cirrhosis:

A complication of extrahepatic
cholelithiasis

C elevated serum Ig M
autoantibodies

B is a complication following
primary biliary cirrhosis

D associated with inflammatory

bowel disease

82. Prophylactic thyroidectomy is indicated in individuals carrying germ-line RET

mutations to prevent
A medullary thyroid carcinoma

C follicular thyroid carcinoma

B papillary thyroid carcinoma

D anaplastic thyroid carcinoma

83. Citrate inhibits which of the following enzyme?

A isocitrate dehydrogenase

C acetyl CoA carboxylase

B phosphofructokinase

D aconitase

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

84. Of the following antacids, which one produces diarrhea as adverse effect?
A calcium carbonate

C Sodium bicarbonate

B Aluminium hydroxide

D Magnesium dihydroxide

85. The most inactive form of Vitamin D is

A 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

C 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

B 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

D none of the above

86. Following a sprint, lactate is converted back to glucose in the

A skeletal muscles

C liver

B kidneys

D erythrocytes

87. Mechanism of action of Dapsone (DDS)

A interfere with intermediary
metabolism

C cause leakage from cell

membrane

B inhibit cell wall synthesis

D interfere with DNA synthesis

88. Characteristic of delayed hypersensitivity

A involves the complement system
B mediated by CD4+ T cells

C also known as
antibody-mediated Type II
hypersensitivity
D mediated by CD8+ T cells

89. How many ATP molecules are produced from the oxidation of one molecule of
acetyl CoA?
A 32 ATPs

C 15 ATPs

B 12 ATPs

D 2 ATPs

90. Carcinoembyonic antigen (CEA) is most specific for

A medullary carcinoma

C colorectal cancer

B germ cell tumour

D prostate cancer

91. The Cervical plexus of Supraclavicular nerve is formed by

A C3 and C4 cervical nerves

C C3 and C5 cervical nerves

B C5 and C6 cervical nerves

D C2 and C3 cervical nerves

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

92. Incorrect about Purkinje cells of the cerebral cortex

A an excitatory neuron

C an inhibitory neuron

B output neuron

D fires at about 50-100 action

potentials per sec

93. The Km for the enzyme-substrate [ES] complex hexokinase-ATP

A 0.05 mM

C 1.5 mM

B 2.5 mM

D 0.4 mM

94. All of the following are contents of the Carotid sheath except:
A recurrent laryngeal nerve

C internal jugular vein

B vagus nerve

D common carotid arteries

95. Regarding the Axillary artery, which of the following statements is false?
A ends at teres major muscle

C originates at the lateral border of

the 1st rib

B continuation of the subclavian

D ends at pectoralis major muscle

96. In type I hypersensitivity, which immunoglobulin is involved?

A Ig M

C Ig E

B Ig A

D Ig G

97. Regarding Michaelis-Menten hypothesis, which of the following statements is/are

incorrect about enzyme?
A enzyme-substrate complex is a
necessary step in enzyme
catalysis

C can be competitively inhibited

D rate of catalysis is proportional to
the substrate[S]

B shows hyperbolic response to

decreasing substrate
concentration

98. Differentiating factors that distinguish mycobacteria from mycoplasma:

A both not seen with Gram stain

C mycoplasma are facultative

anaerobes whereas
mycobacteria are obligate
aerobes

B both lack cell wall

D mycoplasma are obligate

anaerobes whereas
mycobacteria are facultative
anaerobes

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

99. Which of the following not correct about hyperthyroidism due to thyrotoxicosis?
A elevated plasma TSH levels

C presence of high TSI antibodies

B intolerance to heat

D weight loss and increased BMR

100. All of the following enzymes catalyze irreversible reactions under normal cellular
condition except:
A pyruvate decarboxylase

C pyruvate dehydrogenase

B hexokinase

D phosphofructokinase-1

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Model Paper I

PGM

Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every
question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible
for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unattempted/
unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download designed for the
benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi
2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor
3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,
Mant & Ferro
4. Harper's Biochemistry: Murray K. Robert et al., 27th edition McGraw Hill
5. Moore Clinically Oriented Anatomy; 7th ed. Lippincott & Williams
6. Snell's Clinical Anatomy by regions: 9th Ed. Lippincott & Willaims
7. Microbiology: Prescott M. Lansing, 5th Ed. McGraw-Hill
8. Leninger Principles of Biochemistry, 4th ed.
9. Biochemistry: Stryer, 5th ed., Freeman & Company
10.Textbook of Medical Physiology: Guyton A. C., Elsevier Saunders
11. Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology: Kim Barrett et al.,23rd edition Lange
McGraw Hill
12. Robbins and Cotran PATHOLOGIC BASIS OF DISEASE, 7th Edition

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