MATH-501: Homework # 1

Due on Wednesday, February 11, 2015

Saket Choudhary
2170058637

Saket Choudhary

MATH-501 : Homework # 1

Contents
Problem # 1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

1a

1b

1c

3
4
4

2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Page 2 of 4

Saket Choudhary

MATH-501 : Homework # 1

Problem # 1

1a
R1
2
sinx = p0 + p1 x Consider ksin(x) p1 x p + 0k|2 = 1 (sin(x) p1 x p0 ) dx
In order to find, p1 , p0 we consider partial derivatives
Z 1
d
2
(sin(x) p1 x p0 ) dx = 0
dp1 1
and
d
dp0

(1)

(sin(x) p1 x p0 ) dx = 0

(2)

R1
R1
Using Liebnitzs formula in 1: 1 2(x)(sin(x) p1 x p0 )dx = 0 = 1 x.sin(x) p1 x2 p0 xdx =
R1
1
0 = x.cos(x) |1 + 1 cos(x)dx 2p1
= 0 Thus, p1 = 3(sin(1) cos(1))
R1 3
Similarly using Leibnitzs ruke on 2: 1 2(1)(sin(x) p1 x p0 )dx = 0 = p0 = 0 (The first two terms
are odd terms and hence integrate to 0)
p0 is also justified since sin(x = 0) = 0 Hence sin(x) = 3(sin(1) cos(1))x

1b
Taylor approximation(degree 3) around t = 0:
cos(0)(x0)3
+ R4
3!
t3
p2 (t) = t 3! + R4 (t)

p2 (t) = sin(0) +

cos(0)
1! (x

0)1 +

sin(0)(x0)2
2!

where R4 is o(t4 ) remainer term.

1c
1
Given f (t) at t = 1, 1
3 , 3 , 1 we fit a degree3 polynomial for sin(x) using Legendre Polynomials.
1
sin(1) = sin(1) and sin( 1
3 ) = sin( 3 )

Now, l0 (x) =

(x+ 13 )(x 31 )(x1)

4
( 2
3 )( 3 )(2)

l1 (x) =

(x+1)(x 13 )(x1)
4
( 23 )( 2
3 )( 3 )

27
16 (x

l2 (x) =

(x+1)(x+ 31 )(x1)
( 43 )( 23 ))( 2
3 )

27
16 (x

l3 (x) =

(x+1)(x+ 31 )(x 13 )
(2)( 43 )( 32 ))

9
16 (x

sin(x) =

9
16 (x

+ 13 )(x 31 )(x 1)

+ 1)(x 13 )(x 1)
+ 1)(x + 13 )(x 1)

+ 1)(x + 13 )(x 13 )

P3

i=0 ti xli (x)

Thus sin(x) = (sin(1))l0 (x) + (sin( 13 ))l1 (x) + sin( 31 )l2 (x) + sin(1)l3 (x)

continued on next page. . .

Page 3 of 4

Saket Choudhary

MATH-501 : Homework # 1

(continued)

2
vi
kvi k where
huhv32,v,v22ivi 2

Given: u1 = 1, u2 = x, u3 = x2 wi (x) =
v2 =
v2 =
v3 =

u2 huhv21,v,v11ivi 1 v3 = u3 huhv31,v,v11ivi 1
R1
xdx
x R 10 12 dx = x 12
0
R1 2
R1
x (x 1 )dx
x2 ( 0 x2 dx + (x 12 ) R0 1 (x 1 )22 dx
2
0

vi is given by: v1 = u1 = 1

= x2 x +

1
6

Similarly, w1 = 1
x 1
w2 = 12
12
2

x x+
w3 = 1 6
R1
R1
R1
P3180
P f = i=1 hf, wi iwi = ( 0 xdx)1 + ( 0 x(x 21 )dx)(x 12 ) + ( 0 x(x2 x + 61 )dx)(x2 x + 61 )
1
2
P f = 23 + 45 (x 12 ) + 4
7 (x x + 6 )

3
By Weierstrass approxmiation theorem for  > 0 there exists a polynomial p(x) such that k p f k =
max|f (x) p(x)| <  while a x b |En (f )| = |En (f ) En (p)|
R1
Pn
= | 0 f (x)dx i=1 wi f (xi )|
R1
R1
Pn
Pn
= | 0 f (x)dx 0 p(x)dx + i=1 wi p(xi ) i=1 wi f (xi )|
R1
Pn
= | 0 (f (x) p(x))dx + i=1 wi (p(xi ) f (xi ))|
Thus,
R1
Pn
|En (f )| = | 0 (f (x) p(x))dx + i=1 wi (p(xi ) f (xi ))| (Since, En (P ) = 0
Applying triangular inequality,
R1
Pn
En (f ) = 0 |(f (x) p(x))|dx + i=1 wi |(p(xi ) f (xi ))| k p f k + k p f k 
Thus,
k p f k


2

and hence there exists a N > 0 such that |En (f )| <  when n > N

continued on next page. . .

Page 4 of 4