Professional Documents
Culture Documents
B737 Question Bank
B737 Question Bank
During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only one pack is
selected ON for air conditioning. What is the consequence?
! Since the trim air is off both packs will average the temperature that satisfies the zone
which requires the most cooling
! During single pack operation the zone temperature is controlled the same as during two
pack operation.
! With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to
satisfy the average temperature demands of all three zones.
! If a passenger cabin zone trim air, or all trim air is lost, the forward and aft zone
temperature demands will be averaged for control of the left pack.
When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What
is correct?
! This indicates a failure of both the primary and standby temperature control systems.
! Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the
backup system has occurred.
! This indicates one PACK has overheated and has to be reset by pushing the trip reset
button.
! This indicates that both temperature controllers will regulate the temperature to a preset
value.
When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system?
! The system will be recalculating the pressurization for the departure airport
! The pressurization will increase its ventilation and possibly pressurization will be lost
! Nothing will happen and you will still get the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning.
From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs.
! Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve.
! OVHT /DET
! AIR COND
! OVERHEAD
! As the light is in the proximity of the pilots perception there is no master caution for this
condition.
One PACK light illuminates on recall only. What is the situation?
! There is FOD in the RAM AIR intake forcing the pack to shut down.
! The primary pack control has failed and the pack is now controlled by the standby pack
control
! Both temperature control valves have shut closed in the affected pack.
The Recirculation Fan:
! Is driven by a DC motor.
! The pressurization standby controller has failed and will automatically shift to STANDBY.
! The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the altitude
window.
! The pressurisation controller has failed and will automatically shift to manual.
! Both packs.
! Ground air
During descent when the descent mode is activated:
! 7.90 psi
! 8.45 psi
! 8.65 psi
! 9.10 psi
What are the causes of an Amber AUTO FAIL light?
! Loss of DC power;
! Excessive rate of cabin press change or cabin altitude above 15800 ft;
! A differential pressure of 7.45 psi maintained by the negative pressure relief valve;
! A differential pressure of 9.1 psi maintained by the positive pressure relief valve;
! When the aircraft goes into the ground mode of the air/ground sensor.
AUTO mode active. The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when:
When both the AUTO FAIL light and the ALTN light illuminate:
! The ADIRUs.
Loss of airflow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan results in illumination of the related
equipment cooling OFF light. Selecting the alternate fan should restore airflow and extinguish the
OFF light within approximately _____.
! 5 seconds
! 30 seconds
! 1 minute
! 3 minutes
Where is the forward outflow valve located?
! Closes automatically to assist in maintaining cabin pressure when the main outflow valve is
almost closed or the recirculation fan is operating.
! Opens while on the ground and in flight with less than 2.5 psig cabin differential pressure.
! The FWD cargo hold is the preferred hold, because the door is larger than the aft cargo
door making loading easier
If a flight is aborted, and a return to the field of departure is made, the crew:
! Should do nothing to the pressurization panel, as the system will automatically return to the
field of departure.
What is the flight level limitation for DISPATCH with one pack INOP?
! FL410.
! FL250.
! FL180.
! FL100.
Takeoff is allowed with Pack switches in HIGH, but landing is not permitted:
! True.
! False.
The Altitude Warning Horn is:
! Cancel the Altitude Warning Horn and call for the appropriate QRH checklist.
An amber AUTOFAIL indication will illuminate if one or more of the followingconditions occur:
! Loss of AC power for more than 15 seconds; Main Outflow valve DC motor fails or if the
cabin altitude exceeds 13,875 ft.
! Cabin Altitude exceeds 13,875 ft; pressurisation differential exceeds 8.65psi or with the
loss of AC power.
! An Altitude Warning Horn at 14,000 ft. The overhead panel will illuminate \'AUTOFAIL\'
and \'ALTN\' amber indications on the pressurisation panel. These indications may be reset
by selecting manual mode on the pressurisation selector.
! An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the Passenger Oxygen mask will
deploy. To activate Oxygen flow to the Passengers the Crew must select the \'Passenger
Oxygen Switch\' to ON.
! An altitude warning buzzer at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the oxygen masks will deploy and the
overhead panel will show \'CREW OXY ON\'.
A flight deck ZONE TEMP light which remains illuminated after the master caution system is reset
indicates:
A ZONE TEMP light may be reset by the trip reset switch on the Bleed Panel.
! True.
! False. This reset switch is only for PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF resets.
! Fully open.
! Fully closed.
! Modulate between open and closed as required for pack temperature control.
! The E/E.
Deflector doors are installed forward of the ram air inlet doors to prevent slush ingestion prior to
liftoff and after touchdown. Deflector doors extend when activated:
! Open.
! Close.
If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF, the pack controls will cause the Left pack to
maintain a fixed temperature of ____ and the Right pack to maintain ____ as measured at the pack
temperature sensor.
The recirculation fan system circulates air from the passenger cabin around thelining of the forward
cargo compartment. When the overboard exhaust valve isclosed, exhaust air from the equipment
cooling system is also diffused to the lining of the aft cargo compartment for additional inflight
heating.
! True
! False
Forward cargo compartment only!
The cabin pressure controller controls cabin pressure in the following modes: AUTO (automatic) ALT (alternate) - MAN (manual).
! Automatic mode uses AC motor while the two other modes use DC motor.
! Automatic and alternate modes use AC motor while the manual mode use DC motor.
Cabin altitude is normally rate-controlled by the cabin pressure controller up to a cabin altitude of
____ feet at the airplane maximum certified ceiling of ____feet.
! Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the air/ground
sensors.
! Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the IRS.
Cabin air outflow is controlled by the outflow valve and the overboard exhaustvalve. A small
amount is also exhausted through toilet and galley vents,miscellaneous fixed vents, and by seal
leakage.
! True
! False
If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, thePACK, MASTER
CAUTION, and AIR COND System Annunciator lightsilluminate.
Manual Mode Operation: a separate DC motor, powered by the DC standby system, drives the
outflow valve at a slower rate than the automatic modes. Outflow valve full range of motion takes
up to 2 minutes.
! True
! False
Fortunately Outflow valve full range of motion takes up to 20 seconds only.
A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:
! Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization, wing & engine anti-ice, hydraulic
reservoirs and water tank pressurization.
Engine bleed air is obtained from:
! Isolation valve.
! Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open.
! Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes.
! Too high pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open.
! Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes.
What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE switch is in AUTO?
! The isolation valve automatically modulates between open & closed, depending on
pneumatic load.
! Open when any Engine Bleed Air switch or Air Conditioning pack switch is positioned
OFF.
What happens when the WING BODY OVHT TEST switch is pressed?
! When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is ON.
! When the APU bleed valve is open, the No.2 engine bleed switch is ON and the isolation
valve is closed.
! When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is OFF.
In the PACK TRIP OFF Non Normal Check-List, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:
! Shut down the APU and use a pneumatic ground cart for engine start.
The motorized Exhaust valve:
! True.
! False.
What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air?
! It is discharged overboard.
! Modulate between fully extended and retracted through the entire flight.
! True
! False
The Equipment Cooling Supply or Exhaust OFF light illuminated indicates a loss of airflow from
the selected cooling fan. You position the EQUIPMENT COOLING SUPPLY/EXHAUST switch
on ALTERNATE
! No further action is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
! Diversion is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
! Descending below FL250 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
! Descending below FL200 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
See QRH Air Systems - EQUIPMENT COOLING OFF
A leak in the APU Bleed Air Duct will be indicated by:
APU
APU operation requires the following:
! APU fire control handle on the APU ground control panel must be IN
! Automatic shutdown protection for overspeed conditions, low oil pressure and high oil
temperature
! Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure and EGT exceedance
! Never.
APU cooling air:
! Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet
! True
! False.
Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU.
! Never.
Because of power loss to the Electronic Control Unit (ECU)
The APU generator ammeter:
! 20 seconds
! 30 seconds
! 45 seconds.
! 1 full minute
This one minute stabilization is recommended to extend the service life of the APU.
During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from 0 to 1100 C prior to
normal EGT rise and the LOW OIL PRESSURE light may cycle on and off several times. These
indications have no adverse effect on starting the APU. It is not necessary to monitor EGT during
start.
! True
! False.
Electrical power to start the APU comes from:
! The No.1 Transfer bus if available. If AC power is not available, battery power is used.
With AC power available, the starter generator uses AC power to start the APU. With no AC power,
the starter generator uses battery power to start the APU.
If the APU is the only source of electrical power:
! On the ground, the main busses are shed first if an overload condition is sensed.
The APU switch OFF position has an automatic shutdown delay of:
! 30 seconds
! 60 seconds
! 120 seconds
! 135 seconds
The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for both air conditioning packs:
! Never.
The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to:
! 10 000 feet
! 17 000 feet
! 25 000 feet
! 30 000 feet
The APU start cycle may take up to:
! 60 seconds
! 120 seconds
! 135 seconds
! 3 minutes
Automatic shutdown occurs in the event of EGT exceedance.
The APU may be used as a pneumatic source up to:
! 10 000 feet
! 17 000 feet
! 25 000 feet
! 35 000 feet
THe APU will shutdown on the ground if:
! True
! False.
When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a NO indication on the electrical
metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both the
frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is placed on line.
If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
! The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate
! True
! False.
The APU OVERSPEED light illuminated indicates:
! The overspeed shutdown protection feature has failed a self-test during a normal APU
shutdown.
The APU starts, operates and can supply electrical power alone up to:
! 41,000 feet
! 17,000 feet
! 25,000 feet
! 37,000 feet
The blue APU MAINT light means that:
! Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and shuts down the APU
! Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve
! Trips the generator control relay and breaker, arms the associated extinguisher and closes
the bleed air valve, closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door.
When the APU is started using battery power only, there is no indication on the electrical metering
panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both the frequency and
voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is placed on line.
! True
! False
AUTOFLIGHT
With VNAV engaged, the AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) pitch and A/T modes are
commanded by the:
! MCP
! FMC
! FCC.
The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of :
! A/T computer
! FMC
! IRUs
VNAV is terminated by:
! G/S capture
! True
! False.
If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overriden with control column pressure, which of the
following occurs?
! LNAV disengages
! The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released
within 250 ft of selected altitude.
When performing an autopilot ILS approach, the glide slope can be captured from above or below:
! True
! False
When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the airplane will roll wings
level when the bank angle is:
! 5 degrees or less
! 6 degrees or less
! 10 degrees or less
! 15 degrees or less.
How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the AFDS?
! One
! Two
! Three
! 2500 feet
! 800 feet
! 500 feet
! 200 feet
What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
! CWS P
! MCP SPD
! VNAV
! V/S
The autopilot cannot be engaged while force is applied to the control wheel.
! True
! False.
In the 'ARM' autothrottle mode, the thrust lever autothrottle servos maintain thrust at the selected
N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display.
! True
! False.
ARM mode = No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited. The
pilot can set thrust levers manually.
LNAV terminates when:
Minimum speed reversion is also available when the A/T is OFF and the AFDS is in ALT HOLD or
after G/S capture.
! True
! False.
Minimum speed reversion is NOT available in that case.
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust change without A/T interference?
! GA & ARM
! N1 & ARM
! 2000 feet
! 1500 feet
! 800 feet
! 500 feet.
Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed below 2000 feet RA for a flight
director go-around from a single autopilot ILS approach?
! True
! False.
LNAV must be manually disengaged in order to capture an ILS localizer.
! True
! False.
After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until:
! 400 feet RA
! 800 feet RA
Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV climb modes automatically engages the A/T N1 mode:
! True
! False.
The airplane is in level flight at the selected altitude with ALT HOLD engaged. Changing the MCP
altitude by at least 100 feet, arms the V/S mode.
! True
! False
Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel disengages the
autopilot.
! True
! False.
Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected?
! VNAV
! VOR LOC
! APP
! LNAV
During takeoff with F/D ON, the AFDS commands pitch attitude ____ degrees after ____ IAS.
! True
! False.
Pushing a CWS engage switch engages the A/P pitch and roll axes in the CWS mode and displays
CWS P & CWS R on the FMAs. The A/P maneuvers the airplane in response to control pressures
applied by either pilot. The control pressure is similar to that required for manual flight. If aileron
pressure is released with 6 degrees or less bank, the A/P rolls the wings level and holds existing
heading. The heading hold feature with bank less than 6 degrees is inhibited when:
! Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
! Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
! Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
! Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
! 2 seconds
! 5 seconds
! 8 seconds
! 10 seconds
If thrust levers become separated more than 10 degrees during a dual channel approach (before
FLARE armed is annunciated), the autothrottle is then disengaged.
! True
! False.
this is true but after FLARE armed is annunciated...
The autopilot flare maneuver starts at approximately ____ feet RA and is completed at touchdown.
! 27 feet
! 35 feet
! 50 feet
! 100 feet.
During a single engine F/D go-around, F/D pitch commands ____ degrees nose up. As climb rate
increases, F/D pitch commands maintain a target speed.
! 8 degrees
! 10 degrees
! 13 degrees
! 15 degrees.
If windshear is encountered during F/D takeoff or go-around, the F/D pitch command bar provides
commands to maintain V2+20 kts until vertical speed decreases to approximately :
! 600 fpm
! 800 fpm
! 1000 fpm
! 1200 fpm
If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, both the F/D and A/P attempt to hold the
airplane on altitude, or on glideslope after glideslope capture, without regard to angle of attack or
stick shaker limitations.
! True
! False.
Airspeed could decrease below stick shaker and into a stall if the pilot does not intervene by
pushing the TO/GA switch or disconnecting the A/P and flying manually.
The AUTOLAND warning light flashed RED if:
! A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 200 feet
! A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 500 feet
! A/P disengages, stab trim or A/T warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 500 feet
An A/T Disengage flashing light (amber) indicates airspeed error under following conditions:
inflight, flaps not up & airspeed differs from commanded value by _______ and is not approaching
commanded value.
! + or - 10 knots
! + 10 knots or - 5 knots
! + 5 knots or - 10 knots
! True
! False.
The following annunciation provide the flight crew with autoland system mode and status:
! LAND 3 means two autopilots, two inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing
! LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing
! LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing and rollout.
! LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources, the associated sensors are operating
normally for an automatic landing and rollout and at least one FMS is operative.
The Autopilot Disengage Light is illuminated steady red when:1- Stabilizer out of trim below 800
feet RA on dual channel approach.2- ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go-around if stabilizer
not trimmed for single A/P operation.3- Disengage light test switch held in position 2.4- Automatic
ground test system fail.
! True.
! False.
After localizer & glideslope capture, CWS cannot be engaged by manually overriding pitch and
roll. Manual override of autopilots causes autopilot disengagement.
! True
! False.
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a radio
altimeter inoperative, the autopilot will disconnect ____ after LOC and GS capture.
! Immediately.
! 2 seconds.
! 4 seconds.
When a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude, the airplane levels and the
pitch flight mode annunciation becomes:
! VNAV SPD.
! VNAV PTH.
! VNAV ACQ.
! VNAV ALT.
VNAV ALT maintains altitude.
During a single F/D go-around, with a push of either TO/GA switch:
! F/D roll commands hold current heading until passing 400 ft.
The Roll Engaged Mode annunciation on the FMA is blank.
What happens with the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if SPD INTV is pushed during VNAV
operations?
! 500 feet RA
! 50 feet RA.
! V2
! V2 to V2+15kt
! V2 to V2+20kt
! V2+20kt
Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged before flaps up. (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode)
Which is the correct mode on the FMA?
! N1 / VOR/LOC / TO/GA
! GA / - / TO/GA
! MCP SPD / - / GA
When flying on a geometrical path with VNAV engaged you push SPD INTV. What will happen?
! VNAV SPD will engage and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
! VNAV PTH will remain engaged and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
! VNAV PTH will remain engaged and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
! VNAV SPD will engage and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
When in ALT HOLD FL80 you change the barometric setting from STD to QNH 1030. What will
the aircraft do?
! The aircraft will climb 500 feet to the new pressure level
! The aircraft will descend 500 feet to the new pressure level
! The aircraft will continue at FL80, but the ALT readout will change.
On a normal ILS approach, when will the respective LLZ and G/S captures occur.
! LLZ 2 dots on the expanded scale, GS 5/8 dot on the expanded scale
! LLZ 1/2 dot on the normal scale, GS 5/2 dot below the glideslope
! LLZ not later than 1/2 dot deviation, GS 2/5 dot below glideslope.
! The A/P will disengage but the A/C will remain in approach logic
! The A/P will stay connected but the FMS will change to G/A logic
! Nothing will happen since the A/C has not descended below 2000
! The A/P will disconnect and A/T add thrust to reduced G/A, F/D pitch 15deg nose up
The white A/T LIM symbol appears on the upper display unit. What is correct?
! The A/T has reach the thrust limit for the selected assumed temperature
! The N1 has been manually set and not by the FMC, therefore the A/T LIM will be
illuminated
COMMUNICATIONS
How are the communication systems controlled?
! True.
! False.
In cased of degraded audio system operation:
! Audio warnings for altitude alert and GPWS are not heard. Windshear alerts are not
affected.
! Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.
In cased of degraded audio system operation can access the passenger address system through the
ACP (Audio Control Panel).
! True.
! False.
An audio system operating in the degraded mode cannot access the passenger address system
through the audio control panel. The crewmember can still use the service interphone handset and
PA microphone if they are installed on the control stand.
The call system is used as a means for various crewmembers to gain the attention of other
crewmembers and to indicate that interphone communication is desired. Attention is gained through
the use of lights and aural signals (chimes or horn). If the flight deck calls the cabin crew, the visual
signal at called position is:
! Blue.
! Pink.
! Green.
! Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON.
! Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON or OFF.
! Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight with parking brake ON.
The Cockpit Voice Recorder in AUTO:
! Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
The CVR uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for maximum of:
! 30 minutes.
! 60 minutes.
! 90 minutes.
! 120 minutes.
The Cockpit Voice Recorder in ON:
! Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to
AUTO.
! Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to
AUTO (after takeoff)
! Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to
AUTO (after landing).
! In flight only.
! VHF-1
! VHF-2
! Both VHFs
In the degraded mode of operation, are the ACP transmitter selectors functional?
! Yes.
! No.
Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS, and windshear are not heard on an audio system operating
in the degraded mode.
! True
! False
When the ALTNORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT:
! The ACP at that station is inoperative and the crewmember cannot communicate on any
radios.
! The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
! The ACP switches to an alternate ACP and all functions operate normally and the
crewmember can communicate on all radios.
! The ACP switches to standby ACP and all functions operate normally except PA and
interphone.
With the Captains ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station:
! All ACP transmitter selectors remain functional, but receiver selectors are lost.
! Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard.
! True
! False
ELECTRIC
Which of the following is false concerning the B737NG electrical system?
! Each Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) supplies its own and can also supply essential and
non-essential loads of the opposite side bus system.
! Transfer bus 2
! AC main bus 1
! True.
! False.
A high oil temperature in the IDG would cause an automatic disconnect of the IDG.
! True
! False.
The TR3 cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to:
! Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and Flight Control
Computers (FCCs)
! Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director
approach
! Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 & 2 through a diode
! Automatically opens at glide slope capture during a Flight Director or Autopilot ILS
approach
! Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (+ or - 4 Volts) as dispalyed on the AC
Voltmeter.
The Engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs):
! Adjust varying generator speeds to maintain a constant frequency throughout normal range
of operation
! Allow the generator to maintain a constant speed throughout the normal range of operation
! Operate whenever the engine is operating and cannot be completely isolated from their
associated generator.
After the loss of all generators, a fully charged battery can furnish power to the STANDBY Bus
equipment for a minimum of:
! 20 minutes
! 30 minutes
! 60 minutes
! 90 minutes
The cross bus tie relay:
! Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director
approach
! Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 and 2 through a diode
! Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the AC
voltmeter
! The Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions.
! The Battery through the Static Inverter with a failure of both engine driven generators.
! All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System.
! True
! False.
The modified DC system architecture resulted in the TR3 disconnect relay found in the B737-300
thru 500 being replaced with a cross bus tie relay. The cross bus tie relay opens automatically under
the same circumstances as did the TR3 disconnect relay.
! True
! False.
! When the source selected to power the transfer bus has failed and the automatic bus
transfer function has closed the BTBs to power the transfer bus from another source.
! When the source selected to power the Transfer bus and the automatic transfer function
have both failed resulting in the transfer bus being. unpowered
! Automatic switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power sources
! The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch ON.
! True
! False.
Illumination of the blue GEN OFF BUS light indicates:
! The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged and the
First Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays operate for a minimum of 5 minutes
! The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged
! The Captain\'s inboard and the First Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays are
inoperative
! Both the Captain\'s and First Officer\'s PFD/ND displays remain operative but only DEU
No 1 is powered until the battery is discharged
Illumination of the GEN BUS OFF light indicates:
! True.
! False.
The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU powering both
Transfer busses (SELECT THE INCORRECT STATEMENT)
! Both Main busses may become inoperative above 400 feet RA or after 12 sec. from lift-off.
! The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.
AC amperage can be observed on the AC ammeter for the source selected by the AC meter selector.
! True
! False.
During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off-line. Indications that the crew should see
include:
! Illumination of the fuel pump, probe heat, respective hydraulic pumps powered by the
associated Transfer bus
! IDG failure
! Not powered.
! Powered by TR3.
! TR2 fails.
! TR3 fails.
! Inflight only.
! True.
! False.
DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery and each
of the 3 TRs. The Standby power and battery bus displays only Dc voltage. Normal indication is :
______ volts
! 24 +/- 4
! 26 +/- 6
! 24 +/-2
! 26 +/-4
The DRIVE amber caution light comes on when:
! True.
! False.
The power supply to the inverter is controlled by the standby power switch and the battery switch
on the overhead panel.
The two nickel-cadmium batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of _____ minutes (if
fully charged).
! 30
! 45
! 60
! 75
DC busses powered from the battery following a loss of both generators are:
! DC standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus & Switched hot battery bus.
! Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus (even when the
battery switch is OFF).
! Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus.
Switched hot battery bus is powered whenever the battery switch is ON.
If the TR UNIT light is illuminates in flight, it indicates that one or more TR\'s have failed and you
are supposed not to use the AFDS approach mode.
! True.
! False.
An illuminated TR UNIT light while on the ground indicates that at least two TRs have failed.
! True
! False
What is the purpose of the GROUND SERVICE switch?
! Provide manual control of ground service bus.
! DC bus 1 unpowered
! DC bus 2 unpowered
! 12 +/- 4 volts.
! 24 +/- 10 volts.
! 26 +/- 4 volts.
During primary charge cycle operation battery voltage can be as high as 30 +/- 3 volts
Both On the ground and in flight a amber ELEC light comes on to indicate that a fault exists in DC
power system or standby power system.
! True.
! False.
The ELEC light is inhibited in flight.
Galley busses are powered from:
! Two TRs.
! Three TRs.
! Transfer bus 1.
! Transfer bus 2.
! AC standby bus.
! None of above
What is the source of power for TR2?
! Transfer bus 1.
! Transfer bus 2.
! AC Standby bus
! None of above.
The switched hot battery bus is powered whenever:
! TR1 is powered.
! Transfer bus 1
! Transfer bus 2
! AC standby bus
On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the
switched hot battery bus is:
! Not powered
! Powered by TR 3
! DC bus 1
! AC main bus 1
! Transfer Bus 1
Which bus supplies electrical power to the auxiliary battery charger?
! Transfer bus 2
! Transfer bus 1
The auxiliary battery operates in parallel with the main battery when the battery is powering the
standby bus.
! True
! False.
The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the first bus that is
shed?
! None of above.
The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the second bus that
is shed?
! It happens automatically.
! True
! False
ENGINES
Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?
! Any position
Each engine has two igniter plugs. The EEC arms the igniter plug(s) selected by the ignition select
switch. The Left igniter plug receives power from the DC Standby bus while the Right igniter plug
receives power from the AC standby bus.
! True
! False
The Left igniter receives power from the associated transfer bus.
Starter Cutout speed is:
! 25%
! 46%
! Approximately 50%
! Approximately 56%
An auto-relight capability is provided for flame-out protection. Whenever the EEC detects an
engine flameout, both igiters are activated. A flameout is detected when:
! True
! False.
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
! System A
! System B
! Has no effect on EECs
! 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts
! 10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to idle
! Until 84 KIAS
! The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts.
Once activated, the DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until:
What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?
! The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light
extinguishes
! An immediate increase in the N1 indication due to closure of the compressor bleed valves
! Start switch rotates to OFF and N2 RPM is stabilized (FUEL LOW PRESSURE
extinguishes)
Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at idle power. Which of the following is true?
! Undesirable, and permitted obly for the completion of the flight, preferably at reduced
thrust setting
! Unsafe and requires that the engine be shut down as soon as possible.
EEC alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal mode thrust for the same thrust
lever position.
! True
! False.
The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime:
! Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT
! Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either
engine
! Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
During a normal engine start:
! Only oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch
to GND
! Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine
start switch to GND
! The EEC is not powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater that 15% N2
! Only round dials are visible for engine indications prior to placing the engine start switch
to GND
The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate:
! When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC Transfer bus
! Whenever the APU is supplying power to a Main bus but not the associated Transfer bus
If a crossbleed start is required during in flight starting, the X BLEED START indication will be
displayed above the N2 dial.
! True
! False.
Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic
shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
! OVERSPEED
THe EEC provides EGT redline exceedance protection.
! True
! False.
The EEC provides redline overspeed protection for:
! True
! False
Any time the REVERSER light illuminates for more than 12 seconds, a malfunction has occured
and the MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator lights illuminate.
The first action during an 'ABORTED ENGINE START' (before starter cutout) is:
! True.
! False.
DO NOT wait for successful engine start(s) prior to starting APU. The APU has demonstrated the
capability to provide electrical power up to 20 000 feet. APU may be placed on either or both
busses.
After a LOSS THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, in moderate to heavy rain, it may take up to ______
to accelerate to idle.
! 30 seconds
! 60 seconds
! 2 minutes
! 3 minutes
During battery start, when does the EEC become energized?
! Above 25% N1
The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EECs alternate mode. What is correct?
! The EECs automatically switch into hard mode and the engines might overboost
! The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight conditions to define engine
parameters
! If the thrust levers are reduced the hard mode is entered and last valid flight conditions will
be used for the engine parameters.
! You can only enter the hard mode by manually selecting it on the engine control panel.
FIRE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
! Trips the generator control relay, and generator breaker, arms the associated
Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are MASTER CAUTION & OVHT/
DET annunciator lights, the ENG OVERHEAT light, the Master FIRE WARN lights and the
red fire switch light. What are the other indications?
! The APU DET INOP light illuminates.
! Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve only if the
battery switch is ON
! Closes the spar fuel shutoff valve. The engine fuel shutoff valve must be closed
! False.
10.
11. Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT / INOP position tests:
! The engine overheat detectors.
! The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU.
! The APU DET INOP light, FAULT light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE.
12.
13. During normal operation as a dual loop system, with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL,
an alert is initiated only if one of the detector elements in Loop A and one of the detector
elements in Loop B signal an overheat or fire condition.
! True.
! False.
14.
15. In case of APU fire, the Recall Items are :1) APU
SWITCH.........................................................OFF2) APU FIRE WARNING SWITCH......
PULL & ROTATE
! True
! False.
! False.
18.
19. During cargo fire TEST, Individual detector faults can only be detected by a manually
initiated test. The MASTER CAUTION light does not illuminate.
! True.
! False.
20.
21. Cargo Compartment Fire Extinguishing: a dual fire extinguisher bottle is installed in the air
conditioning mix bay on the forward wing spar. Detection of fire in either the forward or aft
compartment will cause the FWD or AFT cargo fire warning light to illuminate. The
extinguisher is armed by pushing the appropriate cargo fire ARMED switch.
! True
! False.
22.
23. In case of Cargo Fire, the Cargo Fire (FWD / AFT) Warning Lights are illuminated red.
! At least one detector in each loop detects smoke (with power failed in one loop, at
24.
25. If the DETECTOR FAULT light is illuminated (amber), a minimum of one loop in one or
both cargo compartments have failed.
! True. IT IS TRUE
! False.
28.
29. A dual fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well.
! True.
! False.
30. A single fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well. As the temperature of the
detector increases to a predetermined limit, the detector senses a fire condition. The
WHEEL WELL fire warning remains illuminated until the temperature of the detector has
decreased below the onset temperature.
31. Cargo compartement smoke detection is powered by :
! Hot battery bus.
32. Cargo compartment fire extinguishing is powered by the hot battery bus.
33. The lavatory smoke detection system monitors for the presence of smoke. When smoke is
detected :- an aural warning sounds- the red alarm indicator light on the lavatory smoke
detector panel illuminates
! True.
! False.
34. There is no flight indication. When smoke is no longer present, the system automatically
resets.
35. After a wheel well fire, if the landing gear must be retracted for airplane performance, leave
the landing gear extended for ___ minutes after the WHEEL WELL fire warning light has
extinguished.
! 10 minutes.
! 15 minutes.
! 20 minutes.
! 30 minutes.
36.
37. During 'SMOKE / FUMES REMOVAL' procedure, First Officer's window should be opened
if packs are off and smoke / fumes source is confirmed to be in the flight deck.
! True.
! False.
38. CAUTION : - Establish normal holding airspeed (high airspeed may prevent opening the
window)- Window should not be opened unless the source is confirmed to be originating in
the flight deck.
39. If smoke / fumes are uncontrollable, the crew is supposed to descent to the lowest safe
altitude and at 14000 or below, the PRESSURIZATION MODE SELECTOR should be
positioned to MAN while the OUTFLOW VALVE switch should be opened. What is the
main cause of the OUTFLOW VALVE operation?
! To depressurize the cabin.
FLIGHT CONTROLS
The primary flight controls consist of rudder, ailerons and ______
! Spoilers
! Flaps
! Elevators
! Speedbrakes
Why are mechanical gates installed on the flap selector unit.
! To prevent inadvertent flap lever movement beyond F1 and F15 during G/A
! The first officers control wheel operates the spoilers and ailerons
In the event of hydraulic Systems A & B fail, ailerons, elevators, and rudder can be operated with
the Standby system.
! True
! False
Roll control is provided by the ailerons, assisted by the _____
! Flight spoilers
! Ground spoilers
! True
! False.
Elevator Feel provides simulated aero forces using airspeed from elevator pitot & stabilizer
position.
! True
! False
The feel is transmitted to the control columns by the elevator feel & centering unit.
To operate the Feel system, the Elevator Feel Computer uses:
! Hydraulics system A
! Hydraulics system B
The system operates normally even with only one hydraulics system remaining
A Mach Trim system provides speed stability at the higher Mach numbers.Mach trim is
automatically accomplished above:
! Mach 0.50
! Mach 0.615
! Mach 0.655
! Mach 0.70
Mach Trim system corrects for Mach tuck by moving stabilizer up.
! True
! False.
It moves elevators up (not the stabilizer)
Concerning Mach Trim operation, FCCs use Mach information from the ADC / ADIRU, to compute
a Mach trim actuator position whih repositions the elevator feel & centering unit, which adjusts the
control column neutral position (column will not move).
! True
! False.
Of course the column will move !
In addition to Hydraulic System A & B, the rudder can also be powered by the Standby Hydraulic
System through the:
! The standby hydraulic system operates the trailing edge flaps normally
! Trim is available for the stabilizer and rudder only. Aileron trim is inoperative with the
autopilots disengaged.
! The autoslat system is still functional through the operation of the PTU
The elevator transfer mechanism allows:
! The elevator feel and centering unit to transfer the source of power for elevator actuators to
hydraulic systems A or B, depending upon which is producing higher pressure.
! True
! False.
What is the number of flight spoilers located on each wing?
!2
!3
!4
! 6.
The Flap/Slat Electronics Unit (FSEU) provides:
! The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulics systems A & B, with backup from
the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest.
! Flight spoilers are used both for roll control, descent and decelaration.
! The trailing edge flaps can be both extended and retracted using the Alternate Flap drive
system.
! True
! False.
Leading Edge devices are normally operated by ______
! Hydraulic System A
! Hydraulic System B
Elevator system feel is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:
!2
!3
!4
! 6.
When the Standby Yaw Damper is active, rudder movements are indicated on the yaw damper
indicator.
! True
! False.
The trailing edge flaps devices consist of double slotted flaps inboard outboard of each engine.
! True
! False.
With the loss of hydraulic system B, (system A operating normally):
! Main yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing
normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON.
! Standby yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing
normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON
! Standby yaw damper functions are available if the FLT CONTROL B switch is placed to
STBY RUD and the YAW DAMPER switch is reset to ON
The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:
! Flaps are up & a pressure imbalance between hydraulic systems A & B is detected or if one
of the elevator feel pitot systems fails
! Flaps are not up and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or one of the elevator feel
pitot systems fails
! Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or if one of the
elevator pitot systems fails.
! 100-300 KIAS
! 158-300 KIAS
! True
! False.
Main Electric Trim: a)Flaps retracted 3.95 to 14.5 units b)Flaps extended 0.05 to 14.5 units(same
than autopilot trim) Manual trim: 0.20 to 16.9 units.
Main electric trim has 2 speed modes : high & low speed.
! True
! False.
An alternate retraction system is provided for the LE Devices.
! True
! False.
What is number of ground spoilers on each wing?
!2
!3
!4
! 6.
The Autoslat system:
! Drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the
airplane approaches a stall
! Flaps 30 & 40
! Flaps 40 only.
The ALTERNATE FLAPS Master Switch:
! Fully extends the LE Devices using Standby Hydraulic pressure, and electrically extends
the TE Flaps
! Activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump and pressurizes the STANDBY Rudder Power
Control Unit.
! Arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and
closes the Trailing
During landing, compression of any landing gear strut enables the flight spoilers to deploy.
Compression of the Right main landing gear strut enables the ground spoilers to deploy...
! True
! False.
Note : if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected, when the air/ground system senses ground mode
(any gear compresses), the SPEED BRAKE lever moves to the UP position and flight spoiler panels
deploy automatically. When the Right main landing gear strut compresses, a mechanical linkage
opens the ground spoiler shutoff valve and the ground spoilers deploy.
During descent from altitude you need to decrease your aispeed by using your speed brakes. What
is the correct position of the SPEED BRAKE LEVER.
! ARMED
! FLIGHT DETENT
! UP
! When the air/ground system senses the ground mode (any strut compresses)
! 10 000 feet
! 17 000 feet
! 20 000 feet
! 23 000 feet
Dual AILERON trim switches, located on the aft electronic panel, must be pushed simultaneously
to command trim changes. The trim electrically repositions the aileron feel and centering unit,
which causes the control wheel to rotate and redefines the aileron neutral position.
! True
! False.
The flight control computers use Mach Information from the _____ to compute a Mach trim
actuator position.
! Airspeed Indicator
! ADIRU
! Will illuminate during Master Caution Recall if only one computer has failed
! Also illuminates the Master Caution & FLT CONT annunciator Lights.
Extending the flaps to flaps 15 using ALTERNATE FLAPS takes approximately _______
! 30 seconds
! 1 minute
! 2 minutes
! 4 minutes.
If you experience a 'JAMMED OR RESTRICTED ELEVATOR OR AILERON' you may:
! Use maximum force, including a combined effort of both pilots, if required (a maximum
two-pilot effort on the controls will not cause a cable or system failure)
! Leading edge devices do not agree with trailing edge flap setting
! True
! False.
The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicates that the speedbrake is not usable.
! True
! False.
The flight spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron and remain faired on the wing with down
aileron. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately ____ degrees, spoiler
deflection is initiated.
! 6,5
!8
! 10
! 12.
At what flap setting(s) should the leading edge slats be in the FULL EXTEND position?
!1
! 1 to 5
! Greater than 5
! 5 to 40.
With a loss of both system A & B, the elevator FEEL DIFF PRESS light will illuminate:
! True
! False.
What is the correct flap setting for a jammed stabilizer landing?
!1
!5
! 15
! 30 or 40.
During an 'ALL FLAPS UP LANDING', the speed to be maintained is:
! VREF40 + 15
! VREF40 + 30
! VREF40 + 55
! VREF40 + 60
During the 'ALTERNATE FLAPS OPERATION' procedure, you have to plan a Flaps 15 landing.
After arming the ALTERNATE FLAPS MASTER SWITCH (230 kt max), you set the flaps to
desired flap position & extend flaps on maneuvering speed schedule. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT
light will remain illuminates until the flaps approach the:
! Flaps 1 position
! Flaps 5 position
! Flaps 10 position
! Flaps 15 position.
If the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light is illuminated in flight. It indicates:
! The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended
more than Flaps 5 or the Radio altitude is less than 500 ft
! The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended
more than Flaps 10 or the Radio altitude is less than 800 ft
! The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended
more than Flaps 15 or the Radio altitude is less than 2500 ft
! The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended
more than Flaps 1 or the Radio altitude is less than 800 ft
You have to perform a 'Runway Stabilizer' recall items. What bare your chronological actions?
! 1) Hold firmly the Control column 2) Disengage the autopilot 3) if runaway continues,
cutout the stabilizer cutout switches (if runaway continues you'll have to grasp & hold trim
wheel)
! You immediately grasp & hold trim wheel while declaring an emergency
! You disengage autopilot and cutout the both A & B FLT CONTROL switches
See QRH.
The Speed Trim System (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve flight
characteristics during operation with a low gross weight, aft center of gravity and high thrust when
the autopilot is not engaged.
! True
! False.
The STS monitors inputs of stabilizer position, thrust lever position, airspeed and vertical speed and
then trims the stabilizer using the autopilot stabilizer trim.Remember that the SPEED TRIM FAIL
amber light is often illuminated when you arrive at the aircraft. It is only due to the Inertial Vertical
Speed Indicator which is not powered by the ADIRUs (IRS selectors OFF): the STS receives
invalid inputs.
The Speed Trim System (STS) operates most frequently during takeoffs & go-arounds. Conditions
for speed trim operation are:
! Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement
! Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, sensing of trim requirement
! Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 15 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, sensing of trim requirement
! Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement
During a steady right-handed turn on the ground, correct indications of the YawDamper indicator
would be?
! The FSEU.
! standby hydraulic system pump and close flight control shutoff valve, isolating ailerons
and elevators.
! activates standby hydraulic system pump and opens standby rudder shutoff valve to
pressurize standby rudder power control unit.
! Trailing Edge flap bypass valve closes, standby pump activates and ALTERNATE FLAPS
position switch is armed
! Trailing Edge flap bypass valve closes and standby pump activates.
! Standby pump is armed while the Trailing Edge flap bypass valve is de-energized.
! Standby pump is armed while the Trailing Edge flap bypass valve is energized.
The FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicates:
ICE&RAIN PROTECTION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
! The respective cowl anti-ice valve is in transit, the cowl anti-ice vave position
! False.
When are the ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches turned ON if icing conditions exist on ground?
! When cleared on the runway.
valve
! It indicates an overpressure and excessive temperature condition
! It indicates an excessive temperature in the duct between the cowl anti-ice valve
10.
11. In flight there are 2 methods recommended for operating the wing anti-ice system:
! True.
! False.
12.
13. The CAPT, F/O and AUX pitot probes contain static sensors.
! True.
! False.
14.
15. What maintains the correct temperature on windows No. 4 and 5?
! Individual thermal switches
16.
17. The window heat PWR TEST:
! Must be tested before each flight.
18.
19. The wing anti-ice system provides bleed air to all leading edge slats:
! True
! False.
20. The wing anti-ice system provides protection for the three inboard leading edge slats by
using bleed air. The wing anti-ice does not include the leading edge flaps or the outboard
leading edge flaps.
21. Wing anti-ice should not be used when the Total Air Temperature is above +10 degrees C.
! True
! False.
22.
23. What can cause a WINDOW HEAT ON light to be extinguished?
! The window heat switch is OFF.
24.
25. Refer to the Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI shown at the top Left side of each
indicator indicates :
! If amber, an overtemperature condition exists in the duct downstream of the engine
OFF.
! If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is
ON.
! All of the above.
26.
27. What is the maximum airspeed limit when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative?
! 250 KIAS.
! 280 KIAS.
28.
29. Dual angle-airflow sensors (alpha vanes) provide angle-of-attack information to the stall
warning system, autothrottle, autopilot and autoslats and are anti iced:
! By actuating the LEFT or RIGHT FWD window heat switch.
30.
31. Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated?
! Elevator pitot probes.
32.
33. The R ELEV PITOT light is illuminated. What does this indicate?
! The Right elevator pitot is blocked.
34.
35. Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON?
! L2, L3, L4, L5.
! L1 only.
36.
37. What happens when the WING ANTI-ICE switch is placed ON while in flight?
! Both Control valves open
38.
39. The Engine Anti-Ice should be turned on:
! When there is any visible moisture.
! Before takeoff if icing is forecast to occur when you enter the clouds.
40.
41. When operating on standby power, only the captain's pitot probe is heated, however, the
CAPT PITOT light does not illuminate for a failure.
! True.
! False.
42.
43. Temperature controllers maintain the correct temperature on windows No. 1 and 2. In the
event of an overheat, power is automatically removed.
! True.
! False.
44.
45. Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
! Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when WING ANTI-ICE switch is
ON.
! Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight.
! Adjusts FMC displayed VREF automatically when WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON.
46.
47. With the WING ANTI-ICE switch ON and the aircraft on the ground, the WING ANTI-ICE
switch remains ON regardless of the control valve position.
! True.
! False.
48.
49. The aircraft is on the ground. You place the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON. Which
conditions will allow the wing anti-ice valve to open?
! Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation
temperature.
! Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation
temperature.
! Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation
temperature.
! Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation
temperature.
50.
51. The cowl anti-ice valve is _________ controlled and _______ operated.
! Electrically Electrically
! Pneumatically Mechanically
! Electrically Mechanically
! Electrically - Pneumatically
52.
53. You select the engine anti-ice valve to the ON position. The COWL VALVE OPEN light is
illuminated blue and the TAI indication illuminates on the CDS. What happened?
! This is a normal indication.
! There is excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the
cowl lip.
! There is excessive heat applied to the cowl lip.
! The cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position commanded by the ENG
ANTI-ICE switch.
54.
55. Which portion of the wings does the wing anti-ice system heat?
! Leading flaps.
56.
57. If operating on standby power, probe heat lights do not indicate system status
! True
! False
58.
59. Windshield wiper selector has ______ position
!2
!3
!4
!5
warning setting and temperature inside both distribution ducts is below thermal
switch activation temperature
! Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on either engine is below takeoff
warning setting and temperature inside both distribution ducts is below thermal
switch activation temperature
! Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on both engines is below takeoff
warning setting.
62.
63. Passing 3000' climbing, you have selected Engine Anti-Ice ON. Passing FL90, you select
them OFF.
! Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the
airspeed indicator return to normal.
! Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return
to normal.
! Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the
airspeed indicator return to normal, if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
! Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return
to normal, if wing anti-ice has not been used for takeoff.
64.
65. The wing anti-ice control valves are:
! DC motor-operated
! AC motor operated
66.
67. The wing anti-ice system is effective with the slats in any position.
! True
! False.
68.
69. Does the availability of bleed air for engine anti-ice require that the engine bleed air switch
be ON?
! Yes
! No.
70.
71. Which system annunciator light illuminates when any of the pitot lights comes on?
! OVERHEAD
! ANTI-ICE
! PITOT
72.
73. The OVHT test will cause all overheat lights to come on and the ON lights will eventually
go out. How does a pitot reinstate the Window heat after performing an Overheat test?
! Cycle power OFF and ON to Main AC Bus # 2
74.
75. Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
! Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is
ON
! Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of flight
76. Each cowl antiice valve is electrically controlled and pressure actuated. Positioning the
ENG ANTI ICE switches to ON: allows engine bleed air to flow through the cowl antiice
valve for cowl lip antiicing sets stall warning logic for icing conditions.
! 15 seconds
! 30 seconds
! 45 seconds
! 1 minute
Which of the following is not a major component of the inertial system?
! Switch to OFF, wait for ALIGN lights to extinguish, then perform full alignment
procedures
! True
! False
The database includes:- airplane drag & engine characteristics, maximum & optimum altitudes,
maximum & minimum speeds, etc.- the location of VHF navigation database, waypoints, airports,
runways, SIDs, STARs, etc.
With correct takeoff parameters, the FMC commands the selected takeoff thrust when the TO/GA
switch is pushed. During the takeoff roll, the autothrottle commands the thrust & the FMC
commands acceleration to between V2+15 & V2+25 knots.
! True
! False.
For LNAV to be engaged on the ground, the departure runway must be selected and the course, to
the first waypoint, must be within ___ degrees of the runway heading.
!5
! 10
! 12
! 20
To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this page:
! CLB or CRZ
! PROG
! CLB
! CLB or PERF
When penetrating turbulence:
! The Turbulence N1 is line selected to the scratch pad on the CRZ page and transferred to
the N1 LIMIT page for activation & execution
! The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the N1
set manually
! The Turbulence N1 is the minimum speed commanded by the autothrottle during all flight
conditions to ensure safe penetration when it is encountered.
The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:
! Create new waypoints, and using place bearing / place bearing or along track fix methods,
monitor flight progress
! Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route and a radial or distance from a
known fix
! A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU.
! A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode.
! True
! False.
The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates:
! The airplane is more than 3.5 NM off the flight planned course.
! The captain has left the cockpit for an excessive period of time.
After completing the FMC CDU preflight actions, you look at the POS INIT page again. The SET
IRS POS line is missing. What is required?
! Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS's have entered the NAV mode.
! The alignment was not performed. Cycle the IRS's to OFF and start a new alignment, then
re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG
! Return to ALIGN, then NAV, and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the Left or Right IRS
unit.
During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alertting Message
'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
! VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
than 15 knots
! VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than 10
knots
Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced Climb Thrust.
! True
! False.
The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight path details for each
waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route segment:
! True
! False.
The airplane is not certified for operations:
! PROGRESS page 1
! CRZ
! INIT REF
Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a previously
selected approach:
! True
! False.
With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2
position:
! The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & First
Officer's displays
! ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe.
Holding patterns appear as scaled representation if the airplane is within 3 minutes of the holding
fix with the range scale set at 80 NM:
! True.
! False.
If the FMC Alert Light of the LEFT / RIGHT FORWARD PANEL is illuminated. It means:
! The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs.
! The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs or
test switch is in position 1 or 2
! True
! False.
When the IRS Mode Selector is turned OFF, the IRS remain powered for approximately ________.
! 10 seconds.
! 30 seconds.
! 60 seconds.
! 90 seconds.
The ALIGN light illuminates until the system is completely shut down
During IRS alignment, If the Latitude / Longitude is not within ___ NM of the origin airport, the
CDU scratchpad message VEIFY POSITION is displayed.
! 1,2
! 2,5
!4
!5
If the entered Latitude/Longitude position does not pass the internal comparison tests, the
scratchpad message ENTER IRS POSITION is displayed
During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot be completed
due to IRS detection of:
If the airplane is moved during alignment or fast realignment, the IRS automatically begins the full
alignment process:
! True
! False.
When the FMC is not receiving required fuel data:
! The pilot is responsible for periodic entry of fuel weight in order to keep gross weight
value current
! When FMC is not receiving the required fuel data, displayed dashes and manual fuel
weight entry is not possible
! Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC calculates the
airplane gross weight.
The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page 1 is:
! Total fuel quantity remaining direct from the fuel summation unit
! Total fuel used since engine start, based on fuel flow inputs to the FMC
With HDG SEL engaged, selecting LNAV will:
! Engage if the airplane is within 3 NM of the LNAV course, regardless of the heading
! Engage if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or less and the intercept will
occur before the active waypoint
! 10/30/45
! 10304
! 10/30.5
! 103045B
Which data is available by line selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE LEGS page?
When an active data base expires in flight, the expired database continues to be used until the active
data is changed after landing.
! True
! False.
When aligning the IRS between 78 degrees 15 minutes North or South latitude:
! Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to 17 minutes depending on airplane latitude
! The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates & the ALIGN light
extinguishes
! With RNP exceeded, the message FMC appears on the scratch pad
! Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the
computing path
! Execution allows early initiation of a PATH descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the
computed path
! GROSS WEIGHT
! COST INDEX
! ORIGIN
! RESERVES
On the FMC RTE page, the origin airport will still have to be entered if the company route is
entered.
! True
! False.
Pushing the ACTIVATE key arms the route for execution as the active route.
! True
! False.
On the FMC RTE page invalid VIA entries are:
! Airways & company routes which do contain the VIA waypoint of the previous line
! Airways or company routes which do not contain the TO waypoint of the previous line.
Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport.
! True
! False.
On the FIX page, radial/distance from the fix, displays the radial and distance from the fix to the
airplane. This information is continually updated as the airplane position changes.
! True
! False.
The SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed when the FMC encounters more
than one location for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry.
! True
! False.
On the FMC CDU, how is the MOD CRZ CLB page automatically displayed?
! Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page
! Discontinuity
! 10 & 8
! 5 & 10
!5&8
! 10 & 5
The FMC Advisory Message 'BUFFET ALERT' indicates:
! RTA mode has been discontinued due to sequencing of the RTA waypoint
! The RTA time does not fall within the earliest and latest takeoff time
! RTA mode has been discontinued because the RTA waypoint has been removed from the
Flight Plan
! FPA-actual flight path angle based on flight plan ground speed & vertical spped
! V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line
! True
! false
FMC logic selects the GPS position as the primary update to the FMC position. If all GPS data
becomes unavailable, the FMC reverts to radio or IRS updating.
When airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, the Approach Ref page will be:
! Flashing
! Blank
! Box prompts
! 'INVALID'
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
An entry of .79 for descent into the TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH DES will:
! True
! False
Below 2000 ft RA...
Upon initiation of TO/GA, a new cruise altitude will be automatically assigned & will appear on the
FMC pages. The new cruise altitude will be...
! 10 % N1 & 20% N1
Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs, and decreases also total trip fuel
! True
! False
Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs, and increases total trip fuel
If a CLB1 or CLB2 derate is selected, the derate is maintained for the initial part of the climb.
Thrust eventually increases to maximum climb thrust by:
! 10 000 feet
! 12 000 feet
! 15 000 feet
! 18 000 feet
If the FMC fails, the FMC alert light will illuminate, the FMC/CDU FAIL light will appear on both
CDUs, and both CDUs will display failure modes. VTK will appear on both navigation displays.
LNAV & VNAV will disengage. After 25 to 30 seconds, both navigation displays will display
failure information.
! True
! False
During an FMC software restart, the navigation display map track may rapidly slew to a few
degrees, then to the correct value.
'INSUFFICIENT FUEL' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
! A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 400
kg / 900 lbs or less
! A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 500
kg / 1100 lbs or less
! A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 900
kg / 2000 lbs or less
! A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 1200
kg / 2700 lbs or less
'RESET MCP ALTITUDE' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
! You are within 1 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
! You are within 3 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
! You are within 5 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
! You are within 10 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
'DRAG REQUIRED' FMC Advisory message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
! Airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
! Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
! Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO
! Airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO
Use speedbrakes, trim or reduce thrust, as required, to bring the airplane within 5 knots of FMC
target speed.
If you have a look in your Descent Page (DES), 'V/B' indication means:
! Actual flight path angle based on present ground speed & vertical speed (Vertical Bearing
or Total Vertical Speed)
! Vertical bearing direct from present position on the WPT/ALT line(the flight path angle
required if flying direct to the waypoint & altitude on the WPT/ALT line)
! The required vertical speed (in fpm, based on present ground speed) to fly the dispmayed
V/B
The IRSs can operate on either AC or DC power. The Left IRS is normally powered from the AC
transfer bus 2, and the Right IRS from the AC Standby bus.
! True
! False
The Left IRS is normally powered from the AC Standby bus, and the Right IRS from the AC
transfer bus 2.If AC power is not normal, either or both systems automatically switch to backup DC
power from the switched hot battery bus. Backup DC power to the Right IRS is automatically
terminated if AC power is not restored within 5 minutes.
Decceleration points show on the MAP as green open circles with the label DECEL. Deceleration
points show prior to:
! Holding patterns
! Approach flap extension
! All of the above.
The supplemental navigation database is accessed by typing SUPP in the scratchpad while on the
INIT/REF index page, then selecting the NAV DATA prompt. Access is available either in flight or
on ground.
! True
! False.
Access is ONLY available on the ground.
Data may be deleted from the supplemental database (SUPP) by 2 methods. Deletion may be
accomplished one item at a time on the display pages, or the entire database may be deleted by
selecting this prompt. The prompt is only available before entry of an origin airport.
! True.
! False.
The STEP POINT displays the computed ETA at, and distance to, the first possible step climb point
based on gross weight. The STEP button (1R) is then used to enter step climb or step descent
altitudes for crew evaluation. It is blank when within ___ NM of top of descent or when RTA mode
is active.
! 100
! 50
! 30
! 10
Let's have a look in the cruise page (CRZ)...The actual wind displays computed or manually entered
true wind for present altitude.
! True
! False.
FUEL
Each fuel tank uses two AC powered fuel pumps which are cooled and lubricated by fuel passing
through the pump.
! True
! False.
Inflight, two fuel pumps LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What happens to the
No.1 engine?
! It receives fuel from the No.1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve
! It continues to operate using fuel though the center tank bypass valve.
Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
! Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check valves.
! Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main tank check
valves.
! Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.
! Main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights
illuminate and center tank pumps are turned OFF.
The Engine Fuel Shutoff valve:
! Is controlled by both the Engine Fire Warning switch and the Engine Start lever; however,
the spar fuel shutoff valve is controlled only by the Engine Start lever.
! Is the only fuel shutoff with an associated blue light on the forward overhead fuel panel
! And the spar fuel shutoff valves close whenever their respective Engine Fire Warning
switch is pulled or Engine Start lever is placed to CUTOFF
Fuel Quantity indicators will display:
! The No.1 main fuel tank is about 2/3 full and the main tank No.1 forward pump is
operating.
! True
! False.
The capacity of the center fuel tank is greater than the capacity of the two main fuel tanks
combined.
! True
! False
There are CDS fuel alert for:
! Fuel quantity low in the main tank, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel flow
difference between engines
! Fuel quantity low in the main tank, both center tank fuel pumps producing low or no
pressure with fuel in the center tank, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks
! Fuel quantity low in center or main tank, either center tank fuel pump producing low or no
pressure with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel flow difference between engines
! Any fuel pump producing low or no pressure with the pump switch ON, impending fuel
filter bypass, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks.
During cruise, both center tank fuel pumps have failed. You still have 320 kg (700 lbs) of fuel in the
center tank and both main tanks are full. The Upper Display Unit will show:
! A LOW indication
! A CONFIG indication
! A LOW indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and
system annunciation for fuel
! An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and
system annunciation for fuel
! An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 with no Master Caution light and no system
annunciation for fuel
! The fuel quantity arc and digits on main tank No.2 turn amber.
Which valve connects the fuel engine manifold to the fueling manifold?
! Center tank.
! All tanks.
! None.
The Engine Fuel Shut Off valves:
! Are AC operated to OPEN and mechanically closed by the engine start lever or fire switch.
! Are Hot Battery Bus powered and may be closed by the engine start lever or the respective
engine fire switch.
! Illuminated amber.
! Extinguished.
Fuel for the APU is:
! Approximately 164 kg/hr with electrics & bleeds at sea level, decreasing to 17 kg/hr at
high altitude and low loads
! Not heated
! Center tank.
! Aux tank.
If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from main tank No.1.
The crossfeed valve when OPEN:
! No.1 tank.
! No.2 tank.
! Center tank.
! True.
! False.
The accuracy of the fuel quantity indicators is plus or minus:
! Standby DC power.
! Standby AC power.
! Battery bus.
! TR2.
The fuel measuring stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as determined from
measuring stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel quantity indicators. Reading is obtained
by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it magnetically to an internal float. Fuel
depth is read where stick passes through wing skin.
! True.
! False.
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed in each main tank?
! Two.
! Three.
! Four.
! Six.
Four are also installed in center tank.
The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The valve is ___ motor
operated from the ___.
! DC power.
! AC power.
The Fueling Valve Position Lights on the External Fueling Panel illuminate blue when:
! The respective fueling valve is OPEN and fuel is being transferred into the tank
! Flight conditions permitting, vary thrust to maintain fuel balance. If unable to maintain
acceptable balance, land as soon as possible.
See B737NG QRH (CROSSFEED SELECTOR INOPERATIVE).
A fuel FILTER BYPASS light illuminated indicated impending fuel filter bypass due to a
contaminated filter. Erratic engine operation and flameout may occur due to fuel contamination.
! True.
! False.
With FUEL TEMP LOW amber message displayed, fuel is approaching minimum. Boeing QRH
asks to increase speed, change altitude and/or deviate to a warmer air mass to achieve a TAT equal
to or higher than the fuel temperature limit (3C / 5F above the fuel freeze point or -43C / -45F
whichever is higher).
! TAT will increase approximately 0.5 degrees C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
! TAT will increase approximately 0.5 to 0.7 degrees C for each .01 Mach increase in speed.
! TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
! TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 to .07 Mach increase in speed.
In extreme conditions, it maybe necessary to descend as low as FL250.
The fuel LOW indication may be caused by an engine fuel leak. For indication(s) of an engine fuel
leak, check:
! Automatically close the fueling valve in each fuel tank when the tank is full.
! Automatically close the manual defuelling valave when the wing tanks are full.
! Are only available for Left & Right main tanks (not on the Center one).
The manual De-fueling valve is located:
! Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the
Manual Defueling valve OPEN
! Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the Manual
Defueling valve OPEN
! Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve CLOSED and the Manual
Defueling valve OPEN
When the APU is inoperative and no external power is available, refueling can be accomplished as
follows:
! Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate
normally.
! Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate
normally. except the fuel shut-off system.
! Battery switch OFF - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate
normally.
! Cannot be used.
! Can be used by switching off all wing tank pumps and opening the crossfeed valve.
! Will be fed to the tanks by the center tank scavenge jet pump
Lateral imbalance between main tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be zero. Random fuel
imbalance must not exceed 453 kgs (1000 lbs):
! In flight only
Main tanks 1 and 2 must be full if center tank contains more than 453 kgs (1000 lbs)
! True
! False.
When main tank fuel pump pressure is low, each engine can draw fuel from is corresponding main
tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps.
! True
! False
Total fuel weight is displayed on the fuel quantity gauges and on the ______ pages of the CDU.
! Yes
! No.
There are 4 measuring sticks in the Center tank.
The engines can suction fuel from the center tank.
! True
! False.
For refuelling, which tank(s) have an automatic shutoff valve that closes when the tank is full?
! 42C
! 45C
! 49C
! 55C
Center fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF at the first indication of low pressure.
! True.
! False.
When is the fuel CONFIG light inhibited?
! Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it magnetically
to an internal float.
! Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it electrically
to an internal float.
! 20
! 16
! 12
!6
Six in each main tank (12) + 4 in the center tank = 16
An amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:
! 91kgs
! 363kgs
! 453kgs
! 726kgs
! True
! False
HYDRAULIC
Refer to the refill indication (RF) to the Right of the hydraulic system quantity indication.
Indication is displayed:
! At all times
! When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is on
the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in
! True
! False.
If a leak occurs in the Standby Hydraulic System, the standby reservoir quantity decreases to zero.
What is the effect on System B reservoir quantity?
! No effect
! Decreases to zero.
! True
! False
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:
! Landing gear.
! Outboard spoilers.
The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the
autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system A engine-driven hydraulic
pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system B pressure to power a hydraulic motor-driven pump,
which pressurizes system A hydraulic fluid.
! True
! False
The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the
autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system B engine-driven hydraulic
pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor-driven pump,
which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid.
! Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers, and standby yaw damper.
! At all times.
! Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is
activated.
Which of the following actions will affect hydraulic quantity indications?
! Ensures System A can operate leading edge flaps and slats when System B is lost.
! Standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.
! 5%
! 10%
! 20%
! 30%
System A hydraulic pressure is maintained by the electric motor-driven pump.
System A & B hydraulic fluid is cooled by:
! True
! False.
The Power Transfer Unit operates automatically when all of the following conditions exist:
! System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
! System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
and when flaps are less than 5 but not up
! System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
and when flaps are less than 15 but not up
! System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
and when flaps are less than 5 but not up whith landing gear positioned to UP.
The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to
raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system B engine-driven pump volume is lost.
! True
! False.
When system A engine-driven pump volume is lost: The engine system B engine-driven pump
supplies the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the landing gear transfer unit when all of
the following conditions exist: - airborne - No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value - landing
gear lever is positioned UP - either main landing gear is not UP and locked.
The standby hydraulic system is provided as a back-up if system A and/or B pressure is lost. The
standby system can be activated manually or automatically and uses a single electric motor-driven
pump to power:
! Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and standby yaw damper
! Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and yaw damper
! Rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and yaw damper
Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when all the following conditions
exist:
! Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed greater
than 60 kts
! Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed greater
than 20 kts
! Loss of system A or B, flaps extended and airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 kts and
FLT CONTROL switch A or B Hydraulic System ON
Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when:
! True
! False.
These variations have little effect on systems operation. If the hydraulic system is not properly
pressurized, foaming can occur at higher altitudes. Foaming can be recognized by pressure
fluctuations and the blinking of the related LOW PRESSURE lights. The MASTER CAUTION and
HYD annunciator lights may also illuminate momentarily.
With the loss of system A, you have to plan for alternate gear extension.
! True
! False.
To start the standby system, what must you do?
! To ensure the hydraulic system operates when the engines are running.
! Both master caution lights and the flight control annunciator light will illuminate.
! 2 times.
! 4 times.
! 5 times.
! 6 times.
With the loss of the system B hydraulic fluid and the system B FLIGHT CONTROL switch to
STBY RUD, what allows the movement of trailing edge flaps?
! A system pressure.
! Electrical motor.
Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A located?
! 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B
There are 12 spoilers in total: 4 ground spoilers and 8 flight spoilers
Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:
! 3000psi in white
! 3500psi in white
! 3500psi in amber
! 3000psi in amber
Selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to:
! ON, activates the standby pump and arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
! STBY, activates the standby pump and arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
! OFF, activates the PTU and arms the primary flap selector.
! ARM, closes trailing edge flap bypass valve, activates standby pump and arms
ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
OFF and ARM are the only two positions for this switch
Alternate brakes are operated by:
! System A
! System B
! Standby system
Hydraulic system fluid quantity shown on the Lower Display Unit indicates percentage in the band:
! 0% - 100%
! 0% - 106%
! 10% - 100%
! 10% - 106%
If you lose hydraulic pressure in System B, the following systems will be affected:
! CLB or CRZ
! PROG
! CLB
! CLB or PERF
When penetrating turbulence:
! The Turbulence N1 is line selected to the scratch pad on the CRZ page and transferred to
the N1 LIMIT page for activation & execution
! The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the N1
set manually
! The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the N1
set manually
The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:
! Create new waypoints, and using place bearing / place bearing or along track fix methods,
monitor flight progress
! Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route and a radial or distance from a
known fix
! A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU
! A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode
! True
! False.
The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates:
! The airplane is more than 3.5 NM off the flight planned course
! The captain has left the cockpit for an excessive period of time
During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message
'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
! VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
than 15 knots
Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced Climb Thrust.
! True
! False.
The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight path details for each
waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route segment:
! True
! False.
The airplane is not certified for operations:
! PROGRESS page 1
! CRZ
! INIT REF
Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a previously
selected approach:
! True
! False.
With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2
position:
! The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & First
Officer's displays
! ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe
The Slip/Skid indication of the Attitude Indicator will turn amber if bank angle is 35 degrees or
more.
! True
! False.
Amber if the slip/skid indicator is also at full scale deflection.
The rising runway is displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude is less than ____
feet.
! 2500
! 1500
! 500
! 200
The Glide Slope Pointer is not displayed when the track and the front course on the Mode Control
Panel differ by more than 90 degrees (backcourse)
! True
! False.
The standby radio magnetic indicator (RMI) displays magnetic heading & VOR/ADF bearing to the
station. The RMI is powered by:
! The TR3.
The RMI is powered by the AC standby bus & remains powered after the loss of all normal AC
power as long as battery power is available.
When the 'ROLL' flag (amber) appear on the Attitude indicator:
! The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 2 degrees
! The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 5 degrees
! The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 10 degrees
! The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 15 degrees
The Altitude Disagree Alert (amber 'ALT DISAGREE') on the digital altimeter indicates the
Captain's & F/O's altitude indications disagree by more than:
! 50 feet
! True
! False.
Concerning Navigation Display Information, Heading is supplied by Air Data Inertial Reference
System (ADIRS) & Track is supplied by the FMC during normal operation.
! True
! False
The message EXCESS DATA is displayed if the amount of information sent to the navigation
display exceeds the display capability. The message can be removed by:
! The Left EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
! The Right EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
! The Left ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
! The Right ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
In the air, the flight recorder is not powered if both engines are shut down.
! True
! False.
In the air the flight recorder is powered even with both engine shut down as long as APU electrical
power is available.
The Pitch Limit Indicator (amber) indicates:
! Pitch limit
! 0.30
! 0.40
! 0.50
! 0.60
It blanks when airspeed decreases below 0.38 Mach
The V2+15 white bug of the airspeed indicator is normally displayed for takeoff. It is removed:
! True
! False.
It is not displayed above approximately 20,000 feet altitude.
The display SOURCE selector also allows the crew to manually select either DEU1 or DEU2 for all
6 display units. If the displays are automatically or manually switched to a single DEU source, a
'DSLPY SOURCE' annunciation illuminates above both pilot's altimeters.
! True
! False.
! The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard display and the Upper display
blanks
! The engine display automatically moves to the Outboard display and the Upper display
blanks.
! The engine display automatically moves to the Lower display and the Upper display blanks
! The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard or Outboard display and the Upper
display blanks
There is no automatic switching for a lower DU failure.
If the MAIN PANEL DUs switch is turned to Outboard Primary Flight Display (OUTBD PFD), the
compact EFIS format is displayed on the outboard display unit & the inboard display unit blanks.
! True
! False.
What is the purpose of the Air Data Modules (ADMs)?
! The ADMs convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the
ADIRUs
! The ADMs provide only pitot & static pressure to the standby instruments
! The ADMs provide inertial position & track data to the displays thru the ADIRUs
! The ADMs measure thru the Alpha vanes the airplane angle-of-attack.
There are 4 ADMs. They convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the
ADIRUs. Each pitot air data module is connected to its on-side pitot probe; there is no cross
connection.
The Static Air temperature is displayed on:
! The TR2
The indicator is powered by the battery bus & remains powered after the loss of all normal AC
power as long as battery power is available. The gyro reaches operational speed approximately 60
seconds after power is applied.
The Weather Radar Annunciation 'WXR ATT' indicates:
! The Display unit cooling has been lost or an overheat condition has occurred
! The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA)
! The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and either engine is
operating
! The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available and start switch in
GROUND position
The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD
during an ILS approach. What does it mean?
! The Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more
! The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be
considered unreliable unless verified by another source
! A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units
! A single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for
all six display units
! Never. It can only be displayed manually with the MAIN PANEL DU selectors
! 5 seconds
! 7 seconds
! 2 seconds
! 10 seconds
The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided
into three segments. With range greater than 20 NMs the trend vector:
! The First Officer's EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captain's and
First Officer's displays
! ADIRU inputs for both the L and R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe
The CONTROL PANEL select switch determines which EFIS control panel controls the pilots
display functions. With the switch positioned to either BOTH ON 1 or BOTH ON 2, the selected
EFIS control panel provides inputs for both sets of pilot displays. When in the NORMAL position,
a 'DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL' annunciation illuminates on the pilots altimeters and indicates a
failure of the associated EFIS control panel.
An amber CDS FAULT annunciation below each speed tape indicates:
! The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be
considered unreliable unless verified by another source
! A single DEU has been manually selected to drive all six display units
! Single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for all
six display units
CDS FAULT (amber) A nondispatchable CDS fault has occurred. Displayed on the ground only,
prior to start of the second engine. CDS MAINT (white) A dispatchable CDS fault has occurred.
Displayed on the ground only, prior to start of the second engine.
A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator in the PFD indicates:
! Selected vertical speed on the MCP panel with V/S pitch mode selected
! Radio Altitude
! 80 NM
! 160 NM
! 320 NM
! 640 NM
With the weather radar in WX/TURB mode, turbulence will be shown within:
! 160 NM
! 120 NM
! 80 NM
! 40 NM
During an ILS Approach with the Localizer pointer in view, the rising runway symbol comes into
view:
! Below 2500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
! Below 1500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 50ft RA
! At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 1500ft RA
! At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude is less than 2500 feet rises towards
airplane symbol when radio altitude is below 200 feet is not displayed when the localizer signal is
unusable.
'WXR RANGE DISAGREE' indicates selected range on the EFIS control panel is different than the
WXR display range.
! True
! False
LANDING GEAR/BRAKES
77. The airplane has two main landing gear and a single nose gear. Each main gear is a
conventional twowheel landing gear unit. The nose gear is a conventional steerable one
wheel unit.
! True
! False
available
! Normal landing gear extension is still possible if hydraulic system A pressure is
available
! Landing gear retraction is enabled.
80.
81. Fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
! Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction
! Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction
by preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel
well
! Allows the landing gear transfer unit to use hydraulic system B pressure to raise the
84.
85. During alternate brake system operation, the following protection is provided:
! Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane
86.
87. If a landing is made with RTO selected:
! Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level
90.
91. After braking has started, which of the following pilot actions will disarm the system
immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
! Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the flight detent position
! Advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first 3 seconds after
92.
93. The air/ground system receives air/ground logic signals from:
! The altimeter
94. In flight and ground operation of various airplane systems are controlled by the air/ground
system. The system receives air/ground logic signals from six sensors, two on each landing
gear. These signals are used to configure the airplane systems to the appropriate air or
ground status.
95. What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?
! System A
! System B
! Standby system
96.
97. The lockout pin is installed in the sterring depressurization valve. What does this do?
! Bypasses system B pressure
98.
99. Which of the following is not part of the braking system?
! Antiskid protection
! Parking brake
! Brake accumulator
100.
101. Which of the following conditions must exit to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
! AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to ON
102.
103. The nose wheel doors remain open when the gear is down.
! True.
! False.
104.
105. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
! AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF
106.
107. When the NOSE WHEEL STEERING switch is in ALT position:
! Hydraulic system B provides power for nose wheel steering.
! The nose wheel steering tiller changes sensitivity for precision parking
108.
109. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
! AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF.
110.
111. The landing gear warning horn is deactivated with all gear down and locked.
! True.
! False.
112.
113. What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?
! Observe extend limit speed (280 KIAS/.72M)
114.
115. What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the autobrakes in RTO?
! Maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle
! Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle
116.
117. The brake pressure accumulator also provides pressure to maintain the parking brake when
hydraulic system A & B are depressurized.
! True
! False.
118.
119. Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to raise the landing gear:
! When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned up
! When the No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value with the landing gear still
! False.
122.
123. Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown prior to decelerating through
30 kts of ground speed. Braking initiates immediately if both forward thrust levers are
retarded to IDLE and the main wheels spinup.
! True
! False
124.
125. Where is the main wheel gear viewing sight located?
! Two rows aft of the over-wing exits on the port side
126.
127. Is autobrake available with alternate brakes?
! No.
128.
129. The parking brake will fail when:
! The hydraulic A system is depressurized.
! None of the above as the parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake
accumulator.
130.
131. What is the maximum airspeed to retract the gear?
! 210 kt.
! 235 kt.
! 250 kt.
! 270 kt.
132.
133. What is the maximum Operating airspeed with the gear extended?
! 235 kt / .78M.
! 235 kt / .80M.
! 270 kt / .80M.
! 270 kt / .82M.
134.
135. A landing gear indicator light will illuminate red when:
! Landing gear is not down and locked (with either thrust lever retarded to idle, and
! Landing gear is up and locked with landing gear lever UP and OFF.
136.
137. What is the minimum preflight pressure for the brake accumulator?
! 2500 psi.
! 2800 psi.
! 3000 psi.
! 3500 psi.
138.
139. If the landing gear cannot be raised after takeoff:
! Use the override trigger.
! Pull the landing gear lever out to the second detent then raise it to the up position.
140.
141. If the landing gear indicator lights are illuminated red:
! Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers
retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).
! Related landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever POSITION
(in transit or unsafe)
! Both above statements are correct.
142.
143. Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the LANDING GEAR
lever in the UP position.
! True.
! False.
144. The hydraulic pressure is removed with the LANDING GEAR lever in the OFF position!
145. The parking brake can be set with only B hydraulic system pressurized.
! True
! False
146. The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized. If A and B
hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake
accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS indicator.
147. When the manual gear extension access door is open:
! Normal landing gear extension is not possible.
! Manual landing gear extension may be accomplished with the LANDING GEAR
! The landing gear may be retracted by moving the landing gear lever to the UP
! Flap system.
150.
151. The wheels should be chocked in case the brake pressure has bled down.
! True.
! False.
152.
153. Which statement is true?
! Rudder pedal steering overrides the steering wheel inputs.
! Hydraulic system B pressure is bypassed with the lock out pin installed in the
156.
157. If the go-around mode is selected after touchdown and prior to A/T disengagement, the A/Ps
disengage and the A/Ts may command GA thrust.
! True.
! False.
158.
159. Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
! Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction.
! Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction
by preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel
well.
160.
161. The autobrake system performs a self-test at initial AC power application. If the self test is
not successful, the AUTO BRAKE DIARM light illuminates and the system does not work.
! True.
! False.
162.
163. With the AUTO BRAKE select switch at RTO, autobrake is initiated when:
! Wheel speed is > 60 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
! Wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
! AUTO BRAKE ARM illuminated with wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are
retarded to IDLE.
164.
165. Hydraulic system pressure from System B will be used to retract the landing gear:
! When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned UP.
! After failure of the No.1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing
! False.
! All landing gear are UP and the gear handle is in OFF position
! All landing gear are DN and the gear handle is in OFF position
170.
171. You are using the manual gear extension lever to lower the gear. At what point do the gear
Uplocks all release?
! When the Manual Extension Access door is opened.
! When all gear extension handles have been pulled to their limits.
172.
173. Which controls operate the nose wheel steering system?
! The control wheel.
174.
175. Following a manual extension, can the landing gear be retracted?
! Yes.
! No.
176. Following a manual extension, the landing gear may be retracted normally by accomplishing
the following steps: 1. Close the manual extension access door. 2. Move the LANDING
GEAR lever to DOWN with hydraulic system A pressure available, and then 3. Position the
LANDING GEAR lever to UP.
177. What is the steering authority for the rudder pedals?
! +/- 5 degrees
! +/- 7 degrees
! +/- 57 degrees
! +/- 78 degrees
178.
179. Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:
! However the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake
180.
181. What happens if you reject a takeoff at 100 kts with Autobrakes in RTO?
! Automatic braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
! Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
182.
183. There are a second set of landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel. These
lights:
! Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and locked and the gear
handle is down.
! Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and either thrust lever is
! Are a redundant but separate set of landing gear indicator circuits and green lights.
184.
185. What is the normal source of power for the alternate brake system?
! System A
! System B
! Standby system
186.
187. Manual landing gear extension is not possible with the landing gear lever in the up position.
! True.
! False.
188.
189. During taxiing for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates. What
should you do?
! Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF and then reselect RTO. If light reilluminates, use manual brakes in case of RTO.
! Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt takeoff if light
remains illuminated.
! Position ANTISKID select switch to OFF. Use manual brakes in case of RTO.
! AUTO BRAKE system is not mandatory. There is no limitation.
190.
191. With the manual gear extension door open, which statement is correct?
! Landing gear can be retracted.
! Landing gear can be extended with the gear lever up and by pulling the manual
extension handles.
! Normal landing gear extension is possible with hydraulic B pressure.
! Pull the manual extension handles and landing gear lever must me selected down
192.
193. What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?
! If hydraulic B fluid is lost the landing gear can be extended by automatic activation
! In case of engine failure the gear can be retracted in order to reduce drag for the
cruise segment.
! If hydraulic A fluid is lost, the transfer unit must be manually selected to B fluid
196.
197. The AUTO BRAKE Select Switch:
! Is always selected to 2.
! Set to RTO will apply maximum brake pressure if the thrust levers are retarded to
198.
199. When the gear is down with three greens, you can:
! Assume the gear is down and locked, provided the indicator lights on the overhead
! Assume the gear is down and locked, even if one landing gear indicator light on the
200.
201. Normal hydraulic brake pressure is:
! 1000psi
! 2000psi
! 3000psi
! 3500psi
202.
203. Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by:
! 7 degrees
! 17 degrees
! 47 degrees
! 78 degrees
204.
205. Regarding Normal and Alternate braking systems, which statement is true?
! Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will only operate on
systems.
! Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, Autobrake will operate
on both systems.
! Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, autobrake will only
! A fitting in the wheel well opening applies a braking force to the wheels.
208.
209. Manual Gear Extension Handles: each landing gear uplock is released when related handle
is pulled to its limit, approximately 24 inches (61 cm).
! True
! False
210.
211. What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:
! Airborne, No2 engine RPM drops below a limit value, both main landing gear are
positioned UP, both main landing gear are not up and locked.
! Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is
! Gravity
! Air loads
214. When the LANDING GEAR lever is moved to DN, hydraulic system A pressure is used to
release the uplocks. The landing gear extends by hydraulic pressure, gravity and air loads.
Overcenter mechanical and hydraulic locks hold the gear at full extension.
215. After braking has started, the Autobrake system will disengage automatically when:
! Wheel speed falls below 20kts.
216. After braking has started, any of the following pilot actions disarm the system immediately
and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
217. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely
cause is:
! Thrust levers advanced during first 3 seconds after touchdown.
218. The RTO mode can be selected only when on the ground. Upon selection, the AUTO
BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for one to two seconds and then extinguishes, indicating
that an automatic selftest has been successfully accomplished.
WARNING SYSTEMS
What is the purpose of the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit?
! Landing gear
! Air/ground sensing
! True
! False
When is the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit light inhibited?
! In flight.
! True
! False
Which of the following is an input into the Stall Management Yaw Damper computers?
! ADIRU data.
! Anti-ice controls.
! Anti-ice controls.
! Leading edge flaps in the extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 5.
! Leading edge flpas in the full extend position and trailing edge flaps at 15.
! A normal condition
! A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing systems
! The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing.
! A problem exists in the PSEU system because the light should be inhibited in flight
Illumination of the PSEU light on the aft overhead panel will activate the MASTER CAUTION
system.
! True
! False.
The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked
with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at a high power setting (above 34
degrees):
! True
! False.
The GPWS will provide a warning/alert of slow descents into unprepared terrain while in the
landing configuration.
! True
! False.
The SMYD computers receive inputs from:
! ADIRU's
! FMC
! True
! False.
When is a traffic advisory issued?
! By windshear alerts.
! By GPWS.
! At low altitudes where traffic avoidance maneuvers are inappropriate.
! All of the above.
! Leading edge flaps and trailing edge flaps are not in the correct position for takeoff.
! True
! False.
While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To
cancel the alert:
! Landing gear disagrees with the position of the landing gear lever.
! Either or both thrust levers are at idle and the aircraft is below 800 feet AGL.
! True
! False.
! Windshear.
While flying an ILS approach below 1, 000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To
cancel the alert:
! Press RECALL.
! Press either pilot\'s BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light, or correct the flight path back to the
glide slope.
! EGPWS.
! A green decal.
! Wear dimples.
! The skirt.
! The fairing.
! The shoe.
! The cartridge.
The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from:
! When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima
correctly, there will be no GPWS minimums callouts.
! When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima
correctly, there will be a GPWS minimums callouts, since the callouts are based on the
captains minimums selector.
! It is impossible to omit to set the minima before any approach, because the aircraft GPWS
will remind you in time.
! When descending through the 500 feet amber band on the ALT tape on a stable ILS
approach.
! When descending through 500 feet RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ
! If descending through 500 feet RA on a CAT III approach for the FLARE ARM check.
! On an ILS approach descending through the amber band and the GS is 1 dot from the
glideslope beam.
TCAS TEST is displayed on the navigation display during the test followed by TCAS TEST
PASSED or TCAS TEST FAILED. This test remains in view for _____ then blanks. An aural
annunciation sounds at the completion of the test.
! 3 seconds
! 5 seconds
! 8 seconds
! 10 seconds
The area(s) inside the red lines indicate(s) the pitch region(s) to avoid in order to resolve the traffic
conflict. The airplane symbol must be outside the TCAS pitch command area(s) to ensure traffic
avoidance.
! True
! False
The RA aural alert "CLIMB CLIMB NOW" means:
! Select TA/RA
! Select TA
All TCAS alerts are inhibited:
! A red square
! An amber circle
A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and "-07". This means:
! Mode A transponder.
! Mode C transponder.
! Mode S transponder.
! TCAS system.
Coordinated RAs require both airplanes to have TCAS.
! True
! False
Vertical motion information is indicated by an arrow depicting a climb or descent if a change of
greater than _____ is detected.