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Technology Multiple Choice Exam Få Fò - HWP
Technology Multiple Choice Exam Få Fò - HWP
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4. The WPS calls for a root gap to be between 2 and 3mm, the actual measured gap is 4mm, what
course of action would you take?
A) Accept it as its only 1mm.
B) Reject it.
C) The welder will decide, if it fails it will be his problem.
D) The welder insists he can weld the butt joint easily so let him go ahead.
5. Which Tungsten electrode is usually used to weld Aluminium?
A) Zirconiated
B) Thoriated
C) Large diameter
D) Pointed electrodes
6. A procedure is a document which:
A) Specifies the way to carry out an activity or a process
B) Provides binding legislative rules that are adopted by an authority
C) Specifies which resources shall be applied by whom and when, to a specific project, product,
process or contract
D) A written and verbal description of the precise steps to be followed
14. A typical minimum OCV requirements for MMA (111) using basic electrodes would be:
A) 70 Volts
B) 40 Volts
C) 100 Volts
D) 20 Volts
15. Why is the OCV voltage capped at certain level?
A) Save electricity
B) Reduce the risk of fatality
C) Prevent exploding of the consumable
D) Allow smooth transition into welding voltage range
16. Austenitic stainless steels are not susceptible to HIC because:
A) They are non-magnetic
B) They are stainless and contain chromium
C) They don't harden during heating and cooling
D) They are highly ductile
17. Which type of weld would you associate with the joint below?
A) A plug weld in a T joint
B) A spot weld is an edge joint
C) A fillet weld in a corner joint
D) An edge weld in a lap joint
18. In a martensitic grain structure which of the following mechanical preperties would be more
likely to increase?
A) Ductility
B) Hardness
C) Softness
D) Toughness
19. Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10% contractual percentage
required by the specification Code?
A) Anyone can select the welds as its just a random choice
B) The welder as he known which welds are likely to produce the least defects
C) This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
D) Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the use of percentage NDT is of
no real value
20. To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the surface to the eye
should be a maximum of?
A) 200mm
B) 600mm
C) 60mm
D) 6000mm
21. Which of the following defects are unlikely to be detected by normal radiographic techniques?
A) Intergranular corrosion cracking
B) Porosity
C) Slag
D) Lack of penetration
22. To prevent hydrogen cracking which of the following would require the lowest preheat if all
other factors were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?
A) MMA welding with cellulosic coated electrode
B) MMA welding with rutile coated electrode
C) MMA welding with heavy rutile coated electrode
D) MMA welding with solid wire
23. Which BS EN standard is used for welding symbols on drawings?
A) BS EN 970.
B) BS EN 287.
C) BS EN 22553.
D) BS EN 4515.
24. The higher the alloy content of steels:
A) The lower the tendency for HIC to occur
B) The higher the tendency for HIC to occur
C) High alloy steels do not influence HIC susceptibility
D) None of the above
25. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the test the
increased gauge length was 65mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A) % A is 40
B) % A is 60
C) % A is 30
D) % A is 36
33. A high level of surface cleaning is important prior to penetrant testing in order to
A) Reduce the amount of penetrant used.
B) Reduce the level of false indications.
C) Ensure a good bond for the developer
D) Improve the viscosity of the peentrant
34. A typucal minimum OCV requirement for MMA(111) using either rutile or cellulosic electrode
would be;
A) 40 Volts
B) 120 Volts
C) 100 Volts
D) 50 Volts
35. The main problem with solution treatment of Stainless steel is that
A) Controlling the rate of the temperature rise
B) Controlling the cooling rate
C) The length of the "soak" period
D) High risk of distortion
36. An advantage of the MMA(111) welding process is that it
A) Has higher current density than SAW(121) welding
B) Has a very is large of consumables for most welding applications
C) No core wire is lost during the process
D) Requires a lower skill level than other manual forms of welding
37. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick carbon steel plate with a tolerance of 5mm you
notice the weld is visually acceptable, however the parent material has several arc strikes
present adjacent to the weld approximately 3mm deep, what course of action would you like?
A) None I am only inspecting the weld
B) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth
C) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth by MPI
D) High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld over the arc strikes then
blend them
38. When reviewing a radiograph of a weld made by the MAG(GSMAW) precess, you notice a very
bright white inclusion in the weld, which of the following best describes this indication:
A) Tungsten inclusion
B) Spatter on the cap
C) Copper inclusion
D) It is most likely to be a film mark
39. What unit of measurement is used for Charpy impact testing?
A) Joules
B) Nmm
C) KJ
D) VPN
40. Which of the following commonly used radioactive isotopes has the longest half life?
A) Iridium 192
B) Cobalt 60
C) Thulium 170
D) Ytterblum 169
48. Charpy impact tests show a 50% rough torn surface and a 50% flat crystaline surface after the
completed test, this would indicate which type of failure?
A) Fatigue to brittle.
B) Ductile to brittle
C) Ductile with gross yielding
D) Fatigue to ductile
49. A STRA test is carried out to determine which of the following?
A) A quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualitication tests
B) The test results can be used to verity that the material has not been adversely mechanically
dameged by the heat during welding
C) An indication of the meterial' elongation properties
D) An indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z direction)
50. Due to the high heating effect in the electrode when TIG welding(141) with AC it is important
that a tungsten electrode used for AC welding is:
A) Ground to a fine vertex angle of <30 before welding
B) Used straight from the packet without any grinding
C) Lightly ground to a slight chamfer (corners only removed.)
D) Used without grinding and baked at 300C for an hour before use.
51. An advantage of the SAW process is that:
A) It can be used in the vertical down (PG) position
B) Little or no ozone or UV light is produced/emitted
C) It is not affected by arc blow
D) It is not prone to solidification cracking
52. When welding vertically up with the MMA process weaving is sometimes restricted to 2.5 x
electrode diameter, this restriction is mainly applied to
A) Reduce the overall width of the weld
B) Limit the heat input into the joint
C) Reduce the number of electrodes used in the joint
D) Reduce the time required to finish the weld
53. A post weld heat-treatment may also be of benefit in minimising the risk of weld decay. This
heat treatment would be called:
A) Stress relief
B) Normalising
C) Quench and Tempering
D) Solution treatment over 1000C
54. After PWHT, it has been noticed that a repair must be carried out. How should this be done?
A) With the minimum amount of heat input.
B) Welded, checked and PWHT again.
C) Defect removed via non-thermal process then checked.
D) Welded and allowed to cool in air.
13. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observation were made. The
specimen CSA was recorded as 40mm X 20mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as
190kN. What is the UTS
A) 237.5kN/mm2
B) 247.5N/mm2
C) 24.5N/mm2
D) 237.5N/mm2
14. What is the most important information that the welding inspector should enter on an electrode
vacuum pack at the point of breaking the vacuum?
A) Welder's name.
B) Weld ID number
C) Air humidity content
D) Time and date of opening
15. Which of the following defects is usually associated with MAG (GMAW) welding process when
using Dip Transfer?
A) Centreline cracking
B) Lack of side wall fusing
C) Undercut
D) Tungsten inclusions
16. Weld decay can be minimised specifying a steel with:
A) higher carbon level
B) higher caromium level
C) lower carbon level
D) lower caromium level
17. Which welding process and mode is more susceptible to lack of sidewall fusion?
A) MAG Dip
B) SAW DC +
C) MAG Sparay
D) TIG Pulsed
18. The welding procedure calls for a minimum of 50C preheat: you notice the welder is using an
oxy-acetylene cutting torch to preheat butt weld joint, what course of action would you take?
A) I would check the preheat with a temperature indicating crayon (tempelstick) to ensure it is
correct
B) I would stop him and insist he used an approved method which is nominated on the WPS
C) It is acceptable to use this method of applying preheat so there is no problem
D) As long as he had a neutral flame it would be acceptable
19. During root welding. Which of the following would be the main cause of excess penetration?
A) The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS
B) Preheat not used
C) The current is too high
D) Root face is too large
20. Asymmetrical weld symbols to EN 22553 are:
A) The same both sides of the arrow
B) Different each side of the arrow
C) Show fillet welds only
D) Show butt wleds only
21. What information should be recorded as a minimum on a completed production weld?
A) Size and type of electrode used
B) Welding supervisor's name
C) Welder's identification, date and weld number
D) Welding inspectors neme
22. A 'weld all around' symbol is not required when:
A) Indicating a circumferential joint
B) Indicating a pipe to pipe butt weld
C) Indicating a nozzle to shell weld
D) All of the above
23. What would be the most likely SAW flux type for welding medium carbon steel which requires
impact testing:
A) Callulosic
B) Rutile
C) Fused
D) Agglomerated
24. Which one of these statements is true conceming lamellar tearing?
A) As material gets thicker the ductility decreases
B) As materials gets thicker the resistance to Lamellar tearing improves
C) As materials gets thicker the ductility improves
D) Thick materials don't suffer from Lamellar tearing
25. Which of the following defects are not associated with the SAW process?
A) Centreline cracking
B) Chevron cracking
C) Copper inclusions
D) Tungsten inclusions
26. Clustered porosity found internally in the body of an MMA weld is usually associated with:
A) Poor inter-pass cleaning
B) The open circuit current being too high
C) Poor stop start technique or damp electrode coating
D) Low open circuit voltage
27. In which of the following modes of transfer is inductance usually a vatiable patameter in solid
wire welding(135)?
A) Dip transfer
B) Spray transfer
C) Pulse transfer
D) Globualr transfer
28. What are the three metal transfer modes when using MIG/MAG(OSMAW)?
A) Dip, drop and drag
B) Trailing, vertical, and leading
C) Pulse, dip and flood
D) Dip, spray and pulse
29. A 300mm diameter pipe, 10mm wall thickness is to be radiographically tested using the double
wall single image technique (DWSI). the source to be used is Iridium 192. Which of the
following statements is true?
A) It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended
B) It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
C) There is no problem with the technique
D) Only the double wall, double image technique should be used with Iridium
30. Solidification cracking occurs:
A) In the HAZ
B) In the parent metal
C) In the weld
D) All of the above
31. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observations were made. The
specimen CSA was recorded as 30mm 20mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as
200kN. What is the UTS?
A) 33 kN/mm2
B) 333 N/mm2
C) 3333 N/mm2
D) 33 N/mm2
32. AT what level is residual stress a problem when trying to minimise the risk of H2 cracking?
A) The stress levels have no influence on H2 cracking
B) The stress levels will need to be between 30 to 40% of the material yield stress
C) The stress levels will need to be greater than 50% of the material yield stress
D) The stress levels will need to be greater than 75% of material UTS
33. The similarities between BS EN 22553 and AWS A2.4 in depicting welding symbols are:
A) Both have the same rule for depicting "weld all around"
B) Both have the same rule for depicting the "other side"
C) Both have the same rule for depicting "sequence of operations"
D) Both have the same method for depicting "welding processes"
34. Which is the most accurate method of ensuring that the correct preheat is applied?
A) Measure it with heat sensitive crayons (tempilsticks)
B) Using a calibrated digital thermometer
C) Using heat treatment equipment with thermocouples attached and a chart recorder
D) Temperature measuring paint
35. Hydrogen cracking is considered a cold crack as it will not form until the weldment cools to
below:
A) 500
B) 300
C) 300
D) 730
36. Is it permissible to allow a welder to carry out a MMA (SMAW) welding procedure test if he is
not qualified?
A) No
B) Yes as long as the Welding Engineer is happy to allow it
C) Yes as long as he has a TIG (GTAW) qualification
D) Yes as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld
37. When using DC-ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?
A) 10-40V
B) 50-90V
C) 100-400V
D) 200-240V
38. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 20mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding
electrode used was a basic type, 4mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of
the runs was 185 amps, 24 volts, using AC polarity, and an ROL of 145mm/min. What would be
the arc energy?
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
B) 1.8 kJ/mm
C) 2.9 kJ/mm
D) 0.96 kJ/mm
39. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was changed from
DC-ve to AC?
A) None
B) Higher deposition rates
C) There would be more penetration or a slight decrease in deposition rate
D) The arc would become unstable
40. In a cross joint tensile test the following observations were made: Specimen width: 20mm,
Material thickness: 20mm, Max Load: 180kN, Break position: Parent Plate. What is the UTS?
A) 45 KN/
B) 450 N/
C) 39 KN/
D) 39 N/
41. In a transverse tensile test, if the break was in the weld metal, the sample would be:
A) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of the plate
B) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified welding consumable UTS but
below the minimum UTS of the parent material
C) Rejected
D) Retested
42. The ease in which materials can be welded together is termed?
A) Weldability
B) Jointability
C) Bonding
D) All of the above
43. Charpy impact tests showing a rough torn surface after the completed test would indicate which
types of failure?
A) Fatigue
B) Ductile
C) Fatigue to ductile
D) Brittle
44. One of the advantages of ultrasonic inspection in relation to radiographic testing is:
A) Access is generally only required from one side (surface) of the component being tested
B) The designated work area must be closed off by barriers, therefore safety is increased
C) Thin materials can be easily examined
D) A permanent image of the defect can be obtained
45. With which of the following NDE processes will BEST detect internal lack of side wall fusion
on a MAG(GMAW) weld
A) Visual
B) Dye penetrant
C) Ultrasonics
D) Radiography
46. With the DPI method of inspection, after the contact time has elapsed the dye should be
removed by:
A) Spraying the surface with the remover till all dye has gone then wipe with a clean cloth
B) Spraying with the developer then wiping with a cloth
C) Wipe clean, using a lint free cloth soaked in a solvent remover
D) It doesn't matter how it is done as long as all traces of dye are removed
47. Which of the following would you not need to check in a welding consumable store?
A) The oven temperatures
B) Quarantined consumables
C) Calibration of the oven
D) The humidity
48. Prior to production welding commencing you notice that the drawing has been revised and now
include a pipe with a wall thickness of 30mm, your WPS only covers wall thickness of 28mm,
what course of action would you follow?
A) Continue with production welding as the difference is less than 10%
B) Apply for a concession to change the thickness to permit the welding on the 30mm wall thick
pipe
C) Change the range on the WPS to 30mm and allow welding to commence
D) Allow welding to commence then apply for a concession
49. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on completion?
A) The contractor's inspector
B) Site manager
C) The welder
D) The client's inspector or certifying authority
50. Which one of these joints would be more susceptible to Lamellar tearing
A) U butt
B) Vee butt
C) Double butt
D) Compound weld
51. In general terms which of the following would require the highest preheat if all other factors
were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?
A) MMA weld with cellulosic electrodes
B) MMA weld with rutile electrodes
C) MMA weld with basic electrodes
D) MAG weld with solid wire
52. Which of the following microstructures is critical to the likely formation of hydrogen cracks?
A) Austenite
B) Ferrite
C) Pearlite
D) Martensite
53. When examining a completed macro test, the recorded hardness figures were 5HV points over
the maximum permitted what would your course of action be?
A) Apply for a concession
B) Reject the whole procedure
C) Request a retest
D) Accept it as it is only just over the permitted value
54. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the test the
increased gauge length was 70mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A) % A is 40
B) % A is 60
C) % A is 30
D) % A is 36
55. Which of the following is a quantative test:
A) Bend test
B) Macro
C) Tensile test
D) Radiography
56. What is a typical carbon equivalent for carbon manganess steel?
A) 4%
B) 0.40%
C) 0.5%
D) 0.12%
57. During root welding, which of the following would be the main cause of lack of root
penetration?
A) The root gap is too large in accordance with WPS
B) Preheat was not used
C) The current is too low
D) Root face is too small
58. At what level is the hardness value a problem when trying to minimise the risk of H2
cracking?
A) 270 to 290HV
B) 300 to 350HV
C) 100 to 150HV
D) 160 to 200HV
59. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a cross country pipeline
be important?
A) It is the most difficult area to weld
B) It is the dirtiest part of pipe as it is near the ground
C) Welders always forget to weld bottom
D) It is the most difficult area to radiograph
60. Weld decay may be minimised by adding elements called stabilisers. These may be:
A) Vanadium/ Titanium
B) Titanium/ Niobium
C) Niobium/ Vanadium
D) Vanadium/ Titanium/ Niobium
8. You notice that a welder is using an unapproved WPS for production tack welding carbon steel,
what action would you take?
A) Have the tacks removed and MPI the weld preparation for cracking
B) Nothing as it is only tack welds and they will probably be removed anyway
C) Nothing as long as the WPS covered the material type, wall thickness and diameter
D) Give him the correct approved one and allow him to continue as long as the welding
consumables were the connect type
9. In welder qualification testing of 20mm plates, why are side bends sued instead of root and face
bends?
A) They are easier to produce
B) The testing equipment connot handle thick toor/face bends
C) Root defects are not important for welder qualification
D) They give more accurate indications.
10. Mechanical tests are divided in to two areas, identify these from the list below:
A) Destructive and non destructive tests
B) Quantitative and quantitative.
C) Visual and mechanical
D) Quantitative and visual
11. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick high carbon steel plate with a tolerance of 5mm
you notice the weld is visually acceptable, however the parent material has several arc strikes
present adjacent to the weld approximately 3mm deep, what course of action would you take?
A) None I am only inspecting the weld
B) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth
C) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth followed by MPI
D) High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld over the arc strikes then
blend them
12. When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was fould to be 185. The
testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed through 180.
A) They should be acceptable as the standard refecs to minimum forming angle.
B) The bends should be considered as failed
C) New bends should be produced and bent to 180 then re-examined.
D) They should be rejected as the angle is not close enough to be acceptable.
13. In welder qualification testinh of 45mm thick plates, why are side bends used instead of root
and face bends?
A) They are easier to produce
B) The testing equipment cannot handle thick root/face bends
C) Root defects are not important for welder qualification
D) They give more accurate indications
14. For the structure termed martensite to from in a C-Mn Steel it must first be heated to:
A) Just below its lower critical temperature and rapidly cooled.
B) A maximum temperature of 550C then rapidly cooled.
C) Above its upper critical temperature and slowly furnace cooled.
D) A full transformation to austenite than rapidly cooled.
15. A main element involved in solidification crackinh is
A) Chrome
B) Molybednem
C) Sulphur
D) Sitica
16. Preheats are used on steel joints of high hardenability mainly to:
A) Slow the cooling rate of the steel.
B) Remove surface moisture from the joint.
C) Reduce the formaion of surface oxides.
D) Increase the diffusion rate of hydrogen into the HAZ.
17. Weld Decay will cause which of the following problems:
A) a reduced resistance to corrosion
B) a lower tensite strength
C) the toughness is reduced
D) the hardness will increase
18. Why is it essential to clean the surrounding parent metal adjacent to the weld metal made by
MMA(SMAW) which is to be ultrasonically tested?
A) Sound waves will not travel through paint
B) Remove any rust.
C) The spatter will impede the contact of the probe and the parent material surface.
D) Spatter will reflect the backwall echo signal and give spurious indications.
19. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before welding?
A) The welding consumables
B) The welder qualificaton
C) Calibration of the welding equipment
D) The workshop humidity
20. According to AWS 2.4, where does the symbol go for welding on the arrow side?
A) Below solid line
B) Above solid line
C) Depends on the joint
D) Always weld where the arrow is pointing
21. In depicting infermittent fillet welds, BSEN 22553 and AWS 2.4 differ in:
A) The way in which staggering is shown
B) The pitch distance definition
C) Both the above
D) None of the above
22. Root and Face bends from an 8mm thick butt require testing. The specimens are cut to 20mm
wide. The code calls for a 4t bend. Which one of the following former should be selected for
the testing.
A) 80mm redius
B) 80mm diameter
C) 32mm radius
D) 32mm diameter
23. one of the factors used to avoid HAZ hydrogen cracking is to reduce the influence of hydrogen
by checking the amount of moisture present in the shielding gas by means of the dew point
temperature. The dew point temperature should be _____________.
A) above 5C
B) below -60C
C) below -30C
D) above 27C
24. Some codes require the excess weld metal (weld cap) on cross weld joint tensile specimens to
be flush this is because:
A) Flushed caps will always break in the weld metal area
B) This is to remove any porosity in the excess weld metal (weld cap)
C) It is easier to calculate the cross sectional area of the joint when flushed
D) Flushed caps have fewer stress raisers and therefore give a more accurate result
25. Which of the following commonly used radioactive isotopes has the longest half life?
A) Iridium 192
B) Cobalt 60
C) Thulium 170
D) Ytterbium 169
26. Which one of these statements us true concerning solidification cracking?
A) Only occurs in MMA welding
B) Increased depth to width ratio will increase stress
C) Nver occurs in MIG/MAG welding
D) All of the above
27. Is it always necessary to preheat the base material before welding?
A) Not on a sunny day
B) Only in accordance with the WPS
C) If the equipment is available it must be used
D) If using cellulosic rods these will provide enough heat
35. When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found to be 175. The
testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed through 180
A) The bends should be considered as failed
B) They should be bent to 180 then re-examined
C) They should be acceptable as the reduction in angle is due to material spring back
D) They should be rejected as the angle is not close to be acceptable
36. Which one of these elongation valves would be more susceptible to lamellar tearing?
A) Greater than 20%
B) Less than 20%
C) 30% and above
D) They would all be susceptible
37. Lamellar tearing is a problem in steels which is always associated with
A) Sensitisation in the HAZ
B) Low through thickness ductility
C) Hydrogen levels above 15ml/100g of weld metal
D) Rapid cooling from above the upper critical
38. When MMA welding what will be the iffect on the weld if the electrode was changed from
A) None
B) Lower deposition rate
C) It would be less penetration or a slight increase in deposition rate
D) The arc would become unstable
39. When reviewing a radiograph of a weld made by the MAG (GSMAW) process, you notice white
inclusion in the weld, which of the following best describes this indication:
A) Tungsten inclusion
B) Spatter on the cap
C) Copper inclusion
D) It is most likely to bo a film mark
40. What is the greatest disadvantage of radiographic inspection?
A) Its inability to size defects accurately
B) The physical size of the equipment
C) The skill level of the operators
D) The harmful effects of ionising radiation
41. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 90mm in thickness would the basic electrode
any pre-treatment before use?
A) None if they were in a vacuum pack
B) None if they were used in a factory
C) Heat 50 500C for 2 hours if used outside
D) Baked at 150C for 4 hours prior to use
42. With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both surface and slight
defects up to 2mm below the surface (Charter 2 )
A) Visual
B) Dye penetrant
C) Magnetic particle using DC
D) Magnetic particle using AC
43. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding
electrode used was a basic type. 5mm diameter. The measures welding parameters for one of
the ???? was 220amps, 21 volts, using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 270mm per min. What
would be the arc energy?
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
B) 1.54KJ/mm
C) 1.026KJ/mm
D) 2.82KJ/mm
44. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?
A) 10-40V
B) 50-90V
C) 100-140V
D) 200-240V
45. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was changed from
DC+ve to AC
A) None
B) It would have been easier for the welder to strike the arc.
C) If would slightly increase the depth of penetration
D) It would give less penetration
46. You find out that the contractor has carried out radiography as per the 10% contractual
percentage required by the specification/Code. The specification also insists that an additional
2 welds are rediographed for every weld that has failed. One of the pipe spools had an
unacceptable defect which the contractor has ignored and radiographed another weld in its
place which is acceptable, what would your course of action be?
A) As long as the other radiographed butt weld is acceptable its OK as the 10% contractual
percentage required by the specification/Code has been satisfied
B) This is usual practice as 10% NDT is not really important
C) Review the original failed weld and insist that they have the additional 2 welds radiographed
D) Review the original failed weld and have it repaired, radiographed, then I would insist that
they have an additional 2 welds radiographed
47. During post weld heat treatment what is the sequence for the PWHT chart?
A) Restricted heating rate, soak time, unrestricted cooling rate
B)
Unrestricted
heating
rate,
restricted
heating
rate,
soak
time,
restricted
cooling
rate,
54. What is a typical ARC voltage setting when welding with the TIG (GTAW) process?
A) 18-20V
B) 24-26V
C) 10-12V
D) 70-90V
55. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm Thick impact tested steel plate. The weld used
was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of 220amps,
24volts, using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 180mm per min. What would be ???? ( : D)
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the Arc energy.
B) 1.9KJ/mm
C) 1.87KJ/mm
D) 2.0KJ/mm
56. Slag lines found in MMA welds are usually associated with:
A) The voltage being too low
B) The open circuit current being too high
C) Improper cleaning between weld runs
D) Low open circuit voltage
57. In a shop floor scenario you are faced with a problem of a consistent porosity in all the welds
what would be your course of action?
A) Check the consumable issue, handling procedures
B) Check the welding machine, set up and parameters
C) Check the welder
D) All of the above
58. Who determines what the correct weld preparation (root cap, root face, included angle) should
be?
A) The welding engineer
B) The welding supervisor
C) The welder will decide
D) The inspector will recommend what is suitable
59. The temperature at which chromium carbides are foemed in Austenitic stainless steel is
approximately between?
A) 350-550C
B) 600-850C
C) 800-1050C
D) 1050-1500C
60. Sensitisation is a term applied to the formation of which intermetallic compound at the grain
boundaries in the HAZ of austenitic stainless steels?
A) Chromium carbide
B) Titanium carbide
C) Nioblum Carbide
D) Molibdenum carbide.
8. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observations were made. The
specimen CSA was recorded as 25mm 12mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as
150kN. What is the UTS?
A) 50 kN/mm2
B) 5500 N/mm2
C) 500 N/mm2
D) 50 N/mm2
9. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the test the
increased gauge length was 60mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A) % A is 50
B) % A is 20
C) % A is 29
D) % A is 36
10. X-ray used in the industrial radiography of welds generally have photon energies in the range
of:
A) 30keV up to 20MeV
B) 300kV up to 400kV
C) 3MeV up to 20MeV
D) 3kV up to 20kV
11. In which method may the grain size be an important factor?
A) Liquid penetrant testing
B) Magnetic particle testing
C) Ultrasonic testing
D) Radiographic testing
12. Which statement below best describes lateral expansion with respects to the increase in width
of back of the specimen behind the notch in an impact toughness test?
A) Non lateral expansion ductile fracture
B) The larger the value the less tough the specimen
C) The larger the value the tougher the specimen
D) High lateral expansion brittle fracture
13. In mechanical testing the term 'necking' is used when:
A) The elastic region is reached
B) When the pendulum strikes the sample
C) When the cross sectional area is reduced
D) When 180 is reached
14. How are the lengths of tack welds during assembly and fit up determined?
A) By the welders as they have extensive knowledge
B) The fabrication specification will give minimum tack length requirements
C) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
D) Any length of tack weld will do for assembly
15. Magnetic particle testing id applicable only to ferromagnetic materials which are at a
temperature below the ___________________
A) curie point (about 950)
B) curie point (about 650)
C) curie point (about 150)
D) curie point (about 450)
16. A welder's qualification begins from the date of welding of the test piece. The European
Standard allows a qualification certificate to remain valid for a period of two tears, provided
that:
A) The welding co-ordinator or other responsible person can confirm that the welder has been
working within the initial range of qualification.
B) Working within the initial qualification range is confirmed every six months
C) Both A & B
D) Since they have passed the performance test, their certificate will be valid for 2 years and no
more assessment is required.
17. Which of the following could be used to minimise the occurrence of solidification cracks in
steels welds?
A) Increase sulphur levels to a minimum of 0.5%.
B) Reduce the dilution into the base metal.
C) Increase carbon content in the weld metal.
D) Reduce the manganese content in the weld metal.
18. In a heavy plate fabrication where S is residual @ 0.3%, which may cause problems in the
welded joint, additions of Mn may be added to prevent.
A) Laminations in the plate through thickness.
B) Stress corrosion cracks
C) Manganess sulphides (MnS)
D) Solidification cracking
19. A homogeneous welded joint is a:
A) Welded joint in which the weld metal and parent material have no significant differences in
mechanical properties and/or chemical composition.
B) Welded joint in which the weld metal and parent material have significant differences in
mechanical properties and/or chemical composition.
C) Welded joint in which the parent materials have significant differences in mechanical properties
and/or chemical composition.
D) Welded joint made without filler metal
20. The similarities between BS EN 22553 and AWS A2.4 in depicting welding symbols are:
A) Both have the same rule for depicting "weld all around"
B) Both have the same rule for depicting the "other side"
C) Both have the same rule for depicting "sequence of operations"
D) Both have the same method for depicting "welding processes"
28. Who or what determines the necessity of a post weld heat treatment?
A) Senior welding inspector and WPS
B) Welding inspector and WPQR
C) Welding supervisor and PQT
D) Welding engineer and code requirements
29. According to EN 22553, if the symbol is on the identification line, where dose the weld go?
A) On both sides
B) On the arrow side
C) Opposite arrow side
D) It dose not matter
30. On inspecting a completed 150mm OD pipe weld some small smooth, shallow areas of undercut
have been found < 0.25mm deep. The welder says he can quickly put this right by depositing a
thin narrow bead along the undercut. In this situation would you?
A) Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small
B) Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the undercut providing the wall thickness
remains within the specification tolerances.
C) Agree to go ahead with a preheat 50 above original.
D) Cut out the joint and re-weld
31. Before welding components the welder's qualifications need to be checked, do those welders
that are going to weld temporary handling attachments also need to have taken performance
qualification test?
A) No, if they will be removed
B) Yes, even if they will be removed
C) It depends on the material
D) Only those who will work on pressure parts need to take the test
32. Before and during welding in the cleaning stage which statements from below would you
consider are correct?
A) Only stainless steel brushes and tools shall be used on stainless steels
B) Only stainless steel brushes and tools shall be used on nickel and non-ferrous steels
C) Grinding discs containing sulphur (iron sulphite) shall not be used on stainless steels
D) All of the above
33. Before welding components the welder's qualifications need to be checked, dose a tack welder
also need to do a performance qualification test?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only piping tack welders shall take the test
D) Only those working on pressure parts shall take the test
34. Lamellar tearing can be detected by which of the following NDE methods?
A) Radiography
B) Ultrasonics
C) Eddy current
D) MPI using AC
35. Of the following heat treatments which will be the most effective in reducing the chances of
HAZ?()
A) Stress relieving after 6 days
B) Post heating and stress relieving after one day
C) Post heating and immediate stress relieving
D) Post heating
36. HIC is usually delayed because:
A) There is a specific time gap between completion of welding and cracking
B) The diffusion of hydrogen atoms takes time to build pressure which leads to cracking
C) Formation of new phases takes time
D) The strength of the weld metal changes with time
37. GTAW water cooled torches should be used when the amperage exceeds:
A) 50A
B) 100A
C) 150A
D) 200A
38. Bend tests are used for which of the following?
A) To check tensile strength and fusion
B) To check yield strength and fusion
C) To check ductility and fusion
D) To check yield strength and ductility
39. In a transverse tensile test if the test piece breaks in the weld metal it is:
A) Rejected
B) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is not less than the minimum tensile strength
specified
C) Acceptable
D) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is above 95% of the minimum base metal strength
40. The test method for assessing resistance to brittle fracture, by measuring the energy to initiate
and propagate a crack from a sharp notch in a standard sized specimen is called:
A) An impact toughness test
B) A transverse tensile test
C) A hardness test
D) An all-weld tensile test
41. By which of the following welding processes can autogenous welding NOT be achieved?
A) TIG
B) Plasma
C) Oxy-fuel gas welding
D) SAW
42. Which statement from below is NOT true concerning fracture tests?
A) It is a test method that can be used for welder qualification testing
B) It is a test method that can be used for welding procedure qualification
C) The quality/soundness of a fillet weld can be assessed
D) This method may be specified by application standards as an alternative to macroscopic
examination.
43. To prevent excess weld metal in SMAW/SAW the polarity used should be:
A) DCEP
B) DCEN
C) AC
D) Polarity doesn't have any effect
44. Generally in brazing the melting point of the filler metal is above ________ but always below the
melting temperature of the parent material.
A) 350C
B) 550C
C) 450C
D) 250C
45. What is duty cycle?
A) A productivity value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
B) A safety value as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
C) A quality value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
D) The percentage (%) of arc time in a time span
46. Weld decay occurs in which of the following steel types
A) Carbon/Manganese
B) Low Alloy
C) Any stainless steels
D) Austenitic stainless steels
47. During welding, you observe that the welder is weaving excessively high. What mechanical
property is moat likely to deteriorate because of this?
A) Percentage elongation
B) Impact properties
C) Chemical composition
D) All of the above
Exam 2
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Exam 3
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Exam 5
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