Civil Engineering Exam Paper

Time: 3 Hour

Marks 100

Question 1

Marks 20

1.

2.

3.

4.

In a mortar, the binding material is

A.

Cement

B.

Sand

C.

Surkhi

D.

cinder.

Lacquer paints
A.

are generally applied on structural steel

B.

are more durable as compared to enamel paints

C.

consist of resin and nitro-cellulose

D.

contain alcohol as thinner

E.

all the above.

Wrought iron contains carbon upto

A.

0.25%

B.

1.0%

C.

1.5%

D.

2%.

Pick up the polymineralic rock from the following:

A.

Quartz sand

B.

Pure gypsum

C.

Magnesite

5.

6.

7.

8.

D.

Granite

E.

None of these.

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A.

For thin structures subjected to wetting and drying, the water cement ratio should be
0.45

B.

For mass concrete structures subjected to wetting and drying, the water ratio should be
0.55

C.

For thin structures which remain continuously under water, the water-cement ratio by
weight should be 0.55

D.

For massive concrete structures which remain continuously under water, the water
cement ratio by weight should be 0.65

E.

All the above.

Ultimate strength to cement is provided by

A.

Tricalcium silicate

B.

Di-calcium silicate

C.

Tri-calcium aluminate

D.

Tetra calcium alumino ferrite.

Elastomers can extend upto

A.

five times their original dimensions

B.

seven times their original dimensions

C.

ten times their original dimensions

D.

three times their original dimensions.

Bitumen felt

9.

A.

is used as water proofing material

B.

is used as damp proofing material

C.

is made from bitumen and hessian fibres

D.

all the above.

In the method of condensation polymerization,

A.

low-molecular substances are removed from the high molecular substance

B.

the reaction proceeds with an evolution of ammonia

C.

the reaction proceeds with an evolution of hydrogen chloride

D.

all the above.

10. In the cement the compound quickest to react with water, is

A.

Tricalcium aluminate

B.

Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite

C.

Tricalcium silicate

D.

Dicalcium silicate.

11. The initial setting time of lime-pozzolona, is

A.

30 minutes

B.

60 minutes

C.

90 minutes

D.

120 minutes.

12. The clay to be used for manufacturing bricks for a large project, is dugout and allowed to weather
throughout
A.

the monsoon

B.

the winter

C.

the summer

D.

none of these.

13. The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a considerable depth from earth's surface
are called
A.

Plutonic rocks

B.

Hypabyssal rocks

C.

Volcanic rocks

D.

Igneous rocks.

14. Quartzite is a
A.

metamorphic rock

B.

argillaceous rock

C.

calcareous rock

D.

silicious rock.

15. The variety of pig iron used for manufacture of wrought iron, is
A.

Bessemer pig

B.

Grey or foundry pig

C.

White forge pig

D.

Mottled pig.

16. Sand stone is

A.

sedimentary rock

B.

metamorphic rock

C.

igneous rock

D.

volcanic rock.

17. If the furnace is provided with insufficient fuel at low temperatures, the type of pig iron produced,
is called
A.

Bessemer pig

B.

Grey or foundry pig

C.

White or forge pig

D.

Mottled pig.

18. Stainless steel contains

A.

18% of chromuim and 8% nickel

B.

8% of chromium and 18% of nickel

C.

12% of chromium and 36% of nickel

D.

36% of chromium and 12% of nickel.

19. Pick up the hypabyssal rock from the following:

A.

Granite

B.

Dolerite

C.

Basalt

D.

All the above.

20. Depending on the chemical composition and mechanical properties, iron may be classified as
A.

cast iron

B.

wrought iron

C.

Steel

D.

all the above.

Que-2

1.

2.

3.

Marks-20

In case of Raymond pile

A.

lengths vary from 6 m to 12 m

B.

diameter of top of piles varies from 40 cm to 60 cm

C.

diameter of pile at bottom varies from 20 cm to 28 cm

D.

thickness of outer shell depends upon pile diameter

E.

all the above.

Queen closer may be placed

A.

in header course

B.

in stretcher course

C.

in header course next to first brick

D.

in stretcher course next to first brick

E.

in any position.

Dado is usually provided in

A.

dinning halls

B.

bath rooms

4.

5.

6.

7.

C.

living rooms

D.

Verandah

E.

roofs.

The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as
A.

strip footing

B.

strap footing

C.

combined footing

D.

raft footing

E.

none of these.

The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase

A.

Strength

B.

Workability

C.

stability of structure

D.

all the above.

Stud(s) of a common wooden partition

A.

are vertical wooden members

B.

is the upper horizontal wooden member

C.

is the lower horizontal wooden member

D.

are the intermediate horizontal wooden members.

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A.

inclined borings are made for taking samples under existing structures

8.

9.

B.

inclined borings are occasionally used instead of vertical holes.

C.

the spacing of inclined borings is kept such that one bore hole is vertically above the
bottom of an adjacent bore hole.

D.

all the above.

Pick up the commonly adopted geophysical method in civil engineering from the following :
A.

the seisomic method

B.

electrical resistivity method

C.

gravitational method

D.

magnetic method

E.

both (a) and (b) of the above.

To ensure that supporting area of an offset footing of a boundary wall is fully compressive, the
C.G. of load must act
A.

at the centre of the base

B.

within the middle third of the base

C.

within the middle fifth of the base

D.

neither (a), (b) nor (c).

10. The 9 cm x 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
A.

stretcher

B.

Face

C.

front

D.

Header

E.

side.

11. The taper of precast concrete pile should not be more than
A.

1 cm per metre length

B.

2 cm per metre length

C.

4 cm per metre length

D.

5 cm per metre length.

12. The under surface of an arch, is called

A.

soffit

B.

Intrados

C.

haunch

D.

back.

13. The raft slab is projected beyond the outer walls of the structure by
A.

5 to 10 cm

B.

15 to 20 cm

C.

25 to 30 cm

D.

30 to 45 cm

E.

60 cm.

14. The process of making the back ground rough, before plastering, is
A.

dubbing

B.

Hacking

C.

blistering

D.

peeling.

15. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because its

A.

bearing capacity is low

B.

permeability is uncertain

C.

particles are cohesive

D.

property to undergo a volumetric change due to variation of moisture content.

16. The loose pockets in soil mass can be bridged safely by providing a raft foundation provided the
soft area is smaller than
A.

the column spacing

B.

one-third the column spacing

C.

half the column spacing

D.

three-fourth the column spacing

E.

none of these.

17. The portion of a brick cut across the width, is called

A.

Closer

B.

half brick

C.

Bed

D.

bat.

18. The concrete slump recommended for beams and slabs ; is

A.

25 to 50 mm

B.

25 to 75 mm

C.

30 to 125 mm

D.

50 to 100 mm

E.

none of these.

19. The member which is placed horizontally to support common rafter of a sloping roof, is
A.

purlin

B.

Cleat

C.

batten

D.

strut.

20. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A.

Louvered door is generally provided in bath rooms

B.

Flush door is generally provided in dinning room

C.

Revolving door is generally provided in cinema halls

D.

Sliding door is generally provided in show rooms

E.

All the above.

Que: 3

1.

2.

3.

4.

Marks:20

A district road with a bituminous pavement has a horizontal curve of 1000 m for a design speed of
75 km ph. The super-elevation is
A.

1 in 40

B.

1 in 50

C.

1 in 60

D.

1 in 70

E.

none of these.

The minimum value of camber provided for thin bituminous surface hill roads, is
A.

2.2%

B.

2.5%

C.

3.0%

D.

3.5%

Design of horizontal and vertical alignments, super-elevation, sight distance and grades, is worst
affected by
A.

width of the vehicle

B.

length of the vehicle

C.

height of the vehicle

D.

speed of the vehicle

Thickness of a pavement may be reduced considerably by

5.

6.

7.

A.

compaction of soil

B.

stabilisation of soil

C.

drainage of soil

D.

combination of all the above.

The total length of a valley formed by two gradients - 3% and + 2% curve between the two
tangent points to provide a rate of change of centrifugal acceleration 0.6 m/sec2, for a design
speed 100 km ph, is
A.

16.0 m

B.

42.3 m

C.

84.6 m

D.

none of these.

Traffic engineering only includes

A.

planning of regulatory measures

B.

design and application of control devices

C.

analysis of traffic characteristics

D.

traffic operation

E.

all the above.

For the movement of vehicles at an intersection of two roads, without any interference, the type
of grade separator generally preferred to, is
A.

Delta

B.

Trumpet

C.

diamond interchange

D.

clover leaf.

8.

9.

If the ruling gradient on any highway is 3%, the gradient provided on the curve of 300 metre
radius, is
A.

2.00%

B.

2.25%

C.

2.50%

D.

2.75%

E.

3.00%

As per recommendations of I.R.C., traffic volume study is carried out for rural roads for 7 days
continuously during
A.

Harvesting

B.

lean season

C.

harvesting and lean season

D.

none of these.

10. The minimum ratio of the radii of two circular curves of a compound curve, is kept
A.

1.25

B.

1.5

C.

1.75

D.

2.0

11. Border Roads Organisation for hilly regions, was formed in

A.

1947

B.

1954

C.

1958

D.

1960

E.

1962

12. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The super-elevation on roads is
A.

directly proportional to width of pavement

B.

directly proportional to velocity of vehicles

C.

inversely proportional to acceleration due to gravity

D.

inversely proportional to the radius of curvature.

13. The weaving length of a roadway is the distance

A.

between the channelising islands

B.

equal to half circumference

C.

equal to total width of adjoining radial roads

D.

equal to diameter of rotary.

14. Road makers along roads from the edge of a kerb should not be less than
A.

40 cm

B.

45 cm

C.

50 cm

D.

55 cm

E.

60 cm

15. Traffic surveys are carried out

A.

to know the type of traffic

B.

to determine the facilities to traffic regulations

C.

to design proper drainage system

D.

all the above.

16. The formula for calculating the depth of concrete pavements suggested by Goldbeck, is

A.

B.

C.

D.

17. If A is the projected area of a vehicle in square metres, V is speed of the vehicles in kilometres per
hour and C is a constant, then the wind resistance R to the moving vehicles, is given by
A.

R = CAV

B.

R = CAV2

C.

R = CAV3

D.

E.

R = C2AV

18. The usual width of parapet walls along Highways in hilly region, is
A.

50 cm

B.

60 cm

C.

70 cm

D.

80 cm

E.

100 cm

19. The road foundation for modern highways construction, was developed by
A.

Tresguet

B.

Telford

C.

Macadam

D.

Tresguet and Telford simultaneously

E.

Telford and Macadam simultaneously.

20. If N is deviation angle the length L of a parabolic vetical curve for overtaking sight distance S, is

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

both (a) and (c)

Que: 4

1.

2.

Marks:20

The area of the concrete in compression plus the area of reinforcement transferred on the basis of
modular ratio, is called
A.

transferred section

B.

equivalent section

C.

cracked section

D.

none of these.

If D is the overall thickness of the slab, the diameter of the reinforcing bars should not exceed

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

3.

4.

5.

The gap between web plates and flange plates fro fillet welds should not be more than
A.

0.5 mm

B.

0.75 mm

C.

1.0 mm

D.

1.25 mm

E.

1.5 mm

A continuous beam shall be deemed to be a deep beam if the ratio of its effective span to overall
depth, is
A.

2.0

B.

2.5

C.

less than 2

D.

less than 2.5

The depth 'd' of webs without horizontal stiffeners and consisting of tongue plates is taken lesser
than the depth of the girder between the flanges less the sum of the depth of the tongue plates,
and
A.

eight times the sum of the thickness of tongue plates

B.

six times the sum of the thickness of tongue plates

C.

four times the sum of the thickness of tongue plates

D.
6.

7.

None of the above.

For design of a column the eccentricity of loading shall be taken as the distance from the assumed
point of application of the load to the centroid of the column, subject to a minimum of
A.

10 mm

B.

20 mm

C.

30 mm

D.

40 mm

E.

50 mm

If l is the effective span in metres and D is overall depth of the section in mm, the structure may
be accepted after 24 hour load test, provided the maximum deflection in mm is less than

A.

B.

C.

D.

8.

The approximate value of torsion constant k for a box of depth d, width b, and having uniform
thickness t, is
A.

B.

C.

D.

9.

In the formula a + bk for the calculation of the net effective section of single angles in tension
connected by one leg only, the value of k, is
A.

B.

C.

D.

10. The concrete is deemed not to comply with the strength requirements if the strength is less than
the greater of
A.

characteristic strength minus 1.35 times the standard deviation

B.

0.8 times the characteristic strength

the average strength of all the samples is less than the characteristic strength

C.
plus
D.

times the standard deviation.

all the above.

11. The maximum area of compression reinforcement in a beam of cross section B x D is limited to
A.

0.02 BD

B.

0.03 BD

C.

0.04 BD

D.

0.05 BD

12. Moist curing of the exposed surfaces of concrete is done at least for
A.

3 days

B.

5 days

C.

7 days

D.

14 days

13. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A.

The gross section of the web of rolled I-beams is the depth of the beam multiplied by
the web thickness

B.

The gross section of the web of channels is the depth of the web multiplied by its
thickness

C.

The gross section of the web of plate girders is the depth of the web plate multiplied by
its thinkness

D.

None of these.

14. If the ratio of effective span to overall depth of a simply supported beam is equal or greater than
1 but less than or equal to 2, the lever arm, is
A.

0.2 (l + 2D)

B.

0.3 (l + 3D)

C.

0.2 (l + 3D)

D.

0.3 (l + 2D)

15. If the slenderness ratio of a column is more than 160, the compressive stress obtained by the

secant formula is multiplied by a factor

in which value of x is

A.

0.9

B.

1.1

C.

1.2

D.

1.5

E.

None of these.

16. For battened struts, the effective length is increased by

A.

5%

B.

7.5%

C.

10%

D.

12.5%

E.

15%

17. The maximum horizontal deflection of a column of actual length L, when subjected to lateral
forces, may be upto
A.

B.

C.

D.

18. The test strength of the sample is taken as the average of the strength of
A.

2 specimens

B.

3 specimens

C.

4 specimens

D.

5 specimens

19. The maximum deflection of a structure should not normally exceed lesser of the span/350 or
A.

10 mm

B.

15 mm

C.

20 mm

D.

25 mm

20. Pick up the correct statement regarding columns.

A.

The cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement, should not be less than 0.8% nor
more than 4% of its gross sectional area

B.

The minimum of longitudinal bars provided in rectangular and circular columns are 4
and 6 respectively

C.

In helically reinforced column, the minimum number of longitudinal reinforcement

should be six

D.

If the effective length of a column is less than three times its lateral dimension, it is
generally called a pedestal

E.

All the above.

Que:5
1.

2.

Marks:20

Which one of the following represents an activity

A.

excavation for foundation

B.

curing of concrete

C.

setting of question paper

D.

preparation of breakfast

E.

all the above.

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

3.

4.

5.

6.

A.

An activity of a project is denoted by an arrow on the net work

B.

The tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity

C.

The head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity

D.

The arrows are drawn to scale from left to right

E.

Each activity consumes a given time.

The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is
known
A.

Event flow scheduling technique

B.

Critical ratio scheduling

C.

Slotting technique for scheduling

D.

Short interval scheduling.

Mile Stone charts were invented in the year of

A.

1910

B.

1920

C.

1930

D.

1940

E.

1950

Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as

A.

line organization

B.

line and staff organization

C.

functional organization

D.

effective organisation.

If to, tp and tm are the optimistic, pessimistic and most likely time estimates of an activity
respectively, the expected time t of the activity will be

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

7.

8.

In the given figure, the network of a project represents

A.

activity of an excavation of a footing

B.

activity of an excavation which starts at event No. 1 and ends at even No. 2

C.

activity of excavation which takes 8 units of time

D.

none of these.

The cost of a project is more than

A.

one lac

B.

two lacs

9.

C.

three lacs

D.

four lacs

E.

five lacs.

Pick up the PERT event from the following:

A.

Digging of foundation started

B.

Digging of foundation completed

C.

Laying of concrete started

D.

Laying of concrete completed

E.

All the above.

10. If D is the duration, ES and EF are the earliest start and finish, LS and LF are latest start and
latest finish time, then the following relation holds good
A.

EF = ES + D

B.

LS = LF D

C.

LF = LS + D

D.

D = EF ES

E.

all the above.

11. Final technical authority of a project lies with

A.

Assistant Engineer

B.

Executive Engineer

C.

Superintending Engineer

D.

Chief Engineer.

12. The performance of a specific task in CPM, is known

A.

Dummy

B.

Event

C.

Activity

D.

Contract.

13. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A.

The float may be positive, zero or negative

B.

If the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the
completion of project is not delayed

C.

If the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to delay the
completion of project

D.

If the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its performance
will delay the whole project

E.

All the above.

14. A Milestone chart

A.

shows the interdependencies of various jobs

B.

depicts the delay of jobs, if any

C.

points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any

D.

none of these.

15. Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known

A.

Event

B.

Node

C.

Connector

D.

All the above.

16. A dummy activity

A.

is artificially introduced

B.

is represented by a dotted line

C.

does not consume time

D.

all the above.

17. Military organisation is known as

A.

line organization

B.

line and staff organization

C.

functional organization

D.

none of these.

18. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A.

The activity is the time consuming part of a project

B.

The beginning and end of a job, are called events

C.

The activity which consumes maximum time, is called a node

D.

Logically and sequentially connected activities and events form a network

E.

None of these.

19. Various activities of a project, are shown on bar charts by

A.

vertical lines

B.

horizontal lines

C.

Dots

D.

crosses.

20. Time and progress chart of a construction, is also known as

A.

Bar chart

B.

Gantt chart

C.

Modified Mile stone chart

D.

Critical path method chart

E.

All the above.