Pharmacy100616 PDF

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1 of 65

Cyanide produces its toxic action by tightly binding with which of the following
enzyme systems?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Monoamine oxidase
Cytochrome oxidase
Acetylcholine esterase
Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase

2 of 65
Which of the following statements about glycolysis is true?
A)
B)
C)
D)

It
It
It
It

will not
directly
converts
produces

occur in the absence of oxygen.


produces carbon dioxide and water.
fatty acids to acetate units.
energy.

3 of 65
The alternate complement cascade differs from the classical complement cascade by:
A)
B)
C)
D)

its appearance only in certain human ethnic racial groups.


causing lysis of bacterial cells.
being initiated directly by certain bacterial toxins and venoms.
requiring an immunoglobulin-antigen complex to initiate the process.

4 of 65
GBL, GHB, & BD are members of a family of compounds which are often referred to as
"date rape drugs". They may cause which of the following serious hazards?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Low respiratory rate


Immunosuppression
CNS stimulation
Tachycardia

5 of 65
Neisseria meningitidis usually enters the body through the:
A)
B)
C)
D)

skin.
urethra.
nasopharynx.
intestinal tract.

7 of 65
A common vector for insertion of the gene into a microoganism to produce
biotechnology products on todays market is a:
A)
B)
C)
D)

virus.
plasmid.
silicon chip.
monoclonal antibody.

8 of 65
Passive immunity results from:
A) partial immunization.
B) recovery from a specific infection.
C) injection with the specific antibody.

D) a lack of response to the antigen.


9 of 65
For the reaction below, the concentration of ES is at steady state when:

A)
B)
C)
D)

k1([E] + [S]) + k-2([E] + [P]) = [ES] (k-1+ k2).


[ES] (k-1+ k2) = ([E] + [S])k1= ([E] + [P])k-2.
(k-1+ k2) [ES] = k1[E][S] + k-2[E][P].
(k-1+ k2) [ES] = k1[E][S] = k-2[E][P].

10 of 65
The reaction shown below is an example of which of the following?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Aldol condensation
Michael addition
Mannich reaction
Transesterification

11 of 65
A water soluble prodrug of a water insoluble alcohol is the:
A)
B)
C)
D)

acetic acid.
palmitic acid.
succinic acid.
sodium hemisuccinate.

12 of 65
Curves A and B below show the concentration vs time profiles of two patients who
are taking vancomycin 1 hour after receiving infusions of 1 g of a drug. The
difference between the two profiles is most likely due to:

A)
B)
C)
D)

normal subject-to-subject variability.


end-stage renal disease in patient
failure to control the level of patient activity.
administration of different products that have different bioavailabilities.

13 of 65
The IUPAC name for acetylene is:
A)
B)
C)
D)

ethene.
ethyne.
propene.
propyne.

14 of 65
The following data describe the results of kinetic studies performed to determine
penicillin degradation in aqueous solutions at 60
A) 0.090
B) 0.110

C) 0.256
D) 0.640
15 of 65
Mean particle diameter is frequently NOT useful for predicting surface area of a
powder sample because:
I. surface area is related to the square of particle radius.
II. particles may be highly porous.
III. particle shape may not remain constant as a function of
particle size.
A)
B)
C)
D)

I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III

16 of 65
How many milligrams per day
the same dose of penicillin
(Penicillin G sodium: 1 mg
potassium: 1 mg represents
A)
B)
C)
D)

of penicillin V potassium are required to administer


as 1500 mg per day of penicillin G sodium?
represents 1667 U of penicillin. Penicillin V
1530 U of penicillin.)

1377
1500
1634
1842

18 of 65
Rifampin exerts its action on bacterial cells by inhibiting:
A)
B)
C)
D)

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity.


DNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity.
lipid biosynthesis.
cytochrome P-450.

19 of 65
A structural analog of an intermediate in a physiological metabolic pathway that
acts by replacing the natural substrate and thus blocking the biosynthesis of a
physiologically-important substance is called an:
A)
B)
C)
D)

antimetabolite.
antagonist.
antisense molecule.
antigen.

20 of 65
Respiration in mammalian cells is an important function performed by:
A)
B)
C)
D)

Golgi bodies.
the endoplasmic reticulum.
chloroplasts.
mitochondria.

21 of 65
Celecoxibs interaction with a cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitor [CYP2C9] will
result in:

A)
B)
C)
D)

decreased
decreased
increased
increased

toxicity.
effectiveness.
half-life.
bioavailability.

22 of 65
Chlordiazepoxide, which has the structure shown below on the left, is inactivated
by ultraviolet light, while diazepam, which has the structure shown below on the
right, is not. Which functional group is involved in chlordiazepoxide's
inactivation?

A)
B)
C)
D)

N-Oxide
5-Phenyl
2-One
Amide

23 of 65
The area under the curve of plasma concentration vs time is 8 mcgh/mL for a 100
mg dose of a drug when it is given IV. The area under the curve for a 250 mg dose
of the same drug is 9 mcgh/mL when the drug is given PO. What fraction of the
oral dose was absorbed?
A)
B)
C)
D)

0.35
0.40
0.45
0.50

24 of 65
Toxicogenetic differences that cause atypical responses to poisoning can generally
be traced to individual differences in:
A)
B)
C)
D)

absorption.
distribution.
metabolism.
elimination.

25 of 65
Which of the following generally decreases the aqueous solubility of a compound?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Changing a straight-chain alkyl group to a branched-chain alkyl group


Preparing a chemical derivative or analog that has a lower melting point
Converting an acid to its salt
Converting a salt form of a drug to its free base

26 of 65
The coupling of a compound with glucuronic acid leads to:
A)
B)
C)
D)

products with increased pharmacologic activity.


products with decreased or no pharmacologic activity.
products eliminated from the body via the lungs.
lipid-soluble products.

27 of 65
A noncompetitive antagonist will shift a dose versus response curve to the:
A)
B)
C)
D)

right with constant maximal efficacy.


right with lowered maximal efficacy.
left with constant maximal efficacy.
left with lowered maximal efficacy.

28 of 65
Which of the following statements about petrolatum is true?
A)
B)
C)
D)

It
It
It
It

causes a high incidence of hypersensitivity reactions.


tends to become rancid quickly.
contains ingredients that irritate mucous membranes.
should not be used to treat weeping lesions.

29 of 65
Contamination of nonsterile ophthalmic solutions is most commonly by:
A)
B)
C)
D)

Staphylococcus.
Streptococcus.
Candida.
Bacillus.

30 of 65
What two structures are connected by the eustachian tube?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Cochlea and auditory nerve


Eardrum and ossicles
External ear and tympanic membrane
Middle ear and nasopharynx

31 of 65
An abdominal infection caused by Bacteroides fragilis would be treated most
effectively by:
A)
B)
C)
D)

amoxicillin.
aztreonam.
clindamycin.
ciprofloxacin.

32 of 65
Gingival hyperplasia is an adverse effect most commonly associated with:
A)
B)
C)
D)

carbamazepine.
valproic acid.
ethosuximide.
phenytoin.

34 of 65
During the establishment of a pricing policy, the pharmacy manager's long-term
financial objective should be to maximize:
A) profits.
B) sales volume.
C) product turnover.

D) return on investment.
35 of 65
Medicare is a program that is sponsored and administered by:
A)
B)
C)
D)

the federal government to provide health


state governments to provide health care
the federal government to provide health
state governments to provide health care

care for poor people.


for poor people.
care for elderly people.
for elderly people.

36 of 65
An economic market that has one seller and many buyers is referred to as:
A)
B)
C)
D)

a pure monopoly.
pure competition.
monopolistic competition.
oligopolistic competition.

37 of 65
Which of the following has occurred in the United States due to the increasing
number of physicians?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Physicians' salary growth has decreased.


Pharmacists' salary growth has increased.
The length of patients' hospital stay has increased.
Enrollment in medical schools has increased.

38 of 65
A patient taking a bulk-forming laxative should NOT be told:
A)
B)
C)
D)

to drink plenty of fluids.


to mix the product with fluid before ingestion.
to consult a physician if constipation persists for more than 1 week.
that the product will produce a bowel movement within 4 to 6 hours.

39 of 65
Urinary tract infections among incontinent patients are best prevented by:
A)
B)
C)
D)

administering urinary tract analgesics.


changing IV catheters a minimum of every 48 hours.
administering an oral antibiotic such as penicillin G.
limiting the time an indwelling bladder catheter is in place.

40 of 65
A preparation for a Schedule III substance is written March 15 and dispensed April
30. Authorized refills are NOT permitted after:
A)
B)
C)
D)

June 14.
June 29.
September 14.
September 29.

41 of 65
Which of the following statements about Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
programs is true?

A)
B)
C)
D)

They
They
They
They

are
are
are
are

pilot programs funded through a fee-for-service plan.


funded only through federal funds.
funded only through state funds.
funded through a prepaid program.

42 of 65
Epidemiology studies show that first degree relatives of a patient with breast
cancer have a two to three-fold increase in risk of cancer in comparison to the
general population. The risk ratio for these relatives compared to non-relatives
is therefore:
A)
B)
C)
D)

1/2 to 1/3.
2 to 3.
7 to 8.
200 to 300.

43 of 65
Methotrexate induced severe bone marrow suppression can be prevented by
concomitant administration of:
A)
B)
C)
D)

leucovorin.
folic acid.
nicotinamide.
nicotinic acid.

44 of 65
Patients' perceptions of illness and their reactions to it are most influenced by
their:
A)
B)
C)
D)

cultural background.
pharmacist.
physician.
insurance plan.

45 of 65
A true statement regarding the effectiveness of dialysis in removing a drug from
systemic circulation is:
A)
B)
C)
D)

low molecular weight compounds are more readily dialyzed.


high molecular weight compounds are more readily dialyzed.
compounds with large volumes of distribution are more readily dialyzed.
highly lipid-soluble drugs are more readily dialyzed.

46 of 65
Which of the following groups of US health professionals has reportedly suffered
from decreased patient demand due to its emphasis on preventive care?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Dentists
Optometrists
Pharmacists
Physicians

47 of 65
The major complication of 131I therapy in the treatment of Graves' disease is:
A) radiation thyroiditis.
B) thyroid scan.
C) malignancy.

D) hypothyroidism.
48 of 65
Cystitis is diagnosed in a 24-year-old woman in the thirty-first week of
pregnancy. She has no known drug allergies. The pharmacist can appropriately
recommend treatment with:
A)
B)
C)
D)

co-trimoxazole DS, i bid for 10 days.


tetracycline, 250 mg, qid for 3 days.
amoxicillin, 250 mg, tid for 10 days.
ciprofloxacin, 250 mg, bid for 10 days.

49 of 65
The largest segment of total health-care expenditures is for:
A)
B)
C)
D)

medications.
hospital care.
nursing home care.
physician services.

50 of 65
Which of the following statements best represents medical information obtained
over the Internet?
A) The Food and Drug Administration regulates all drug information found on the
Internet
B) The Internet hosts a large number of high-quality medical resources; however,
the quality of information from some sites is questionable
C) Consumers seldom use the Internet to find medical information
D) All medical information available on the Internet is current and well
documented
51 of 65
Which of the following solutions would provide the most concentrated source of
calories?
A)
B)
C)
D)

20%
70%
20%
25%

fat emulsion
dextrose
dextrose + 10% amino acids
dextrose + 4.25% amino acids

52 of 65
Ingestion of petroleum distillates commonly results in:
A)
B)
C)
D)

chemical pneumonitis.
metabolic acidosis.
hepatic failure.
hallucinations.

53 of 65
The immunosuppression caused by cyclosporin therapy is increased by a drug
interaction with:
A) ketoconazole.
B) rifampin.
C) ibuprofen.

D) lbuterol.
54 of 65
The inflammatory response, characterized by pain, swelling, and erythema, is due
primarily to the chemotaxis and migration of:
A)
B)
C)
D)

platelets.
neutrophils.
red blood cells.
T lymphocytes.

55 of 65
The current laboratory test of choice for monitoring the effect of warfarin is:
A)
B)
C)
D)

international normalized ratio (INR).


partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
prothrombin time (PT).
whole blood clotting time.

56 of 65
Which of the following formulas best describes how third parties reimburse
pharmacies for prescription drug products?
A)
B)
C)
D)

100% of
100% of
AAC + a
AWP - a

Actual Acquisition Cost (AAC)


Average Wholesale Price (AWP)
pre-determined percentage of AAC
pre-determined percentage of AWP

57 of 65
Which of the following factors is NOT a basic component of the marketing mix?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Place
Price
Promotion
Performance

58 of 65
Health-related quality of life is what type of outcome?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Operational
Humanistic
Economic
Clinical

59 of 65
Which of the following infections becomes LESS common as children age into
adolescence?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Otitis media
Vertebral osteomyelitis
Meningococcal meningitis
Bacterial endocarditis

60 of 65
Two antiepileptic drugs are compared during a 6-month period. Frequency of
premedication seizures in the two patient groups are normally distributed and have
equal variances. What statistical test is appropriate for comparing seizure
frequency in the 2 groups? (No other extraneous variables are to be analyzed.)

A)
B)
C)
D)

Student's t-test
Chi-square test
Mann Whitney U-test
Wilcoxon rank sum test

61 of 65
The earliest sign of congestive heart failure is:
A)
B)
C)
D)

dyspnea.
hypertrophy.
angina pectoris.
myocardial infarction.

62 of 65
Which of the following may be useful as a marker of malnutrition?
A)
B)
C)
D)

a1-Acid glycoprotein
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C-reactive protein
Serum albumin

63 of 65
A patient known to have coronary artery disease suffers the onset of chest pain
while he is resting. This type of angina is described as:
A)
B)
C)
D)

chronic.
sedentary.
variant.
unstable.

64 of 65
The clear delineation of hypotheses is most important at what point in a research
project?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Before data collection begins


While data is being collected
After data is collected
After summary data is collected

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