Fluid Mechanics and Hyderalic

1.FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDERALIC www.geekmcq.
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1.
A perfect gas
A.
Has zero viscosity B.
Has constant viscosity C.
Satisfies the
relation PV = mRT D.
Is incompressible
E.
None of the above
2.
An ideal fluid is
A.
Similar to a perfect gas B.
Frictionless and incompressible C.
which obeys Newton's law of viscosity D.
One which satisfies continuity
equation
E.
One which flows through pipes with least friction
3.
An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the following:
A.
Newton's law of viscosity B.
layer theory D.
Pascals law
Newton's law of motion C.

Boundary
E.
Continuity equation
4.
The velocity of a fluid particle at the centre of the pipe section is
A.
Maximum
B.
Minimum
Logarithmic average.
5.
The shear stress velocity gradient relation of the Newtonian fluids is
A.
Linear B.
Parabolic
is no such relation
6.
C.
Average
Hyperbolic
D.
D.
r.m.s.
Involutic
E.
E.
There
The units of kinematic viscosity are
A.
kg/m2-sec
kg/sec.
7.
C.
One
B.
kg sec/m2
C.
m/kg sec
D.
m2/sec E.
The units of dynamic viscosity are
A.
Newton-sec/m2
m2/sec
B.
Newton/m2-sec
C.
kg-sec/m
D.
kg
E.
m2/sec
8.
The units of surface tension are
A.
Same as units of force

B.
Energy/unit area
C.
Force/unit area
D.
It is
dimensionless
E.
None of the above
9.
Density in terms of viscosity is
A.
Kinematic viscosity/Dynamic viscosity B.
viscosity
Dynamic viscosity/Kinematic
C.
Kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity

None of the above
D.
10.
Newton's law of viscosity relates
A.
Shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid

B.
Yield shear
stress, rate of angular deformation and viscosity
C.
Pressure, velocity
and viscosityD.
Shear stress, temperature, viscosity and velocity
E.
Pressure, vicosity and rate of angular deformation
11.
SI unit of viscosity is
A.
10 times poise
Equal to poise
E.
None of the above
12.
Identify the incorrect statement. Apparent shear forces
B.
9.81 times poise C.
Any of the above E.
1/9.81 times poise D.
A.
Can never occur in frictionless fluid regardless of its motion
B.
Can
never occur when the fluid is at rest
C.
Depend upon cohesive forces
D.
Depend upon molecular interchange of momentum
E.
May occur
owing to cohesion when the fluid is at rest
13.
The upper critical Reynolds number is
A.
Important from a design view point
B.
The number at which turbulent
flow changes to laminar flow
C.
About 2000 D.
Not more than 2000
E.
Of no practical importance in pipe flow problems
14.
The Reynolds number for pipe flow is given by
A.
VD/v B.
15.
Alcohol is used in manometers because
VD
C.
VD ? / D.
VD /
E.
None of the above
A.
It provides a suitable meniscus for the inclined tube B.
Its density being
less can provide longer length for a pressure difference, thus more accuracy can be
obtained
C.
(A) and (B) above D.
Cheap and easily availale
E.
Its vapour pressure is low
16.
The Reyonlds number may be defined as the ratio of
A.
Viscous forces to inertial forces B.
Elastic forces to pressure forces
C.
Viscous forces to gravity forces D.
Gravity forces to inertial forces
E.
None of the above
17.
Select the quantity in the following that is not a dimensionless parameter:
A.
Pressure coefficientB.
C.
Darcy weisbach friction factor
E.
Weber number
18.
The Weber number is the ratio of
A.
Inertial forces to surface tension force B.
C.
Elastic forces to pressure forces D.
E.
Elastic forces to gravity
19.
Froude number is useful in calculations for
A.
Water hammer
B.
Flow through pipes
C.
Hydraulic jump
D.
Surface tension force
E.
Compressible flow problems
20.
The normal stress is the same in all directions at a point in fluid
A.
Regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer B.

When there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
Froude number
D.
C.
Only when the fluid is frictionless
and incompressible
Kinematic viscosity
Intertial forces to viscous forces
Viscous forces to gravity
D.
Only when fluid is frictionless
E.
Only when the fluid has zero viscosity and is at rest
21.
When a venturimeter is used in an inclined position, it will show
A.
Sale reading B.
More reading
C.
Less reading D.
Depends on vescosity of fluid
E.
None of the above
22.
The critical depth on a channel is given by
A.
h = v2/g
B.
h = v2/2g
C.
h = v/2g
D.
h = 2v/g
E.
h = v/g
23.
The increase of temperature
A.
Increases the viscosity of a fluid B.
Decreases the viscoisty of a fluid
C.
Decreases the viscosity of a gas D.
Increases the viscosity of a gas
E.
None of the above
24.
The bulk modulus of elasticity
A.
Is independent of temperature
B.
Increases with the pressure
C.
Is independent of pressure and viscosity
more compressible
E.
D.
Is larger when the fluid is
None of the above
25.
A liquid compressed in a cylinder has a volume of 1 litre at 1 MN/m2 and a
volume of 995 cu-cm at 2 MN / m2. The bulk modulus of elasticity would be
A.
200 Mpa
B.
Mpa
C.
5 Mpa D.
10 Mpa
E.
20 Mpa
26.
One poise is equivalent to
A.
360 kg/m-hr B.
C.
1/98.1 kgf sec/m2 D.
E.
Any of the above
1 dyne sec/cm2
10-1 kg/m-sec
27.
An object having 20 kg mass weighs 19.60 kg on a spring type balance. The
value of 'g' in m/sec2 for the place is
A.
1000 B.
9.8
C.
9.9
10.2
E.
10.1
D.
28.
If a barometer carries wter instead of mercury, the height of column for a
pressure equivalent to 75 cm of mercury will be
A.
1020 cm
B.
1000 cm
C.
1034 cm
E.
1050 cm
D.
1040 cm
29.
The length of mercury column at a place at an altitude will vary with respect
to that at ground in a
A.
Linear relation
B.
Hyperbolic relation
C.
Parabolic relation
D.
Will remain constant
E.
First slowly and then steeply
30.
Mercury is suitable for manometers because
A.
It has high density B.
C.
It does not stick to tube walls
E.
It is generally not used in manometers
31.
The density of air at 10?C and 1 Mpa abs in SI units is
A.
12.31 B.
1.231
C.
118.4 D.
65
E.
None of the above
It can be easily seen in tube

D.
It moves easily
32.
The depth of oil having specific gravity 0.6 to produce a pressure of 3.6
kg/cm2 will be
A.
40 m of oil
B.
36 m of oil
C.
50 m of oil
D.
60 m of oil
E.
120 m of oil
33.
In a flowing fluid, a particle may possess
A.
Inertial energy
B.
Pressure energy
C.
Kinetic energy
D.
Elevation or gravitation potential energy
E.
All the above
34.
Select the statement which is correct
A.
Standard atmospheric pressure is 1 kg/cm2 B.
A barometer reads the
difference between load and standard atmospheric pressure
C.
Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure at sea
level D.
Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric
pressure
E.
Local atmospheric pressure depends upon the elevation of the locality only
35.
A barometer is used to measure
A.
Very low pressures B.
C.
line
Pressure differeuce between two points
E.
Atmospheric pressure
36.
Mercury is generally used in barometer because
A.
Of higher density due to which the height of barmeter will be small

It has practically zero vapour pressure
C.
It shines and can be easily read D.
E.
All above
Very high pressures

D.
Pressure of fluid in a pipe
B.
It does not stick to the tube walls
37.
The vertical component of pressure force on a submerged curved surface is
equal to
A.
Its horizontal component B.
curved surface
The force on a vertical projection of the
C.
The product of pressure at centroid and surface area
of liquid vertically above the curved surface
E.
None of the above
38.
1 atm pressure is equivalent to
A.
1.01315 x 105 N/m2
C.
1.0133 x 105 kg/m-sec2 D.
E.
Any of the above
39.
A simple pitot tube is used to measure
A.
The pressure in a static fluid
C.
The total pressure D.
E.
The undistributed fluid pressure
B.
D.
The weight
700 mm Hg
1.0133 x 106 kg/cm-sec2
B.
The velocity in a flowing stream
The dynamic pressure
40.
1 mm Hg pressure is equivalent to
A.
1.333 x 102 N/m2 B.
1.333 x 10-3 bar
C.
1.3158 x 10-3 atm D.
1.332 x 102 kg/m-sec2
E.
Any of the above
41.
A hydro-electric site has a head of 100 m and an average discharge of
10m3/s. Assume 92% efficiency, for a greater speed of 6000 rpm, the specific speed
of turbine would be
A.
600
B.
1000
C.
1500 D.
1900
E.
None of the above
42.
Four piezometer openings in the same cross-section of a cast iron pipe
indicate the following pressure for simultaneous reading: 43, 42.6, 42.4 37 mm Hg.
What value should be taken for the pressure?
A.
41.5
B.
43
C.
37
D.
42.67
E.
None of the above
43.
The horizontal component of force on a curved surface is equal to the
A.
Weight of liquid vertically above the curved surface B.
retained by the curved surface
C.
Product of pressure at its centroid and area
the curved surface into a vertical plane
D.
E.
Scalar sum of all elemented horizontal components
44.
1 N/m2 pressure is equivalent to
A.
1 pascal
C.
10-2 kg/m sec2
E.
Any of the above
45.
1 lb/in2 pressure is equivalent to
A.
144 lb/ft2
C.
6.8947 x 103 kg/m-sec2 D.
B.
B.
10-5 bar
D.
7.5 x 10-3 mm Hg
6.8046 x 10-2
0.06895 bar
Weight of liquid
Force on a projection of
E.
Any of the above
46.
A stationary body immersed in a river has a maximum pressure of 69 Kpa
exerted on it at a distance of 5.4 m below the free surface. What velocity of river
could be expected ?
A.
9 m/sec
B.
5.4 m/sec
C.
3.82 m/sec
D.
5.67 m/s
E.
None of the above
47.
The pressure in millimetres of mercury gauge, equivalent to 68 mm H2O plus
54.4 mm manometer fluid, sp. Gr. 2.5 is
A.
10
B.
12.5
C.
15.5
D.
17.5
E.
20
48.
A mercury water manometer indicates a gauge difference of 400 mm. The
difference in pressure, measured in metres of water, is
A.
0.4
B.
0.8
C.
1088 D.
E.
None of the above
49.
A pilot tube is used for the measurement of
A.
Pressure
B.
Velocity
C.
Viscosity
D.
Surface tension
E.
Flow rate
50.
A rotameter is a device used to measure
A.
Velocity of fluid in pipes
C.
Vortex flow D.
E.
Density of fluids
51.
A hydrometer is used to determine
A.
Relative humidity
C.
Specific gravity of liquids D.
5.44
B.
Velocity of gauges
Flow of fluids
B.
Buoyancy force
Viscosity of liquids
E.
Surface tension
52.
In isentropic flow, the temperature
A.
Cannot exceed the reservoir temperature
increase again downstream
C.
Is independent of Mach number D.
E.
Remains constant in a duct flow
53.
In an isothermal atmosphere
A.
over
Pressure decreases linearly with elevation
B.
Cannot drop and then
Is a function of Mach number only
C.
Pressure varies in the same way as density
directly as the square of height
B.
Pressure is constant all
D.
Pressure increases
E.
Pressure varies exponentially with density
54.
The dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in gas temperature
A.
Increases
C.
Increses inversely as ?T
E.
Does not change significantly
55.
The flow of water in a pipe of diameter 3000 mm can be measured by
A.
Venturimeter
B.
C.
Nozzle
Pitot tube
E.
Orifice plate
56.
A fluid is a substance that
B.
D.
Increases as ?T
D.
Decreases
Rotameter
A.
Always expands until it fills any container
stress at a point regardless of its motion
B.
Has the same shear
C.
Cannot remain at rest under action of any sher force
subjected to shear forces
D.
E.
Is practically incompressible
57.
The resultant hydrostatic force acts through a point known as
A.
Centre of gravity
B.
Centre of buoyancy
Cannot be
C.
Centre of Pressure D.
None of the above
58.
The hydrostatic law states that rate of increase of pressure in a vertical
direction is equal to
A.
Density of the fluid B.
Specific weight of the fluid
C.
Weight of the fluid D.
None of the above
59.
An ideal fluid is
A.
Very viscous B.
One which obeys Newton's law of viscosity
C.
A useful assumption in problems in conduit flow
incompressible
D.
Frictionless and
E.
None of these answers
60.
An ideal flow of any liquid must fulfil
A.
Newton's second law of motion B.
Bernulli's theorem
C.
The Newton's law of viscosity
Law of conservation of energy
E.
Countinuity equation
61.
The continuity equation
A.
Expresses relationship between hydraulic parameters of flow

Expresses the relation between work and energy
D.
C.
Is based on Bernoulli's theorem D.
unit volume for two points on a stream line
B.
Is a relation for the momentum per
E.
Relates the mass rate of flow along a stream line
62.
The equation of continuity of flow is applicable when
A.
The flow is one dimensional
B.
C.
The flow is compressive
The velocity is uniform over the cross section
E.
None of the above
63.
One dimensional flow is
D.
A.
Restricted to flow in a straight line
a transverse direction
C.
Steady uniform flow
D.
The flow is steady
B.
Uniform flow
Flow which neglects changes in
E.
None of the above
64.
Uniform flow occurs when
A.
Conditions do not change with time at any point
velocity of fluid is zero
B.
Rate of change of
C.
At every point the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction for
any given instant D.
The change in transverse direction are zero
E.
None of the above
65.
Steady flow occurs when
A.
The pressure does not change along the flow B.
change
C.
Conditions change gradually with time D.
the path of flow
E.
The velocity does not
There are no obstructions on
Conditions do not change withtime at any point
66.
If the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to point in
magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, the flow is said to be
A.
Uniform flow B.
Steady flow
C.
Turbulent flow
D.
E.
None of the above
Laminar flow
67.
A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not
cross each other is called
A.
Steady flow B.
Uniform flow
C.
Stream line flow
D.
E.
None of the above
68.
A flow is said to be laminar when
A.
high
The fluid particles moves in a zig-zag way
Turbulent flow
B.
The Reynold number is
C.
The fluid particles move in layers parallel to the boundary D.
above
69.
None of the
The loss of pressure head for the laminar flow through pipes varies
A.
As the square of velocity B.
Directly as the velocity
C.
As the inverse of the velocity
D.
70.
The equation of continuity of flow is based on the principle of conservation of
A.
Momentum B.
Mass
C.
Energy
All above
E.
None of the above
71.
The general energy equation is applicable to
A.
Steady flow B.
Unsteady flow
C.
Non-uniform flow
D.
E.
Laminar flow
72.
The continuity equation in ideal fluid flow
A.
States that the net rate of in-flow into any small volume must be zero
Applies to irrotational flow only
D.
None of the above
Turbulent flow
C.
Impulses to existence of a velocity potential D.
remains constant along stream line
E.
B.
States that the energy
States that energy is constant everywhere in the fluid
73.
If the forces due to inertia, gravity and frictional resistance are insignificant,
the design of a channel may be made by comparing
A.
Weber number
B.
Reynolds number
C.
Froude's number
D.
Prandt number
E.
Schmidt number
74.
If the Mach number of a flow is 3 the flow is known as
A.
Super-supersonic
C.
Sonic D.
E.
None of the above
75.
Which one of the following is laminar flow
B.
Supersonic
Sub-sonic
A.
Rise of water in plants through roots
arteries of a human body
B.
Movement of blood in the
C.
Flow of oil in measuring instruments
E.
None of the above
76.
A control volume refers to
A.
A closed system
C.
A isolated system D.
E.
A fixed region in space
77.
The eddy viscosity for turbulent flow is
A.
Part of dynamic viscosity B.
C.
Dependent on fluid temperature D.
E.
Independent of the nature of flow
78.
The pressure centre is
B.
D.
All of the above
An open system
A specified mass
A property of the fluid

Dependent on flow
A.
At the centroid of the submerged area B.
prism
The centroid of the pressure
C.
Independent of the orientation of the area
action of the resultant force
D.
E.
A point on the line of
Always above the centroid of area
79.
A fluid in which resistance to deformation is independent of the shear stress
is known as
A.
Bingham plastic fluid
B.
Pseudo plastic fluid
C.
Dilatant fluidD.
E.
None of the above
80.
Which mouthpiece is having maximum coefficient of discharge?
A.
External mouthpiece
B.
Convergent-Divergent mothpiece
C.
Internal mouthpiece
D.
None of the above
Newtonian fluid
81.
The principle, "The buoyancy is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced and
the line of action is through the centroid of the displaced mass" is known as
A.
Law of buoyancy
B.
C.
Archimedes principle
Newton's law
D.
First law of fluid mechanics
E.
Bernoulli's law
82.
Gradually varied flow is
A.
Steady uniform flow
B.
Steady non-uniform flow
C.
Unsteady uniform flow
D.
Unsteady non-uniform flow
E.
83.
If a centrifugal pump takes too much power, the cause may be
A.
Low speed
C.
Air leakage D.
E.
Heavy liquid.
84.
In a centrifugal pump the pressure energy of water is increased because of
A.
Rotation of impeller
B.
Centrifugal force
C.
Momentum of particles
D.
Lift of particles
E.
None of the above
85.
A Kaplan turbine is suitable for
A.
High head low discharge B.
High head high discharge
C.
Low head low discharge
Low head high discharge
E.
None of the above
B.
Air in water
Foot valve too small
D.
86.
Under which two of the following regimes would the assumption of a
continuum be reasonable (1) Free molecule flow (2) Gas dynamics (3) Slip flow (4)
Complete vacuum (5) Liquid flow
A.
1,2
B.
2,3
C.
3,5
D.
1,4
E.
1,5.
87.
In case of forced vortex
A.
Velocity decreases with radius
B.
Velocity increases with radius
C.
The fluid rotates as a composite solid D.
random
The motion of fluid varies at
E.
The fluid rotates with radial as well vertical velocities.
88.
In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller is
A.
Rectilinear flow
B.
C.
Radial flow
Forced vortex motion
E.
Free vortex motion
D.
Centrifugal flow
89.
Boundary layer thickness (?) is the distance from the surface of the solid body
in the direction perpendicular to flow, where the velocity of fluid is equal to
A.
Free stream velocity
B.
0.9 times the free stream velocity
C.
0.99 times the free stream velocity
90.
105 N/m2 pressure is eqrivalent to
A.
1 bar B.
C.
0.98682 atm D.
E.
Any of the above
91.
In the theory of lubrication the assumption is made that
D.
None of the above
750.06 mm Hg
401.85 m H2O
A.
The velocity distribution is the same at all cross-sections B.
distribution at any section is the same as if the plates were parallel
The velocity
C.
The pressure variation along the bearing is the same as if the plates were
parallel
D.
The velocity varies linearly between the two surfaces
E.
The velocity varies linearly between the two surfaces
92.
The distance r from the centre of a tube of radius r0 where the average
velocity occurs in laminar flow is
A.
0.5 r0 B.
0.707 r0
C.
0.8 r0 D.
r0
E.
None of the above
93.
The Reynolds number for flow of 0.3 m3/s of oil sp. Gr. 0.86,
A.
29.2
C.
2920 D.
E.
None of the above
B.
292
22930
94.
The result of pressure of a liquid on the wetted surface of a rigid body is
A.
The single force which, acting at a point on that surface would produce the
same effect on the body as the liquid pressure on it B.
The single resultant force
acting on the body
C.
The point where vertical component of resulting force is zero
single point where resultant horizontal force is zero
D.
E.
None of the above
95.
The Boundary layer on a flat plate is calld laminar boundary layer if
A.
Reynold No. is less than 2000
C.
Reynold No. is less than 5 x 105 D.
B.
The
Reynold No. is less that 4000

None of the above
96.
Which two forces are most important in laminar flow between closely spaced
parallel plates
A.
Inertial, viscous
B.
Pressure, inertial, inetial
C.
Gravity, pressure
D.
Viscous, pressure
E.
None of the above
97.
Which two forces are most important in floating bodies
A.
Inertial, pressure
C.
Buoyancy, gravity D.
E.
Pressure, viscous
B.
Gravity, inertial
Viscous, buoyancy
98.
A piece of metal of specific gravity 3.4 floats in mercury of specific gravity
13.6. What fraction of its volume is under mercury
A.
Full
B.
0.25
C.
0.5
D.
0.75
E.
0.9
99.
A piece of cork weighing 4 kg floats in water with 40% of its volume under the
liquid. Determine specific gravity of cork.
A.
B.
0.16
C.
0.4
D.
0.6
E.
None of the above
100.
The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
A.
Centre of gravity of any submerged body
floating body
B.
Centroid of gravity of any
C.
Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
fluid vertically above the body
D.
Centroid of the volume of
E.
Centroid of the horizontal projection of the body
101.
Buoyant force is
A.
The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
resultant force acting on a floating body
B.
C.
The force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body

A non-vertical force on symmetrical bodies
E.
Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
The
D.
102. A piece of metal weights 10 kg in air and 8 kg in water. The specific gravity of
the metal is
A.
10
B.
C.
D.
103.
A piezometer is not used for pressure measurement in pipes when
A.
The pressure is very low B.
The pressure drop in the pipe is low
C.
Velocity of fluid is high
Velocity of fluid is low
E.
The fluid in the pipe is a gas
104.
The centre of pressure on an immersed surface is
A.
At the cantre of gravity
C.
Below the centre of gravity
E.
Depends on the density of fluid
E. 0.8
D.
B.
Above the centre of gravity

D.
Depends on the viscosity of fluid
105. The angle of divergence for the divergent cone of a venturimeter which will
give most efficient conversion of kinetic energy is about
A.
B.
C.
10
D.
12
E.
15
106.
that
The assumptions made in the most familiar form of Bernoulli's equation is
A.
Flow is along the streamlines
C.
Fluid is non-viscousD.
E.
All the above
107.
In a venturimeter
A.
Length of divergent cone is equal to the length of conergent cone

Length of divergent cone is half that of convergent cone
B.
Flow is steady
Fluid is homogeneous
C.
Divergent cone is kept shorter than convergent cone
cone is kept longer than the convergent cone
D.
B.
Divergent
E.
None of the above
108.
Pascal's law states that pressure at a point is equal in all directions
A.
In a liquid at rest
B.
In a fluid at rest
C.
In a laminar flow
D.
In a turbulent flow
109. The turbulent flow is hydraulically smooth if the ratio height of roughness
projection/the thickness of laminar sub-layer is less than
A.
B.
0.8
C.
110.
The flow in a pipe is laminar if the Reynolds number is
A.
Less than 2000
C.
Between 4000 and 6000 D.
E.
Equal to 10000
B.
0.75
D.
0.5
E.
0.25
Between 2000 and 4000

Equal to 6300
111. In which of the following cases it is possible for flow to occur from low
pressure to high pressure?
A.
pipe
Flow through a converging section
B.
C.
Flow of liquid in a vertical pipe
Flow of air downward in a pipe
E.
None of the above
D.
Adiabatic flow in a horizontal
112. At point A in a pipe line carrying water the diameter is 1 m, the pressure 98
kPa and the velocity 1 m/s. At point B, 2 m higher than A, the diameter is 0.5 m and
the pressure 20 kPa. The direction of flow would be
A.
A to B B.
B to A
C.
Cannot be ascertained from data
113.
Identify the correct statement
A.
Frictional resistance in a pipe decreases with density of the fluid B.

Frictional resistance in a pipe is dependent on the fluid pressure
C.
Frictional resistance in a pipe is independent on surface roughness

D.
Frictional resistance in a pipe depends on the square of area of the wetted
surface
E.
Frictional resistance in a pipe increases with the square of velocity
114.
Pressure co-efficient is a ratio of pressure forces to
A.
Viscous forces
B.
Intertial forces
C.
Gravity forces
D.
Surface tension forces
E.
Elastic energy forces
115.
Eulers dimensionless number relates
A.
Pressure force and inertia force B.
Inertia force and gravity force
C.
Buoyant force and inertia force D.
Buoyant force and viscous force
E.
Viscous force and inertia force
116.
The velocity distribution for flow between two fixed parallel plates
A.
Is constant over the cross-section
section
B.
Varies parabolically across the
C.
Is zero at the plates and linearly increases towards the plates
zero in the middle and increases linearly towards the plates
E.
None of the above
117.
Bernoulli's theorem deals with the principle of conservation of
A.
Energy
B.
C.
Mass D.
Force
Momentum
D.
Is
E.
Hydraulic pressure
118. The friction factor in turbulent flow in smooth pipes depends upon the
following:
A.
V, D, ?, L,
B.
L,
C.
(L, D, ?, ?,
D.
V, D,
E.
L, D, Q, V.
119.
The head loss in turbulent flow in a pipe
A.
Varies inversely with diameter
C.
Varies conversely as square of velocity D.
E.
Varies approximately as square of velocity
120.
Falling drops of water become spherical due to
A.
Adhesion
C.
Dynamic viscosity D.
E.
Surface tension
B.
B.
Varies conversely with diameter

Varies directly as velocity
Cohesion
Kinematic viscosity
121. If a water tank partially filled with water is being carried on a truck with a
constant horizontal acceleration, the level of liquid will
A.
Rise on the front side of the tank
B.
Fall on the front side of the tank
C.
Rise on the back side of the tank and fall on front
side of the tank and rise on front
D.
Fall on the back
E.
Front side fluctuate considerably
122.
Select the pressures that are equivalent
A.
10 psi, 23.1 ft H2O, 4.91 in. Hg B.
10 psi, 4.33 ft H2O, 20.3 in. Hg
C.
10 psi, 20.3 ft H2O, 23.1 in. Hg D.
4.3 psi, 10 ft H2O, 20.3 in. Hg
E.
4.33 psi, 10 ft H2O, 8.83 in. Hg
123.
A current meter is used for the measurement of
A.
Pressure
B.
Velocity
C.
Viscosity
D.
Electrical charge on fluids
E.
Electrical conductivity
124.
An orifice is said to be a large orifice when
A.
The cross-section of orifie is not less than 10% of the cross-section of tank
B.
An orifice can discharge fluid within 10 minutes
C.
The head over the orifice is smaller than its vertical dimensions
125.
A mouthpiece cannot be used under very large head because
A.
The variation in discharge is large
erratic
B.
C.
Vortex is created at the vena contractaD.
contracta
E.
The flow through mouthpiece is

Cavitation occurs at the vena
Of practical difficulties in contraction
126. A short tube mouthpiece will not run full at its outlet if the head under which
the orifice work is
A.
Less than 5 m of water
B.
More than 12.5 m of water
C.
Less than 10 m of water D.
E.
Less than 3 m of water
127.
Select the correct statement regarding frictionless flow
Between 5 and 10 m of water
A.
In diverging conduits the velocity always decreases B.
always sonic at the throat of a converging diverging tube
The velocity is
C.
On supersonic flow the area decreases for increasing velocity
D.
velocity cannot be exceeded at the throat of a converging diverging tube
Sonic
128.
A hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement of
A.
Pressure of gases
C.
Viscosity of gases D.
E.
Density of liquids
129.
area
A most economical channel section is one which for a given cross-section
A.
Has maximum velocity of fluid
C.
Has maximum depth of fluid flowing
B.
Velocity of gases
Viscosity of liquids
B.
Has maximum discharge

D.
Has maximum wetted perimeter
E.
Has maximum hydraulic radius
130.
Capillary action is due to the
A.
Viscosity of liquid
B.
Cohesion of liquid particles
C.
Surface tension
D.
Adhesion of liquid particles on the surface
E.
None of the above
131.
The most efficient cross-section for a channel is
A.
Semi-circular
B.
C.
Rectangular D.
Triangular
E.
Half hexagon in the form of a trapezoid
132.
The most economical section of a triangular channel is
A.
A right angled triangle
Square
B.
An equilateral triangle
C.
An isosceles triangle with vertex angle of 45? D.
with vertex angle of 60?
An isosceles triangles
E.
An isosceles triangle with vertex angle of 90?
133.
The upper surface of the weir over which water flows is known as
A.
NappeB.
Crest
C.
Sill
Vein
E.
Contracta
134.
Manning's formula is used to determine
D.
A.
Friction hed loss in pipes running full
running partially full
B.
Friction head loss in pipes
C.
Friction head loss in open channels
sections
D.
Friction head loss in irregular
E.
Discharge through weirs and notches
135.
A critical depthmeter is used to measure
A.
Effective head of fluid flowing in a pipe B.
C.
Rise in head during water hammer
jump
D.
Depth of oceans and rivers

Rise in head during hydraulic
E.
Discharge in an open channel
136.
The width of a weir with end contractions is
A.
Equal to the width of the channel
channel
B.
C.
Half the width of the channel
One fourth the width of the channel
E.
None of the above
137.
The horizontal to vertical side slope in case of Cpppoletti weir is
A.
I:I
B.
1 : ?2
C.
I:2
D.
4:I
E.
I:4
138.
The losses in an open channel vary
A.
As the velocity
C.
As the cube of velocity
E.
Inversely as the hydraulic radius
139.
A critical depthmeter is always
A.
Associated with surge
C.
Associated with hydraulic jump D.
E.
Associated with tranquil flow
140.
A stepped notch is
B.
D.
Less than the width of the
As the square of velocity

D.
B.
Inversely with a gradient
Associated with water hammer

Associated with steep gradient
A.
A notch of varying shapes along the line of flow
section
B.
Semi-elliptical in
C.
A combination of triangular and a circular section
rectangular notches of different sizes
D.
A combination of
E.
A combination of triangular notches of different sizes
141. When the water flows over a rectangular suppressed weir the pressure
beneath the nappe is
A.
Very high
B.
C.
Atmospheric D.
Slightly above atmospheric

Negative
E.
Vacuum
142. The effect of negative pressure beneath the nappe in case of flow of water
over a rectangular suppressed weir is to
A.
Decrease the discharge
B.
C.
Increase frictional resistance
E.
None of the above
Increase the discharge

D.
Reduced frictional resistance
143. In order that the water shall never rise more than 100 cm above the crest for
a discharge of 5 cube metres per second, the length of weir will be
A.
1 metre
B.
2.5 metres
C.
2.49 metres D.
E.
2.00 metres
144.
The hydraulic gradient line
A.
Is always below the total energy line
B.
Is always parallel to the bottom
C.
line
Is same as central line of section
D.
Is always above the total energy
E.
Is always below the total energy line
145.
Force on a flat stationary plate is
2.51 metres
A.
Velocity of jet before impact - velocity after impact B.
velocities of jet in the direction normal to plate
Difference in
C.
Mass of water x (difference in velocities of jet)
D.
Mass of striking
water x (velocity before impact in the direction normal to plate-velocity fter impact
in the direction normal to plate).
E.
None of the above
146.
Undershot water wheels are those on which water acts
A.
Purely by impulse B.
Partly by impulse and partly by reaction
C.
Purely by reaction D.
None of the above
147.
Out ward radial flow turbines
A.
Are impulse type
C.
Are partly impulse partly reaction
B.
Are reaction type

D.
May be impulse or reaction type
E.
None of the above
148.
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of a pump
A.
Of unit size with unit discharge at unit head
requires unit power for unit head
B.
Of such size that it
C.
Of such size that it delivers unit discharge at unit head
that it delivers unit discharge at unit power
E.
149.
Cavitation is caused by
A.
High velocityB.
Low barometric pressure
C.
High pressure
D.
E.
Low velocity
150.
In Red wood viscometer
D.
Of such size
Low pressure
A.
Absolute value of viscosity is determined
utilised in overcoming friction
B.
Part of the head of fluid is
C.
The fluid discharges through orifice with negligible velocity
fluid should rapidly flow out of the orifice
D.
The
E.
Comparison of viscosity is done
151.
is
In a centrifugal pump installation while starting, the position of delivery valve
A.
Fully open
B.
Fully closed
C.
Half open
D.
More than half open
E.
Less than half open
152.
A body floats in stable equilibrium
A.
When the C.G. of body is below the centre of buoyancy
C.G. of body is above the surface of water
C.
C.G.
When the metacentric height is zero
E.
When the metacentre is below C.G.
153.
The centre of buoyancy is
D.
B.
When the
When the metacentre is above
A.
The point of intersection of the buoyant force and the centre line of the body
B.
Centre of gravity of the body
C.
Centroid of displaced volume of fluid
metacentre
D.
Mid-point between C.G. and
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154.
The metacentre is
A.
Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
displaced volume of fluid
B.
Centre of pressure of the
C.
Point of intersection of buoyant force and gravitational force
of intersection of buoyant force and centre line of body
E.
D.
Point
Mid-point between C.G. and centre of buoyancy of a body
155. The gentre of gravity of the volume of liquid displaced by an immersed body
is called
A.
Wet C.G.
B.
Metacentre
C.
Centre of pressure D.
E.
Centre of buoyancy
156.
Air vessels in a reciprocating pump are fitted to
A.
Reduce the acceleration head
B.
C.
Increase delivery head
Smoothen delivery head
E.
Increase the opening speed of pump
157.
Air vessels in a reciprocating pump is
A.
Fitted in the suction line
Wet centre
D.
B.
Reduce suction head
Fitted in the delivery line
C.
A cast iron chamber having an opening at the base D.
together
E.
None of the above
158.
1 m of water column is equivalent to
A.
0.1 kN/m2
B.
1.0 kN/m2
C.
10 kN/m2
D.
100 kN/m2
E.
1000 kN/m2
A, B and C above
159. If the specific speed of a pump is in the range 170 to 400, the type of pump
would be
A.
Axial flow
B.
Radial flow
C.
Mixed flow
D.
Turbine type
E.
None of the above
160.
Type of impeller used in mud pumps is
A.
Shrouded
B.
C.
Open D.
Double suction
E.
Any of the above
161.
In turbulent flow
One side shrouded
A.
The fluid particles move in an orderly manner
transfer is on a molecular scale only
B.
Momentum
C.
Shear stresses are generally larger than in similar laminar flow D.

Cohesion is more effective than momentum transfer in causing shear stress
E.
One lamina of fluid flides smoothly over another
162.
Multistage centrifugal pumps are used
A.
To produce high heads
B.
To give high discharge
C.
A and B above together
D.
To pump viscous liquids
E.
None of the above
163.
Specific speed of a impulse turbine ranges from
A.
0 - 4.5B.
100 - 140
C.
100 - 200
D.
E.
300 - 800
164.
For pumping highly viscous fluid viscous, the type of pump enerally used is
A.
Centrifugal
C.
Sliding vane type
E.
Screw pump
B.
200 - 300
Multistage centrifugal
D.
Gear vane type
165.
The boundary condition for steady flow of an ideal fluid is that the
A.
Velocity is zero at the boundary B.
boundary is zero
Velocity component normal to the
C.
Velocity component tangent to the boundary is zero D.
must be stationary
Boundary surface
E.
Continuity equation must be satisfied
166.
Which type of pump is different from others in the same group?
A.
Gear pump B.
Screw pump
C.
Lobe pump D.
Cam and piston pump
E.
Plunger pump
167. A turbine model test with 260 mm diameter showed an efficiency of 90

percent. The efficiency that can be expected from a 1.2 m diameter impeller is
A.
90 percent
B.
81 percent
C.
91 percent
D.
93.18 percent
E.
None of the above
168. Identify the statement which is not one of the assumptions made for the
derivation of Bernoulli's theorem
A.
The flow is steady and continuous
B.
The flow is two dimensional
C.
Fluid is ideal D.
E.
All the above
169.
A Francis turbine is
A.
Inward flow reaction turbine
B.
Inward flow impulse turbine
C.
Outward flow reaction turbine
D.
Outward flow impulse turbine
E.
None of the above
170.
Fluid statics deals with
A.
Viscous and pressure forces
B.
Viscous and gravity forces
C.
Gravity and pressure forces
D.
Surface tension and gravity forces
171.
Which is the correct statement
Fluid is incompressible
A.
In volute casing the velocity of water decreases but pressure increases B.

In volute casing the velocity of water and also pressure increase
C.
Volute casing is improvement over the vortex casing
casing provides diffusering E. None of the above
172.
Atmospheric pressure held in terms of water column is
A.
7.5 m B.
8.5 m
C.
9.81 m
D.
173.
Which type of pump is different from the others?
A.
Simplex pump
B.
C.
Piston pump D.
Duplex pump
E.
Centrifugal pump
D.
Volute
10.30 m
Plunger pump
174. The statement "For laminar flow through a fine porous bed or capillary
passages in a solid, the velocity based on the total cross-section is proportional to
the ratio of pressure gradient to viscosity" is known as
A.
Fick's law
B.
Reynolds hypothesis
C.
Schmidt's law
E.
Darcy's law of permeability
175.
Which one is different from the others?
A.
Axial flow impeller B.
Mixed flow impeller
C.
Warped vane impeller
D.
E.
Shrouded impeller
176.
In axial flow turbine
D.
Stock's law
Open impeller
A.
Only part of the available head is converted into velocity before the water
enters the wheel B.
Water admitted over part of the circumference
C.
It is necessary that wheel should always run full
regulate the flow
E.
Depends upon other factors
177.
A Pelton wheel is
A.
B.
D.
It is possible to
C.
E.
Axial flow impulse turbine
178.
Runway speed of a Pelton wheel is
A.
Actual operating speed
B.
C.
Full load speed
No load speed when governor mechanism fails
E.
90% greater than normal speed
179.
Spouting velocity is
A.
Ideal velocity of jet B.
D.
C.
Actual velocity of jet
conditions
E.
None of the above
180.
In a reaction turbine
D.
Aoutward flow reaction turbine
No lead speed
50% of ideal velocity of jet

D.
Velocity of jet under some specified
A.
It is possibel to regulate the flow without loss B.
foot of the fall and above the tail race
C.
It must be placed at the
Work done is purely by the change in the kinetic energy of the jet
D.
Only part of the head is converted into velocity before the water enters the
wheel
E.
None of the above
181.
A Founeyron turbine is
A.
Outward flow reaction turbine
B.
C.
D.
E.
None of the above
182.
Which type of pump is different from others?
A.
Centrifugal pump
B.
C.
Gear pump D.
Sliding vane pump
E.
Fuel pump for diesel engine
183.
Which type of turbine is different from others?
A.
Pelton wheel B.
Lobe pump
Banki turbine
C.
Girard turbine
E.
Kaplan turbine
D.
Jonval turbine
184. If the absolute pressure at a point in a hydraulic system is less than

atmospheric pressure, the point is said to possess
A.
Positive head
B.
C.
Absolute positive head
E.
Manometric head
Negative head
D.
Gross positive head
A.
The difference of level between the head race and the tail race
difference of level between reservoir and downstream
B.
The
C.
The difference of head between axis of turbine to discharge stream level

D.
The head actually used in developing power
E.
None of the above
186.
Relative velocity is
A.
The difference between two velocities B.
higher velocity and average velocity
C.
Average velocity
E.
Vector difference of two velocities
187.
Which is higher head
A.
33 inch Hg
C.
1.013 kg/cm2
E.
14.1 psi
188.
If the specific speed of a turbine is 6 then the turbine should be
A.
Francis
C.
Pelton wheel D.
E.
Fourneyron
189.
In working out the reltion for the specific speed, the assumption is made that
A.
All pumps are similr
B.
B.
D.
The difference between the
Sum of two velocities
31.6 ft water
D.
75.6 cm of Hg
Kaplan
Thomson
B.
All pumps of a given type are similar
C.
All pumps of a given type are geometrically similar D.
hydraulically similar
All pumps are
E.
All pumps have similar ratios in all dimensions
190.
Specific speed for reaction turbine ranges from
A.
3 - 710
B.
10 - 110
C.
125 - 180
D.
200 - 300
E.
More than 300
191.
If the specific speed of a turbine is 800 the turbine should be
A.
Francis
B.
C.
Girard D.
Pelton wheel
E.
Fourneyron
Kaplan
192. It is desired to predict the performance of a large centrifugal pump from that
of a scale model one fourth the diameter. The model absorbs 20 HP when pumping
under test head of 20 m at its best speed of 400 r.p.m. The large pump is required
to pump against 60 m head. The following will be the speed of the pump
A.
100 RPM
B.
153 RPM
C.
167 RPM
D.
173 RPM
E.
208 RPM
193.
In above problem, what will be the horse power required to drive the pump?
A.
1000 B.
1450
C.
1570 D.
1670
E.
1900
194.
In above problem what will be the ratio of discharge?
A.
2.77
B.
27.7
C.
277
D.
83.5
E.
100

195.
The specific speed for axial flow turbine varies from
A.
0 - 45 B.
10 - 100
C.
80 - 200
D.
E.
None of the above
196.
An impulse turbine
A.
Always operates submerged
200 - 300
B.
Makes use of a draft tube
C.
Is most suited for low head installations
into velocity head throughout the vanes
E.
D.
Converts pressure head
Operates by initial complete conversion to kinctic energy

197.
Two units are homologous when they are geometrically similar and have
A.
Similar stream lines
B.
C.
Same efficiency
Same Froud's number
E.
198.
The purpose of surge tank in a pipe line is to
A.
Smoothen the flow of water
D.
Same Reynolds number
B.
Minimise friction losses in pipe
C.
Prevent occurrence of hydraulic jump D.
water hammer
To relieve the pressure due to
E.
To maintain the flow of water under emergency conditions
199.
A syphon is used to
A.
To connect two reservoirs B.
another
To disconnect water from one reservoir to
C.
To fill water from a reservoir at lower level to another reservoir with the help
of a pump D.
To connect two water reservoirs at different levels intervened by
a mountain
E.
To distribute water from a reservoir at higher level to reservoirs at lower
levels
200.
An air vessel is provided at the summit in a syphone to
A.
Regulate the flow
B.
Increase discharge
C.
Increase velocity
D.
Avoid an interruption in the flow
E.
Maintain pressure difference
201.
In case of channels, shooting flow does not occur
A.
In a channel with low gradient
C.
In a steep channel D.
E.
Directly after a hydraulic jump
202.
A stream line
B.
In a horizontal channel
In a trapezoidal channel
A.
Is the line of equal velocity in a flow
of pressure drop is uniform
B.
Is the line along which the rate
C.
Is the line along the geometrical centre of the flow D.
of flow
E.
Is fixed in space in steady flow
203.
In laminar flow
A.
Experimentation is required for the sirmplest flow cases
law of viscosity applies
Occurs in all types
B.
C.
The fluid particles move in irregular and haphazard paths D.
is unimportant
Newton's
The viscosity

204.
A hydraulic ram is a device
A.
To generate high pressures
water
B.
To temporarily store the energy of
C.
To increase the intensity of pressure
D.
To lift small quantity of water to
a greater height by means of large quantity of water falling through small height
E.
None of the above
205. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the
wirght of the fluid displaced by the body. This is known as
A.
Pascals law B.
Reynolds principle
C.
Archimedes principle
E.
Bernoulli's theorem
206.
The hydraulic radius is given by
D.
Schmidt's hypothesis
A.
Wetted perimeter divided by area
wetted perimeter
C.
Square root of area D.
E.
207.
A hydraulic intensifier is a device
B.
Area divided by square of
Area divided by wetted perimeter
A.
To lift small quantities of water through large head by means of large quantity
of water falling through small height B.
To generate high pressure
C.
To increase the intensity of pressure of water by means of the energy of a
large quantity of water at low pressure D.
To temporarily store the energy of
water
E.
None of the above
208.
In reaction turbine the draft tube is used
A.
To transport water to downstream without eddies
B.
To reconvert
kinetic energy to flow energy by a gradual expansion of the flow cross-section
C.
To increase the effective head
E.
To run the turbine full
209.
Mach number is significant in
A.
High speed flow of water B.
Flow of highly viscous fluids
C.
Flow of metallic fluids
Flow in air at speeds more than that of sound
E.
Flow in space above the atmosphere of air
210.
In an open channel the discharge corresponding to critical depth is
A.
Minimum
B.
C.
Zero D.
Average
E.
None of the above
D.
D.
To prevent air from entering
Maximum
211. Select a common dimensionless parameter in fluid mechanics from the

following:
A.
Angular velocity
B.
Kinematic viscosity
C.
Specific gravity
D.
Specific weight
E.
None of the these answers
212.
The boundary layer separation takes place if
A.
Pressure gradient is zero B.
Pressure gradient is positive
C.
Pressure gradient is negative
D.
213.
The surface tension has the units
A.
Newtons/m B.
Newtons/m2
C.
Newtons/m2 D.
Newtons
E.
None of the above
214.
Separation is caused by
None of the above
A.
Reduction of pressure to vapour pressure
gradient to zero
C.
An adverse pressure gradient
to zero
E.
215.
The wake
A.
Is a region of high pressure
B.
Reduction of pressure
D.
The boundary layer thickness reducing
B.
Is the principal cause of skin friction
C.
Always occurs when deformation drag predominates
occurs after a separation point
E.
Is none of these answers
216.
The magnitude of water hammer depends on
A.
The length of pipeline
B.
D.
The speed at which the valve is closed
C.
To elastic properties of the liquid flowing through the pipe D.
properties of the pipe material
E.
Always
The elastic
All of the above
217. When power is transmitted through a considerable distance by means of

water under pressure, the maximum power is transmitted when
A.
Frictional loss of head is one third of the total head supplied

Frictional loss of head is half of the total head supplied
C.
Frictional loss of head is 10% of the total head
transmission is 75%
D.
B.
Eficiency of
E.
Loss in transmission is 17.7%.
218.
Hammer blow in pipe occurs when
A.
Pipe is hit with hammer
B.
Pipe bursts under high fluid pressure
C.
Excessive leakage occurs in pipe
D.
gradually brought to rest by the closing of valve
Flow of fluid through pipe is
E.
Flow of fluid through pipe is suddenly brought to rest by the closing of the
valve
219. The ratio inertia forces/surface tension force gives a non-dimensional number
known as
A.
Weber number
B.
Shround number
C.
Cauchy number
D.
Euler number
E.
Froude number
220. The ratio of inertia force to pressure forces is related with a non-dimensional
number known as
A.
Reyonolds number B.
Euler number
C.
Nusselt number
Mach number
E.
Weber number
221.
If a centrifugal pump is noisy in operation, the cause may be
A.
Priming faulty
B.
C.
Air in water D.
Discharge head too high
E.
Mechanical defect
222.
In axial flow turbines
D.
Suction head too high
A.
Water enters radially but leaves axiallyB.
radially
Water enters axially but leaves
C.
Water enters at an angle but leaves axially
leaves axially
D.
E.
None of the above
223.
Mixed flow turbine are
A.
Radial inward flow type
B.
Water enters axially and
Radial outward flow type
C.
Partly rdial partly axial
E.
None of the above
224.
In an impulse turbine
D.
Parallel flow type
A.
Water must be admitted over the whole circumference
possible to regulate the flow without loss
B.
It is not
C.
Wheel must run full and kept entirely submerged in water below the tailrace
D.
The pressure in the driving fluid as it moves over the vanes is
atmospheric
E.
None of the above
225.
In MLT system the dimensions of angular momentum would be
A.
MLT-1 B.
ML2T
C.
ML2T-1
D.
E.
MLT-2
226.
Which of the following forces do not act on fluids
A.
InertiaB.
Viscous force
C.
Gravity
D.
E.
Torsion
227.
Which of the following forces does not act in case of fluids?
A.
Centrifugal force
B.
Tensile force
C.
Vibratory force
D.
Elastic force
E.
Gravity force
228.
Capillarity is due to
A.
Cohesion
C.
Adhesion and cohesion
E.
Gravity
B.
ML2T-2
Pressure
Adhesion
D.
Molecular structure
229. The pressure in metres of oil (specific gravity 0.85) equivalent to 42.5 m of
water is
A.
42.5 m
B.
50 m
C.
52.5 m
E.
100 m
D.
85 m
230. In order to avoid a correction for the effect of capillarity in manometers, the
diameter of the tube should be
A.
Less than 1 mm
B.
C.
Less than 4.5 mm D.
E.
None of the above
Less than 3 mm
Greater than or equal to 6 mm
231. A type of flow in which the fluid particles while moving in the direction of flow
rotate about their mass centre, is known as
A.
Steady flow B.
Uniform flow
C.
Laminar flowD.
Turbulent flow
E.
Rotational flow
232. When a fluid flows through a tapering pipe at a constantly increasing rate,
the flow is said to
A.
Unsteady flow
B.
C.
Unsteady non-uniform flow
E.
Irrotational flow
D.
Turbulent flow
233. An imaginary curve drawn through a flowing fluid in such a way that the
tangent to it at any point gives the direction of the velocity of flow at that point, is
known as
A.
Flow-contourB.
Line of flow
C.
Flow line
Path line
E.
Streak line
D.
234. The line traced by a single fluid particle as it moves over a period of time is
known as
A.
Line of force B.
Filament line
C.
Flow line
Path line
E.
Streak line
235.
A practical example of steady non-uniform flow is given as the
D.
A.
Motion of a river around the pillars of a bridge
venturimeter
B.
C.
Flow through delivery pipe of a reciprocating pump D.
decreasing flow through a reducing section
E.
Flow through
Steadily
Constant discharge through straight tapering draft tube turbine
236. The oscillatory motion of a ship or a boat about its longitudinal axis is
designated as
A.
Vibration
B.
Simple harmonic motion
C.
Rolling
D.
Pitching
E.
Gyro-mtion
237.
as
The oscillatory motion of a ship or a boat about its transverse axis is termed
A.
Transverse motion B.
C.
Rolling
E.
Gyro-motion
238.
The metacentric height of ocean going vessels is usually of the order of
A.
30 cm to 1.2 m
B.
C.
3 m to 5 m
5 m to 7 m
E.
8 m to 10 m
D.
D.
Transverse harmonic motion
Pitching
1.8 m to 2.0 m
239. A small plastic boat loaded with pieces of steel rods is floating in a bath tub.
It the cargo is dumped into the water allowing the boat to float empty, the water
level in the tub will
A.
Rise
B.
Fall
C.
Not change D.
E.
Fall and then rise
240.
Buoyant force is
A.
Resultant of upthrust and gravity forces acting on the body

Resultant force on the body due to the fluid surrounding it
Rise and then fall
B.
C.
Resultant of static weight of body and dynamic thrust of fluid
to the volume of liquid displaced by the body
E.
D.
Equal
The resultant force acting on the body
241. A closed cubical box 0.8 m on each side is half filled with water and the other
half being filled with oil of specific gravity 0.75. Now if the box is accelerated
upwards at the rate of 4.905 m/sec2 the pressure difference in kg/m2 between the
top and bottom layers would be
A.
490.5 B.
545.5
C.
981
1050
E.
1800
D.
242. If the box in above problem is accelerated in a horizontal direction parallel to

a pair of sides at the rate of 1 m/sec2, maximum pressure on the top of the box in
metres of water would be
A.
0.225 B.
0.3
C.
0.49
0.563
E.
0.6
D.
243. A cylinder is kept on a horizontal boundary past which an ideal fluid flows
perpendicular to cylinder axis. It will then experience
A.
No lift force B.
Some lift force
C.
Lift force in vertically downward direction
upward direction
D.
Lift force in vertically
E.
Lift force depends on velocity of flow and mass of cylinder and its contents
244.
In parallel pipe problems
A.
The pressure gradient remains the same through all the pipes
hydraulic gradient remains the same through all the pipes
C.
The head loss is the same through each pipe D.
each pipe are added to obtain the total head loss
E.
B.
The
The head losses through
None of the above
245. The value of mannings roughness coefficient n, in Manning's formula for flow
of fluids through pipes, is expected to be highest in case of
A.
Brass pipe
B.
Glass pipe
C.
Asbestos cement pipe
E.
Vitrified sewer pipe
246.
Tranqil flow must always occur
A.
At normal depth
C.
Below normal depth
E.
Above critical depth
B.
D.
Corrugated iron pipe
Above normal depth

D.
Below critical depth
247. The value of n in Manning's formula for flow through channel is expected to
be least in case of
A.
Glass surfaces
B.
Corrugated metals surface
C.
Unfinished cement surface
E.
Vitrified clay.
248.
In a channel the flow at critical depth occurs when
D.
Cement concrete finish
A.
Normal depth and critical depth coincide for a channel
energy is a maximum for a given discharge
C.
Hydraulic gradient and slope coincide D.
more specific energy
B.
Specific
Any changes in depth require
249.
Geometric similarity between model and prototype means
A.
The similarity of discharge
B.
C.
The similarity of motion
The similarity of forces
250.
Kinematic similarity between model and prototype means
A.
The similarity of forces
B.
The similarity of shape
C.
The similarity of motion
D.
The similarity of discharge
251.
Euler's equation of motion can be integrated when it is assumed that
A.
The fluid is incompressible
D.
C.
Continrity equation is satisfied
density is constant
E.
The flow is rotational
The similarity of linear dimensions
B.
Bernoulli's satisfied
D.
Velocity potential exists and the
252.
Navier-stokes equation is useful in the analysis of
A.
Viscous flow B.
Non-viscous flow
C.
Rotational flow
D.
E.
Any of the above
253.
For hydrodynamically rough boundary the friction coefficient
A.
Remains constant B.
Turbulent flow
Varies with Reynold's number
C.
Depends on relative roughness D.
pressure gradient and relative roughness
Depends on Reynolds number,
E.
Depends on velocity and relative roughness
254.
Stremlines, streak lines and path lines are all identical in case of
A.
Uniform flow B.
Non-uniform flow
C.
Rotation flow
D.
E.
Unsteady flow
255.
An equipotential line
Steady flow
A.
Has no velocity component tangent to it
dynamic pressure
B.
Has uniformly varying
C.
Has no velocity component normal to it
rotational flow
D.
Exists in case of
E.
Exists in case of turbulent flow only
256.
In laminar flow through a pipe, discharge varies
A.
Linearly as the viscosity
B.
Linearly as pipe diameter
C.
Inversely s the viscosity
D.
Linearly as the pressure drop
E.
None of the above
257.
The terminal velocity of a small sphere setting in a viscous fluid varies as the
A.
Inverse of the diameter
B.
C.
Fluid viscosity
Inverse of the fluid viscosity
E.
None of the above
D.
Inverse square of the diameter
258. A right circular cylinder open at the top is filled with liquid (specific gravity
1.2) and rotated about its vertical axis at such speed that half the liquid spills out.
The pressure at centre of the bottom is
A.
Zero B.
One eighth of its value when cylinder was full
C.
One fourth of its value when cylinder was full D.
cylinder was full
E.
Half of its value when
Same as before rotation
259. The motion of a fluid in which the fluid mass rotates without the external
force is known as
A.
Rotary motion
B.
Circulatory motion
C.
Irrotational motion D.
Free vortex motion
E.
Forced vortex motion
260. A tank 2 m square contains one metre of water. Now the tank is accelerated
in the horizontal direction parallel to a pair of sides at the rate of 4 m/sec2. In order
that there may be no spilling of water the minimum height of the tank should be
A.
1m
B.
1.41 m
C.
2m
D.
2.32 m
E.
4m
261.
Hydraulic jump is used for
A.
Increasing the flow rate
C.
Reducing the velocity of flow
E.
Reducing turbulence
262.
Hydraulic jump occurs when
A.
Flow is sub-critical B.
B.
Reducing the flow rate

D.
Reducing the energy of flow
Flow is supercritical
C.
Adequate downstream depth is available
adequate down streamdepth is available
E.
D.
Flow is sub-critical and
Flow is supercritical and adequate downstream depth is available
263. If the specific speed of a pump is calculated as 5000, the type of pump that
should be selected is
A.
Slow speed radial flow
B.
Medium speed radial flow
C.
High speed radial flow
D.
Mixed flow or screw pump
E.
Axial flow or propeller pump
264.
The unit of specific speed is
A.
R.P.M. B.
C.
Dimensionless
E.
None of the above
265.
Specific speed (metric) = k x specific (FPS) where k has the value of
A.
B.
1.75
C.
2.37
D.
0.67
E.
0.41
Metres/sec
D.
Any of the above
266. While calculating the specific speed of double suction pump, the discharge to
be considered is
A.
Double of the actual discharge
C.
Actual discharge
E.
Square root of actual discharge
D.
B.
Square of the actual discharge
Half of actual discharge
267. A concrete masonry block on a hill side for supporting and fixing the penstock
is known as
A.
Anchor blockB.
Support block
C.
Concrete block
D.
E.
Any of the above
Base block
268. A small-size nozzle is built into a Pelton turbine for directing its water jet
towards the back of the bucket, so that machine can be stopped quickly, is known
as
A.
Reverse nozzle
B.
Compensating nozzle
C.
Brake nozzle D.
Any of the above
E.
None of the above
269. The lowest portion of storage basin from where the water is not drawn
usually, is
A.
Bottom storage
B.
Sub-soil storage
C.
Spring reserve
D.
Dead storage
E.
Reserve storage
270. The portion of the power canal that extends from the intake works to the
power house, is known as
A.
Lead race
B.
C.
Diversion canal
E.
Tail race
Main storage
D.
Head race
271. The part of a reservoir water which can be utilized for pwer production or
other purposes, is known as
A.
Power storage
B.
Main storage
C.
Useful storage
D.
Dead storage
E.
Live storage
272. The portion of the power canal which extends from the power house to the
recepient water course, is known as
A.
Tail race
B.
Discharge channel
C.
Exhaust
D.
Tail surge channel
E.
None of the above
273.
The force acting on a gravity dam which causes stability is
A.
Reservoir water pressure B.
Wind pressure
C.
Earth and silt pressure
Uplift
E.
Weight of the dam
274.
Abnormal load on a earth dam is
D.
A.
Water pressure corresponding to full reservoir level B.
structure above it
C.
Uplift D.
Wave pressure
Weight of dam and
275.
A hydro-electric plant is usually temed as high head plant when the head is
A.
more than 5 m
B.
more than 15 m
C.
more than 25 m
D.
more than 35 m
E.
more than 45 m
276.
The turbine that cannot be installed in high head plant is
A.
Pelton wheel, horizontal
C.
Francis turbine, horizontalD.
E.
Kaplan turbine
277.
World's largest capacity hydro-electric generating plant is located in
A.
U.S.A. B.
U.S.S.R.
C.
Germany
D.
E.
India
B.
Pelton wheel, vertical

Francis turbine, vertical
France
278. The generating capacity of world's largest capacity hydroelectric plant is of

the order of
A.
1000 MW
B.
2000 MW
C.
3000 MW
D.
4000 MW
E.
5000 MW
279. Which one of the following method is used to check the stability of gravity
dams
A.
Pigeaud's method B.
Finite element method
C.
Slab analogy method
D.
E.
All of the above
Lattice analogy method
280. For safety against overturning in a gravity dam, the resultant of all the forces
acting on a dam must pass
A.
Outside the base
B.
Just at extreme edge of the base
C.
Within 10% of the extreme edge D.
E.
First third of the base
Middle third of the base
281. In case the resultant of all the forces acting on a dam passes outside the
base, the dam would overturn unless
A.
It can resist tensile stress B.
the dam
Additional weight is provided on the body of
C.
Friction pads are providedD.
Anchor blocks are provided
E.
Coefficient of driction of the material is increased
282. The stress in the dam should be within the specified limits for the body of
dam in the foundations. If the stress at the toe and heel are excessive, they can be
brought within permissible limits by
A.
Grouting
B.
Providing anchor blocks
C.
Providing friction blocks
E.
Any of the above
D.
Providing filters
283. By the usual gravity analysis as per B.I.S., the permissible tensile stresses at
the upstream face of the dam under earthquake loading, should not exceed
A.
50 kg/ cm2 B.
100 kg/ cm2
C.
150 kg/ cm2 D.
200 kg/ cm2
E.
Zero
284.
Which assumption is not valid in the analysis of gravity dams
A.
The material in the foundation and in the body of the dam is isotropic and
homogeneous
B.
The foundation and the dam behave as one unit, the joint
being a perfect one
C.
No loads are transferred to abutments by beam action
D.
the foundation and the body of the dam are within plastic limits
The stress in
E.
No movements are caused in the foundations due to transference of the load
285.
Essentially the gravity dam resists the loads to which it is exposed, due to its
A.
Size
C.
Mass D.
E.
Gravity
286.
In a Buttress dam the inclination of the deck with horizontal is kept between
B.
Volume
High tensile stress
A.
10? to 15?
B.
15? to 20?
C.
25? to 30?
D.
35? to 40?
E.
60? to 75?
287.
In case of Buttress dams, too steep slopes
A.
Increase the tendency to sliding B.
Increase inclined stress at heel
C.
Increase tendency to over turning
D.
E.
Increase tensile stress on upstream side of dam
288.
In Buttress dam, too flat a slope causes
A.
Excessive tensile stress on upstream face
stress at the heel
Increase stresses at heels only
B.
A very high inclined
C.
Overloading of buttress sections D.
Increased tendency to overturning
E.
Excessive tensile stresses in the foundation and the body of the dam
289. Which one of the following is not usually considered particular advantage of a
Buttress dam?
A.
Economy in use of concrete
B.
Less uplift force
C.
The power house and switchyard etc. can be located between the buttresses
D.
Because of thin members, the volume changes are significant
E.
Due to thin section, the problem of temperature control is minimised.
290.
Which one of the following is not a disadvantage due to a Buttress dam?
A.
The structure being self-sealing, it is not sensitive to accidental rise in water
level above the designed full supply level
B.
Bearing stress of the foundtions
are higher
C.
Problems arising out of large number of joints in the dam D.
of volume changes of thin members
E.
Significance
Overflow arrangements
291. In a Buttress dam, when the height of dam is 10 m to 25 m, the spacing of

buttress is usually restricted to
A.
1m
B.
1.5 m
C.
4.5 to 6 m
E.
20 to 25 m.
D.
10 to 15 m
292. In Buttress dam the column or slenderness ratio is usually maintained

between
A.
2 to 5 B.
5 to 7
C.
7 to 10
D.
E.
20 to 25
293.
The arch dam is not suitable for
A.
Narrow sites B.
Wider sites
C.
Small discharge
D.
E.
Small discharge and low heads
294.
In case of Constant Angle Arch Dam, the most favourable central angle is
A.
170? B.
165?
C.
133? D.
90?
E.
73?
295.
The magnitude of earthquake pressure on a dam varies as a function of
A.
Frequency of vibration
C.
Frequency of vibration and amplitude D.
E.
Richard's scale number
296.
The simplest type of controls for reservoir outlets is provided by
A.
Slide gates
C.
Radial gates D.
E.
Cylindrical gates
B.
12 to 15
Low heads
B.
Amplitude
Amplitude and intensity
Height pressure gates

Jet flow gates
297. In order to keep out debris and other materials carried by water which are
likely to damage turbine, provision is made by
A.
Trash racks B.
Radial gates
C.
Trunions
Jet flow gates
D.
E.
Ensign valve
298.
Rocks which contain neither joints nor hair cracks, are known as
A.
Hard rocks
C.
Squeezing rocks
E.
Schistos rocks
299.
Rocks with excessive internal stresses which may cause spalling are known as
A.
Stratified rocks
B.
Popping rocks
C.
Crushed rocks
D.
Swelling rocks
E.
Schistos rocks
B.
Popping rocks
D.
Stratified rocks
300. Rocks that undergo notable expansion without flow due to preence of clay
minerals, are known as
A.
Squeezing rocks
B.
Moderately jointed rocks
C.
Seamy rocks D.
Schistos rocks
E.
Swelling rocks
301.
Layered or bedded rocks having planes of reltively easy separation are called
A.
Swelling rocks
B.
Seamy rocks
C.
Squeezing rocks
D.
Stratified rocks
E.
Schistos rocks
302. Chemically inact relatively unstable blocks, large or small with three or more
sets of joints and seams are known as
A.
Schistos rocks
B.
Crushed rocks
C.
Chemical rocks
D.
Moderately jointed rocks
E.
Block or seamy rocks
303. Micaceous rocks with closely spaced cleavage planes along which easy
separation can be affected, are known as
A.
Intact rocks B.
Schistos rocks
C.
Stratified rocks
D.
Popping rocks
E.
Sedimentary rocks
304.
Which conduit entrance is expected to have least loss coeffieient?
A.
Inward projecting entrances
B.
Square bell mouth entrances
C.
Circular bell mouth entrances
D.
Slightly rounded entrance
E.
Square cornered entrance
305.
Which conduit entrance is expected to have highest loss coefficient?
A.
Inward projecting entrances
x/D>0.15
B.
Fully rounded entrance having
C.
Gate in thin wall-unsuppressed contraction
and side suppressed
D.
Gate in thin wall-bottom
E.
Gate in thin wall-corners rounded
306.
Permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete tunnel is usually
A.
4 - 5 m/s
C.
12 - 12 m/s D.
E.
25 m/s
307.
Presence of air in a pressure tunnel may result in
A.
Increased discharge
B.
C.
Water hammer
Bulking of flow
E.
Any or all of the above
308.
Formation of air pockets in pressure tunnel may be avoided by
B.
10 - 12 m/s
20 m/s
D.
Increased head loss
A.
Avoiding partial gate opening
crown
B.
Avoiding traps or pockets along the
C.
Avoiding vortices formation
D.
Avoiding small intakes
E.
Any of the above
309.
Which rock is expected to have highest strength grade?
A.
Sand stone rock
B.
C.
Marble rocks D.
Solid quartzite rock
Limestone rock
E.
Granite rock
310.
The advantages of burried penstocks is
A.
Less accessible in inspection
C.
Location difficult
E.
Need for special coating against the corrosive action of salts present in soil
311.
The disadvantage of burried penstocks is
A.
Protection against effect of temperature because of soil cover

Protection against freezing of conveyed water
D.
B.
No expansion joints needed
C.
Protection against earthquake shock
avalanches and falling tree
E.
Difficulty in repair and maintenance
312.
The advantage of exposed penstock is
A.
Safety against sliding
temperature
Tendency to slide along steep slopes
B.
C.
Expansion joints necessary
frozen in severe cold climates
D.
B.
Immunity against rock sides,
Full exposure to external variation in

D.
Changes of water conveyed being
E.
Longitudinal stresses may develop owing to anchorages
313.
Anchor blocks are provided to hold the pipe line so as to
A.
Prevent the pipe line sliding down the hill
expansion
B.
Control the direction of
C.
Resist the unbalanced hydrostatic forces at a change of direction of the pipe
line D.
Prevent movement of the pipe line on account of vibration or water
hammer pressures
E.
All of the above
314. In which contact condition case the value of coefficient of friction is expected
to be highest?
A.
Steel on concrete
B.
Steel on steel
C.
Steel on steel, greased plates
E.
Steel on steel with two layers of graphite service in between
D.
Packing and liner
315.
Highest value of sliding factor may be expected in case of
A.
Concrete on sand
C.
Concrete on clayey soil
E.
Concrete on fine gravel
B.
Concrete on rock
D.
Concrete on gravel
316. The maximum continuous power available from a hydro-electric plant under
the most adverse hydraulic conditions is known as
A.
Base power B.
Firm power
C.
Primary power
D.
E.
Installed capacity
317.
A plot between power generated in MW and time is known as
A.
Load curve
C.
Load factor D.
E.
None of the above
318.
The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity is known as
A.
Load factor B.
C.
Maximum load factor
E.
Plant factor
B.
Secondary power
Load duration curve

Demand curve
Utilization factor
D.
Capacity factor
319. Portion of the installed reserve kept in operable condition but not placed in
service to supply the peak load is known as
A.
Operating reserve B.
C.
Cold reserve D.
E.
None-spinning reserve
Spinning reserve
Hot reserve
320. Capacity of a hydro-electric plant in service in excess of the peak load is

known as
A.
Operating reserve B.
C.
Cold reserve D.
E.
Peak reserve
Spinning reserve
Hot reserve
321.
Which one of the following is an integrator
A.
Transformer B.
C.
Lightning arrestor D.
E.
Bus-bar
322.
Which one of the following results in loss in an electric generator
A.
Air drag
B.
Exciter
Oil circuit breaker
Friction in bearing
C.
Direct current power for excitation
winding
E.
D.
Heat generated in armature
All of the above
323. Specific speed (fps) = k x specific speed (metric where value of k is (for
turbines)
A.
B.
C.
4.45
D.
8.91
E.
9.81
324.
An electric overhead crane is specified by
A.
Capacity in tons
C.
Travel D.
E.
None of the above
325.
Critical speed of turbine is
A.
Same as maximum operating speed
B.
Span
All of the above
B.
Same as run away speed
C.
The speed at which shaft will break
D.
The speed at which the number
of natural vibrations or natural frequency equals the number of revolutions per
minute
E.
The speed equal to synchronous speed of generator
326.
is
The most popular generation voltage in hydro-electric power stations in India
A.
220 V B.
440 V
C.
6600 V
D.
11000 V
E.
440 kV
327.
The highest voltage at which power is transmitted in India is
A.
11 kV B.
33 kV
C.
132 kV
D.
E.
440 kV
328.
Bhakra dam is constructed on river
A.
Yamuna
B.
Sutlej
C.
Chambal
D.
Beas
E.
Chenab
329.
Nagarjuna Sugar dam has been constucted on river
A.
Periyar
B.
C.
Kali
Krishna
E.
Mabanadi
330.
The state in which Hirakund dam is established is
A.
West Bengal B.
C.
Orissa D.
E.
Uttar Pradesh
331.
The dam constructed on river chambal is
A.
Jawaha Sagar
B.
Rana Pratap Sagar
C.
Gandhi Sagar
D.
All of the above three
E.
None of the above
332.
Koyna dam is located in
A.
Gujrat B.
C.
Maharashtra D.
E.
Rajasthan
333.
The falling drops of rain acquire spherical shape on account of
D.
400 kV
Cauvery
Bihar
Madhya Pardesh
Karnataka
Madhya Pradesh
A.
Viscosity
B.
C.
Compressibility
E.
Vapour pressure
Surface tension
D.
Buoyancy
334. Which of the following pumping device for supplying water to boiler does not
have moving parts?
A.
Single stage centrifugal pump
C.
Steam injector
E.
Duplex pump
335.
A foot valve is provided on
A.
Centrifugal pumps B.
Kaplan turbines
C.
Pelton wheels
High pressure devices
E.
All of the above
336.
The foot valve is provided
A.
On suction line
C.
Both suction and delivery line
D.
D.
B.
B.
Multistage centrifugal pump
Simplex pump
On delivery line
D.
Neither suction nor delivery lines
337. Which of the following component of a reciprocating pump is not made of

cast iron?
A.
Cylinder
B.
Air vessel
C.
Foot valve
D.
Shaft
E.
All of the above
338.
The breaking up of a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called
A.
Vaporization B.
Atomization
C.
Venturi effect
D.
E.
Carburetion
339.
Red wood viscometer
A.
Compares viscosities of fluids
B.
Measures absolute viscosity
C.
Measures dynamic viscosity
D.
Measures kinematic viscosity
Osmosis
E.
None of the above
340.
Which of the following is not a dimensionless quantity?
A.
Specific gravity
C.
Darcy weisbach friction factor
341.
Pressure drag results from
A.
Skin friction B.
C.
Development of a stagnation point
342.
Concentrated solution of sugar is a
A.
Dilatant fluidB.
Pseudo plastic fluid
C.
Newtonian fluid
D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Pressure coefficient
D.
Kinematic viscosity
Deformation drag
D.
Occurrence of a wake
Ideal fluid
343. In case the adhesion between moleules of a fluid is greater than cohesion
between fluid and the glass, then the free level of the fluid in glass tube dipped in
the glass vessel will be
A.
Same as the surface of the fluid B.
C.
Higher than the surface of the fluid
pressure
E.
Lower than the surface of the fluid

D.
Dependent on atmospheric
Dependent on atmospheric temperature
344. A low pressure of the order of 10-10 torr is to be measured in a chamber.

Which of the following device can be used for this?
A.
Manometer B.
Bourdon vacuum gauge
C.
Pirani gauge D.
Ionisation chamber
E.
McLeod gauge
345.
Which of the following principle is used in the operation of Mc Leod gauge?
A.
Charles law B.
Boyles law
C.
Daltons law D.
Pascals law
E.
None of the above
346.
The speed of a submariue can be measured by
A.
Pitot tube
B.
C.
Pirani gauge D.
E.
Any of the above
Hot wire anemometer

Inclined manometer
347. The thickness of laminar boundary layer at a distance x from the leading
edge over a flat plate varies as
A.
B.
x2
C.
x1/2
D.
x4/5
E.
x3/5
348. The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance x from the leading
edge over a flat plate varies as
A.
x4/5
B.
x5/4
C.
x3/5
D.
x5/3
E.
x1/2
349. Which of the following gauge can be used for the measurement of velocity of
an aircraft?
A.
Pilot tube
B.
Ionization chamber
C.
Venturimeter
E.
Inclined manometer
350.
The flow in venturi flume takes place at
A.
B.
C.
High pressure
Varying pressure
E.
None of the above
351.
The angle of taper on a draft tube is
A.
Less than 7 B.
Around 10?
C.
Around 15? D.
More than 15?
E.
More than 20?
D.
D.
Hot wire anemometer
Vacuum
352. When the dynamic viscosity of a fluid is 0.6 poise and specific gravity is 0.6,
the kinematic viscosity of that fluid will be
A.
0.36 poise
B.
0.6 poise
C.
1 poise
D.
None of the above
353. When a liquid rotates at a angular velocity above a vertical axis as a rigid
body, the pressure intensity varies
A.
inversely with radial distance
distance
B.
inversely with the square of radial
C.
directly with radial distance
distance
D.
Directly with square of the radial
354.
1 Kilo-Pascal is the same as
A.
1000 n/mm2 B.
1000 N/cm
C.
1000 N/cm2 D.
1000 N/m2
E.
355.
Surface tension is due to
A.
cohesion only
C.
cohesion and adhesion only
B.
adhesion only
D.
neither cohesion nor adhesion

356.
The motion of air mass in a tornado is
A.
forced vertex at the centre and free vortex outside B.
the centre as well as outside
forced cortex at
C.
free vortex at the centre and forced vortex outside D.
centre as well as outside
free vortex at the
357.
The size of a venturimeter is specified by
A.
fluid pressure
B.
Discharge channel
C.
pipe diameter
D.
pipe diameter and throat diameter
358.
Pascal-second is the unit of
A.
pressure
C.
kinematic viscosity D.
359.
As the temperature increases, the viscosity of a gas
B.
surface
dynamic viscosity
A.
increases, increases
B.
decreases, decreases
C.
increases, decreases
D.
decreases, increases
360.
The centre of buoyancy always coincides with
A.
centre of gravity of the body
C.
metacentre D.
B.
centroid of the volume displaced
None of the above
361. A vessel containing water moves downward with a constant acceleratin equal
to 'q' then
A.
the liquid mass will be in turbulence
pressure below the atmospheric pressure
C.
B.
the liquid mass will be under a
the liquid mass will be under a pressure double the atmospheric pressure
D.
the pressure throughout the liquid mass will be atmospheric
362. If the forces due to inertia, gravity and frictional resistance are insignificant,
the design of a channel may be made by comparing
A.
Weber number
B.
Reynolds number
C.
Froude's number
D.
Prandt number
363.
A hydraulic jump can occur under all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A.
on the upstream side of the sluices
B.
at the foot of the spillways
C.
where the gradient suddenly chauges from a steep slope to a flat slope D.
when water moving in shooting flow impacts with water having a larger depth
with streaming flow
364. The distance from pipe boundary, at which the point velocity is equal to
average velocity in case of turbulent flow (when R is the radius of the pipe), is
A.
0.111 R
B.
0.223 R
C.
0.446 R
D.
0.892 R
365.
The miaimum thickness of boundary layer in a pipe of radius R is
A.
0.1 R B.
0.22 R
C.
0.5 R D.
366.
The wake
A.
is a region of high pressure intensity
separation point
B.
C.
always occurs after a separation point D.
separation point.
always occurs before a

always occurs before and after
367. The shear stress distribution for a fluid flowing in between the parallel plates,
both at rest, is
A.
constant over the cross-section B.
linearly wth distance from mid-plane
C.
maximum at the mid-plane and varies
zero at the mid-point and varies linearly with distance from mid-plane D.
zero at the plates and varies exponentially to mid-point
368. The ratio of average velocity to mzximum velocity for steady laminar flow in
circular pipes is
A.
D.
B.
369. Identify the case in which the friction drag is generally larger than pressure
drag?
A.
Flow past a sphere B.
Flow past a cylinder
C.
Flow past an aerofoil
D.
370.
Stanton diagram is a plot of
Flow past a thin sheet
A.
friction factor against Reynolds number
of Reynolds number
B.
C.
log of friction factor against Reynolds number
factor against log of Reynolds number
friction factor against log

D.
log of friction
371.
Drag force in not a function of
A.
projected area of the body
B.
C.
mass density of the body D.
mass density of the fluid
372.
In which of the following types of flow the losses are maximum?
A.
Laminar flowB.
Turbulent flow
C.
Critical flow D.
Transition flow
373.
In case of shooting flow, the Froude number is
velocity of the body
A.
infinitely high
C.
374.
Best section for open channel flow is
A.
semi-circle
C.
rectangular D.
375.
The best draulic channel cross-section is the one which has
A.
maximum wetted perimeter
C.
maximum area for a given flow D.
376.
Hydraulic jump is a
A.
Steady uniform flow
C.
non-steady non-uniform flow
377.
Surge wave is an example of
A.
steady uniform flow
B.
steady non-uniform flow
C.
unsteady uniform flow
D.
unsteady non-uniform flow
378.
A froude number of 2 indicates
A.
a weak jump B.
a medium jump
C.
a strong jump
D.
379.
Which fluid is the heaviest?
A.
Air
C.
Glycerine
380.
In a jet pump
A.
energy of high pressure fluid is converted into low pressure fluid B.

energy of high velocity stream is converted into pressure energy
D.
B.
B.
zero
more than one
B.
triangular
trapezoidal
B.
B.
minimum wetted perimeter

least cost
Non-steady uniform flow

D.
Steady non-uniform flow
a very strong jump
Castor oil
D.
Carbon tetrachloride
C.
kinetic energy of fluid is regained as potential energy
energy of fluid is converted into rotational energy
D.
potential
381. The minimum diameter necessary to avoid the capillary rise in the
manometer is
A.
1 mm B.
3 mm
C.
6 mm D.
15 mm
382.
Notch is a device used for measuring
A.
Rate of flow through pipes
B.
C.
Velocity through a pipe
Velocity through a small channel
383.
be
When the rheogram is linear but does not pass through origin, fluid is said to
A.
Newtonian
C.
Ideal plastic D.
384.
The glass is considered as a
A.
solid B.
C.
frozen liquid D.
385.
One poise is equivalent to
A.
1 gm/cm sec B.
9.8 dyne/sec
C.
98 kgf sec/m2
D.
386.
A hydrograph is is a plot of
A.
Rainfall intensity against time
C.
Cumulative rainfall against time D.
387.
A bulb turbine is a
A.
low head turbine
C.
high head turbine D.
388.
The coefficient of discharge (Cd) of an orifice varies with
A.
Reynold number
B.
Weber number
C.
Froude number
D.
None of the above
B.
D.
Rate of flow through a small channel
Non-newtonian
Bingham.
crystal
liquid metal
B.
1 kg/m-hr
B.
Discharge against time

Cumulative run off against time
medium head turbine

high head high rpm turbine
389. Under which of the following conditions, Bernoulli's equation cannot be

applied?
A.
When the flow is rotational
B.
When the flow is turbulent
C.
When the flow is unsteady
390.
The river flow during floods can be classified as
A.
Steady uniform flow
C.
steady non-uniform flow D.
391.
In a flow field, at the stagnation point
A.
pressure is zero
B.
B.
D.
All of the above

total energy is zero
C.
pressure head is equal to velocity head
converted into pressure head
D.
All the velocity head is
392. In which of the following case of modelling, Reynold number will be used for
studying?
A.
Hydraulic jump
B.
Flow configuration of harbours
C.
Flow of castor oil through pipes D.
393.
Ogee is
All of the above
A.
overfall of a spillway in the shape of double or S-curve which is convex at the
top and concave at the bottom B.
the channel between the silt extractor and
the river through which the escapage water is discharged
C.
the channel conducting water away from a water wheel
above
394.
D.
none of the
Prandtl's mixing length hypothesis is based on
A.
eddy viscosity
motion
B.
momentum exchange that occurs due to random
C.
similarity of turbulent flow pattern
395.
When the Reynolds number is less than 500 the flow is said to be laminar for
A.
pipe flow
C.
free surface flow
396.
In a sudden expansion in a pipe
B.
D.
None of the above
flow between parallel plates

D.
all of the above
A.
total energy line rises in the down-stream direction B.
gradually increases
velocity head
C.
piezometric head gradually rises in the downstream direction

frictional resistance is negligible
397.
Separation is caused by
A.
zero
an adverse pressure gradient
C.
laminar flow changing to turbulent flow
B.
D.
boundary layer thickness reducing to

D.
all of the above
398. Darcy's equation for flow through porous media valid as long as the flow
remains
A.
steady
B.
critical
C.
laminar with negligible internal effects D.
effects.
turbulent with negligible inertial
399. If one of the walls moves in the direction of flow with uniform velocity while
the other wall is stationary, then the resulting flow between parallel walls is called
A.
Plug flow
B.
Stoke's flow
C.
Couette flow D.
Euler's flow
400. For a flow between two stationary parallel plates the velocity distribution is
parabolic. In this case the mean velocity is equal to
A.
maximum velocity B.
half the maximum velocity
C.
one-third of the maximum velocity
velocity
D.
two-third of the maximum
401. The unit hydrograph may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct
run-off hydrograph of a storm by
A.
direct run-off volume
B.
storm duration
C.
duration of unit hydrograph
402.
Which of the following statement regarding the buoyant force is incorrect?
D.
total run off volume
A.
Buoyant force has no horizontal component B.
The magnitude of the
buoyant force is equal to the weight of fluid displaced by the body
C.
The buoyant force acts through the centre of gravity of the body D.
of the above
None
403. A structure in a channel having narrow throat and a raised floor in the bottom
which is used to measure the discharge is known as
A.
Partial flume B.
Standing wave flume
C.
Venturi flume
D.
404.
A rotameter should always be installed in
A.
horizontal position B.
C.
inclined at 30? to vertical D.
Tilting flume
vertical position
inclined at 45? to vertical
405. When the relationship between Reynolds number and the friction factor is
represented by a straight line the flow is said to be
A.
isentropic flow
B.
laminar flow
C.
turbulent flow
D.
vortex flow
406. Which of the following is the result of the formation of a region of low
pressure developed on the downstream side due to separation of flow?
A.
Cavities
B.
Holes
C.
WakesD.
Vortex street
407. The velocity of flow through homogeneous porous media under constant
head is
A.
inversely proportional to the coefficient of permeability
proportional to the square of the coefficient of permeability
B.
inversely
C.
directly proportional to the coefficient of permeability
proportional to the square of the coefficient of permeability
D.
directly
408.
In a flow between two stationary parallel plates the shear stress is zero at
A.
the base
B.
the top
C.
both at the base and at the top D.
maximum
at the centre where velocity is
409. Capallary waves in channels, capillary rise in narrow passages are the
instances where
A.
elastic forces are prefominant
B.
C.
surface tension cannot be neglected
410.
A normal shockwave is analogous to
A.
open channel flow with Fr < 1.0 B.
viscous forces play a dominant role

D.
surface tension is negligible
open channel flow with Fr > 1.0
C.
hydraulic jump
D.
a small amplitude wave in open channels
411.
Viscosity will be the most important property in which of the following case:
A.
Travel of a bullet through air
B.
Water jet issuing from a fire hose
C.
Formation of soap bubbles
D.
Flow of castor oil through a tube
412.
A surge tank is provided in the hydropower schemes to
A.
strengthen the penstocks B.
reduce water hammer pressures
C.
reduce frictional losses in the system D.
power development
413.
minimize the cost of hydro-
The pressure gradient in laminar motion along the flow dirction is equal to
A.
velocity gradient
direction of flow
B.
the rate of change of velocity normal to the
C.
the rate of change of shear stress along the direction of flow
rate of change of shear stress normal to the direction of flow
D.
the
414. The ratio between inertial forces and the square root of pressure forces is
known as
A.
Euler number
B.
Weber number
C.
Froude number
D.
Mach number
415. How many dimensionless parameters can be obtained for a physical

phenomenon having 7 varieables involving 3 fundamental dimensions?
A.
10
B.
C.
D.
416. If the pressure at any point in the liquid approaches the vapour pressure, the
liquid starts vapourising and creates pockets or bubbles of dissolved gases and
vapours. This phenomenon is known as
A.
surface tension
B.
C.
vaporisation D.
cavitation
417.
The lift on the cylinder caused by the circulation is independent of
A.
velocity
C.
magnitude of circulation D.
B.
adhesion
cylinder diameter
None of the above
418.
In a free vortex flow, the tangential velocity is
A.
directly proportional to the radial distance
the square of the radial distance
B.
C.
inversely proportional to the radial distance D.
directly proportional to
inversely proportional to
419. A Rankine body can be developed when a source of constant discharge is

placed at the origin and in a
A.
uniform flow B.
gradually varying flow
C.
non-uniform flow
D.
420.
In a flow field, stagnation point is a point where the
A.
velocity is zero
C.
both pressure and velocity are zero
421.
The radial component of velocity in a free vortex is
A.
zero
B.
B.
vortex flow
pressure is zero
D.
gravitational effect is zero
directly proportional to the radial distance
C.
inversely proportional to the radial distance D.
inversely proportional to
422.
The loss of head due to sudden enlargement is attributed to
A.
viscosity of fluid
B.
C.
roughness of the pipe
energy
423.
generation of heat
D.
production and dissipation of turbulent
The capillary rise in a narrow two-dimensional slit of width 'W' is
A.
helf of that in a capillary tube of diameter 'W' B.
capillary tube of diameter 'W'
two-thirds of that in a
C.
One-third of that in a capillary tube of diameter 'W' D.
in a capillary tube of diameter 'W'
One-fourth of that
424. When the rheogram for a fluid at any temperature and pressure is a straight
line passing through origin, the fluid is said to be
A.
Ideal plastic B.
Bingham
C.
Newtonian
Non-Newtonian
D.
425.
When the shear stress acting on a fluid is removed
A.
the body retains its new shape and position
original shape and position slowly
B.
the body regains its
C.
the body regains its original shape and position immediately
body regains its original shape but remains in the new position
D.
the

426. An imaginary line drawn through a flow field such that the tangent at any
point gives the velocity vector at an instant is known as
A.
path line
B.
streak line
C.
steam line
D.
either of the above
427.
For a floating ship to be in equilibrium the metacentre should be
A.
exactly at the centre of gravity B.
close to centre of gravity
C.
below the centre of gravity
above the centre of gravity
428.
Submerged weight of a body is
A.
greater than its weight in vacuum
C.
equal to its weight in air D.
429.
The centre of pressure of a fully submerged body is almost always located
A.
above the centroid B.
at the centroid
C.
closer to the centroid
D.
430.
The existence of velocity potential in fluid indicates that
A.
the flow is rotational
B.
C.
the vorticity must be non-zero
curve must have a definite value
D.
B.
greater than its weight in air
less than its weight in air
bolow the centroid
the vorticity must be zero

D.
the circulation around any closed
431. In case the velocity vector at different points along a stream line remains
unchanged then the flow is termed as
A.
Stoke's flow B.
Uniform flow
C.
Rotational flow
D.
432.
The flow between any two stream lines
Irrotational flow
A.
is always zero
B.
C.
increases along its path
remains the same

D.
decreases along its path
433. Which two forces are most important in laminar flow between closely parallel
plates?
A.
Inertial and viscousB.
Viscous and pressure
C.
Gravity and pressure
D.
434.
A body with a rounded nose and along tapering tail is usually best suited for
A.
Laminar flowB.
turbulent subsonic flow
C.
sonic flow
supersonic flow
435.
Priming is required in
A.
centrifugal pumps B.
gear pumps
C.
reciprocating pumps
D.
436.
A draft tube converts
D.
Pressure and inertial
all of the above
A.
pressure energy into kinetic energy
head
B.
velocity head into potential
C.
potential head into pressure head
energy
D.
kinetic energy into mechanical
437.
In a mixed flow turbine water enters
A.
axially and leaves radiallyB.
C.
tangentially and leaves radially D.
radially and leaves axially

tangentially and leaves axially
438. If 1% error is encountered in the measurement of head over crest of a

rectangular weir, the error in discharge will be nearly
A.
5%
B.
1%
C.
1.50%D.
2%
439.
If a weir is constructed for full width of channel, it is known as
A.
suppressed weir
B.
sharp crested weir
C.
submerged weir
D.
sultro weir
440. A trapezoidal weir of horizontal crest with side slopes of one horizontal to four
vertical is called
A.
trapezoidal weir
B.
C.
sultro weir
None of the above
441.
A hydraulic jump is classified on the basis of initial
A.
Weber number
B.
Mach number
C.
Reynolds number
D.
Froude number
442.
In open channels, under critical flow conditions, the velocity head is equal to
A.
the depth of flow
C.
half the depth of flow
443.
In an open channel, under critical depth
A.
specific energy is zero
C.
specific energy is maximum
D.
B.
cippoletti weir
two-thirds of the depth of flow

D.
B.
one-fourth the depth of flow
specific energy is minimum

D.
specific energy is least varying

444. For a given bed, roughness and discharge when the wetted perimeter is
minimum, the which of the following is also minimum?
A.
velocity
B.
C.
hydraulic radius
discharge
D.
cross-sectional area.

445. The maximum velocity through a circular channel takes place when the depth
of flow is equal to
A.
0.95 times the diameter B.
0.81 times the diameter
C.
0.50 times the diameter D.
E.

446.
For a supersonic flow, velocity
A.
increases with decrease in area of flow B.
of flow
increases with increase in area
C.
does not change with variation in area of flow
D.
None of the above

447. The angle of contact (0) between water and glass tube in case of capillary
rise is equal to
A.
0?
B.
10?
C.
90?
D.
128?
E.
157?

448. What flow rate in m3/s, is needed using a 20 : 1 scale model of a dam over
which 4m3/s of water flows?
A.
0.01
B.
C.
0.0057
E.
0.0015
0.0068
D.
0.0022

449. It is proposed to model a submarine moving at 10 m/s by taking a 10 : 1 scale
model. What velocity, in m/s, would be needed in the model study?
A.
3.16
B.
10
C.
40
D.
80
E.
100

450. The drag force on a 40 : 1 scale model of a ship is measured to be 10 N. What
force, in kN, is expected on the ship?
A.
640
B.
520
C.
320
D.
160
E.
80
451. The power output of a 10 : 1 scale model of a hydro turbine is measured to be

20 W. The power output in kW expected from the prototype is
A.
200
B.
150
C.
100
E.
D.
63

452. The velocity in a 2 cm-diameter pipe is 20 m/s. If the pipe enlarges to 5 cm
diameter velocity, in m/s, will be
A.
B.
6.4
C.
5.2
D.
4.8
E.
3.2

453. The angle of contact (0) between mercury and glass tube in case of capillary
depression is
A.
0?
B.
10?
C.
90?
D.
128?
E.
157?

454.
The locus of elevations that water will rise in a series of pitot tube is called
A.
the hydraulic grade line
B.
the pressure head
C.
the energy grade line
D.
the velocity head
E.
the head loss

455.
In a completely turbulent flow the head loss
A.
increases with the velocity
B.
C.
increases with flow rate
decreases with wall roughness
E.
increases with the velocity squared
D.
increases with diameter

456. Four cars, with a mass of 1500 kg each, are loaded on a 6 m wide, 12 m long
small car ferry. How far, in cm, will it sink in the water?
A.
15.2
B.
11.5
C.
10.2
D.
9.6
E.
8.3

457.
Bluff body
A.
Surface is smooth so that friction can be neglected B.
with stream lines
C.
Surface does not coincide with stream lines
stream lines
D.
Surface coincides
Surface perpendicular to

458.
When a fluid is at rest, the shear stress is
A.
maximum
C.
between zero and maximum
B.
zero
D.
unpredictable

459.
The flow of a fluid in a pipe takes place from
A.
higher level to lower level B.
small end to large end
C.
higher pressure to lower pressure
pressure
E.
D.
lower pressure to higher
higher energy to lower energy

460. A pressure of 500 kPa applied to 2 m3 if liquid results in a volume change of
0.004 m3. The bulk modulus, in Mpa, is
A.
2.5
B.
25
C.
250
D.
2500
E.
2.5 x 106
461.
Water at 20? C will rise, in a clean 1 mm dia. Glass tube, a distance, in cm, of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

462. Water at 20? C flows in a piping system at a low velocity. At what pressure, in
kPa absolute, will cavitation result?
A.
35.6
B.
20.1
C.
10.6
D.
5.67
E.
2.45

463.
In MLT units, velocity potential is expressed as
A.
L2T
C.
L2T-1 D.
B.
L2T-2
LT-2

464.
The locus of elevations that water will rise in a series of pitot tubes is called
A.
the hydraulic grade line
B.
the pressure head
C.
the energy grade line
D.
the velocity head

465.
As the temperature decreases, the viscosity of a gas
A.
increases, increases
B.
decreases, decreases
C.
increases, decreases
D.
decreases, increases

466. A 2 cm dia. Pipe transports water at 20 m/s. If it exits out 100 small 2 mm
dia. Holes, the existing velocity, in m/s will be
A.
120
B.
80
C.
40
D.
20
E.
10
467. Water flows through a 2 cm dia. Pipe at 20 m/s. It then flows radially outward
between two discs, 2 mm apart. When it reaches a radius of 40 cm its velocity, in
m/s will be
A.
B.
2.5
C.
2.25
D.
1.85
E.
1.25

468.
Viscosity will be the most important property in which of the following case:
A.
Travel of a bullet through air
B.
Water jet issuing from a fire hose
C.
Formation of soap bubbles
D.
Flow of castor oil through a pipe.

469.
Dynamic viscosity : Poise : kinematic viscosity:
A.
A.P.I. B.
N/m2
C.
Stoke D.
Slug

470.
Drag force is not a function of
A.
projected area of the body
B.
C.
mass density of the body D.
mass density of the fluid
471.
Stanton diagram is a plot of
velocity of the body
A.
friction factor against Reynold number B.
Reynold number
friction factor against log of
C.
log of friction factor against Reynold number D.
against log of Reynold number
log of driction factor

472. To determine the reservoir storage capacity for a given uniform demand, one
of the following data is most useful:
A.
Unit hydrograph of the basin
stream at the reservoir site
B.
Stage discharge relation for the
C.
Daily flow-duration curve of the stream at the dam site
of the flow volume for several consecutive years
D.
Mass curve

473. A container carrying water is moved in a horizontal direction with an
acceleration of 2.45 m/s2. The angle of inclination of the free water surface to the
horizontal is
A.
14.03?
B.
C.
45?
0?
D.
67.8?

474. The head over a 90? V-notch weir increases from 0.15 m to 0.3 m. The ratio
of the new discharge to the original discharge is
A.
1.414 B.
C.
5.657
D.

475. A 2m dia., 3 m high, cylindrical water tank is pressurized such that the
pressure at the top is 20 kPa. The force in kN, acting on the bottom is
A.
195
B.
176
C.
155
D.
132
E.
106

476. The force, in kN acting on one of the 1.5 m sides of an open cubical water
tank (which is full) is
A.
18.2
B.
16.5
C.
15.3
D.
12.1
E.
10.2

477. A rocket exits exhaust gases with p = 0.5 kg m3 out a 50 cm dia nozzle at a
velocity of 1200 m/s. Estimate the thrust, in kN
A.
420
B.
280
C.
140
E.
40
D.
90

478. A high speed vehicle, travelling at 50 m/s, dips an 80 cm wide scoop into
water and deflects the water 180. If it dips 5 cm deep what force, in kN, is exerted
on the scoop?
A.
200
B.
120
C.
100
D.
50
E.
25

479. The viscosity of a fluid with specific gravity 1.3 is measured to be 0.0034
Ns/m2. Its kinematic viscosity, in m2/s, is
A.
2.6 x 10-6
B.
4.4 x 10-6
C.
5.8 x 10-6
D.
7.2 x 10-6
E.
9.6 x 10-6

480. Fresh water 2 m deep flows over the top of 4 m of salt water (S = 1.04). The
pressure at the bottom, in kPa, is
A.
60.4
B.
58.8
C.
55.2
D.
51.3
E481. What pressure, in kPa, is equivalent to 600 mm of Hg?

A.
100
B.
95.2
C.
80
D.
55.2
E.
51.3

482.
The viscosity of a fluid varies with
A.
temperature B.
temperature and pressure
C.
pressure
density
D.

483.
A streamline
A.
occurs on all types of flows
the flow
C.
B.
is the line of equal velocity in a flow
is the line along geometrical centre of

D.
is fixed in space in space flow

484.
Find the odd one out
A.
Pressure
B.
Unit shear stress
C.
Energy
D.
Modulus of elasticity

485. Which of the following will resist shear and its rate of deformation will be zero
regardless of loading?
A.
Ideal fluid
B.
C.
Ideal plastic D.
Newtonian fluid
Elastic solid

486. Water enters a turbine at 900 kPa with negligible velocity. What maximum
speed, in m/s, can it reach before it enters the turbine rotor?
A.
52
B.
47
C.
45
D.
42

487.
Two units are homologous when they are geometrically similar and have
A.
Similar stream lines
B.
Same Reynolds number
C.
Same Froudes number
D.
Same efficiency

488.
Water hammer in pipes takes place when
A.
fluid is flowing with high velocity
pressure
B.
fluid is flowing with high
C.
flowing fluid is gradually brought to rest
brought to rest by closing the valve
D.
flowing fluid is suddenly

489. Model analysis of aeroplanes and projectiles moving at supersonic speed are
based on
A.
Reynold number
B.
Weber number
C.
Froude number
D.
Euler number
E.
Mach number

490.
as
If the Froude number in open channel flow is equal to 1.0, the flow is known
A.
Laminar flowB.
Turbulent flow
C.
shooting flow
D.
E.
streaming flow
critical flow
491. A pressure rise of 500 kPa is needed across a pump in a pipe transporting 0.2
m2/s of water. If the pump is 85% efficient, the power needed, in kW, would be
A.
118
B.
100
C.
85
D.
65
E.
60

492.
The shear stress in a turbulent pipe flow
A.
law
Varis parabolically with radius
B.
Varis according to the 1/7 the power
C.
is zero at the centre and increases as linearly to the wall
wall and increase linearly to the centre
493.
The viscosity of a fluid varies with
A.
temperature B.
C.
pressure
temperature, pressure and density
D.
D.
is zero at the
E.
density

494.
In an isothermal atmosphere the pressure
A.
is constant with elevation B.
decreases linearly with elevation
C.
decreases exponentially with elevation D.
approaches a constant value
E.
decreases near the surface but
cannot be related to elevation

495.
pipe
The pressure gradient (?p/?x) in a developed turbulent flow in a horizontal
A.
is constant
B.
C.
is zeroD.
decreases exponentially
E.
varies directly with the average velocity
varies linearly with axial distance

496. The pressure force, in Newtons, on the 15 cm-dia, head light of an automobile
travelling at 25 m/s is
A.
10.4
B.
6.8
C.
5.6
D.
4.8
E.
3.2

497. The pressure inside a 4 cm dia hose is 700 kPa. If the water exits through 1 2
cm dia. Nozzle what velocity in m/s can be expected inside the hose?
A.
20.4
B.
16.3
C.
12.4
D.
10.5
E.
9.7

498. Water enters a turbine at 900 kPa with negligible velocity. What maximum
speed, in m/s, can it reach before it enters the turbine rotor?
A.
52
B.
47
C.
45
D.
48
E.
28

499.
Total drag on a body is the sum of
A.
pressure drag and velocity drag B.
C.
friction drag and pressure drag D.
friction drag
friction drag and velocity drag

pressure drag, velocity drag and

500.
Mouthpieces are used to measure
A.
velocity
B.
frictionless
C.
pressure
D.
viscosity
E.
rate of flow
501. What pressure, in Mpa, must be maintained in a diving bell, at a depth of

1200 m, to keep out the ocean water (S = 1.03)
A.
1.24
B.
5.16
C.
9.32
D.
12.1
E.
14.3

502. Predict the pressure, in kPa, at an elevation of 2000 m, in an isothermal
atmosphere assuming T = 20?C. Assume Patm = 100 kPa
A.
87
B.
82
C.
79
D.
71
E.
63

503. A U-tube manometer, attached to an air pipe, measures 20 cm of mercury.
The pressure, in kPa, in the air pipe is
A.
26.7
B.
32.4
C.
38.6
E.
51.3
D.
42.5

504. What pressure differential, in pascals, exists at the bottom of a 3 m vertical
wall if the temperature inside is 20?C and outside it is -20?C. Assume equal
pressures at the top
A.
15
B.
12
C.
D.
E.

505. In Hagen-poiseuille flow of viscous liquid, one of the following pairs of forces
strike a balance:
A.
Inertia and viscous forces B.
Pressure and viscous forces
C.
Gravity and viscous forces
D.
Inertia and gravity forces

506. Uniform flow in a channel is characterised by which of the following
statements:
A.
Gradient of the total energy is parallel to the channel bed B.
remains constant along the channel
Total energy
C.
Specific energy varies along the length of the channel
line either rises or falls depending on Froude number
Total energy
D.

507.
Water turbines may be put in the decreasing order of specific speed as
A.
Propeller turbine, Reaction turbine Impulse turbine B.
Francis turbine, Kaplan turbine
Pelton wheel,
C.
None of the above
Reaction turbine Impulse turbine Propeller turbine

508.
A fluid is a substance that
D.
A.
is essentially incompressible
shearing stress
B.
always moves when subjected to a
C.
has a viscosity that always increases with temperature
viscosity that always decreases with temperature
E.
D.
has a
expands until it fills its space

509. The parameters with determine the friction factor of turbulent flow in a rough
pipe are
A.
Froude number and relative roughness B.
number
Froude number and Mach
C.
Reynolds number and relative roughness
relative roughness
D.
Mach number and

510. A circular plate 1 m in diameter submerged vertically in water such that its
upper edge is 8 m below the free surface of water. The total hydrostatic pressure
force on one side of the plate is
A.
6.7 kNB.
65.4 kN
C.
45.0 kN
D.
511.
The velocity distribution in a turbulent flow in a pipe is often assumed to
77.0 Kn
A.
vary parabolically B.
centre
be zero at the wall and increase linearly to the
C.
vary according to the 1/7 th power law D.
used
E.
be unpredictable and is thus not
be maximum at the wall and decrease linearly to the centre

512. The depth of water in a 3 m wide rectangular, finished concrete channel is
2m. If the slope is 0.001, estimate the flow rate, in m3/s
A.
14
B.
13
C.
12
D.
11
E.
10

513.
A surge wave is an example of
A.
steady uniform flow
B.
steady non-uniform flow
C.
unsteady uniform flow
D.

514.
Pressure drag results from
A.
Skin friction B.
Deformation drag
C.
development
D.
Occurrence of a wake

515.
Meter associated with viscosity
A.
Saybolt
B.
Orsat
C.
Redwood
D.
Engler

516.
The head loss in a pipe flow can be calculated using
A.
the Bernoulli equation
C.
the Chezy Manning equation
E.
The darcy Weisbach equation
B.
Darcy's law
D.
the Momentum equation

517.
In a turbulent flow in a pipe we know the
A.
Reynolds number is greater than 10,000
straight lines
B.
Fluid particles move in
C.
Head loss varies linearly with the flow rate
linearly with radius
D.
Shear stress varies
E.
Viscous stresses dominate

518.
Reynold's no. may be defined as the ratio of
A.
Viscous forces to inertial forces B.
Elastic forces to pressure forces
C.
Viscous forces to gravity forces D.
E.
None
Gravity forces to thertial forces

519.
Eulers dimensionless number relates the following
A.
Inertial force and gravity B.
C.
Pressure force and inertial force D.
Viscous force and inertial

Pressure force and viscous force

520. As the pump speed increases, its NPSH (net positive section head)
requirement
A.
Increases
B.
Decreases
C.
Remains unaffected
E.
None
521.
The condition for the stable equilibrium of a floating body is
D.
May increase or decrease
A.
The metercentre should lie above he e.g
and the c.g must lie on the same vertical line
C.
All of the above
D.
B.
The centre of buoyancy
None of the above

522.
For hypersonic flow, the Mach no, is
A.
Unity B.
C.
Creater than two
E.
Greater than ten
Greater than unity

D.
Greater than four

523.
Newton's law of viscosity states that shear stress is directly proportional to
A.
Velocity gradient
B.
C.
Shear strain D.
viscosity
Velocity

524.
Model analysis of free surface flows are based on
A.
Reynold's no B.
Froude no.
C.
Mach no.
Euler no.
D.

525.
If the specific speed of turbine is more than 300, the type of turbine is
A.
Pelton B.
Kaplan
C.
Francis
D.
Pelton with nose jets

526.
For a laminar flow through a pipe the shear stress over a cross-section
A.
Varies inversely as the distance from the centre of the pipe
directly as the distance from the surface of pipe
B.
C.
Varies directly as the distance from the centre of the pipe D.
canstant over the cross-section
Remains
2.THERMODYNAMICS
1.
The unit of energy is the same as the unit of
A.
power
B.
work
C.
entropy
D.
pressure

2.
The unit of power is
A.
W only
C.
J/s and W both
B.
J/s only
D.

3.
One kWh is equal to
A.
3.6 x 108 J B.
3.6 x 106 J
C.
3.6 x 107 J D.
3.6 x 105 J

4.
The unit of energy is
A.
J/s
B.
Varies
C.
D.

5.
Pascal is the unit of pressure and one pascal is equal to
A.
1 N/m2
C.
133.32 N/m2
B.
105 N/m2
D.
104 N/m2

6.
Torr is equal to the pressure of
A.
0.1 mm of Hg at 0?C in a standard gravitational field
of Hg at 0?C in a standard gravitational field
B.
1 mm
C.
0.01 mm of Hg at 0?C in a standard gravitational field
mm of Hg at 0?C in a standard gravitational field
D.
0.001

7.
Which of the following is / are thermometric property (ies)?
A.
Pressure of a gas kept at constant-volume
kept at constant-pressure
C.
Thermal emf of a thermocouple
D.
B.
Volume of a gas
All of the above

8.
First law of thermodynamics is based on the
A.
law of conservation of mass B.
law of conservation of energy
C.
law of equipartion of energy D.
law of conservation of momentum

9.
For a closed system the correct mathematical expression for the first
law of thermodynamics is
A.
dU = ?dQ + dW
B.
dU = dQ + dW
C.
dU = dQ-dW
D.
dU = Q + W

10.
The mathematical expression for the first law of thermodynamics for
a steady-state flow processes is
A.
? H = Q + Ws
B.
C.
?U = Q-Ws D.
?U = Q + W
11.
A control volume refers to
A.
fixed region is space
B.
C.
a closed system
an isolated system
D.
?H = Q-Ws
a difinite mass

12.
A system in which there may exchange energy but not mass is known as
A.
open system B.
closed system
C.
isolated system
D.
insulated system

13.
An open system implies
A.
the use of a control volume
surroundings
B.
no interchange between system and
C.
the presence of free surface
considered
D.
that a definite mass of material is

14.
A system is called open system if
A.
only the energy crosses the system boundaryB.
cross the system boundary
both energy and mass
C.
neither energy nor mass crosses the system boundary
mass crosses the system boundary
D.
only the

15.
A system is said to be an isolated system if
A.
only the mass crosses the system boundary B.
the system boundary
only the energy crosses
C.
both energy and mass crosses the system boundary
energy nor mass crosses the system boundary
16.
Which of the following is an example of a closed system
D.
neither
A.
Scooter engine
B.
Liquid cooling system of an automobile
C.
Boiler in steam power plant
D.
Air compressor

17.
You turn off the water flowing into the tube and open the drain. This is an
example of
A.
an open steady-state system
C.
a closed system
D.
B.
an open unsteady-state system
none of the above

18.
Select the wrong statement
A.
Both heat and work cross the boundary of the system
and work are path functions
B.
Both heat
C.
Both heat and work are property of the system
D.
Heat flows when
the system and surroundings are not in equilibrium which is not necessary for work
19.
In a reversible shaft work process
A.
the temperature forces are balanced
balanced
B.
the pressure forces are
C.
D.
all the forces are balanced
the mechanical forces are balanced

20.
Intensive properties are the properties whose magnitude
A.
depends on the quantity of material involved B.
quantity of material involved
C.
depends on the path followed
21.
Which of the following is an intensive property
A.
Internal energy
B.
C.
Density
Volume
D.
D.
none of the above
Enthalpy

22.
does not depend on the
Which of the following is an extensive property?
A.
Temperature B.
Pressure
C.
Specific volume
D.
Volume

23.
Select the correct statement
A.
Both molecular weight and total weight of a gas are intensive properties
B.
Both molecular weight and total weight of a gas are extensive
properties
C.
Total weight of a gas is an extensive property molecular weight is an
intensive property D.
Total weight of a gas is an intensive property molecular
weight is an extensive property
24.
Which of the following is a state function
A.
Temperature B.
Pressure
C.
Specific volume
D.
Work

25.
The internal energy of a substance
A.
decreases with increase in temperature
temperature
B.
C.
ramains unaffected with change in temperature
by the relation E = mc2
increases with increase in

D.
can be calculated

26.
The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on
A.
its pressure only
C.
its temperature only
B.
its volume only

D.
the size of its molecules only

27.
The enthalpy (H) of any system is defined by the mathematical expression
A.
H = U-PV
B.
H = U + PV
C.
H = V + PU D.
H = U + RT
28.
The enthalpy of an ideal gas
A.
depends on its temperature only
B.
depends on its pressure only
C.
may decrease while the internal energy increases
volume only
D.
depends on its

29.
A system receives 13.5 J of heat and at the same time work is transferred to
the surroundings. Which of the following amount is possible ?
A.
13.5 J B.
20.0 J
C.
1J
14.5 J
D.

30.
In a certain process the heat flow into a system is 25 Btu. What is the change
in internal energy if the work done by the system in the process is 55 Btu ?
A.
30 Btu
B.
80 Btu
C.
30 Btu
D.
80 Btu
31.
The minimum number of degrees of freedom for any system is
A.
B.
C.
D.

32.
The number of degrees of freedom at the triple point of water is
A.
B.
C.
D.

33.
For liquid water in equilibrium with a mixture of water vapour and nitrogen
the number of degrees of freedom is
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
For a three phase system is equilibrium made up of three non-reacting
chemical species the number of degrees of freedom is
A.
B.
C.
D.

35.
Which of the following statements violates the postulates of the kinetic
theory of gases?
A.
Gases consist of a large number of tiny particles
are in a state of rapid motion
B.
All the molecules
C.
The molecules in a gas remain at rest D.
The pressure exerted by the gas
results from the impact of the molecules on the walls of the containing vessel
36.
The number of molecules present in 1 g mol of a gas is known as
A.
atomic number
C.
Avogadro number D.
B.
vapour density
none of the above

37.
The translational kinetic energy of molecules of an ideal gas is
A.
directly proportional to its absolute temperature
proportional to square root of its absolute temperature
B.
directly
C.
directly proportional to square of its absolute temperature D.
of its temperature
independent

38.
When the temperature of an idealgas is increased from 27?C to 927?C the
kinetic energy will be
A.
same B.
twice
C.
eight times D.
four times

39.
Air is
A.
a gas B.
a mixture of gases
C.
a mixture of gases and vapour
D.
a mixture of vapours

40.
Imperfect gases are those
A.
which contain impurities B.
which do not obey Charles and Boyles law
C.
whose molecules are not spherical
D.
whose molecules cannot be
regarded as point m41. For an ideal gas Charles law deals with the relationship
between
A.
pressure and volume at constant temperature
temperature at constant volume
B.
pressure and
C.
volume and temperature at constant pressure
at constant temperature
D.
mass and volume

42.
Boyles law for an ideal gas deals with the relationship between
A.
mass and volume at constant temperature
constant temperature
B.
C.
volume and temperature at constant pressure
temperature at constant volume
pressure and volume at

D.
pressure and

43.
A gas is termed an ideal gas if it obeys the gas equation PV = RT. When do
you expect a gas to show deviation from ideality?
A.
At high poressures and low temperatures
temperatures
B.
At low poressures and low
C.
At high poressures and high temperatures
high temperatures
D.
At low poressures and

44.
Under which of the following conditions is the law PV = RT obeyed most
closely by a real gas?
A.
High pressure and high temperature
temperature
B.
Low pressure and low
C.
High pressure and low temperature
temperature
D.
Low pressure and high

45.
For an ideal gas x in the equation PV = xT is a constant which depands upon
A.
the number of molecules present only B.
C.
both (a) and (b)
D.
the type of gas only
neighter (a) nor (b)

46.
Which of the following nethods will enable the volume of an ideal gas to be
made four times greater? Use absolute temperature
A.
Double the temperature double the pressure B.
double the pressure
Halve the temperature
C.
Quarter the pressure at constant temperature
temperature at constant pressure
D.
Quarter the

47.
To double the volume of a given mass of an ideal gas at 27?C keeping the
pressure constant one must raise the temperature to
A.
54?C B.
270?C
C.
327?C D.
600?C

48.
Which one of the following plots for a gas at about room temperature will
suggest an absolute zero temperature if extrapolated suitably?
A.
Pressure against 1/volume (temperature constant) B.
volume (temperature constant)
Pressure against
C.
Volume against temperature (pressure constant)
1/pressure (temperature constant)
Volume against
D.

49.
The volume of an ideal gas is 100 cm3 at 100?C. If the pressure is held
constant at what temperature will the gas have a volume of 200 cm3?
A.
200?C B.
473?C
C.
746?C D.
50?C
50.
Specific volume of a gas is
A.
the reciprocal of its density
C.
directly proportional to pressure D.
51.
At absolute zero temperature
A.
mass of the gas is zero
C.
pressure of the gas is zero
B.
B.
equal to its density

the volume of gas at S.T.P.
volume of the gas is zero

D.
all a b and c

52.
If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4
per cent when heated through 1?C. its initial temperature must be
A.
250 K B.
250?C
C.
2500 K
D.
25?C

53.
Which one of the following gases is nearest to an ideal gas
A.
Helium
B.
Hydrogen
C.
Oxygen
D.
Nitrogen

54.
A vessel has two compartments A and B containing H2 and O2 respectively
both at one atmospheric pressure. If the wall separating the two compartments is
removed
A.
the pressure will remain unchanged
C.
the pressure will increase in B
and B
D.
B.
the pressure will increase in A
the pressure will increase both in A

55.
The compressibility factor (Z) of a gas is defined as
A.
the ration of the actual volume of the gas to the volume predicted by idealgas law
B.
the ratio of the volume predicted by ideal-gas law to the actual
volume of the gas
C.
the difference between the actual volume of the gas and the volume
predicted by ideal-gas law
D.
none of the above

56.
The compressibility factor (Z) of an ideal gas is always
A.
B.
C.
>1
D.
<1

57.
The compressibility factor of any gas
A.
is always less than 1
B.
C.
is always greater than 1 D.
depending on the nature of the gas
is always equal to 1
may be less than equal to or greater than 1

58.
For values of compressibility factor (Z) less than 1 the volume of a real gas
A.
is always greater than the volume predicted by ideal-gas law
always less than the volume presicated by ideal-gas law
B.
is
C.
is always equal to the volume predicted by ideal gas law D.
may be less
than equal to or greater than the volume predicted by ideal-gas law depending on
the nature of the gas
59.
Generalized compressibility factor chart is a plot of
A.
compressibility factor versus reduced temperature with reduced pressure as
parameter B.
compressibility factor versus reduced pressure with reduced
temperature as parameter
C.
compressibility factor versus pressure with absolute temperature as
parameter D.
compressibility factor versus absolute temperature with pressure
as parameter
60.
All gases have approximately the same compressibility factor at the same
A.
pressure
B.
critical temperature and critical
C.
reduced temperature and reduced pressure
61.
A substance above its critical temperature exists as
A.
solid B.
liquid
C.
gas
saturated vapours
D.

62.
The temperature above which a substance can exists only in its gaseous
state and cannot be liquefied regardless of the magnitude of pressure exerted on it
is called
A.
boiling point B.
saturation temperature
C.
critical temperature
D.
inversion temperature

63.
A gas can be liquefied by pressure alone only when its temperature is
A.
higher than its critical temperature
critical temperature
B.
equal to or higher than its
C.
less than or equal to its critical temperature D.
temperature
less than its critical

64.
The triple point of water occurs at 0.00602 atm and
A.
0.01 ?C
B.
C.
100?C D.
4?C
444.6?C

65.
The critical volume (Vc) for all for all gases obeying van der Walls equation of
state is equal to
A.
B.
2b
C.
3b
D.
4b

66.
At the critical point of a substance
A.
there is no distinction between liquid and vapour phases
of the liquid and vapour become equal
C.
the surface tension vanishes
D.
B.
all of these asnwers
the densities
67.
The SI unit of Cp is
A.
J/kg.K B.
J/kg
C.
W/kg.K
D.
J/m3.K

68.
Equation CP-Cv = R is
A.
true for an ideal gas only B.
C.
true for ideal as well as real gases
true for any real gas

D.
not true for any gas

69.
The specific heat of saturated water vapour at 100?C is
A.
zero
C.
negative
B.
positive
D.
infinity

70.
at
The two specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume are equal
A.
0?C
B.
0K
C.
0?F
D.
0?R
71.
Which of the following statements is correct
A.
Cp can never be less than Cv
B.
Cp is always equal to Cv
C.
Cp may be less than Cv depending on the gas
or less than Cv
D.
Cp may be equal to

72.
At the critical temperature and pressure the specific heat of a gas at
constant-pressure (Cp)
A.
reaches a value of zero
B.
C.
is equal to 0.24 keal/(kmol.K)
reaches a value of infinity

D.
is equal to 1 keal/(kmol.K)
73.
At low pressure the molal heat capacity of an ideal monoatomic gas at
constant-volume is equal to
A.
3 J / (kmol.K) B.
3 kcal / (kmol.K)
C.
0.24 kcal/(kmol.K) D.
1 kcal/(kmol.K)

74.
At low pressure the molal heat capacity at constant-pressure (Cp) of an ideal
monoatmic gas is equal to
A.
2.24 kcal kcal/(kmol.K)
B.
C.
5 kcal/(kmol.K)
3 kcal/(kmol.K)
D.
5J/(kmol.K)

75.
For all gases other than monoatomic gases the molal heat capacity at
constant-volume is
A.
greater than 3 kcal/(kmol.K)
C.
equal to 3 kcal/(kmol.K)
depending on the gas
D.
B.
less than 3 kcal/(kmol.K)
less than or equal to 3 kcal/(kmol.K)

76.
(Cp)
Above atmospheric pressure the specific heat of a gas at constant pressure
A.
increases with increase in pressure
pressure
B.
decreases with increase in
C.
remains unaffected with change in pressure D.
decreases with increase in pressure
increases first and then

77.
For an ideal gas Cp = 0.445 kcal/(kg.K) and ? = 1.33 the gas constant in kcal/
(kg.K) is
A.
0.147 B.
0.592
C.
0.885 D.
0.11

78.
For an ideal gas Cv = 0.157 kcal/(kg.K) and R = 260 m-N/(kg.K) the specific
heats ratio (?) is
A.
1.333 B.
1.396
C.
2.532 D.
1.653

79.
For an ideal monoatomic gas the specific heats ratio is
A.
1.4
B.
1.67
C.
1.33
D.

80.
What is the difference in two specific heats Cp and Cv of one gram of
helium ? The molecular weight of helium is 4. Assume that helium behaves as an
ideal gas.
A.
2 kcal/(kg.K) B.
8 kcal/(kg.K)
C.
1 kcal/(kg.K) D.
0.5 kcal/(kg.K)
81.
Which of the following has miximum specific heats ratio
A.
Argon B.
Carbon dioxide
C.
Oxygen
D.
Hydrogen

82.
Which of the following has minimum specific heats ratio
A.
Hydrogen
C.
Mercury vapour
B.
Nitrogen
D.
Sulphur dioxide

83.
Specific heat of a gas for a reversible adiabatic process
A.
is zeroB.
is infinity
C.
is negative
D.
varies between zero and infinity

84.
For a real gas obeying van der Waals equation CP-CV is
A.
B.
<R
C.
>R
D.
zero

85.
The heat capacities for the ideal-gas state are
A.
functions of temperature only
B.
functions of pressure only
C.
functions of temperature as well as pressure D.
temperature as well as pressure
independent of

86.
For substances which are incompressible CP and CV are related as
A.
Cp = Cv
C.
Cp << Cv
B.
Cp >> Cv

87.
Specific heat of acqueous solutions in general
A.
increases with increasing concentration
concentration
C.
B.
decreases with increasing
remains unaffected with change in concentration of solute

88.
In absence of experimental values Kopps rule may be used to calculate the
heat capacity of
A.
gases only
B.
liquids only
C.
solids only
D.
gases liquids and solids

89.
According to the law of Petit and Dulong the atmoic heat capacities of the
crystalline solid elements are nearly constant and equal to
A.
3.2 cal/g atom
B.
6.2 cal/g atom
C.
5.2 cal/g atom
D.
1.4 cal/g atom

90.
The atomic heat capacities of all solid elements
A.
decreases greatly with decrease in temperature
with decrease in temperature
B.
increases greatly
C.
remains unaffected with change in temperature
of infinity at absolute zero temperature
D.
approaches a value
91.
The amount of heat evolved or absorbed when one mole of any compound is
formed from its elements is called
A.
heat of transition
B.
heat of combustion
C.
heat of formation
D.
heat of hydration

92.
The ?H is constant in a chemical change and independent upon the path and
time taken. This is known as
A.
Hess law of constant heat summation B.
C.
Vant Hoffs law
D.
Lavoisier and Laplace law
Gibbs law

93.
Lenzs law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
A.
mass B.
C.
linear momentum D.
energy
angular momentum

94.
A reversible process requires that
A.
there be no viscous or friction in the system B.
system to surroundings only
heat transfer occurs from
C.
pressure of the system and surroundings be equal
system and surroundings be equal
D.
temperature of the

95.
For reversible isobaric process the exponent n in the relation PVn = constant
has the value of where ? = ratio of specific heats
A.
B.
C.
D.

96.
For a reversible isothermal process the exponent n in the relation PVn =
constant has the value of where ? = ratio of specific heats
A.
B.
C.
D.

97.
For an isentropic process the exponent n in the relation PVn = constant has
the value of where ? = ratio of specific heats
A.
B.
C.
D.

98.
The relation PVY = constant holds only for those processes which are
A.
isentropic
C.
reversible polytropic
B.
irreversible adiabatic
D.
all of these asnwers

99.
An isentropic flow is one which is
A.
adiabatic and reversible
C.
isothermal and reversible D.
B.
adiabatic and irreversible

isothermal and irreversible

100.
In reversible adiabatic processes
A.
pressure remains constant
C.
temperature remains constant
surroundings does not occur.
B.
enthalpy remains constant
D.
heat transfer between system and its
3.TURBO MACHINES
1.
Which of the following preferred for supercharging of internal
combustion engines?
A.
Roots blower
B.
Axial flow compressor
C.
Sliding vane type compressor
D.
Reciprocating compressor

2.
In an axial flow compressor, the pressure rise occurs in
A.
fixed blades only B.
Moving blades only
C.
Both fixed and moving blades
D.
none of the above

3.
An axial flow compressor has
A.
larger blades at gas entry and smaller blades at exit

smaller blades at gas entry and larger blades at exit
C.
identical dlades at exit as well as entry D.
same only angles changes
B.
size of blades remains

4.
An axial flow compressor is suitable for
A.
high volume flow rates with a small pressure rise
volume flow rates with high pressure rise
B.
high
C.
low volume flow rates with low pressure rise D.
rates with high pressure rise
low volume flow

5.
In a gas turbine cycle regenerator is used to
A.
heat the gases coming out of combustion chamber B.
supplied to combustion chamber
C.
heat air supplied to combustion chamber
gases released from low pressure turbine
D.
heat fuel
heat exhaust

6.
A regenerator can be used on
A.
open cycle gas turbines only B.
closed cycle gas turbines only
C.
both open as well as closed cycle gas turbines
above
D.
none of the

7.
Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle can be improved by
A.
reheating between expansion stage
compression stges
B.
intercooling between
C.
regeneration
D.
any of the above

8.
Gas turbine used in aircraft is of
A.
open cycle type B.
C.
closed cycle type with reheating and regeneration and intercooling

D.
open cycle type with reheating, regeneration and intercooling
closed cycle type with reheating

9.
A diffuser is used to
A.
increase velocity and decrease pressure B.
well as pressure
increase velocity as
C.
decrease velocity and increase pressure D.
well as pressure
decrease velocity as

10.
In which of the following heat exchanger, heat is extracted from air?
A.
Regenerator
B.
C.
Intercooler D.
All of the above
11.
Which component of a gas turbine consumes maximum power?
A.
Starter
C.
Compressor D.
B.
Reheater
Regenerator
Combustion chamber

12.
In which of the following plant inferior quality fuel can be used?
A.
Open cycle gas turbine with regeneration
with intercooling
B.
Open cycle gas turbine
C.
Open cycle gas turbine with reheating and regeneration
gas turbine
D.

13.
In a reheating gas turbine cycle, reheating is done
A.
by gases from turbine exhaust
B.
by gases from intercooler
Closed cycle
C.
in separate combustion chamber
D.
any of the above

14.
In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste heat boiler is used to
A.
heat air from intercooler B.
C.
recover heat form exhaust gases
gases from regenerator

D.
none of the above

15.
A control volume has an inlet area of 0.1 m2 and exit area of 0.05 m2. The
density is 3.89 kg/m2 and constant. If the inlet velocity is 30 m/s, the force on the
control volume will be
A.
50 N B.
150 N
C.
250 N D.
350 N

16.
Under standard atmospheric condition, the velocity of air is
A.
236 m/s
B.
336 m/s
C.
436 m/s
D.
536 m/s

17.
The ratio of actual velocity to the local velocity of sound is called
A.
Velicity ratio B.
Velocity factor
C.
Speed ratio D.
Mach number

18.
In a nozzle, once the critical conditions are achieved at the throat, than which
of the following remains constant:
A.
Density of fluid
B.
C.
Flow rate
All of the above
D.
Velocity of fluid

19.
In a nozzle under choked flow conditions pressure waves travel, in the
divergent portion, at
A.
subsonic speed
B.
sonic speed
C.
supersonic speed
D.
subsonic to supersonic speed

20.
In a nozzle if back pressure is equal to inlet pressure
A.
no flow occurs
B.
maximum flow occurs
C.
flow is subsonic in diverging section
as well as supersonic sections
D.
flow is supersonic in converging
21.
The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is
A.
subsonic
B.
sonic
C.
supersonic
D.
supersonic on one side and subsonic on the other side

22.
The diverging portion of the nozzle acts as a diffuser for
A.
the subsonic flow
C.
both the subsonic as well as supersonic flow D.
B.
the supersonic flow

none of the above

23.
A diffuser
A.
converts kinetic energy into thermal energy B.
into kinetic energy
converts potential energy
C.
converts pressure energy into kinetic energy D.
into kinetic energy
converts thermal energy

24.
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same
compression ratio and work output because
A.
Otto cycle is more efficient
B.
Brayton cycle is less efficient
C.
Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only D.
Large volume of low
pressure gas cannot be efficiently handled in reciprocating engines
25.
Actual gas turbine cycle is different from ideal cycle because
A.
of internal irreversibility of the process due to friction, turbulence, etc. B.

of variation of specific heats with temperature
C.
of losses due to incomplete combustion
D.
all of the above

26.
The advantage of a gas turbine over a reciprocating engine is
A.
perfect balancing of rotor B.
C.
usually small working pressures D.
continuous and uniform power

all of the above

27.
Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is
A.
equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
C.
less than Diesel cycle efficiency D.
efficiency
B.
equal to Carnot cycle efficiency
more than Otto or Diesel cycle

28.
Air fuel ratio for a gas turbine is closer to
A.
10 ; 1 B.
15 ; 1
C.
20 ; 1 D.
60 ; 1

29.
Which of the following is a positive displacement rotory compressor?
A.
Roots blowerB.
C.
Centrifugal compressor
D.
All of the above

30.
All of the following are positive displacement compressors EXCEPT :
A.
Screw compressor B.
C.
Roots blowerD.
31.
For efficient operation of axial flow compressors the blades are made
A.
straight
C.
aerofoil section
B.
Vane blower
slightly curved
D.
forward curved

32.
Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine is in the range
A.
50 to 60 percent
B.
40 to 50 percent
C.
30 to 40 percent
D.
20 to 30 percent

33.
The efficiency of a simple open cycle gas turbine depends upon
A.
pressure ratio
C.
turbine inlet temperature D.
B.
compressor efficiency
All of the above

34.
Which of the following steam turbine has identical fixed and moving blades?
A.
Curtis turbine
B.
Rateau turbine
C.
Parson's turbine
D.
none of the above

35.
Which of the following is a pressure compounded turbine?
A.
Parson's turbine
B.
Curtis turbine
C.
Rateau turbine
D.
All of the above

36.
The continuity equation in compressible fluids is derived on the basis of
A.
conservation of momentum
B.
C.
conservation of mass
conservation of velocity head
D.
conservation of energy

37.
As there is plenty of time for heat transfer across the walls, the flow in long
pipes at low velocities attains
A.
isentropic conditions
B.
adiabatic conditions
C.
isothermal conditions
D.
polytropic conditions
38.
In a hot wire anemometer the rate of heat loss from sensing element is a
function of
A.
pressure
B.
C.
velocity of flow
mass rate of flow

D.
none of the above

39.
The normal shock wave in compressible flow is analogous to
A.
surges in open channel
C.
hydraulic bore in tidal rivers
B.
vortex formation in centrifugal pump

D.
hydraulic jump in channel flow

40.
A roots blower compresses 0.06 cubic metres of air from 1.0 bar to 1.45 bar
per revolution. The compressor efficiency is nearly
A.
99%
B.
87%
41.
Normal standard of compression for rotary compressor is
A.
adiabatic compression
B.
polytropic compression
C.
isentropic compression
D.
constant pressure compression

42.
Though there are no cyclic variations even then rotary compressors need
precise balancing because
A.
It is bulky in size
B.
cooling arrangement does not exist
C.
operating speeds are too high
D.
it is driven by an electric motor

43.
In air compressor performance curve a surge line represents
A.
limits of compressor discharge
B.
C.
limit of stable operation
lower critical speed of shaft
D.
limit of compressor efficiency

44.
Curtis turbine is
A.
in impulse turbine B.
a velocity compounded turbine
C.
a pressure compounded turbine D.
turbine
a velocity pressure compounded

45.
The source of power for driving a turbocharger is
A.
kinetic energy of exhaust gases from the engine
exhaust gases
C.
air motor
D.
B.
chemical energy of
electric motor

46.
to
Maximum delivery pressure in case of rotary compressors is usually restricted
A.
2 atmospheres
B.
5 atmospheres
C.
10 atmospheres
D.
20 atmospheres

47.
Which of the following is a displacement compressors?
A.
Reciprocating air compressor
C.
Centrifugal blower D.
B.
Vane blower
Axial flow compressors

48.
Which type of rotary compressor is used in oil fired furnaces?
A.
Sliding vane type blower B.
Screw compressor
C.
Centrifugal blower
D.

49.
In rotary compressors, slip factor is the ratio of
A.
stagnation pressure to static pressure B.
work
isentropic work done to actual
C.
D.
outlet whirl velocity to the blade velocity
none of the above

50.
In rotory compressors, the ratio of isentropic work to Eulers work is known as
A.
slip factor
B.
work factor
C.
pressure coefficient
51.
Stalling of the blades of axial flow compressor is
D.
degree of reaction
A.
an unsteady periodic and reversal of flow
regardless of pressure ratio
B.
the fixed mass flow rate
C.
the reduction in lift force at higher angle of incidence
above
D.
none of the

52.
Surging is
A.
an unsteady, periodic and reversal of flow in the compressor
fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
B.
the
C.
the reduction in lift force at higher angles of incidence
above
D.
none of the
A.
Variation of mass flow rate in proportion to pressure ratio B.
mass flow rate in inverse proportion to pressure ratio
variation of

53.
C.
Choking is
fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
D.
none of the above

54.
Gas turbines are taken to
A.
the gasoline and diesel engines in its working medium
and diesel engines in its internal combustion
C.
B.
the petrol
the steam turbine in its aspect of steady flow of the working medium
All of the above

55.
Which gas turbine has lest weight per bhp developed?
A.
Simple open cycle gas turbine
intercooling and reheating
B.
Open cycle gas turbine with
D.
C.
Open cycle gas turbine with intercooling, reheating and regeneration

Closed cycle gas turbine
D.

56.
In gas turbines, intercooling results in
A.
decrease in net output as well as thermal efficiency B.
output and increase in thermal efficiency
decrease in net
C.
increase in net output but decrease in thermal efficiency
net output as well as thermal efficiency
D.
increase in

57.
Working medium for closed cycle gas turbine should have
A.
high molecular weight
B.
low specific volume
C.
higher adiabatic index
D.
lower specific speed

58.
The advantage of closed cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas turbine is
A.
no contamination of working substance with combustion gases

inferior quality fuel can be used
C.
low maintenance costs
D.
B.
All of the above

59.
The range of compression ratio in a gas turbine is
A.
3 to 6 B.
5 to 8
C.
8 to 12
D.
12 to 22

60.
A constant volume combustion gas turbine operates on
A.
Ericsson cycle
B.
C.
Joule cycle
Atkinson cycle
D.
Brayton cycle
61.
When working substance is released through nozzles, the direction of reaction
will be
A.
clockwise
B.
counter clockwise
C.
either of (A) and (B) above
features
D.
direction depends on other design

62.
In a velocity compounded steam turbine, as steam moves along moving and
guide blades
A.
pressure is low and velocity gradually decreases
increases and velocity is low
B.
pressure gradually
C.
both pressure and velocity gradually decrease
velocity gradually increase.
D.
Both pressure and

63.
The effect of blade friction in a steam turbine is to
A.
reheat the steam
C.
reduce exhaust pressure D.
B.
increase the specific output

reduce work done

64.
If stage efficiency is S, blade efficiency is B and nozzle efficiency in N, then
A.
N = B.S
B.
S = B.N
C.
B = SN
D.
BSN = 1

65.
Bleeding in steam turbine refers to
A.
leakage of steam through bearings
packings
B.
leakage of steam through
C.
purposely withdrawn steam for process application D.
withdrawn for feed water heating
66.
Critical pressure for steam is
A.
185.85 kg/cm2
B.
212.55 kg/cm2
C.
225.65 kg/cm2
D.
245.55 kg/cm2

67.
An ideal fluid for vapour turbine cycle should have
purposely
A.
high critical temperature with low pressure
with high pressure
B.
high critical temperature
C.
low critical temperature with high pressure
with low presure
D.
low critical temperature

68.
Which of the following fluid can be used in binary vapour cycle?
A.
Mercury
C.
Aluminium bromide
B.
Diphenyl oxide
D.
any of the above

69.
Which of the following loss in steam turbines is negligible?
A.
Residual velocity loss
B.
Leakage loss
C.
Mechanical friction loss
D.
Radiation loss

70.
Which of the following is the least efficient method of governing steam
turbines?
A.
Nozzle control governing B.
Throttle governing
C.
Bypass governing D.
71.
Ljungstrom steam turbine is a
A.
radial flow turbine B.
axial flow turbine
C.
mixed flow turbine D.
any of the above
Combined throttle and nozzle governing

72.
In a modern steam turbine, the steam rte is nearly
A.
1 kg/kWhr
B.
2 kg/kWhr
C.
4 kg/kWhr
D.
8 kg/kWhr

73.
Which of the following rotary compressor has two shafts?
A.
B.
Sliding vane compressor
C.
Centrifugal compressor
D.
Lobe type compressor

74.
The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal
compressor is called
A.
slip factor
B.
C.
Blade efficiency
Velocity ratio
D.
Diagram efficiency

75.
The following property is the most important for material used for gas turbine
blades
A.
Fatigue
B.
Strength against bending
C.
Group D.
Strength against direct force

76.
Which of the following is the smallest and lighest for generating a given
amount of power
A.
Steam power plant B.
Petrol engine
C.
Diesel engine
Solar plant
E.
Gas turbine plant
D.

77.
Generally, steam turbines in power stations operate at
A.
3000 rpm
B.
1500 rpm
C.
1000 rpm
D.
375 rpm
E.
50 rpm

78.
For gas turbine, compressors used are
A.
Reciprocating type B.
Centrifugal type
C.
Axial flow type
Lobe type
E.
Sliding vane type
D.

79.
De Laval turbine is used for applications requiring
A.
High power, high speed
B.
High power, low speed
C.
Low power, high speed
D.
Low power, low speed
E.
Low speed

80.
As a result of blade friction, the outlet relative velocity of impulse turbine
compared to inlet relative velocity is
A.
Nearly same B.
2% less
C.
10% - 15% less
D.
E.
50% less
81.
Maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is of the order of
A.
6 KSC B.
10 KSC
C.
16 KSC
D.
E.
40 KSC
30% less
25 KSC

82.
Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by
A.
Reheating
C.
Adding a regenerator
E.
None
B.
Intercooling
D.
All of the above

83.
Most serious energy loss in reaction steam turbine
A.
Steam leakage between diaphragm and shaftB.
through radia clearance passages
Leakage over blade ends
C.
Frictional resistance between steam and nozzle sideD.
steam enters moving blades
Impact loss as
E.
Bearing friction

84.
Basic closed cycle for gas turbine is
A.
Carnot cycle B.
Rankine cycle
C.
Brayton cycle
D.
none of the above

85.
The work ratio of closed cycle gas turbine plant with fixed top temperature of
the cycle and fixed pressure ratio rp
A.
increases with increase in an inlet temperature to compressor

increases with decrease in an inlet temperature to compresor
C.
remain same irrespective of inlet temperature to compressor
of the above
B.
D.
none

86.
Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by
A.
reheating
C.
regenerator D.
B.
intercooling
All of the above

87.
With increase in pressure ratio, thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine
plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature
A.
increases
B.
decreases
C.
first increases and then decreases
D.
none of the above

88.
With ideal regencrative heat exchanger, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine
cycle is
A.
equal to work ratio B.
is less than work ratio
C.
is more than work ratio
D.
none of the above

89.
In a two stage gas turbine plant reheating after first stage
A.
increases thermal efficiency
B.
C.
doesoes not affect thermal efficiency
decreases thermal efficiency

D.
none of the above

90.
In a two stage gas turbine plant, reheating after first stage
A.
increases work ratio
C.
does not affect work ratio D.
91.
For a jet prepulsion unit, ideally the compressor work and turbine work are
A.
unequal
C.
not related to each other D.
B.
B.
decreases work ratio

none of the above
equal
none of the above

92.
Greater the difference between jet velocity and aeroplane velocity
A.
greater the propulsive efficiency B.
C.
unaffected is the propulsive efficiency D.
Lesser the propulsive efficiency

None of the above
4.ENGINEERING MATERIALS
1.
Within elastic limits
A.
Load is less B.
Load is gradually applied
C.
Load is static
D.
E.
Deformation is permanent
Deformation is proportional to the load

2.
A body which is permanently deformed is said to have undergone
A.
Elastic deformation B.
Limit of elastic deformation
C.
Uniform deformation
D.
E.
None of the above
Non-uniform deformation

3.
According to Hooke's law
A.
Stress is proportional to strain
B.
Stress/strain is constant
C.
Average stress is proportional to average strain
average stress is proportional to average strain
E.
D.
Within elastic limits
None of the above

4.
A.
All materials undergo plastic deformation
material would not fracture at elastic limit
B.
A completely brittle
C.
Brittleness is an important engineering consideration, because it allows the
materials to redistribute localized stresses
D.
In elastic materials yield stress
and tensile strength are practically identical
E.
A metal which is brittle in tension may be ductile under hydrostatic
compression
5.
A body which does not contain voids or empty spaces is known as
A.
Continuous body
C.
Heterogeneous body
E.
None of the above
B.
An isotropic body
D.
Crystalline body

6.
The limiting load beyond which the material no longer behaves elastically is
known is
A.
Breaking load
B.
C.
Load bearing capacity
E.
Elastic limit
Limiting load
D.
Plastic limit

7.
A.
A metal which is brittle in tension at room temperature can become ductile in
the presence of notches B.
A metal which is brittle in tension t room presence
of embrittlement agents such as hydrogen
C.
A metal which is ductile in tension at room temperature can become brittle in
the presence of notches D.
A metal which is ductile in tension at room
temperature can become brittle under gradual rate of loading
E.
None of the above

8.
The defect responsible for the phenomenon of slip, by which most metals
deform plastically, is known as
A.
Fracture
B.
Twinning
C.
Dislocation
D.
Strain hardening
E.
None of the above

9.
Fatigue failure occurs when a part is subjected to
A.
Tensile stress
B.
C.
Torsion
Fluctuating stress
E.
None of the above
D.
Compressive stress

10.
Stress concentration occurs when
A.
A body is subjected to excessive stressB.
unidirectional stress
A body is subjected to
C.
A body is subjected to reversing stress D.
fluctuating stress
A body is subjected to
E.
A body is subjected to non-uniform stress distribution
11.
Stress concentration may be caused by
A.
Change in cross-sectional area
B.
C.
Change in dimensions
Polishing or painting a surface
E.
A home or a notch in the body
D.
Change in shape

12.
The amount of energy expended by the action of external force in deforming
an elastic body is known as
A.
Elastic energy
B.
C.
Work done
Potential energy
E.
Strain energy
D.
Deformation energy

13.
If a body has identical properties all over it is known as
A.
Homogeneous
B.
C.
Ductile
Elastic
E.
Plastic
D.
Isentropic

14.
Some engineering materials are made up of more than one phase, with
different mechanical properties, such materials are known as
A.
Discontinuous
C.
PlasticD.
E.
None of the above
B.
Brittle
Heterogeneous

15.
When the metals are severely deformed in a particular direction, as in rolling
or forging (on a macro scale), the mechanical properties may be
A.
Identical
B.
C.
Anisotropic D.
E.
Non-uniform
Isotropic
Uniform

16.
If a material recovers its original dimensions, when the load is removed, it is
known as
A.
Brittle B.
Elastic
C.
PlasticD.
Annealed
E.
Soft
17.
Plastic deformation which is carried out in a temperature region and over a
time interval such that the strain hardening is not relieved is known as
A.
Hot work
B.
Cold work
C.
Annealing
D.
Bauschinger effect
E.
None of the above

18.
Most of the energy expended in deforming a metal by cold working is
A.
Utilised in overcoming deformation stresses B.
metal
C.
Converted into heat
E.
None of the above
D.
Utilised in deforming the
Consumed in developing internal stresses

19.
Identify the incorrect statement, if any
A.
A dislocation is the linear lattice defect that is responsible for nearly all
aspects of the plastic deformation of metals B.
The strain field at the
dislocation results in a different intensity
C.
The strain field at the dislocation results in a different intensity D.

Dislocations in real crystals are rarely straight lines and rarely lie in a single
plane
E.
Dislocations in real crystals are generally straight lines which are generally in
same plane
20.
A ductile fracture is characterized by
A.
Rapid rate for crack propagation B.
Negligible deformation
C.
Fragmentation into more than two pieces
deformation prior to propagation of crack
D.
E.
None of the above
21.
The tendency for brittle fracture increases with
A.
Increasing temperature
B.
Appreciable plastic
Decreasing strain rate
C.
Appreciable plastic deformation before fracture
deformation during propagation of the crack
E.
D.
Appreciable plastic
None of the above

22.
In general, high cohesive forces are related to
A.
Large values of elastic constants
B.
C.
Large coefficients of thermal expansion
constants
E.
Low melting point

D.
Small value of elastic
None of the above

23.
The ability of material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and to
return it when unloaded is called
A.
Hardness
B.
Fatigue strength
C.
Creep D.
Toughness
E.
Resilience

24.
The ability of a material to absorb energy in the plastic range is known as
A.
Hardness
B.
C.
Creep D.
Toughness
E.
Resilience
Fatigue strength

25.
Identify the incorrect statement
A.
The greatest error in Briuell hardness measurements occur in measuring the
diameter of specimen
B.
Harder the material, greater the elastic recovery
after deformation
C.
Owing to elastic recovery, the radius of curvature of the indentation will be
larger than that of the spherical indentor
D.
None of the above
26.
A.
Fatigue strength is seriously reduced by the introduction of a stress raiser
such as a notch or hole B.
A fatigue failure is particularly insidous, because it
occurs without any warning
C.
Fatuge results in a brittle fracture with no gross deformation at the fracture

D.
As the roughness of surface increses the fatigue life of speoimen
increases
E.
None of the above

27.
A surface damage which results when two surfaces in contact experience
light periodic relative motion is
A.
Fretting
B.
Pitting
C.
Corrosion
D.
Surface wear
E.
None of the above

28.
The fatigue strength of materials increases
A.
With temperature B.
C.
By having notches in specimen D.
E.
By over stressing the specimen
By having scratch on the surface

By under stressing the specimen

29.
Hardness may be defined as resistance to
A.
Local penetration
C.
Wear D.
E.
Any of the above
B.
Machining
Scratching

30.
Toughness of a material means
A.
Strength
C.
Stress relieving
E.
Softening
B.
Fatigue resistance
D.
Machinability
31.
The process of reheating hardened steel to temperature below the lower
critical temperature followed by any desired rate of cooling, is known as
A.
Hardening
B.
Spheroidizing
C.
Tempering
D.
Annealing
E.
Normalizing

32.
The process of production of articles having a soft ductile interior and a very
hard surface, is known as
A.
Hardening
B.
C.
Case hardening
E.
None of the above
Hardening and tempering

D.
Hardening and annealing

33.
Hardness of martensite is about
A.
RC 65 B.
RC 48
C.
RC 57 D.
RC 67
E.
RC 89

34.
Limestone is added in blast furnace to flux
A.
Silicon xoide B.
C.
MnO2 D.
E.
None of the above
Carbon
Sulphur

35.
The purpose of annealing is to
A.
Induce hardness
C.
Harden the surface D.
E.
Remove stresses
B.
Induce stresses
Produce irregular microstructure
36.
Case hardening
A.
Is done to induce hardness in the core of materials B.
tempering
Is followed by
C.
Is preceded by tempering D.
Is allowed by carburizing
E.
Is done to get a soft ductile interior with a very hard surface

37.
Any process of heating and cooling steel that produces a rounded or globular
from of carbide is known as
A.
Nomalizing B.
Ultra hardening
C.
Drawing
Nitriding
E.
Spheroidizing
D.

38.
Nitriding is a process for
A.
Annealing
C.
Case hardening
E.
None of the above
B.
Spheroidizing
D.
Normalizing

39.
Malleal lity of a material is defined as
A.
Ability to withstand compressive stresses
deformation under shear
B.
Ability to withstand
C.
Ability to undergo large permanent deformation in compression D.
property by which a material can be cold worked
E.
The
None of the above

40.
The effect f rolling on steel is
A.
To elongate the inclusions in the direction of rolling giving the steel excellent
properties B.
Reduction in tensile strength
C.
Reduction in fatigue strength
D.
Reduction in hardness
E.
None of the above
41.
Cold work is done on the metal
A.
Below the thermal critical range B.
Above the thermal critical range
C.
At zero degree centigrade temperature
metal in furnace
E.
D.
After slightly warning the
None of the above

42.
The process of heating iron base alloys to approzimately 40?C above the
critical temperature range followed by cooling to below that range in still air at
ordinary temperature is known as
A.
Normalizing B.
Annealing
C.
Tempering
Spheroidizing
E.
Hardening
D.

43.
Ductility of material may be defined as
A.
Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension

Capacity to withstand reversal of stresses
C.
Ability to undergo temporary deformation in tensionD.
withstand combined tensile and shear forces
E.
B.
Capacity to
Capacity to resist deformation under pressure

44.
In Brinell hardness tests if a soft ball is used for indentation
A.
The indentation will not eb circular
correctly measure the depth of indentation
B.
C.
The surface of indentation will be rough
E.
None of the above
It will not be possible to

D.
The ball may deform

45.
In order to measure/detect materials by non-destructive testing the method
generally used is
A.
Acoustic emission B.
Infrared radiometer
C.
Liquid crystallography
D.
E.
Mossbanser effect
Thermochemic point

46.
Spring steel sections are originally applied in
A.
Hardened condition
B.
C.
Annealed condition D.
Carburized condition
E.
None of the above
Hardened and tempered condition

47.
The main alloy for corrosion resistance in stainless steel is
A.
Carbon
B.
Manganese
C.
Chromium
D.
Cobalt
E.
Vanadium

48.
Silicon steel is widely used in
A.
Electrical industry B.
Chemical industry
C.
For making leaf prings
D.
E.
For cutting tools
For nuts and bolts

49.
The process by which steel is coated by a thin layer of phosphate is known as
A.
Anodising
C.
Spheroidizing
E.
Sheradising
B.
Parkerising
D.
Phosphorizing

50.
Cast iron contains
A.
0.2 to 0.4% carbon B.
0.4% to 0.7% carbon
C.
1 to 1.3% carbon
D.
E.
None of the above
51.
The properties of cast iron are regulated by
A.
The composition of raw material B.
C.
Heat treatment
E.
Control of amount, type, size and distribution of various carbon formations
D.
2 to 4% carbon
Heating temperature
Percentage of carbon present

52.
The consitituent which has a powerful softening effect on cast iron and its
presence in cast iron reduces the ability of the iron to retain carbon in chemical
combination, is
A.
SiliconB.
Aluminium
C.
Carbon
D.
E.
Chromium
Sulphur

53.
Tensile strength of common varieties of cast iron is in the range
A.
40 - 50 M Pa B.
50 - 80 M Pa
C.
140 - 500 M Pa
D.
E.
650 - 1000 M Pa
500 - 650 M Pa

54.
The elastic limit of cast iron is
A.
Low
C.
Same as that of mild steel
E.
Close to ultimate breaking strength
B.
High
D.
Low compression strength

55.
Grey iron
A.
Has low ductility
B.
Breaks with appreciable distortion
C.
Has brittleness
D.
Low compression strength
E.
None of the above

56.
In cast irons
A.
Impact strength is high B.
higher than that in compression
With static loading the strength in tension is
C.
With static loading the strength in tension is lower than that in compression
D.
(A) and (B) above
E.
(A) and (C) above

57.
Cast irons are generally specified by
A.
Carbon percentage B.
C.
Hardness
E.
Tensile strength
D.
Iron percentage
Process of manufacture

58.
In carbon steel castings
A.
The percentage of carbon is less than 1.7%
is between 1.7% to 2%
B.
C.
The percentage for alloying elements is controlled
E.
(B) and (C) above
The percentage of carbon

D.
(A) and (C) above

59.
Steel castings
A.
Are weldableB.
C.
Have poor endurance properties D.
E.
Cannot withstand impact
Are not weldable

Can withstand impact

60.
High ratio of surface to mass tend to
A.
Produce smaller depths of hardening
hardening
B.
Produce greater depth of
C.
Produce only chilled surfaces
surface
D.
E.
Produce surface defects
61.
Moh's scale of hardness has the range
A.
1--3
C.
5--10 D.
E.
10--15
B.
Produce non-uniformity in hardness on
1--5
1--10

62.
Iron alloyed with carbon more than 2% is called
A.
Cast iron
C.
Carbon steel D.
E.
Alloy steel
B.
Mild steel
High carbon steel

63.
German silver contains
A.
No silver
B.
0.1% silver
C.
1% silver
D.
5% silver
E.
10% silver

64.
Aluminium alloys for pressure die casting
A.
Must possess considerable fluidity
shortness
B.
C.
Must have iron as one of the constituents
E.
None of the above
Must not be free from hot

D.
Must be light

65.
Corrosion is a destructive attack on metals
A.
Which may be chemical or electrochemical in nature
basically caused by atmospheric air
B.
Which is
C.
Which is caused by contact with other metals D.
E.
None of the above
At high temperature

66.
The process of producing parts by electrolytic deposition of metal upon a
conductive removable mould or matrix is known as
A.
Deposition
B.
C.
Electrolysis D.
E.
Electro forming
Plating
Electro-moulding

67.
Electro-forming is particularly vauable for
A.
Good conductors of electricity
B.
Decorative items
C.
Thin walled parts requiring a high order of accuracy and internal surface
finish D.
Non-ferrous components
E.
Parts which cannot be machined

68.
In electro-forming the metal is supplied to the mould from
A.
Solution
B.
By liquids
C.
Electrolytic solution in which bar of pure metal acts as an anode for the
plating current
D.
Separately by coating with a point
E.
None of the above

69.
Metal spinning
A.
Is done at low speeds
C.
Is done on symmetrical articles D.
E.
Utilises point hard tools
B.
Is done on unsymmetrical articles

Does not require dies

70.
Which one is different from the others in press work
A.
Embossing
B.
Bulging
C.
Cupping
D.
Tube forming
E.
Notching
71.
The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is
A.
0.15
B.
0.5
C.
0.7
D.
E.
1.3

72.
The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes
A.
It hard
C.
It malleable D.
E.
Its casting unsound
B.
It brittle
It machinable

73.
The technique of converting metallic powders into articles of definite form is
known as
A.
High pressure pressing
B.
Carbiding
C.
Powder metallurgy D.
Plasticizing
E.
None of the above

74.
In powder metallurgy the process of heating the cold pressed metal powder is
known as
A.
Sintering
B.
Granulation
C.
Deposition
D.
Precipitation
E.
None of the above

75.
The process of shaping thin metals by pressing it against form while it is
rotating is known as
A.
Pressing
B.
Bending
C.
Trimming
D.
Extruding
E.
Metal spinning

76.
Which one is different from the others in press work operations?
A.
Coining
B.
Sizing
C.
Flattening
D.
Riveting
E.
Punching

77.
In press work the dies that perform two or more operations simultaneously,
but at different stations are known as
A.
Simple dies B.
Compound dies
C.
Progressive dies
D.
E.
Multi-dies
Die and punch set

78.
Which one is different from the remaining
A.
Cynding
C.
Flame hardening
E.
Pack carburizing
B.
Nitriding
D.
Electroplating

79.
Which process is different from the others
A.
Short peening
B.
Sand blasting
C.
Cold extruding
D.
Cold heading
E.
Drop forging

80.
as
The process of pulling a rod through series of decreasing diameters is known
A.
Staking
B.
C.
Metal spinning
E.
Wire drawing
81.
Dies for drawing are generally made of
A.
Cast iron
C.
High carbon steel
E.
None of the above
B.
Stretch forming
D.
Trimming
Mild steel
D.
Stainless steel

82.
Which one is different from the other in press work?
A.
Blanking
B.
Punching
C.
Perforating
D.
Slitting
E.
Seaming

83.
The operation of cutting out flat areas to some desired shape and which is
generally the first step in a series of operations is known as
A.
Coining
B.
Curling
C.
Blanking
D.
Slitting
E.
Lancing

84.
In press work the dies which combine two or more operations at one station
are known as
A.
Simple dies B.
Press
C.
Compound dies
D.
E.
Die and punch
Progressive dies

85.
When metal is deformed by cold work, severe stresses known as residual
stresses are undesirable and to remove them
A.
The metal should be stressed in reverse direction
be painted
B.
The metal should
C.
The metal should be reheated below recrystallization temperature

The metal should be reheated above recrystallization temperature
E.
None of the above
D.

86.
Shot peening
A.
Improves fatigue life of small parts
B.
tension and the layer beneath in compression
Causes metal surface to be in
C.
Changes the crystalline structure of material D.
structure
E.
Refines the grain
Is done at recrystallization temperature

87.
In cold working of metals
A.
Close dimensional tolerance cannot be maintained B.
is obtained
Poor surface finish
C.
Recrystallization temperature for steel is reduced
remains unchanged
Grain structure
E.
D.
Strength and hardness of steel is increased

88.
The surface hardness that can be obtained by nitriding is generally in the
range
A.
1000 to 1100 VPN B.
600 to 800 VPN
C.
400 to 600 VPN
Below 400 VPN
D.

89.
Spot the process which is different from others?
A.
Carburizing B.
Nitriding
C.
Cyaniding
Chapmanizing
E.
Galvanizing
D.

90.
Spot the process which is different from others?
A.
Hot rolling
C.
Cold heading
91.
B.
Forging
D.
Drop forging
A.
When material is cold worked the resulting change in material shape brings
about marked changes in the grain structure B.
Structural changes in cold
working are grain fragmentation and lattice distortion
C.
Much greater pressures are needed for ot working than for cold working
D.
Hot working performed on the metals is in a plastic state
E.
Residual stresses are set up in cold working

92.
The amount of cold work that a metal will stand is dependent upon
A.
Room temperature B.
C.
Process
E.
Ductility
D.
Carbon percentage
Purity of metal

93.
The advantage of electroforming is
A.
Extreme dimensional accuracy can be held on surfaces with surface finish of
8 r.m.s. or even less
B.
Laminated metals can be produced
C.
Rate of production is very high D.
E.
(A) and (C) above
(A) and (B) above

94.
The limitations of electroforming are
A.
Cost is high B.
C.
Recesses can be easily formed D.
E.
(A) and (C) above
Production rate is generally very low

(A) and (B) above

95.
The process of zinc coating used extensively for protecting steel from
atmospheric deterioration is known as
A.
Anodizing
B.
Colourizing
C.
Pakerizing
D.
Galvanizing
E.
None of the above

96.
Process of making a thin phosphate coating on steel to act as a base or
primer for enamels and paints in known as
A.
Prepainting B.
Surface preparing
C.
Parkerizing
Anodising
E.
Colourizing
D.

97.
Galvanizing is generally done on
A.
Low carbon steels B.
Cast iron
C.
Non-ferrous metals D.
Non-metallic substances
E.
None of the above

98.
In high speed steel the maximum percentage of any alloying element is
A.
Carbon
B.
Tungsten
C.
Chromium
D.
Vanadium
E.
Molybdenum

99.
In inverse rate curve
A.
The abscissa is carbon percentage
C.
The abscissa is time
E.
The ordainate is temperature
D.
B.
The abscissa is temperature
The ordinate is time

100.
The critical points for steels
A.
Occur at same temperature for all steels
composition of steel
B.
C.
May change in number on heating or cooling D.
properties
Change the chemical

Cause change in physical
E.
Indicate the minimum temperature below which structural changes in steel
are not possible
101.
Steel cannot be hardened unless it is heated
A.
Above the lowest critical point
B.
C.
Above the highest critical point D.
point
E.
Above the middle critical point

Between the first and second critical
Between the second and third critical point

102. When piece of 0.2% carbon steel is heated above third critical point the steel
is a solid solution of carbon in gamma iron and called
A.
Austenite
B.
Pearlite
C.
Cementite
D.
Eutectoid
E.
Ferrite

103. The solid solution carbon in alpha iron obtained on cooling of 0.2% carbon
steel which have been heated above the third critical point is called
A.
FerriteB.
Pearlite
C.
Austenite
D.
Cementite

104. In a 0.2% carbon steel which has been heated above the third critical
temperature on cooling at the first critical point the austenite remaining in solution
is transformed to new structure called
A.
FerriteB.
Pearlite
C.
Austenite
D.
Cementite

105.
Steel with 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite is called
A.
Eutectoid
B.
Hyper-eutectoid
C.
Austenite
D.
Solid's
E.
None of the above

106.
Coarse grained steels
A.
Are very tough
C.
Do not have tendency to distort D.
E.
Are lighter
B.
Are less tough

Are denser

107.
A steel having ferrite and pearite is
A.
Soft
C.
Ductile
E.
(A) and (C) above
B.
Hard
D.
(A) and (B) above

108.
The maximum hardenability of any steel depends on
A.
The carbon contentB.
The chemical composition
C.
The grain size
The alloying elements present
E.
None of the above
D.

109.
The essential gradient of any hardened steel is
A.
Martensite
B.
Austenite
C.
Cementite
D.
Pearlite
E.
Carbon

110.
Delta iron occurs at temperature in the range of
A.
Room temperature to 600?C
B.
600?C to critical temperature
C.
Between 800?C and 1200?C
D.
E.
None of the above
111.
The ability of a tool to resist softening at high temperatures is known as
A.
Super hardness
C.
Extended hardness D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Red hardness
Double hardness

112.
In 18-4-1 high speed steel the maximum percentage of any constituent is
A.
Carbon
B.
Tungsten
C.
Chromium
D.
Vanadium
E.
Iron

113.
In iron-iron carbide diagram the
A.
Abscissa is time
C.
Abscissa is carbon percentage
E.
None of the above
B.
Abscissa is temperature
D.
Ordinate is time

114.
Gamma iron exists at temperatures in the range
A.
Room temperature and lower critical temperature
and 850?C
C.
E.
Above 1600?C
D.
Solder is an alloy consisting of
Between 500?C

115.
B.
A.
Tin, antimony and copper B.
C.
Tin and lead D.
E.
Copper and aluminium
Tin and copper
Lead and copper

116.
German silver is an alloy of
A.
Nickel, copper and zinc
B.
Silver, copper and niclel
C.
Silver, copper and lead
D.
Silver, gold and platinum
E.
Silver with impurities below 1%

117.
The fine grained steel
A.
Are brittle
B.
Are lighter
C.
Are doctile
D.
Have more tendency to distort
E.
None of the above

118.
The primary purpose of annealing is to
A.
Restrict the hardness of steel
cold working
B.
Soften the steel for machining after
C.
Reduce carbon percentage
D.
Change the crystalline structure
E.
None of the above

119.
Carburizing is done
A.
On steel with carbon percentage of 0.7%
percentage of 0.5%
B.
C.
To improve hardenability of steel
temperature
By heating 200?C below critical
E.
D.
To induce soft surface for machining on a hard core
On steels with carbon
120.
Recrystallistion temperature is one
A.
At which crystals again begin to appear
B.
At which new spherical
crystals first begin to form from the old deformed ones when a strained metal is
heated
C.
At which crystals start growing in size D.
changes occur
At which polycrystalline
E.
At which change of allotropic form takes place.
121.
Monel metal consists of
A.
Nickel, lead and tin B.
Zinc, copper and lead
C.
Zinc nickel and copper
D.
Aluminium copper and nickel

122.
In compression, a prism of brittle material will break
A.
Into large number of pieces
C.
load
By shearing slong oblique plane D.
E.
None of the above
B.
By forming a bulge
In a direction along the direction of

123.
Hastalloy consists of
A.
Nickel and copper B.
C.
Aluminium and nickel
D.
E.
Nickel, copper and aluminium
Nickel and molybdenum

124.
Which is amorphous material out of the following?
A.
Zinc
C.
Silver D.
E.
Glass
B.
Lead
Brass
125. Hard steels and non-ferrous metal do not exhibit a definite yield point when
pulled in the testing machine and for such cases a better measure of their elastic
properties is defined by
A.
Yield point stress
B.
Yield point strain
C.
Proof stress D.
Ultimate stress
E.
None of the above

126.
Brinell hardness number for nitrided steel is in the range
A.
60 to 80
B.
100 to 150
C.
200 to 300
D.
300 to 450
E.
700 to 800

127.
The furnace used for castings of cast iron in a foundry shop is known as
A.
Blast furnace
C.
Electric induction furnace D.
E.
Muffle furnace
B.
Reverberatory furnace
Cupola

128.
The machine used for determining tensile strength of steel is
A.
Hydraulic jack
B.
Hydraulic press
C.
Mechanical press
D.
Universal testing machine
E.
None of the above

129.
Pipes for bicycle frames are made of
A.
Hot rolled steel
B.
C.
Cast iron
Stainless steel
E.
Carbon chrome steel
D.
Cold rolled steel
130.
In drop forging the forging is done by
A.
Dropping the workpiece at high velocity
high velocity
B.
C.
Dropping the die with hammer at high velocity
on hammer to produce requisite impact
E.
None of the above
131.
Trimming is a process associated with
A.
Forging
B.
Electro plating
C.
Press work
D.
Machining of metals
E.
Polishing of metals
Dropping the hammer at

D.
Dropping a weight

132.
Steel pipes are generally manufactured by
A.
Machining process B.
Forging process
C.
Extrusion process D.
Cold working process
E.
Electroforming process

133.
The process by which a steel ingot is converted into a sheet is known as
A.
Machining process B.
Forging process
C.
Routing process
Rolling process
E.
Re-rolling process
D.

134.
Sheradising process is used for
A.
Heat treatment of steels B.
C.
Machining metals D.
E.
Surface coating
Heat treatment of high speed steels
Cold working on metals
135.
Hot tear
A.
Is a physical property of non-ferrous materials
involving heating
B.
Is a process
C.
Is a phenomenon occurring in materials ixposed to weather e.g. sun and rain

D.
Is a defect in wood
E.
Is a defect in castings

136.
Cold shuts are
A.
Saturation of pores in bricks
B.
Saturation of pores in metals by
subsituting materials different from parent materials
C.
Defects in castings due to two streams of metal which are too cold to fuse
properly
D.
Forging defects due to improper heating of materials
E.
None of the above

137.
The defect blow hole in castings is caused due to
A.
Hard ramming
B.
Excessive moisture
C.
Improper venting
D.
Excessive carbouacious material
E.
Any of the above

138.
The raw material for mini steel plants is
A.
Iron ore
B.
Pig iron
C.
Grey iron
D.
CI and steel scrap
E.
None of the above

139.
Coal used in a cupola is
A.
Charcoal
B.
Pulverized coal
C.
Graphite
D.
Coke
E.
Coking coal

140.
During induction hardening the depth of hardening is controlled by
A.
Current
B.
Voltage
C.
Frequency
D.
Phase angle
E.
None of the above
141.
Which process is used for machining parts to planned dimensions?
A.
Routing
C.
Electroforming
E.
Anodizing
B.
Shearadising
D.
Swaging

142.
Which process is used for joining parts or materials?
A.
Tumbling
B.
Parkerizing
C.
Swaging
D.
Extruding
E.
Sintering

143.
Cheek is
A.
Top surface of metal
B.
Physical property of metal
C.
Core of the welded joints in case of very thick material
coating on materials
E.
Intermediate flask between copes and drag

144.
The phenomenon of weld decay is found in
A.
Cast iron
B.
Brass
C.
Bronze
D.
Gun metal
E.
Stainless steel

145.
In pack-carburising carbon is supplied
D.
Non-ferrous
A.
Through gas B.
In the form of graphite
C.
In the form of charcoal
E.
In the form of calcium carbide
D.
In the form of hydrocarbons

146.
Age hardening is generally applicable to
A.
Cast iron
C.
High alloy steels
E.
Alloys of chromium, vanadium etc
B.
Medium carbon steels

D.
Alloys of aluminium, magnesium, nickel etc

147.
In induction hardening
A.
The voltage is high B.
The current is high
C.
The frequency is high
D.
E.
Only d.c. supply is used
The power factor is high

148.
In flame hardening the flame used is
A.
A wick stove B.
Oil burner
C.
Gas burner D.
Oxy-acetylene
E.
Oxygene air

149.
Which process is used primarily to obtain surface finish
A.
Parkerizing
B.
Shining
C.
Broaching
D.
Electroforming
E.
Swaging

150.
Age hardening is related with
A.
Stainless steel
B.
Gun metal
C.
Duralumin
D.
Cast iron
E.
German silver
151.
The process of austempering results in the formation of
A.
Carburized structure
B.
Nitride structure
C.
Martensitic structure
D.
Bainite structure
E.
Superhand structure

152.
If steel is slowly cooled in furnace, the structure obtained is
A.
Pearlite
B.
Sorbite
C.
Troosite
D.
Acicular
E.
Martensite

153.
If steel is quenched in water, the structure obtained is
A.
Pearlite
B.
Sorbite
C.
Troosite
D.
Acicular
E.
Martensite

154.
If steel is quenched in oil the structure obtained is
A.
Pearlite
B.
Sorbite
C.
Troosite
D.
Acicular
E.
Martensite

155.
If steel is cooled in still air, the structure obtained is
A.
Pearlite
B.
Sorbite
C.
Troosite
D.
Acicular
E.
Martensite

156. In case of eutectoid steels which one of the following structures has the
maximum hardness?
A.
Pearlite
B.
Sorbite
C.
Troosite
D.
Acicular
E.
Martensite

157.
One of the objects of annealing is
A.
To soften the metal B.
to improve machinability
C.
To refine grain structure
D.
E.
All above
To refine internal stresses

158.
In normalising steel is heated 40-50 C
A.
Above room temperature B.
Above the upper transformation range
C.
Above the lower transformation range D.
range
E.
Below the upper transformation
Below the lower transformation range

159. The process in which steel is heated 20? to 40?C below the lower critical
temperature, held there for a prolonged period and then allowed to cool slowly in
the furnace is known as
A.
Normalising B.
Annealing
C.
Spheroidising
D.
E.
Austempering
Tempering

160. The process of reheating the hardened steel to some temperature below the
critical range, followed by any rate of cooling is known as
A.
Tempering
B.
Annealing
C.
Austempering
E.
Spheroidising
161.
Crystal structure of a material is generally examined by
A.
Naked eye
C.
Optical microscope D.
E.
Spectroscope techniques
B.
D.
Normalising
Microscope
X-rays and electron diffraction

162.
Ferromagnetic alpha iron change to paramagnetic alpha iron at
A.
1650?C
B.
1500?C
C.
1400?C
D.
910?C
E.
77?C

163.
Which one of the following is usually most ductile?
A.
Hexagonal close packed lattice B.
C.
Face centred cubic lattic D.
E.
None of the above
Body centred cubic lattice
Combination of (A) and (C) above

164.
The blast furnace uses the following as fuel:
A.
Coal
C.
Blast furnace gas
E.
Cooking coal
B.
Coke
D.
Producer gas

165.
For better fuuidity of the molten metal, the following is added in blast furnace
A.
Line
C.
Carbon
E.
Manganese
B.
Sulphur
D.
Oil

166.
The product of blast furnace is known as
A.
Cast iron
C.
High carbon steel
E.
Crude iron
B.
Steel
D.
Pig iron

167.
Micro-structure of a material is generally examined by
A.
Naked eye
C.
E.
B.
Microscope

168.
A bearing alloy should have
A.
Capacity to withstand shocks and vibrations B.
C.
High compressive strength
E.
All above
D.
Low coefficient of friction
High resistance to corrosion

169.
A lead based bearing alloy contains
A.
Lead-antimony-tin-copper B.
C.
Lead-nickle-tin
E.
Lead-aluminium-copper
D.
Lead-antimony-tin-silver
Lead-copper-tin-copper

170.
Constantan is an alloy of
A.
Nickel-iron-chromium
B.
C.
Copper-aluminium D.
Copper-tin
E.
Copper-tin-zinc
171.
Muntz metal contains
Copper and Nickel
A.
Copper-nickel
B.
C.
Copper-tin
Copper-alminium
E.
Copper-chromium
D.
Copper-zinc

172.
Carbon steel is
A.
An alloy of carbon and iron with varying quantities of phosphorous

B.
An alloy of carbon and iron obtained by oxidising excessive carbon from cast
iron
C.
An alloy of carbon and iron obtained by oxidising excessive carbon steel

D.
An alloy of carbon generally obtained by adding graphite to low carbon
steels
E.
None of the above

173.
"Troosite" is obtained when
A.
Quenching steel during transformation B.
drawn at about 677?C
C.
Steel is rapidly quenched in oil D.
quenched in water
E.
A fully hardened steel is finally
When alloy steels are rapidly
None of the above

174.
In order to improve machinability of steels, the treatment generally done is
A.
Annealing
C.
Normalising D.
E.
Cyniding
B.
Tempering
Spheroidising

175.
Cyaniding is the process of
A.
Adding carbon steel
hardness of core
B.
Adding carbon and nitrogen to increase
C.
Adding carbon and nitrogen to increase hardness of specimen uniformly

D.
Adding carbon and nitrogen to increase hardness at the surface
E.
Creating a layer on the surface to impart the property of wear resistance

176.
Electronic structure of a material is generally studied by
A.
Naked eye
C.
X-ray and electron diffraction
E.
Mossbauer studies
B.
Microscope
D.

177.
The product of a cupola known as
A.
Pig iron
B.
C.
Steel D.
Cast iron
E.
Malleable iron
Cast steel

178.
Blast furnace gas is
A.
A flue gas discharged to atmosphere
B.
C.
Used as fuel in a blast furnace
A by-product of blast furnace
E.
Used as a cooking gas
D.
Highly poisonous

179.
Wrought iron is
A.
Soft
C.
Least resistant to corrosion
E.
Heat treated to change its properties
B.
Hard
D.
Highly resistant to corrosion

180.
The depth hardness of steel increases by the addition of
A.
Manganese B.
Sulphur
C.
SiliconD.
Chromium
E.
Nickel
181.
Inconel is an alloy containing
A.
Copper, nickel and cobalt B.
Nickel, chromium and iron
C.
Nickel, copper and iron
Nickel, zinc and iron
E.
Copper nickel and chromium
D.

182.
Sorbite' is obtained when
A.
Steel is annealed
C.
A fully hardened steel is finally 'drawn' at about 677?C
above
D.
None of the

183.
Bush bearings is
A.
Phosphor bronze
B.
C.
Mild steel
White metal alloy
E.
None of the above
D.
Aluminium bronze

184.
A Babitt is
A.
A cutectic of iron and iron phosphide
C.
Antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
induction produced in a material
E.
B.
A gadget for measuring volume
D.
A measure of magnetic
None of these

185.
Lime stone acts as a flux in a cupola. It is generally added in the proportion
A.
iron
10 kg of limestone per tonne of iron
C.
of coke
B.
30 kg of limestone per tonner of
D.
500 kg of limestone per tonne
E.
One tonne of limestone per tonne of charge

186.
A bot in cupola is
A.
A flux B.
C.
A kind of cast iron D.
E.
A defect in casting
A part of coupla
A clay plug to close tap hole

187.
Steel balls for ball bearings are generally made of
A.
Stainless steel
C.
Carbon chrome steel
E.
Cast steel
B.
Free carbon steel

D.
Nodular cast iron

188.
The hardness of steel depends on
A.
Heating temperature before quenchingB.
Amount of carbon it contains
C.
The shape and distribution of carbides in iron D.
elements
E.
Percentage of alloying
Basic process from which it is produced

189.
The cast iron has
A.
High ductility
B.
C.
High tensile strength
strength
E.
High malleability
D.
Elastic limit close to ultimate breaking
None of the above

190.
Machining properties of steel are improved by adding
A.
Chromium
B.
C.
CobaltD.
Lead
Nickel
E.
Silicon
191.
Induction hardening is the process of
A.
Hardening the core B.
Uniform hardening
C.
Selective hardening
D.
E.
Electrical hardening process
Hardening surface for wear resistance

192. Corrosion resistance of steels is increased by the addition of alloying
elements like
A.
Sulphur
B.
Silicon and sulphur
C.
Chromium and nickel
E.
Tungsten
D.
Cobalt and vanadium

193.
Cemented carbide tools are generally not used for the machining of
A.
Steel B.
Aluminium
C.
Brass D.
Bronze
E.
Cast iron

194. If a solid cube is subjected to equal tensile stresses on all its faces the
volumetric strain is n times the linear strain, where
A.
n = 1 B.
n=2
C.
n = 3 D.
n=6
E.
n=9

195.
Blisters in wrought iron cause
A.
Brittleness at high temperaturesB.
C.
Loose textured metal
D.
between carbon and iron oxide
Brittleness at low temperatures
Voids created due to chemical reaction
E.
None of the above

196.
Cold shortness is
A.
Too much shrinkage of materials at low temperatures
shrinkage of materials at low temperatures
C.
Brittleness of material at low temperature
law does not hold good
E.
D.
B.
Uneven
The region where Hooke's
None of the above

197.
A material is known as allotropic or polymoriphic if it
A.
Has its atoms distributed in random pattern B.
forms at different temperatures
Exists in several crystal
C.
Has a fixed structure under all conditions
tretment
D.
Responds to heat
B.
A non-ferrous alloy
E.
Can be cast

198.
Permalloy is
A.
A non-ferrous alloy used in aircraft industry
containing nickel copper and chromium
C.
An nickel and iron alloy having high permeability
steel
E.
D.
A kind of stainless
An alloy similar to carbides

199.
Dielectric strength of a material is
A.
Capacity to take two stresses
C.
Capacity to withstand high voltage
E.
Energy storage capacity
B.
Magnetic property
D.

200.
Nichrome are alloys of
Capacity to resist flow of current
A.
Nickel, chromium
B.
Nickel, chromium and copper
C.
Nickel, chromium and silver
E.
201.
Monel metal is
A.
Aluminium Copper alloy
B.
C.
Copper Nickel alloy D.
Nickel-Chromium alloy
E.
Chromium - Molybdenum alloy
D.
Nickel, chromium and aluminium
Aluminium Silver alloy

202.
Wrought iron is
A.
Used for castings
B.
Not used for castings
C.
Easily hardened
D.
Least resistant to corrosion fatigue stresses
E.
Melts easily at 1500?C

203.
Steel may be manufactured by
A.
Bessemer process B.
Open hearth process
C.
Cementation process
D.
E.
Any of the above
Duplex process

204. A material which undergoes no deformation till its yield point is reached and
then it flows at a constant stress is known as
A.
ElasticB.
Plastic
C.
Rigid D.
Elastic-plastic
E.
Rigid plastic

205.
During stress relaxation phenomenon
A.
Deformation tends to bind the joint and produces a stress reduction

B.
Deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a stress reduction
C.
Stress is no longer proportional to strain
increasing load
E.
D.
Stress reduces on
None of the above

206.
Diamagnetic materials are
A.
Only slightly magnetised B.
Strongly magnetised
C.
Magnetised with eddy currents only
opposite to that of the applied field
E.
D.
Magnetised in a direction
None of the above

207.
Residual magnetism is
A.
Magnetism left in a sample after a decade
sample after one year
B.
Magnetism left in a
C.
Flux density present in a material after magnetising force is removed

The magnetic force required to fully demagnetise a sample
E.
None of the above
D.

208. The loss of strength in compression which occurs when there is a gain in
strength in the tension due to overloading is
A.
Iso-strain
B.
Relaxation
C.
Hysteresis
D.
Bounhinger effect
E.
Hooke's effect

209.
Spring steels should have high resistance to
A.
Shocks
B.
Fatigue
C.
Corrosion
D.
Deformation
E.
All of the above
210.
Vanadium is added to steel as an alloying element to
A.
Increase temperture resistance B.
Increase shock resistance
C.
Modify yield and tensile strength properties
corrosion
D.
Increases resistance to
E.
To soften the material
211.
Chromium when added as an alloying element to steels
A.
Softens the material
C.
Increases corrosion resistance
E.
Improves mechanical properties
B.
Refines the grain structure

D.
Increases red hardness

212.
The behavious of visco-elastic material is
A.
Time dependent
C.
ElasticD.
E.
Ductile
B.
Independent of time
Plastic

213.
Visco-elastic behaviour is common in
A.
Crystalline materials
C.
Non-crystalline organic polymers
E.
Rubber
B.
Non-crystalline solids
D.
Plastics

214.
An elastic behaviour of materials is expressed in terms of
A.
Stress strain curve B.
Relaxation time
C.
Adiabatic time
Isothermal time
E.
Hysteresis loop area
D.

215. The material which undergo recoverable deformation and exhibit rubber like
elsticity are called
A.
Pure elastic materials
C.
Rubbers
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
Elastomers
Creep-elastic

216. The greatest amount of strain energy per unit volume that a material can
absorb sithout exceeding its elastic limit is
A.
Elastic limit B.
Toughness
C.
Resilience
Proof resilience
E.
Endurance limit
D.

217.
Machinability of a metal depends on
A.
Tensile strength
B.
C.
Toughness
(A) and (B) above
E.
(B) and (C) above
D.
Hardness

218. The variable stress below which the probability of failure of a material is
negligible, is called
A.
Elastic limit B.
Plastic limit
C.
Yield point
Endurance limit
E.
Tolerance limit
D.

219. The modulus of elasticity E, the modulus of rigidity C, and Poisson's ratio are
related by the equation
A.
E = 2G (1 + B.
E = G (2 +
C.
E = G (1+ 2 D.
E = 2G (1 -
E.
E = 2G (1 - 2
220. The modulus of elasticity E, the bulk modulus of elasticity K and the Poisson's
ratio are related by the relation
A.
E = K (1 -
B.
E = 2K (1 +
C.
E = K (2 +
D.
E = 3K (1 - 2
E.
K = (1 +
221.
Every material obeys the Hooke's law within
A.
Elastic limit B.
Plastic limit
C.
Breaking limit
D.
E.
Limit of proportionality
Yield limit

222.
When elastic limit is reached
A.
Tensile strain decreases in proportion to stress
increases in proportion to stress
C.
Tensile strain increases more quickly
quickly
E.
D.
B.
Tensile strain
Tensile strain decreases more
None of the above

223.
Bainiti is a fine maxture of
A.
ferrite and cementite
B.
C.
pearlite and ferrite D.
austenti and ferrite
cementitie and peoitite

224.
If a material has similar properties throughout its volume, it is said to be
A.
Isotropic
C.
Continuous D.
E.
Homogeneous
B.
Isentropic
Uniform

225. The property of metal when the recovery after unloading is complete but not
instantaneous is
A.
Elasticity
B.
Plsticity
C.
Inelasticity
D.
An elasticity
E.
Visco elasticity

226.
The ability of material to absorb a large amount of energy is
A.
Ductility
B.
Malleability
C.
Toughness
D.
Resilience
E.
Hardness

227. The property by which a body returns to its original shape after the removal
to the load is called
A.
Ductility
B.
Malleability
C.
Softness
D.
Elasticity
E.
Plasticity

228.
The property of materials by which they can be drawn into wires is known as
A.
Ductility
B.
Elasticity
C.
Plasticity
D.
Malleability
E.
Creep

229.
The property of material by which it can be rolled into sheets is called
A.
Plasticity
C.
Malleability D.
E.
Creep
B.
Elasticity
Ductility

230. The phenomenon of materials in which slow extension of materials takes
place with the time at constant load is known as
A.
Plasticity
B.
Elasticity
C.
Malleability D.
E.
Creep
231.
The materials which has the same elastic properties in all directions is called
A.
Brittle material
B.
Homogeneous material
C.
Hard material
D.
Isotropic material
E.
Isentropic material
Ductility

232.
Accounstical materials
A.
Absorb sound
C.
Create sound
B.
Reflect sound

233.
Porous materials generally
A.
Absorb most of the sound B.
C.
Transmit sound
Reflect entire sound

234.
A concrete wall generally
A.
Reflects sound
B.
Absorbs sound
C.
Transmits sound
D.
Creates sound

235.
Brinell hardness number for soft brass is usually in the range
A.
10--50B.
50-70
C.
80-150
D.
E.
300-450
150-300

236.
Brinell hardness number of mild steel should expected to be in the range be
A.
20--50B.
10-110
C.
110-150
D.
E.
300-450
150-300

237.
Steel balls for ball bearings are hardened to
A.
100 VPN
B.
150-200 VPN
C.
200-400 VPND.
400-700 VPN
E.
700-800 VPN

238.
The theory of failure which gives fairly good results for the ductile materials is
A.
Hooke's law B.
C.
Maximum principal stress theory
E.
Maximum shear strain energy theory
Maximum shear stress theory

D.
Maximum strain energy theory

239.
The theory of failure generally applied in case of brittle materials is
A.
C.
Maximum strain energy theory D.
E.
Theory of superposition
B.


240. The number of elastic constants for a completely anisotropie elastic material
which follows Hooke's law is
A.
B.
C.
D.
21
E.
25
241. In case of biaxial stress system when a member is subjected to tensile

stresses in two perpendicular directions the maximum shear stress in case of mild
steel occurs on a plane inclined at
A.
22
B.
30?
C.
45?
D.
90?
E.
0?

242.
The process of polymerisation is associated with
A.
Cast iron
C.
Non-ferrous material
E.
Thermo-plastic
B.
High speed steel

D.
Non-metallic materials

243.
Boring is generally
A.
Followed by reaming
B.
C.
Followed by drilling D.
Preceded by drilling
E.
None of the above
Preceded by reaming

244.
Coolant is used on a lathe
A.
To cool the work piece
B.
To cool the tool
C.
To remove the chips
D.
All the above
E.
None of the above

245.
Small end of a connecting rod forging is
A.
Super finished
B.
C.
Honned
Ground
E.
Broached
D.
Lapped

246.
Preheating of material to be welded is necessary in case of
A.
Carbon steel B.
Stainless steel
C.
High speed steel
D.
E.
Non-ferrous materials
Cast iron

247.
Heavy water is used in atomic power plants as
A.
Fuel
C.
Lubricant
E.
Viscous damping fluid
B.
Source of energy
D.
Moderator

248.
Electron with energy level of 2 MeV is considered as
A.
Dead slow electron B.
C.
Fast electron D.
E.
There is no consideration as such
Slow electron
Super-fast electron

249.
Which of the following is a fuel used in fast reactors?
A.
Chromium
B.
Plutonium
C.
Heavy water D.
Zirconium
E.
Graphite

250.
In Brinell hardness testing the time of loading is
A.
15 seconds B.
30 seconds
C.
1 minute
5 minutes
E.
10 minutes
251.
of
Brinell and Vickers hardness values are practically identical upto a hardness
A.
10
B.
30
C.
100
D.
300
E.
600
D.

252. Which of the following hardness tester can be used to determine the
hardness of a glass sheet?
A.
Brinell hardness tester
B.
C.
Rockwell hardness tester D.
E.
None of the above
Vickers hardness tester

Shore scleroscope

253.
Notches in a section produce
A.
Compressive stressB.
Shear stresses
C.
Biaxial tensile stresses
D.
E.
None of the above
Tri-axial tensile stresses

254.
Creep is expressed in terms of
A.
kg/cm B.
kg/cm2
C.
cm/cm
D.
E.
cm/cm2/hr
cm/cm/hr

255.
Fatigue cracks in metals normally start at
A.
Centre of the specimen
B.
Core of the specimen
C.
Ends of the specimen
D.
Surface of the specimen
E.
Any spot in the specimen

256.
Which material has the best damping capacity
A.
High speed steel
B.
C.
Mild steel
Cast iron
E.
Diamond
D.
Stainless steel
257. To chck the performance of a substance in deep drawing, the test usually
conducted is
A.
Tensile test B.
Fatigue test
C.
Izod test
Charpy test
E.
Cupping test
D.

258.
Which is the heaviest?
A.
Electron
B.
Neutron
C.
Positron
D.
Atom
E.
Proton

259.
The size of coarse grams in metals is
A.
>1 mm
C.
> 0.05 mm D.
E.
> 0.0005 mm
B.
> 0.5 mm
> 0.005 mm

260.
Number of isotopes for iron is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nil
161.
Crystal structure of a material is generally examined by
A.
Naked eye
C.
E.
B.
Microscope

162.
Ferromagnetic alpha iron change to paramagnetic alpha iron at
A.
1650?C
B.
1500?C
C.
1400?C
E.
77?C
D.
910?C

163.
Which one of the following is usually most ductile?
A.
Hexagonal close packed lattice B.
C.
Face centred cubic lattic D.
E.
None of the above
Body centred cubic lattice
Combination of (A) and (C) above

164.
The blast furnace uses the following as fuel:
A.
Coal
C.
Blast furnace gas
E.
Cooking coal
B.
Coke
D.
Producer gas

165.
For better fuuidity of the molten metal, the following is added in blast furnace
A.
Line
C.
Carbon
E.
Manganese
B.
Sulphur
D.
Oil

166.
The product of blast furnace is known as
A.
Cast iron
C.
High carbon steel
E.
Crude iron
B.
Steel
D.
Pig iron

167.
Micro-structure of a material is generally examined by
A.
Naked eye
C.
B.
Microscope
E.

168.
A bearing alloy should have
A.
Capacity to withstand shocks and vibrations B.
C.
High compressive strength
E.
All above
D.
Low coefficient of friction
High resistance to corrosion

169.
A lead based bearing alloy contains
A.
Lead-antimony-tin-copper B.
C.
Lead-nickle-tin
E.
Lead-aluminium-copper
D.
Lead-antimony-tin-silver
Lead-copper-tin-copper

170.
Constantan is an alloy of
A.
Nickel-iron-chromium
B.
C.
Copper-aluminium D.
Copper-tin
E.
Copper-tin-zinc
171.
Muntz metal contains
A.
Copper-nickel
B.
C.
Copper-tin
Copper-alminium
E.
Copper-chromium
D.
Copper and Nickel
Copper-zinc

172.
Carbon steel is
A.
An alloy of carbon and iron with varying quantities of phosphorous

B.
An alloy of carbon and iron obtained by oxidising excessive carbon from cast
iron
C.
steels
An alloy of carbon and iron obtained by oxidising excessive carbon steel

D.
An alloy of carbon generally obtained by adding graphite to low carbon
E.
None of the above

173.
"Troosite" is obtained when
A.
drawn at about 677?C
C.
Steel is rapidly quenched in oil D.
quenched in water
E.
A fully hardened steel is finally
When alloy steels are rapidly
None of the above

174.
In order to improve machinability of steels, the treatment generally done is
A.
Annealing
C.
Normalising D.
E.
Cyniding
B.
Tempering
Spheroidising

175.
Cyaniding is the process of
A.
Adding carbon steel
hardness of core
B.
Adding carbon and nitrogen to increase
C.
Adding carbon and nitrogen to increase hardness of specimen uniformly

D.
Adding carbon and nitrogen to increase hardness at the surface
E.
Creating a layer on the surface to impart the property of wear resistance

176.
Electronic structure of a material is generally studied by
A.
Naked eye
C.
X-ray and electron diffraction
E.
Mossbauer studies
B.
Microscope
D.

177.
The product of a cupola known as
A.
Pig iron
B.
Cast steel
C.
Steel D.
Cast iron
E.
Malleable iron

178.
Blast furnace gas is
A.
A flue gas discharged to atmosphere
B.
C.
Used as fuel in a blast furnace
A by-product of blast furnace
E.
Used as a cooking gas
D.
Highly poisonous

179.
Wrought iron is
A.
Soft
C.
Least resistant to corrosion
E.
Heat treated to change its properties
B.
Hard
D.
Highly resistant to corrosion

180.
The depth hardness of steel increases by the addition of
A.
Manganese B.
C.
SiliconD.
E.
Nickel
181.
Inconel is an alloy containing
A.
Copper, nickel and cobalt B.
C.
Nickel, copper and iron
Nickel, zinc and iron
E.
Copper nickel and chromium
Sulphur
Chromium
D.

182.
Sorbite' is obtained when
A.
Steel is annealed
C.
A fully hardened steel is finally 'drawn' at about 677?C
above
D.
None of the

183.
Bush bearings is
A.
Phosphor bronze
B.
C.
Mild steel
White metal alloy
E.
None of the above
D.
Aluminium bronze

184.
A Babitt is
A.
A cutectic of iron and iron phosphide
C.
Antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
induction produced in a material
E.
B.
A gadget for measuring volume
D.
A measure of magnetic
None of these

185.
Lime stone acts as a flux in a cupola. It is generally added in the proportion
A.
iron
C.
of coke
E.
B.
30 kg of limestone per tonner of
D.
500 kg of limestone per tonne
One tonne of limestone per tonne of charge

186.
A bot in cupola is
A.
A flux B.
C.
A kind of cast iron D.
E.
A defect in casting
A part of coupla
A clay plug to close tap hole

187.
Steel balls for ball bearings are generally made of
A.
Stainless steel
C.
Carbon chrome steel
B.
Free carbon steel

D.
Nodular cast iron
E.
Cast steel

188.
The hardness of steel depends on
A.
Heating temperature before quenchingB.
Amount of carbon it contains
C.
The shape and distribution of carbides in iron D.
elements
E.
Percentage of alloying
Basic process from which it is produced

189.
The cast iron has
A.
High ductility
B.
C.
High tensile strength
strength
E.
High malleability
D.
Elastic limit close to ultimate breaking
None of the above

190.
Machining properties of steel are improved by adding
A.
Chromium
B.
C.
CobaltD.
Lead
E.
Silicon
191.
Induction hardening is the process of
A.
Hardening the core B.
Uniform hardening
C.
Selective hardening
D.
E.
Electrical hardening process
Nickel
Hardening surface for wear resistance

192. Corrosion resistance of steels is increased by the addition of alloying
elements like
A.
Sulphur
B.
Silicon and sulphur
C.
Chromium and nickel
D.
Cobalt and vanadium
E.
Tungsten

193.
Cemented carbide tools are generally not used for the machining of
A.
Steel B.
Aluminium
C.
Brass D.
Bronze
E.
Cast iron

194. If a solid cube is subjected to equal tensile stresses on all its faces the
volumetric strain is n times the linear strain, where
A.
n = 1 B.
n=2
C.
n = 3 D.
n=6
E.
n=9

195.
Blisters in wrought iron cause
A.
Brittleness at high temperaturesB.
C.
Loose textured metal
D.
between carbon and iron oxide
E.
Brittleness at low temperatures
Voids created due to chemical reaction
None of the above

196.
Cold shortness is
A.
Too much shrinkage of materials at low temperatures
shrinkage of materials at low temperatures
C.
Brittleness of material at low temperature
law does not hold good
E.
D.
Uneven
The region where Hooke's
None of the above

197.
B.
A material is known as allotropic or polymoriphic if it
A.
Has its atoms distributed in random pattern B.
forms at different temperatures
Exists in several crystal
C.
Has a fixed structure under all conditions
tretment
D.
Responds to heat
B.
A non-ferrous alloy
E.
Can be cast

198.
Permalloy is
A.
A non-ferrous alloy used in aircraft industry
containing nickel copper and chromium
C.
An nickel and iron alloy having high permeability
steel
E.
D.
A kind of stainless
An alloy similar to carbides

199.
Dielectric strength of a material is
A.
Capacity to take two stresses
C.
Capacity to withstand high voltage
E.
Energy storage capacity
B.
Magnetic property
D.
Capacity to resist flow of current

200.
Nichrome are alloys of
A.
Nickel, chromium
C.
Nickel, chromium and silver
E.
201.
Monel metal is
A.
B.
C.
Copper Nickel alloy D.
Nickel-Chromium alloy
E.
Chromium - Molybdenum alloy
B.
Nickel, chromium and copper

D.
Nickel, chromium and aluminium
Aluminium Silver alloy

202.
Wrought iron is
A.
Used for castings
B.
Not used for castings
C.
Easily hardened
D.
Least resistant to corrosion fatigue stresses
E.
Melts easily at 1500?C

203.
Steel may be manufactured by
A.
Bessemer process B.
Open hearth process
C.
Cementation process
D.
E.
Any of the above
Duplex process

204. A material which undergoes no deformation till its yield point is reached and
A.
ElasticB.
Plastic
C.
Rigid D.
Elastic-plastic
E.
Rigid plastic

205.
During stress relaxation phenomenon
A.
Deformation tends to bind the joint and produces a stress reduction

B.
Deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a stress reduction
C.
Stress is no longer proportional to strain
increasing load
E.
D.
Stress reduces on
None of the above

206.
Diamagnetic materials are
A.
Only slightly magnetised B.
Strongly magnetised
C.
Magnetised with eddy currents only
opposite to that of the applied field
E.
D.
None of the above
Magnetised in a direction
207.
Residual magnetism is
A.
Magnetism left in a sample after a decade
sample after one year
B.
Magnetism left in a
C.
Flux density present in a material after magnetising force is removed

The magnetic force required to fully demagnetise a sample
E.
None of the above
D.

208. The loss of strength in compression which occurs when there is a gain in
strength in the tension due to overloading is
A.
Iso-strain
B.
Relaxation
C.
Hysteresis
D.
Bounhinger effect
E.
Hooke's effect

209.
Spring steels should have high resistance to
A.
Shocks
B.
Fatigue
C.
Corrosion
D.
Deformation
E.
All of the above

210.
Vanadium is added to steel as an alloying element to
A.
Increase temperture resistance B.
Increase shock resistance
C.
Modify yield and tensile strength properties
corrosion
D.
Increases resistance to
E.
To soften the material
211.
Chromium when added as an alloying element to steels
A.
Softens the material
C.
Increases corrosion resistance
E.
Improves mechanical properties
B.
Refines the grain structure

D.
Increases red hardness

212.
The behavious of visco-elastic material is
A.
Time dependent
C.
ElasticD.
E.
Ductile
B.
Independent of time
Plastic

213.
Visco-elastic behaviour is common in
A.
Crystalline materials
C.
E.
Rubber
B.
Non-crystalline solids
D.
Plastics

214.
An elastic behaviour of materials is expressed in terms of
A.
Stress strain curve B.
Relaxation time
C.
Adiabatic time
Isothermal time
E.
Hysteresis loop area
D.

215. The material which undergo recoverable deformation and exhibit rubber like
elsticity are called
A.
Pure elastic materials
C.
Rubbers
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
Elastomers
Creep-elastic

216. The greatest amount of strain energy per unit volume that a material can
absorb sithout exceeding its elastic limit is
A.
Elastic limit B.
Toughness
C.
Resilience
Proof resilience
E.
Endurance limit
D.

217.
Machinability of a metal depends on
A.
Tensile strength
B.
C.
Toughness
(A) and (B) above
E.
(B) and (C) above
D.
Hardness

218. The variable stress below which the probability of failure of a material is
negligible, is called
A.
Elastic limit B.
Plastic limit
C.
Yield point
Endurance limit
E.
Tolerance limit
D.

219. The modulus of elasticity E, the modulus of rigidity C, and Poisson's ratio are
related by the equation
A.
E = 2G (1 + B.
E = G (2 +
C.
E = G (1+ 2 D.
E = 2G (1 -
E.
E = 2G (1 - 2

220. The modulus of elasticity E, the bulk modulus of elasticity K and the Poisson's
ratio are related by the relation
A.
E = K (1 -
B.
E = 2K (1 +
C.
E = K (2 +
D.
E = 3K (1 - 2
E.
K = (1 +
221.
Every material obeys the Hooke's law within
A.
Elastic limit B.
Plastic limit
C.
Breaking limit
D.
E.
Limit of proportionality
Yield limit

222.
When elastic limit is reached
A.
Tensile strain decreases in proportion to stress
increases in proportion to stress
C.
Tensile strain increases more quickly
quickly
E.
D.
B.
Tensile strain
Tensile strain decreases more
None of the above

223.
Bainiti is a fine maxture of
A.
ferrite and cementite
B.
C.
pearlite and ferrite D.
austenti and ferrite
cementitie and peoitite

224.
If a material has similar properties throughout its volume, it is said to be
A.
Isotropic
C.
Continuous D.
E.
Homogeneous
B.
Isentropic
Uniform

225. The property of metal when the recovery after unloading is complete but not
instantaneous is
A.
Elasticity
B.
Plsticity
C.
Inelasticity
D.
An elasticity
E.
Visco elasticity

226.
The ability of material to absorb a large amount of energy is
A.
Ductility
B.
Malleability
C.
Toughness
D.
Resilience
E.
Hardness

227. The property by which a body returns to its original shape after the removal
to the load is called
A.
Ductility
B.
Malleability
C.
Softness
D.
Elasticity
E.
Plasticity

228.
The property of materials by which they can be drawn into wires is known as
A.
Ductility
B.
Elasticity
C.
Plasticity
D.
Malleability
E.
Creep

229.
The property of material by which it can be rolled into sheets is called
A.
Plasticity
C.
Malleability D.
E.
Creep
B.
Elasticity
Ductility

230. The phenomenon of materials in which slow extension of materials takes
place with the time at constant load is known as
A.
Plasticity
B.
Elasticity
C.
Malleability D.
E.
Creep
231.
The materials which has the same elastic properties in all directions is called
A.
Brittle material
B.
C.
Hard material
D.
Isotropic material
E.
Isentropic material
Ductility

232.
Accounstical materials
A.
Absorb sound
C.
Create sound
B.
Reflect sound

233.
Porous materials generally
A.
Absorb most of the sound B.
C.
Transmit sound
Reflect entire sound

234.
A concrete wall generally
A.
Reflects sound
B.
Absorbs sound
C.
Transmits sound
D.
Creates sound

235.
Brinell hardness number for soft brass is usually in the range
A.
10--50B.
50-70
C.
80-150
D.
E.
300-450
150-300

236.
Brinell hardness number of mild steel should expected to be in the range be
A.
20--50B.
10-110
C.
110-150
D.
E.
300-450
150-300

237.
Steel balls for ball bearings are hardened to
A.
100 VPN
B.
150-200 VPN
C.
200-400 VPND.
400-700 VPN
E.
700-800 VPN

238.
The theory of failure which gives fairly good results for the ductile materials is
A.
Hooke's law B.
C.
E.

D.
Maximum strain energy theory

239.
The theory of failure generally applied in case of brittle materials is
A.
C.
Maximum strain energy theory D.
E.
Theory of superposition
B.


240. The number of elastic constants for a completely anisotropie elastic material
which follows Hooke's law is
A.
B.
C.
D.
21
E.
25
241. In case of biaxial stress system when a member is subjected to tensile

stresses in two perpendicular directions the maximum shear stress in case of mild
steel occurs on a plane inclined at
A.
22
B.
30?
C.
45?
D.
90?
E.
0?

242.
The process of polymerisation is associated with
A.
Cast iron
C.
B.
High speed steel

D.
Non-metallic materials
E.
Thermo-plastic

243.
Boring is generally
A.
Followed by reaming
B.
C.
Followed by drilling D.
Preceded by drilling
E.
None of the above
Preceded by reaming

244.
Coolant is used on a lathe
A.
To cool the work piece
B.
To cool the tool
C.
To remove the chips
D.
All the above
E.
None of the above

245.
Small end of a connecting rod forging is
A.
Super finished
B.
C.
Honned
Ground
E.
Broached
D.
Lapped

246.
Preheating of material to be welded is necessary in case of
A.
Carbon steel B.
Stainless steel
C.
High speed steel
D.
E.
Cast iron

247.
Heavy water is used in atomic power plants as
A.
Fuel
C.
Lubricant
E.
Viscous damping fluid
B.
Source of energy
D.
Moderator

248.
Electron with energy level of 2 MeV is considered as
A.
Dead slow electron B.
C.
Fast electron D.
E.
There is no consideration as such
Slow electron
Super-fast electron

249.
Which of the following is a fuel used in fast reactors?
A.
Chromium
B.
Plutonium
C.
Heavy water D.
Zirconium
E.
Graphite

250.
In Brinell hardness testing the time of loading is
A.
15 seconds B.
30 seconds
C.
1 minute
5 minutes
E.
10 minutes
251.
of
Brinell and Vickers hardness values are practically identical upto a hardness
A.
10
B.
30
C.
100
D.
300
E.
600
D.

252. Which of the following hardness tester can be used to determine the
hardness of a glass sheet?
A.
Brinell hardness tester
B.
C.
Rockwell hardness tester D.
E.
None of the above
Vickers hardness tester

Shore scleroscope
253.
Notches in a section produce
A.
Shear stresses
C.
Biaxial tensile stresses
D.
E.
None of the above
Tri-axial tensile stresses

254.
Creep is expressed in terms of
A.
kg/cm B.
kg/cm2
C.
cm/cm
D.
E.
cm/cm2/hr
cm/cm/hr

255.
Fatigue cracks in metals normally start at
A.
Centre of the specimen
B.
Core of the specimen
C.
Ends of the specimen
D.
Surface of the specimen
E.
Any spot in the specimen

256.
Which material has the best damping capacity
A.
High speed steel
B.
C.
Mild steel
Cast iron
E.
Diamond
D.
Stainless steel

257. To chck the performance of a substance in deep drawing, the test usually
conducted is
A.
Tensile test B.
Fatigue test
C.
Izod test
Charpy test
E.
Cupping test
D.

258.
Which is the heaviest?
A.
Electron
B.
Neutron
C.
Positron
D.
Atom
E.
Proton

259.
The size of coarse grams in metals is
A.
>1 mm
C.
> 0.05 mm D.
E.
> 0.0005 mm
B.
> 0.5 mm
> 0.005 mm

260.
Number of isotopes for iron is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nil
261.
Which of the following is the lightest?
A.
Molecule
B.
Atom
C.
Neutron
D.
Electron
E.
Proton

262. In plain carbon steel as the percentage of carbon increases from 0.2% to
0.8% which of the following decreases?
A.
Brinell hardness number B.
Tensile strength
C.
Percentage elongation
All of the above
E.
None of the above
D.

263.
Machining properties of brass can be improved by the addition of
A.
C.
Carbon
D.
Zinc
B.
Lead
E.
Chromium

264.
Which of the following is not the characteristic property of aluminium?
A.
Lightness
C.
High thermal conductivity D.
E.
Lest affinity for oxygen
B.
Good electrical conductivity

Resistance to corrosion

265.
Galena is the ore for
A.
Aluminium
B.
C.
Zinc
Lead
E.
Germanium
D.
Copper

266. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings the material used with lead to reduce the
risk of scizure is
A.
Iron
B.
C.
Copper
E.
Zinc
Silver
D.
Tin

267.
Compressve strength of wood is usually
A.
More along the grains
B.
More across the grains
C.
Equal in all directions
D.
Maximum at 45? to the direction of grains

268.
Which is expected to be strongest in tension?
A.
Piano wire
C.
Aluminium wire
E.
Brass wire
B.
Mild steel wire

D.
Stainless steel wire
269.
DIN standards are used in
A.
India B.
Germany
C.
Britain
D.
E.
USSR
France

270.
Standards used in USSR are known as
A.
GOST B.
UNI
C.
JIS
AENOR
E.
CSN
D.
271. In an one component system containing two phases, at equilibrium the

number of degrees of freedom would be
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Infinite

272.
Which of the following material has highest specific gravity?
A.
Brass B.
High carbon steel
C.
Lead D.
Aluminium
E.
Copper

273.
Which of the following material has lowest specific gravity?
A.
Brass B.
C.
High carbon steel
E.
Aluminium
Copper
D.
Zinc

274.
Viscoelastic materials show behaviour which is
A.
Time dependent
B.
Independent of time
C.
ElasticD.
E.
Plastic
Inelastic

275.
In Brinell hardness testing, while determining hardness of aluminium
A.
Indenting ball of smaller diameter is used
reduced
C.
B.
Time of loading is
B.
Different elastic
Load on the indenter is reduced

276.
Isotropic materials have
A.
Same elastic properties in all directions
properties in different directions
C.
Variable thermal as well as electrical conductivity D.
Different
compressive and tensile stresses at different locations in the same material
E.
Cannot take shear as well as tensile stress

277.
Super conductors
A.
Are non-metallic substances
B.
Exist at temperatures below 10?K
C.
Are the purest forms of metals
D.
Are the density metals without voids
E.
Are non-crystalline

278.
In which of the following case creep is an important consideration?
A.
Exhaust valve of a diesel engine B.
Blades of a steam turbine
C.
Flywheel of a petrol engine
Piston of an air compressor
E.
Shaft of a centrifugal compressor
D.

279.
The phenomenon of 'weld decay' is associated with
A.
Cast iron
B.
Manganese steels
C.
Aluminium alloys
E.
Stainless steels
D.
Brass

280.
Which of the following material has least coefficient of expansion?
A.
Y-alloyB.
Invar
C.
Brass D.
Manganin
E.
Dead mild steel
281.
All of the following are destructive tests on materials EXCEPT:
A.
Cupping test B.
Tensile test
C.
Charpy test D.
Shore's scleroscope hardness test
E.
Fatigue test

282.
Which of the following materials demonstrate viscoelastic behaviour?
A.
Rubber
B.
Glass
C.
Plastics
D.
E.
All of the above

283. Which of the following material can withstand maximum shocks without
failure?
A.
White cast iron
B.
Malleable cast iron
C.
Chilled cast iron
D.
Gray cast iron
E.
Pig iron

284.
Which of the following is the hardest material?
A.
High speed steel
C.
Cemented carbide D.
E.
Diamond
B.
Stainless steel
Gold

285.
Which of the following is the ductile material?
A.
Silver B.
C.
Stainless steel
E.
Aluminium
Brass
D.
Zinc

286.
Which of the following has the highest malleability?
A.
Cast iron
B.
Copper
C.
Aluminium
D.
Lead
E.
Brass

287.
Hot hardness of high speed steels increases due to the addition of
A.
Tungsten
B.
Phosphorous
C.
Chromium
D.
Vanadium
E.
None of the above

288.
Which of the following pipe will corrode easily?
A.
Stainless steel pipe B.
C.
Copper pipe D.
E.
GI pipe
Lead pipe
ERW pipe

289.
The fatigue limit of a shaft connot be increased by
A.
Under stressing
B.
Surface decarburisation
C.
Shot peening
D.
Nitriding of the surface
E.
Cold working
290.
Which of the following metals has high tendency to get work hardened?
A.
Brass B.
Silver
C.
Copper
D.
E.
Aluminium
291.
Which of the following is the major constituent of corundum?
A.
Carbon
B.
C.
SiO2 D.
MgCl2
E.
Al2O3
Lead
Diamond

292.
Which of the following alloy does not contain tin?
A.
Gun metal
C.
Fusible plug material
E.
All of the above
B.
Phosphor bronze
D.
White metal

293.
Lead is used for joining pipes made of
A.
Cold iron steel
B.
C.
Concrete
Asbestos cement
E.
Vitrified clay
D.
Cast iron

294. What is the atomic or ionic characteristic that determines the elements of
which the atom or iron is representative?
A.
The number of protons
B.
The number of neutrons
C.
The nuber of electrons
D.
The mass

295. Which of the following factor has the least effect on the electrical conductivity
of wires made of copper alloy?
A.
Method of forming the wire
B.
Temperature
C.
Alloying element
D.
Intensity of any incident light

296. The atomic number of a certain element is 83. An atom of this element must
contain
A.
42 protons and 41 electrons
B.
83 neutrous
C.
1 neutron, 41 electrons and 41 protonsD.
E.
None of the above is valid
83 electrons

297.
The graphite rods in a nuclear pile
A.
Convert fast moving neutrons into thermal neutronsB.
particles
C.
Furnish alpha beta particles
D.
E.
Undergo combustion which triggers the fission reaction
Furnish alpha
Furnish neutron to fission U235

298.
If the major quantium number of an atom is three, it possesses
A.
Only s and p electrons
B.
Only s electrons
C.
Only s, p and d electrons D.
Only p electrons
E.
None of the above is true

299.
All of the following are examples of ceramic materials EXCEPT:
A.
Bakelite
C.
Magnesium oxide
B.
Aluminium oxide
D.
Glass

300.
The specific gravity of cast iron is closer to
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
11
301.
When a Ge-crystal is doped with phosphorous atom, it becomes
A.
P-type semi-conductor
B.
C.
Photo sensitive
An insulator
E.
A ferite
D.
N-type semi-conductor

302.
Cadmium sulphide cell is a
A.
Photo conductive cell
B.
C.
Photovoltaic cell
Thermocouple
E.
Photo emissive cell
D.
Solar cell

303.
Which of the following is incorrect for diamond?
A.
An allotrope of graphite
B.
C.
White in colour
Densest form of carbon
E.
Transparent
D.
Insoluble in all solvents

304.
Which of the following can have positive or negative charge?
A.
Electron
B.
C.
Hole
Neutron
E.
Isotope
D.
Iron

305.
Which of the following colour of light has the least wavelength?
A.
Red
C.
Green D.
E.
Blue
B.
Violet
Orange

306.
An atom containing an odd number of electrons is said to be
A.
Diamagnetic B.
Hypermagnetic
C.
Paramgnetic D.
Ferromagnetic
E.
Dielectric

307.
A solution of NaOH conducts electricity bcause NaOH is
A.
A dielectric B.
C.
A strong electrolyte
E.
None of the above
A non-electrolyte
D.
A week electrolyte

308.
Heavy water is obtained by
A.
Rapid evaporation of water
B.
C.
Repeared purification
Low temperature, low pressure distillation
E.
Prolonged electrolysis of water
D.
Slow evaporation of water

309.
Identify the correct relation
A.
Mass number - Atomic number = Number of neutrons
number - Atomic number = Number of protons
B.
C.
Number of neutrons - Number of protons = Mass number D.
electrons outside the nucleus - Number of proton = Mass number
E.
None of the above

310.
Laser is a device to produce
A.
Beam of white lightB.
Beam of monochromatic light
C.
Coherent light
Microwaves
E.
X-rays
311.
Which of the following is not a semi-conductor?
A.
SiliconB.
D.
Tetraethyl lead
Mass
Number of
C.
Gallium Arsenide
E.
All of the above
D.
Germanium

312.
A hydrogen atom has
A.
Two electrons
B.
C.
No protons
One each electron, neutron and proton
E.
None of the above
D.
No neutrons

313.
Which of the following ray has least wavelength?
A.
Cosmic rays B.
X-rays
C.
Ultraviolet rays
D.
E.
Yellow light rays
Infra-red rays

314.
X-rays cannot penetrate through
A.
Copper
B.
C.
Wood D.
Paper
E.
Brass
Lead

315. Which of the following rays are neither deflected by electric field nor by
magnetic field?
A.
?-rays B.
?-rays
C.
?-rays D.
X-rays
E.
None of the above

316.
Silicon steel used for electrical purposes has silicon percentage of
A.
0.50%B.
1.50%
C.
2.50%D.
3.40%
E.
13.40%

317.
Which of the following materials have maximum magnetic permeability?
A.
Pure iron
C.
Gram oriented Si-Fe
B.
4% silicon steel
D.
Iron carbide

318. In fibre glass reinforced plastics, the glass fibres are primarily used to
improve
A.
Mechanical properties of plastics
B.
C.
Thermal properties of plastics
Surface properties of plastics
E.
None of the above
D.
Electrical properties of plastics

319.
The Miller indices of the diagonal plane of a cube are
A.
110
B.
111
C.
100
D.
E.
10

320.
Dislocations in materials are
A.
Point defectsB.
Line defects
C.
Planer defects
D.
E.
Either point, line or planer defects
321.
The resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by
A.
Temperature B.
Pressure
C.
Composition D.
Temperature and pressure
E.
Pressure or composition
Either point or planer defects

322.
Line imperfection in a crystal is called
A.
Schottky defect
B.
Frenkel defect
C.
Edge dislocation
D.
Any of the above
E.
None of the above

323.
Selenium is
A.
Intrinsic semi-conductor
B.
Extrinsic semi-conductor
C.
P-type semi-conductor
D.
N-type semi-conductor
E.
None of the above

324.
Which of the following is p-type semi-conductor?
A.
Selenium
C.
Silicon doped with gallium
E.
None of the above
B.
Silicon doped with phosphorous

D.
All of the above

325.
The electrical resistance of a semi-conductor
A.
Increases with temperature
C.
Does not change with temperature
B.
Decreases with temperature

326. The semi-conductors have electrical conductivities of the following order
(ohm-cm-1)
A.
10?20 B.
C.
10?3
10?15

327.
Polystrene at room temperature is
A.
Brittle B.
Malleable
C.
Ductile
D.
Soft
328.
Which of the following method cannot be used for thermoplastic materials?
A.
Extrusion
C.
Injection moulding D.
B.
Blow moulding
All of the above

329.
Which of the following method can be used for thermoplastic materials?
A.
Blow moulding
B.
C.
Calendering D.
Compression moulding
Casting

330.
Plastic are
A.
Good conductors of heat and bad conductors of electricity B.
conductors of heat and good conductors of electricity
C.
Good conductors of heat as well as electricityD.
as well as electricity
E.
Semi-conductors
331.
Polymers
A.
Can be vaporised as well as recycled
recycled
B.
C.
Can be vaporised but cannot be recycled
cannot be vaporised
332.
Thermosetting polymers are
A.
Injection moulded B.
Extruded
C.
Cast moulded
None of the above
D.

333.
Polysterene is
A.
An ester
C.
A hydrocarbon
B.
An alcohol
D.
An alkyl halide
Bad
Bad conductors of heat
Can neither be vaporised nor

D.
Can be recycled but
334.
Which of the following polymer is crystalline?
A.
Polyethylene B.
Polymethyl metacrylate
C.
Polyvinyl chloride
D.
Polyvinylidene chloride

335.
Neoprene is
A.
Rubber
C.
Rubber like plastic D.
B.
Plastic
None of the above

336.
Phenol and formaldehyde are polymerised to a resultant product known as
A.
PVC
C.
Polyester
B.
Bakelite
D.
None of the above

337.
Polyethylene is produced by
A.
Condensation polymerization
C.
Colpolymerization of ethylene monomers
B.
Addition polymerization
D.
None of the above

338.
Thermoplastic and thermoset polymers differ in
A.
Glass transition temperature
B.
C.
Mechanical behaviour
All of the above
D.
Thermal behaviour

339. Which of the following class of materials are good conductors of heat and
electricity?
A.
Metals
B.
Ceramics
C.
Polymers
D.
Dielectries

340.
The crystal structure of a material can be studied by
A.
Electron microscope
B.
X-ray difraction
C.
Electron probe X-ray microanalyser
D.
341.
The common household glass is
A.
Soda lime glass
B.
Borosilicate glass
C.
High silica glass
D.
Lead glass
All of the above

342.
The structure of common glass is
A.
Amorphous B.
Partially crystalline
C.
Fully crystalline
D.
None of the above

343.
The main constituent of glass is
A.
SiO2 B.
B2O3
C.
Al2O3 D.
CaCO3

344.
In a glass metal seal the two components must match with respect to their
A.
Hardness
B.
Thermal expansion
C.
Ductility
D.
Fatigue strength

345.
In reinforced conccrete, steel rods are used to increase
A.
Tensile strength
B.
Compressive strength
C.
Shear strength
D.
None of the above

346.
Shot blasting is the process for the cleaning of
A.
Moulding sand
B.
C.
Castings
Pattern
E.
Welded components
D.
Cores
347.
Cold worked components are generally subjected to
A.
Annealing
C.
Shot peening
E.
Tempering
B.
Hardening
D.
Sherodising

348. Which of the following does not contain copper as one of the alloying
elements?
A.
Monel metal B.
Perminivar
C.
Nichrome
Manganin
E.
All of the above
D.

349.
Silicon steel is widely used in
A.
Automobile industry
C.
RCC work
E.
All of the above
D.
B.
Electrical industry
Channel and other section for structural fabrication

350.
Just as strong is opposite to weak, similarly brittle is opposite to
A.
Rigid B.
Elastic
C.
Tough D.
Hard
E.
Soft
351.
As per ISS : designation T 70 W 18 4V 1 is
A.
Low carbon steels B.
C.
Silicon steel D.
High speed steel
Stainless steel

352.
Copper sheets are manufactured by
A.
Extruding
B.
Drawing
C.
Rolling
D.
Sintering
E.
Deep drawing

353.
The main constituent of dynamite is
A.
Sulphur
B.
Potassium chlorate
C.
Oxygen
D.
Nitroglycerine
E.
Sodium nitrate

354.
The material for wire drawing should have
A.
High hardness
C.
High melting point D.
E.
Stiffness
B.
High ductility
Low boiling point

355.
Gamma iron has
A.
Body centred space lattice structure containing 6 atoms
centred space lattice structure containing 10 atoms
B.
C.
Face centred space lattice structure with 8 atoms
lattice structure with 14 atoms
Face centred space
E.
D.
Body
None of the above

356.
The highest percentage of carbon that an iron carbon alloy can have is
A.
2%
C.
4.40%D.
E.
12.12%
B.
3%
6.60%

357.
Cast iron containing 6.6% carbon is
A.
Black in colour containing only pearlite B.
ferrite
Black in colour containing only
C.
Gray in colour containing pearite and ferrite only
cementite only
E.
D.
Whitish containing
None of the above

358.
Which of the following is used for imitation jewellery?
A.
Silicon bronze
B.
C.
Duralumin
Aluminium bronze
E.
Gun metal
D.
Babbit alloy

359.
Which of the following aluminium alloy is commonly used for utensils?
A.
Y-alloyB.
Duralumin
C.
Magnalium
D.
E.
Hindalium
Babbit alloy

360.
Which of the following is a mesomorphous material?
A.
Glass B.
Silver
C.
Gold D.
Mica
E.
Brass
361.
The process of adding impurity to a semi-conductor material is called
A.
Mixing
B.
Film deposition
C.
Binding
D.
Doping
E.
Grouping

362.
Which of the following is donor impurity for semi-conductors?
A.
Antimony
B.
C.
Boron D.
Indium
E.
Callium
Aluminium

363.
Which of the following is 'acceptor' impurity for semi-conductor?
A.
Arsenic
B.
C.
Boron D.
Antimony
E.
All of the above
Phosphorous

364.
when atoms are hold together by the sharing of valence electrons
A.
They form a covalent bond
move away from the atom
B.
C.
Each shared electron leaves a hole
move
E.
The valence electrons are free to

D.
Each atom becomes free to
None of the above

365.
When a normal atom loses an electron, the atom
A.
Becomes a positive ion
C.
Becomes a electrically neutral
E.
None of the above
B.
Becomes a negative ion

D.
Is then free to move about

366.
Eutectic is
A.
a phase transformation in which all the liquid phase transforms on cooling to
two solid phases simultaneously B.
A phase transformation which occurs above
the glass transition temperature
C.
a solid solution of one component in another D.
None of the above

367. A non-crystalline polymer which can be stretched to more than twice its
original length and which contracts quickly on releasing the load, is known as
A.
copolymer
B.
dilatant
C.
plasticD.
elastomer

368.
Figure of merit is used to
A.
compare the efficiency of chermoelectric materials B.
extent of doping of intrinsic semi-conductors
measure the
C.
compare the extent of purity of semi-seonuctor materials D.
above
None of the

369.
When the temperature of a semi-conductor is reduced to absolute zero
A.
all electrons become free B.
electrons move at higher velocities
C.
all valence electrons remain in the valence bond
electrons shift to forbidden gap
D.
all valence

370.
Burger's vector is
A.
estimation of force9 of substit9utional atoms B.
structure
C.
a property of dislocations D.
371.
All of the following are point defects EXCEPT:
A.
vacancies
C.
interstitials D.
B.
a defect in crystall
None of the above
dislocations
isolated impurities

372.
Ligancy is
A.
the number of atoms (or ions) surrounding and touching a central atom B.
a covalent bond between two atoms
C.
the angle betweent he two closest directional bond of an atom
of the above
D.
None

373. The statement that, at equilibrium, the number of phases plus the degrees of
freedom must equal the number of components plus two is known as
A.
Gibbs phase rule
B.
Lever rule
C.
Fick's rule
D.
Heisenberg rule

374.
A ductile fracture is usually not preceded by
A.
plastic flow B.
C.
noise D.
deformation
large amounts of non-recoverable energy absorption

375.
Gel is
A.
a polymer having side groups distributed randomly along a vinyl polymer
chain B.
a polymer having secondary chains branching from the main molecular
chains
C.
A solid frme work of colloidal particles linked together and containing a fluid
in its interstices
D.
a polymer in which the repeating unit of each moleule has
viny group
376.
A composite bar of steel and copper is heated. The copper bar will be under
A.
compression B.
tension
C.
torsion
shear
D.

377.
In Charpy impact test, the specimen is held as a
A.
cantilever
C.
fixed beam D.
B.
simply supported beam

hinged beam

378. Which type of thermostat is generally used in applicances with heating
elements?
A.
Bimetallic
B.
Magnetic
C.
Clad metal
D.
Ferromagenetic

379.
Bakelite is
A.
a semi-conductor
B.
uncombustible
C.
a low resistance conducted
D.
a polarised insulator

380.
The behaviour of visco-elastic materials is
A.
time dependent
C.
orientation dependent
B.
temperature dependent
D.
age-dependent
381. When a loop composed of two dissimilar metals could be made to carry a
continuous current simply by maintaining the two junctions at different
temperatures, the above effect is known as
A.
Thomson effect
B.
Thompson effect
C.
Peltier effect D.
Seeback effect

382.
A thermocouple works on which of the following effect?
A.
Thomson effect
B.
C.
Peltier effect D.
Joule effect
Seeback effect

383. When a current is passed through the junction of two different metals, heat is
absorbed or liberated depending on the direction of the current. The above
phenomenon is known as
A.
Kelvin effect B.
Joule's effect
C.
Peltier's effect
D.
None of the above

384.
Which of the following material can be used at temperatures above 100?C?
A.
Polythene
B.
Teflon
C.
Rubber
D.
Paraffin wax

385.
Which of the following materials can be used for temperatures upto 500?C?
A.
Empire cloth B.
Paper oiled
C.
Mica D.
Polythene

386.
Which of the following is the ferroelectric material?
A.
Rechelle salt B.
C.
Potassium dehydrogen phosphate
Barium titanate
D.
All of the above

387.
The Curic point for Rochelle salt is about
A.
1000?C
B.
C.
240?C D.
Absolute zero
500?C

388.
Materials which lack permanent magnetic dipoles are called
A.
diamagnetic B.
ferromagnetic
C.
semi-magnetic
D.
None of the above

389. When the atomic magnetic moments are randomly oriented in a solid, its
magnetic behaviour is termed as
A.
polycrystalline
B.
anti-ferromagnetic
C.
paramagnetic
D.
semi-magnetic

390.
The structure of a semi-conductor resemles that of a
A.
circle B.
rhombus
C.
diamond
D.
391.
Which type of electron pair exists in a semi-conductor?
A.
Ionic B.
Non-ionic
C.
Homopolr
D.
triangle
Hetropolar

392.
Selenium is an
A.
intrinsic semi-conductor
B.
extrinsic semi-conductor
C.
p-type semi-conductor
D.
n-type semi-conductor

393.
Silicon doped with phosphorous is an
A.
B.
C.
D.

394.
Silicon doped with gallium is
A.
B.
C.
D.

395.
A material with unequal anti-parallel atomic magnetic moments is
A.
an anti-ferromagnetic
C.
ferrite D.
B.
ferrimagnetic
non-magnetic

396.
The permeability of soft iron can be increased by
A.
purifying it
C.
alloying with cobaltD.
B.
reducing carbon percentage

increasing carbon percentage

397. When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetised, small changes in dimensions
occur. Such a phenomenon is known as
A.
magnetic hysteresis
B.
magnetic expansion
C.
magneto striction D.
magneto-calorisation

398.
High purity copper is obtained by
A.
casting
C.
induction heating
B.
rolling
D.
electric refining

399.
Which variety of copper has the best mechanical strength?
A.
Annealed copper
B.
C.
Cast copper D.
Soft copper
Hard drawn copper

400.
Nickel is used in
A.
cutting tools B.
C.
electrodes of thermionic valves D.
401.
Application of tin is in
A.
bulb filaments
B.
C.
transducers D.
hair springs
automatic voltage regulators

pressure sensitive elements
low current fuses

402.
By alloying copper with manganese which of the following increases?
A.
Specific gravity
B.
Tensile strength
C.
Melting point
D.

403.
Which of the following increases when copper is hard drawn into wires?
A.
Diameter
B.
Cross-sectional area
C.
Resistivity
D.
Specific gravity

404.
The number of semi-conductors in periodic table is
A.
B.
C.
D.
13

405. Which of the following properties has lower value for copper as compared to
aluminium?
A.
Specific gravity
B.
Melting point
C.
Electrical resistivityD.
All of the above

406.
In ferromagnetic materials
A.
the atmic magnetic moments are anti-parallel and unequal
atomic magnetic moments are parallel
C.
the constituent is iron only
D.
B.
the
one of the constituent is iron

407.
The intensity of magnetisation M of a ferromagnetic solid
A.
is independent of temperature
B.
increases with increasing temperature
C.
decreases with increasing temperatureD.
heating
depends primarily on method of

408.
Which of the following is not a rare and precious metal?
A.
Platinum
B.
Palladium
C.
Tantalum
D.
Lithium

409.
Ferri-magnetic materials generally find application as
A.
conductors B.
insulators
C.
resistors
semi-conductors
D.

410.
A piezo electric is
A.
a material which become polarised when stressed
changes dimension due to applied field
C.
a material that never gets polarised
D.
force reduces when current flowing is increased
a material which
a material in which magnetising
411.
Which of the following is a composite material?
A.
Y-alloyB.
C.
Tungsten carbide
High speed steel

D.
B.
Fibre reinforced plastic

412.
Which of the following is the characteristic of ceramic materials?
A.
Malleability and ductility B.
Hardness and brittleness
C.
Elasticity and plasticity
Porosity and flexibility
D.

413.
Materials in order of reducing electrical conductivity are
A.
Aluminium, Silver, Gold, Copper B.
Gold, Silver, Copper, Aluminium
C.
Copper, Silver, Gold,Aluminium D.
Silver, Copper, Gold, Aluminium

414.
Which of the following timber is used for sports goods?
A.
Mulberry
B.
C.
Sal
Deodar
D.
Mahogany

415.
The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is
A.
4 to 6 percent
B.
6 to 8 percent
C.
10 to 15 percent
D.
20 to 25 percent

416.
The strength of timber is
A.
less along the grains more across the grains B.
less across the grains
C.
same in all directions
longitudinal axis
D.
more along the grains
maximum in a direction at 45? to the

417. Which of the following material can be used for the filaments in incandescent
lamps?
A.
Carbon
B.
Tungsten
C.
Tantalum
D.
Any of the above
5.METALLERGY
1.
In Brinell hardness tester the load for aluminium is
A.
300 kg
B.
1500 kg
C.
1000 kg
D.
500 kg
E.
100 kg

2.
In Brinell hardness testing the timer for loading is
A.
1 second
B.
2 seconds
C.
5 seconds
D.
15 seconds
E.
1 minute

3.
In Brinell hardness testing the minimum thickness of the specimen should be
A.
Less than 5 times the depth of impression
depth of impression
B.
Less than 10 times the
C.
Equal to 10 times the depth of impression
depth of impression
D.
More than 10 times the
E.
Thickness of specimen has no relevance to the depth of impression

4.
Endentor used in Vickers hardness testing machine is
A.
25 mm dia ball
B.
15 mm dia ball
C.
10 mm dia ball
D.
Conical indentor with 120? apex angle
E.
Diamond square-based pyramid

5.
Angularity of the square base pyramid in Vickers hardness tester is
A.
90?
C.
120? D.
E.
150?
B.
11?
136?

6.
The property which enables metals to be drawn into wire is known as
A.
Malleability B.
Ductility
C.
Straining
Plastic deformation
E.
Elastic deformation
D.

7.
Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as
A.
Fatigue
C.
Gradual deformation
E.
Endurance failure
B.
Proof deformation
D.
Creep

8.
In which of the following cases creep is an important consideration?
A.
Cast iron water pipes
B.
C.
Gas turbine blades D.
Steam engine flywheel
E.
All of the above
Cycle chains

9.
The rollers of a cycle chain are subjected to
A.
C.
Shear stress D.
E.
Creep stress
Tensile stress
Fatigue stress

10.
Which of the following is a non-destructive test?
A.
Charpy test B.
Izod Impact test
C.
Tensile test D.
Cupping test
E.
X-ray test
11.
Spherical metal powders are usually produced by
A.
Electrolytic process B.
C.
Reduction
E.
Milling
D.
Automization
Oxidation

12.
Normal mercury thermometer can be used upto
A.
100?C B.
212?C
C.
300?C D.
500?C
E.
800?C

13.
The upper range of mercury thermometer can be increased by
A.
Increasing tube diameter B.
Providing steel tube
C.
Taking into account expansion of tube D.
under pressure
E.
Filling the stem with nitrogen
Range cannot be increased

14.
Th phenomenon of emf development between two diferent metals placed in
contact is known as
A.
Seeback effect
B.
Thomson effect
C.
Peltier effect D.
Kelvin effect
E.
Thermocouple effect

15.
Which thermocouple can measure the highest temperature?
A.
Copper-constantan B.
Iron constantan
C.
Chromel-alumel
Platinum-rhodium
E.
Tungsten- molybdenum
D.
16.
The principle on which a disappearing filamment type pyrometer works is
known as
A.
Kirchhoff's law
B.
C.
Wien's law
Peltier effect
E.
Seeback effect
D.
Fourier's law

17.
Under identical values of cold and hot junction temperatures which
thermocouple given the highest output
A.
Iron constantan
B.
C.
Chromel-constantan
E.
All give equal output
Nickel nimo
D.
Platinum-platinum-rhodium

18.
The measurement junction of a thermocouple is taken from an environment
of 300?C to 600?C. If time constant of the thermocouple is 1 second, temperature
indicated by it, in ?C, after 1 second would be about
A.
100
B.
400
C.
457
D.
497
E.
600

19.
An instrument which is used for measuring temperature variations by change
in a metallic resistance is called a
A.
Thermopile B.
Bolometer
C.
Thennocouple
D.
E.
Thermo-galvanometer
thermo-generator

20.
A solder consists of
A.
Lead and tin B.
Tin and white metal
C.
Zinc and lead
D.
Zinc and tin
E.
Tin and antimony
21.
The flux used in brazing is usually
A.
Common salt
C.
Borax D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Lime
Alum

22.
Which metal has the lowest melting point?
A.
Iron
C.
Silver D.
E.
Aluminium
B.
Copper
Magnesium

23.
Which of the following metals has highest specific gravity?
A.
Iron
C.
Copper
E.
Brass
B.
Silver
D.
Aluminium

24.
Which of the following metal has the lowest specific gravity?
A.
Monal metal B.
Magnesium
C.
Copper
Bronze
E.
Cast iron
D.

25.
The process of providing zinc coating on steel pipes is known as
A.
Pickling
C.
Cold workingD.
E.
Blistering
B.
Spheroidising
Galvanising
26.
Galvanising layer usually provides protection in the range of water
A.
1 to 7 B.
7 to 14
C.
1 to 14
D.
E.
Complete protection is provided
6 to 11

27.
Uniformity of zinc coating on pipes is tested by
A.
Dipping the sample in water
conc, hydrochloric acid
B.
Dipping the sample for 1 minute in
C.
Dipping the sample for 1 minute in neutral copper sulphate solution

Dipping the sample for 10 minutes in calcium hydroxide solution
E.
By passing electric current for 1 hour
D.

28.
Which of the following is usually not a constituent of paints?
A.
Career
B.
Vehicle
C.
Pigment
D.
Drier
E.
None of the above

29.
Attack of steel is increased by
A.
Salt solution below a paint coat B.
painting
Invisible moisture film present prior to
C.
Graphite in the priming coat
scale
Loose rust and partially removed mill
E.
D.
All of the above

30.
Which of the following material can bear sudden and excessive shocks
better?
A.
Cast iron
B.
Pig iron
C.
White iron
D.
Wrought iron
E.
All have same shock bearing capacity
31.
Percentage of carbon is least in case of
A.
Pig iron
C.
Malleable iron
E.
Steel
B.
Cast iron
D.
Wrought iron

32.
The process used for making steel is
A.
Bessemer converter
C.
Electric arc D.
E.
Any of the above
B.
Open hearth
High frequency heating

33.
In high frequency heating of steel, the heat is generated primarily due to
A.
Eddy currents
B.
C.
High voltage D.
High power
E.
High resistance of contact surface
Stray magnetic fields

34.
Eddy currents
A.
Increase with frequency
B.
Increase with square of frequency
C.
Increase with cube of frequency D.
frequency
E.
Increase with fourth power of
Increase as inverse of frequency

35.
In eddy current heating of steel, if the depth of heating is to be increased
A.
Frequency must be high
B.
Frequency must be low
C.
Some resisting material must be applied on the surface of article to be
heated
D.
Time of heating should be high
E.
Voltage should be high

36.
Brinell hardness of nitrided surface may be of the order of
A.
100
C.
200 to 250
E.
More than 600
B.
150 to 200
D.
300 to 450

37.
The chemical formula of cementite is
A.
FeC
C.
FeC3 D.
E.
Fe3C2
B.
Fe3C
Fe2C3

38.
Which of the following is not true for cementite?
A.
It is hard
C.
It is brilliantly white
E.
It has low melting point
B.
It is brittle
D.
It is found is steels

39.
A fine grained steel will have the number of grains per square centimeter as
A.
3 to 16
B.
16 to 56
C.
56 to 100
D.
100 to 150
E.
150 to 1000

40.
High carbon steels intended to be quenched in water should have manganese
percentage less than
A.
2 percent
B.
1.5 percent
C.
1 percent
D.
0.5 percent
E.
No manganese percent
41.
In tool steel the percentage of silicon is usually restricted to
A.
0.2 percent B.
0.5 percent
C.
1 percent
2 percent
E.
5 percent
D.

42.
Free cutting steels usually have sulphur content of
A.
0.002 percent
B.
C.
0.21 percent D.
2 percent
E.
10 percent
0.02 percent

43.
In tool steel the sulphur content is usually not allowed to exceed
A.
0.001 percent
B.
C.
0.35 percent D.
3.5 percent
E.
5 percent
0.035 percent

44.
Percentage of carbon in mild steel is
A.
0.010 to 0.025
B.
C.
0.8 to 0.85
1.0 to 1.25
E.
3.0 to 4.50
D.
0.10 to 0.25

45.
Which of the following is usually made of dead mild steel?
A.
Flanges
B.
Shafts
C.
Fish plates
D.
Gears
E.
Spades

46.
Which of the follwing is usually made of mild steel?
A.
Drop forgings
B.
Fish plates
C.
Shear bladesD.
Channels
E.
Die blocks

47.
Which of the following is usually made of high carbon steel?
A.
Hammers
C.
Solid drawn tubes D.
B.
Angle iron
Channels

48.
Railway rails are made of
A.
Dead muld steel
B.
Mild steel
C.
Low carbon steel
D.
Medium carbon steel
E.
High carbon steel

49.
Cold worked components are generally subjected to
A.
Annealing
C.
Shot peenling
E.
Sherodising
B.
Hardening
D.
Normalising

50.
The stainless steels owe their resistance to corrosion to the presence of
A.
Chromium
B.
Carbon
C.
Manganese D.
Sulphur
E.
Nickel
51.
In order to improve machinability of stainless steels
A.
0.2 percent selenium is added
C.
0.5 percent manganese is added
E.
(B) or (C) above
B.
0.35 percent sulphur is added

D.
(A) and (B) above

52.
The highest percentage of chrommium that can be added to steel is usually
A.
12 percent
B.
15 percent
C.
18 percent
D.
25 percent
E.
50 percent

53.
Carbon percentage in cutlery stainless steel is
A.
0.25 to 0.30 percent
C.
1 percent
E.
D.
B.
1.1 to 1.35 percent

54.
An operation on steel aimed at softening the steel to improve machinability is
known as
A.
Softening
B.
C.
Shot blasting
E.
Temperature
Cold working
D.
Annealing

55.
Annealing treatment is normally used for
A.
Forgings
B.
C.
Wires D.
Castings
E.
All of the above
Cold worked sheets

56.
Chromium percentage in cutlery stainless steel is
A.
6 - 8 percent B.
8 - 10 percent
C.
11 - 13 percent
D.
E.
18 - 20.5 percent
15 - 18 percent
57.
Which of the following gives a fracture crystalline in appearance?
A.
Steel B.
Wrought iron
C.
Cast iron
D.
E.
None of the above
All of the above

58.
Persence of lead in brass improves
A.
Machining properties
C.
Ductility
E.
Fatigue resistance
D.
B.
Hardenability
Malleability

59.
as
Iron ore which is grey to black in colour and is hard and magnetic, is known
A.
Hematite
B.
Limonite
C.
Siderite
D.
Magnetite
E.
Ironite

60.
Which iron ore has least percentage of iron
A.
Magnetite
B.
Hematite
C.
Limonite
D.
Siderite
E.
All have almost equal percentage of iron ore
61.
The flux used in blast furnace while melting iron ore is
A.
Carbon
C.
Sodium chloride
E.
Bauxite
B.
Oxygen
D.
Lime stone

62.
For each ton of pig iron produced in a blast furnace, the amount of ore used is
approximately.
A.
1 ton B.
2 tons
C.
5 tons D.
13 tons
E.
12.5 tons

63.
For each ton of pig iron produced from blast furnace, the lime stone used is
approximately
A.
0.01 ton
B.
0.1 ton
C.
0.4 tom
D.
1.4 ton
E.
2.55 tons

64.
For each ton of pig iron produced in blast furnace, the quantity of coke
required would be roughly
A.
0.1 ton
B.
0.25 ton
C.
0.5 ton
D.
1.4 ton
E.
1.9 ton

65.
Which of the following is by product from blast furnace?
A.
Slag
C.
Blast furnace gas
E.
None of the above
B.
Flue dust
D.
All of the above

66.
The maximum temperature inside a blast furnace gas is of the order of
A.
50?C B.
1000?C
C.
1600?C
D.
E.
3600?C
2600?C

67.
Percentage of iron in pig iron approximately
A.
99.90%
B.
C.
90%
80%
E.
78%
D.
95%

68.
Which of the following is easiest to bend?
A.
Cast iron
C.
Mottled pig iron
E.
Wrought iron
B.
Grey pig iron

D.
Steel

69.
Which of the following gives granular fracture?
A.
Steel B.
Wrought iron
C.
Cast iron
D.
E.
None of the above
All of the above

70.
Dilute nitric acid applied to a clean fracture of wrought iron gives
A.
White stain B.
Greenish stain
C.
Blue stain
Grey stain
E.
Black stain
71.
Dilute nitric acid applied to a clean fracture of white cast iron will produce
A.
White stain B.
Grey stain
C.
Black stain
Brown stain
E.
Pink stain
D.
D.

72.
Which of the following is not true in case of white cast iron
A.
It is whitish in colour
C.
It is hard
D.
B.
It is brittle
It is strong
E.
It is malleable

73.
For acid resistance cast iron should have silicon percentage of
A.
1 percent
B.
2 percent
C.
10 percent
D.
15 percent
E.
25 percent

74.
Highest melting point is for
A.
Cast iron
B.
Wrought iron
C.
Mild steel
D.
High carbon steel
E.
Low carbon steel

75.
Compressive strength is highest in case of
A.
Cast iron
B.
Wrought iron
C.
Mild steel
D.
Low carbon steel
E.
High carbon steel

76.
Ultimate tensile strength is least in case of
A.
Cast iron
B.
Wrought iron
C.
Mild steel
D.
Low carbon steel
E.
High carbon steel

77.
Ultimate tensile strength is least in case of mild steel and is of the order of
A.
35 - 45 kg/mm2
B.
50 - 60 kg/mm2
C.
60 - 75 kg/mm2
D.
75 - 90 kg/mm2
E.
90 - 100 kg/mm2

78.
Welding process used in fabrication of car bodies is
A.
Arc welding B.
Resistance welding
C.
Thermit welding
D.
E.
Soldering
Brazing

79.
The fastest cooling rate is achieved when steel is quenched in
A.
Brine B.
Air
C.
Oil
Water
D.

80.
Brass in an alloy of
A.
Copper and tin
B.
Copper and zinc
C.
Copper and lead
D.
Copper and nickel
E.
81.
Bronze is an alloy
A.
Copper, lead and tin
B.
Copper, zinc and tin
C.
Copper, zinc and tin
D.
Zinc, nickel and tin
E.
Nickel, aluminium and copper

82.
Stellite contains
A.
Cobalt, chromium and tungsten B.
C.
Nickel, copper and zinc
E.
Copper, tin and lead
D.
Cobalt, vanadium and nickel
Nickel, zinc and aluminium

83.
Babbit metal is an alloy of
A.
Tin, antimony and copper B.
Tin, antimony and lead
C.
Tin, copper and lead
E.
Lead, zinc and copper
D.
Tin, zinc and copper

84.
Bell metal is an alloy of
A.
Coper, tin, lead and zinc B.
Copper, antimony, aluminium and zinc
C.
Copper and tin
E.
Copper and lead
D.

85.
Which of the following is the hardest?
A.
Talc
C.
Quartz
E.
Corundum
B.
Fluorite
D.
topaz

86.
Which of the following is the softest material?
A.
Corundum
B.
Diamond
C.
Calcite
D.
Quartz
E.
Fluorite

87.
Approximate Brinell Hardness number for talc is
A.
C.
5 -- 10D.
E.
50 -- 80
B.
2
20 -- 30

88.
Vicker's hardness number of diamond could be of the order of
A.
15000B.
12000
C.
8000 D.
4000
E.
800

89.
Which of the following is a noble metal?
A.
Aluminium
B.
C.
Nickel D.
Platinum
E.
Chromium
Stainless steel

90.
Constantan is an alloy containing
A.
Copper and zinc
B.
Copper and nickel
C.
Lead and zinc
D.
Zinc and nickel
E.
Lead and copper
91.
Fusible plug for boilers consists of
A.
Lead, tin and mercury
B.
C.
Zinc, copper and lead
D.
Bismuth, lead and tin
E.
Zinc, bismuth and tin

92.
Nichrome contains
A.
Nickel, chromium and vanadium B.
C.
Nickel and copper D.
E.
Nickel, lead and zinc
Nickel, copper and vanadium
Nickel and chromium

93.
White metal contains
A.
Lead and bismuth B.
Mercury and zinc
C.
Lead and zinc
Lead and copper
E.
Copper, zinc and mercury
D.
94.
Major constituent of phosphor bronze is
A.
Zinc
C.
Lead D.
E.
Phosphorous
B.
Copper
Aluminium

95.
Invar is an alloy of
A.
Iron and nickel
B.
C.
Iron and zinc D.
Iron and chromium
E.
Iron and vanadium
Iron and copper

96.
Which of the following material is used for thermocouple junction?
A.
Petwar
B.
White metal
C.
Nichrome
D.
Magnanin
E.
Invar

97.
Heating elements of electrical heaters are made of
A.
Nichrome
B.
C.
Invar D.
Tungsten
E.
Phosphor bronze
Nicheloy

98.
Standard electrical resistance are made of
A.
Constantan B.
Tungsten
C.
Phosphor bronze
D.
E.
Invar
Manganin

99.
Lowest melting point may be expected for
A.
Aluminium
B.
Brass
C.
Copper
D.
Lead
E.
Zirconium

100.
Highest specific gravity is of
A.
Brass B.
Copper
C.
Lead D.
Steel
E.
Titanium
101.
Modulus of elasticity for steel is approximately
A.
1.2 x 106 kg/cm2
B.
2 x 106 kg/cm2
C.
12 x 106 kg/cm2
D.
52 x 106 kg/cm2
E.
78 x 106 kg/cm2

102.
As per IS code, C 65 steel will have carbon percentage of
A.
0.065 percent
B.
0.6 to 0.7 percent
C.
6 to 7 percent
D.
00 to 70 percent
E.
None of the above

103.
Which of the following is high speed steel?
A.
T 55 Ni Cr 65 Mo 30
B.
T 75 W 18 Co 6 Cr 4
C.
T 10 Cr 5 Mo 75 V 23
D.
T 75 W 18 Co 6 Cr 4 V 1 Mo 75
E.
None of the above

104. Which of the following temperatures represents the tempering temperature
for C 30 steel?
A.
1700?C
B.
1400-1450?C
C.
860-890?C
D.
550-660?C
E.
100-150?C

105.
Capacity of a cupola is expressed in terms of
A.
Diameter of drum B.
Height of drum
C.
Tons of castings it can produce in one charge D.
one charge
E.
Tons of coke it can take in
None of the above

106. During first charge in cupola the time taken by material to melt is
approximately
A.
10 minutes B.
C.
1 hourD.
E.
5 to 6 hours
Half an hour

107.
Which of the following is fluxing material for cupola?
A.
Limestone
B.
Fluorspar
C.
Soda Ash
D.
Any of the above
E.
None of the above

108. Volume of air required to melt one ton of cast iron in a cupola at N.T.P. is
roughly
A.
10 cubic metres of air
B.
C.
1000 cubic metres of air D.
E.


109.
Usually the capacity of cupola is
B.
1 to 5 tons
C.
10 to 100 tons
E.
500 to 1000 tons
D.
100 to 500 tons

110.
Which of the following furnaces is not used for non-ferrous materials
A.
Pit furnace
B.
Crucible furnace
C.
Cupola
D.
Oil fired tilting furnace
E.
Gas fired tilting furnace
111.
Crucible for melting of metals are made of
A.
Cast iron
C.
Hard metal D.
E.
Tungsten
B.
Chromium
Graphite

112.
Cast iron pipes are manufactured by
A.
Sand acting method
B.
Lost wax method
C.
Shell moulding method
D.
Die casting method
E.
Centrifugal casting method

113.
For producing cast iron pipes by centrifugal casting method the core used is
A.
Sand core
B.
Wax core
C.
Metallic core D.
Clay core
E.
No core is used

114.
Petrol engine carburetors are manufactured by
A.
Sand castingB.
Centrifugal casting
C.
Shell casting D.
Die casting
E.
Lost wax casting

115.
Coarse grained steels
A.
Are less tough
C.
Have poor machinability D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Are less liable to distortion

Have leser depth hardening power

116.
of
Maximum hardness that can be achieved in plain carbon steel is of the order
A.
50 Rockwell 'C'
C.
100 - 150 Rockwell 'C'
E.
There is no such limit for hardness
B.
66 - 67 Rockwell 'C'
D.
80-85 Rockwell 'C'

117.
For normalizing, steel is heated to
A.
700?C B.
C.
100?C below critical temperature
E.
30?C to 60?C above critical temperature
900?C
D.
Critical temperature

118.
In which process steel is heated below the critical temperature
A.
Annealing
B.
Normalizing
C.
Hardening
D.
Temperting
E.
Carburizing

119.
Carbon percentage in steel for carburizing is usually
A.
1.5 percent B.
1 percent
C.
0.8 percent D.
0.6 percent
E.
0.15 percent
120.
Which of the following is not a hardening process?
A.
Cyaniding
C.
Sphcroidizing
E.
Induction hardening
B.
Nitriding
D.
Carburising
121. In order to observe the grain size of steel samples under microscope, the
magnification should be the order of
A.
B.
10
C.
20
D.
100
E.
1500

122. If a sample of steel shown excessive hardness after tempering the probable
cause could be
A.
Insufficient holding time during tempering
alloying elements
B.
C.
High temperature during tempering
cooling
Change in volume during
E.
D.
Excessive proportion of
None of the above

123.
There are 14 atoms in a unit cell of
A.
Body centred cubic space latticeB.
C.
Close packed hexagonal space lattice D.
E.
None of the above
Face centred cubic space lattice

All of the above

124. Cracks of a vertical nature and dark coloured fissures in a sample of hardened
steel indicate that
A.
Steel has been properly hardened
heated
B.
Steel has not been properly
C.
Steel has been burned
D.
Steel has achieved maximum possible
hardness in accordance with the carbon percentage
E.
Steel contains excessive alloying elements

125.
A chisel for cutting steel plates is usually
A.
Tempered
B.
Hardened
C.
Annealed
D.
Tempered and annealed
E.
Hardened and tempered

126.
On Moh's scale, materials with hardness number less than 4 are
A.
Topaz, Corundum, Diamond
B.
C.
Fluorite, Felsper, Talc
Felspar, corundum, Diamond
D.
Talc, gypsum, calcite

127.
The slowest cooling rate is achieved when steel is quenched in
A.
fused salt
B.
C.
Brine D.
mixture of water
Air

128.
Warping may be avoided when quenching a long slender piece of work by
A.
Holding the work piece between clamps and pouring water on it B.

Hoding the work piece vertically over the quenching bath and plunging it
straight
C.
Pulling the piece from both ends D.
adequate supports
E.
Holding the piece horizontally in
None of the above

129.
Which colour of flame represents the highest temperature?
A.
Dark red
C.
Light yellow D.
E.
Pink
B.
Bright red
White

130.
The coordination number of NaCl is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
131. The property of a metal when the recovery after unloading is complete but
not instantaneous is
A.
creep B.
Inelasticity
C.
Anelasticity D.
Viscoelasticity

132.
Which hardening process is generally not used for steels?
A.
Induction hardening
C.
Nitriding
E.
Cyanidin
D.
B.
Age hardening
Pack carburising

133.
For nitriding, the nitrogen is provided by
A.
Heated air
B.
Ionised air
C.
Ammonia
D.
Nitrous oxide
E.
Nitric acid

134.
Which allotropic form of iron is magnetic at room temperature?
A.
Alpha iron
C.
Gamma iron D.
E.
All of the above
B.
Beta iron
Delta iron

135.
If during spark test, a sample gives dull red sparks, it could be
A.
Cast iron
B.
Wrought iron
C.
Mild steel
D.
Medium carbon steel
E.

136.
In grey cast iron, free graphite is in the form of
A.
Fine powder B.
C.
Flakes D.
E.
Crystals
Needles
Nodules

137.
Which allotropic form of iron does not have body centred cubic lattice?
A.
Alpha iron
C.
Gamma iron D.
E.
All of the above
B.
Beta iron
Delta iron

138.
Chilling, heat treatment and alloy addition to cast iron generally
A.
reduces machinability
C.
reduces wear resistance D.
E.
None of the above
B.
reduces carbon percentage

improves machinability

139.
The number of atoms per unit cell in BCC is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

140.
Manganese is added to steel primarily to increase
A.
Tensile strength
B.
C.
Ductility
Endurance limit
D.
Fatigue strength
E.
Malleability
141.
The tensile strength of nodular iron may be of the order of
A.
100 kg/cm2 B.
500 kg/cm2
C.
1000 kg/cm2
D.
E.
4000 kg/cm2
2000 kg/cm2

142.
Which of the following element does not impart hardness to steel?
A.
Copper
B.
C.
SiliconD.
Chromium
E.
None of the above
Nickel

143.
Eutectoid steel has a structure of
A.
Sorbite
B.
Nickel
C.
Martensite
D.
Bainite
E.
A combination of all above

144.
Hypoeutectoid steel has the structure of
A.
Cementite
B.
C.
FerriteD.
Ferrite & pearlite
E.
None of the above
Pearlite

145.
The crystal structure of gamma iron is
A.
BCC
B.
FCC
C.
ACP
D.
Cubic
E.
Combination of all above
146.
A hardness value of 1400 BHN can be expected in case of
A.
Cementite
B.
Ferrite
C.
Pearlite
D.
All of the above
E.
None of the above

147.
The percentage of carbon in cold rolled steel sheets is around
A.
0.01%B.
0.10%
C.
0.80%D.
1.10%
E.
2.10%

148.
Alpha brass is a (an)
A.
Inermediate phase B.
C.
Substitutional solid solution
Interstitial compound
D.
None of the above

149.
Which of the following material is viscoelastic in properties?
A.
Graphite
B.
C.
Glass D.
Cork
E.
None of the above
Rubber

150.
Just as strong is opposite of weak likewise elastic is opposite of
A.
Hard B.
Soft
C.
Rigid D.
Inelastic
E.
Ductile
151.
Plasticisers are added to plastic compounds to
A.
Provide a protective layer B.
Improve resistance to acids
C.
Improve resistance to alkalies
D.
Increase tensile strength
E.
Improve softness and flexibility

152.
The nature of atomic bond found in diamond is
A.
Ionic B.
Covalent
C.
Metallic
D.
E.
None of the above
Either of above

153.
The crystal structure of most of the common metals is
A.
Hexagonal
C.
Orthorhombic
E.
None of the above
B.
Cubic
D.
Any of the above

154. Monochromatic X-rays reflected from a calcite crystal (lattice constant ? =
3? ) give rise to first order Bragg reflection at 6.7?. The wavelength of these X-rays
will be
A.
0.07 AB.
0.7 A
C.
7A
70 A
E.
170 A
D.

155.
Magnetism is non-linearly related to the applied field in case of
A.
Diamagnetic field
C.
Ferromagnetic field D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Paramagnetic field
All of the above

156.
The net magnetic moment is zero is case of
A.
Ferromagnetic materials B.
Ferrimagnetic materials
C.
Anti-ferromagnetic materials
D.
All of the above
E.
None of the above

157.
All of the following are magnetic materials EXCEPT:
A.
Nickel B.
Cobalt
C.
Iron
Zinc
E.
Cast iron
D.

158.
Nickel is
A.
Ferromagnetic
B.
C.
Dielectric
Paramagnetic
E.
None of the above
D.
Ferroelectric

159.
In a diamagnetic material the effect of an applied magnetic field is that
A.
A net dipole moment is induced in the material
reduction in flux density
B.
C.
The induced magnetism is in opposition to applied field
above
E.
There is a net
D.
None of the above

160.
Ferrites are a sub-group of
A.
Ferromagnetic materials B.
Ferrimagnetic materials
C.
Diamagnetic materials
Paramagnetic materials
E.
None of the above
161.
Above the curie temperature, a magnetic material becomes
A.
Diamagnetic B.
Paramagnetic
C.
Ferromagnetic
D.
E.
None of the above
D.
Dielectric
All of the

162. In anti-ferromagnetic materials the spin moments associated with two sets of
atoms are aligned
A.
Anti-parallel to each other
B.
C.
Random to each other
Anti-parallel but of unequal magnitudes
E.
None of the above
D.
Parallel to each other

163.
The electrical conductivity of ferrites is
A.
Less than that of ferromagnetic materials
ferromagnetic materials
B.
C.
Greater than that of ferromagnetic materials D.
that of ferromagnetic materials
E.
Equal to that of
Very high as compared to
Very low as compared to that of ferromagnetic materials

164.
During dielectric heating, the heat is generated primarily due to
A.
Eddy currents
B.
C.
High voltage D.
High power consumption
E.
High flux density
Stray magnetic fields

165.
High ductility wires are made on
A.
Dead mild steel
B.
Medium carbon steel
C.
High carbon steel
D.
Wrought iron
E.
Cast iron

166.
The correct order of cooling media for decreasing cooling rate is
A.
Air, water, oil, fused salt B.
Water, air, fused salt, oil
C.
Oil, fused salt, air, water D.
Water, oil, fused alst, air

167.
Which of the following material is used for permanent magnets?
A.
Alnico B.
Delta metal
C.
Elnivar
D.
E.
Duralumin
Invar

168.
Which of the following materials are usually most ductile?
A.
Hexagonal close-packed lattice B.
C.
Body centred lattice
E.
Non-metallic
D.
Face centred cubic lattice
Amorphous

169.
In nodular iron, graphite is present in the form of
A.
Flakes B.
Needles
C.
Powder
D.
E.
Prisms
Spheroids

170.
Which of the following is closest to the purest form of iron
A.
Wrought ironB.
Pig iron
C.
Mild steel
Grey cast iron
E.
Nodular cast iron
171.
The crystal structure of alpha iron is
A.
BCC
B.
FCC
C.
HCC
D.
Cubic
E.
None of the above
D.

172.
The highest rate of quenching is possible in
A.
Cold furnace B.
C.
Air
E.
Water
D.
Hot furnace
Oil

173. Which of the following hardening process is generally used for non-ferous
materials?
A.
Cyaniding
B.
C.
Pack carburizing
E.
Nitriding
Flame hardening
D.
Age hardening

174.
Mild steel has the structure of
A.
FCC
B.
BCC
C.
HCC
D.
Cubic
E.
Orthorhombic

175.
In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of
A.
Cementite
B.
Flakes
C.
Powder
D.
Spheroids
E.
None of the above

176.
Killed' steel is
A.
Steel which has been shaped on a power hammer
than normal percentage of carbon
B.
C.
Steel with more than normal percentage of carbon D.
its properties due to excessive alloying
E.
Steel with less

Steel that has lost
That steel which is deoxidised in the ladle with silicon and aluminium
177.
The maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is
A.
0.00%B.
0.03%
C.
0.04%D.
0.25%
E.
0.13%

178.
The maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is
A.
2.70%B.
2%
C.
1.70%D.
0.70%
E.
0.07%

179.
The depth of hardness in steel can be increased by the addition of
A.
Vanadium
B.
Sulphur
C.
Tungsten
D.
Nickel
E.
Chormium

180.
Pure iron has the structure of
A.
Pearlite
B.
C.
FerriteD.
Pearlite and austenite
181.
The crystal structure of gamma iron is
A.
Cubic B.
BCC
C.
FCC
HCC
E.
Any of the above
D.
Austenite

182. Which of the following form of iron is produced as a result of annealing of
white cast iron?
A.
Malleable iron
B.
Grey iron
C.
Nodular iron D.
Spheroidal iron
E.
Wrought iron

183.
The crystal structure of brass is
A.
BCC
B.
FCC
C.
HCP
D.
Orthorhombic
E.
Mixture of all above

184.
Which of the following is not a constituent of Stellite?
A.
CobaltB.
Tungsten
C.
Ferrous
D.
E.
All of the above
Chromium

185. Which of the following material is generally not used as deoxidiser for
producing killed steel?
A.
Copper
B.
C.
Ferro-manganese
E.
All of the above
Ferro-silicon
D.
Aluminium

186.
Machinability of metal depends on
A.
Hardness
B.
Hardness and tensile strength
C.
Brittleness
D.
Brittleness and toughness
E.
None of the above

187.
Silicon when added to copper increases its
A.
Machinability
B.
C.
Malleability D.
Hardness
E.
Brittleness

188.
Which of the following material is not used for cyaniding?
A.
Sodium carbonate B.
Sodium chloride
C.
Sodium hydroxide D.
Sodium cyanide
E.
All of the above

189.
The percentage of sulphur in steel can be reduced by adding
A.
Manganese B.
C.
Zinc
E.
Chormium
D.
Copper
Magnesium

190. Which of the following material is added to cast iron to obtain nodular cast
iron?
A.
Chromium
B.
C.
Magnesium D.
E.
Molybdenum
Copper
Manganese
191. Which of the following operation on grey cast iron will result in the production
of white cast iron?
A.
Tumbling
B.
C.
Shot peening
E.
Rapid heating
Tempering
D.
Rapid cooling

192.
Nodular iron has low
A.
Machinability
B.
C.
Fluidity
Melting point
D.
Tensile strength

193.
Which of the following metal does not have face centred cubic structure?
A.
Copper
B.
C.
Tin
Lead
E.
Nickel
D.
Silver

194.
Which of the following metal has face centred cubic structure?
A.
Zinc
C.
Magnesium D.
E.
Tin
B.
Gold
Cadmium

195.
Which of the following material has body centred cubic structure?
A.
MolybdenumB.
C.
Glass D.
E.
Zinc.
Cadmium
Magnesium

196.
Which of the following material does not have body centred cubic structure?
A.
Vanadium
B.
Potassium
C.
Lithium
D.
Zirconium
E.
Chromium

197.
Which of the following element has hexagonal close packed structure?
A.
Aluminium
B.
Molybdenum
C.
Cadmium
D.
Chromium
E.
Lead

198. Which of the following material does not have hexagonal close packed
structure?
A.
Magnesium B.
Alpha iron
C.
Titanium
E.
Cadmium
D.
Zinc

199.
Which of the following constituent will increase the hardness of steel?
A.
Martensite
B.
Pearlite
C.
Austenite
D.
Cementite
E.
All of the above

200.
When steel is made from phosphatic iron, it is likely to be
A.
Malleable
B.
C.
Hard D.
Brittle
E.
Tough
201.
Steel recommended for induction hardening should have
A.
Fine grains
C.
Low alloy content
E.
Low electrical and thermal conductivity
B.
Ductile
Coarse grains
D.
Rough surface

202.
The process for steel making being used at Rourkela steel plant is
A.
L-D process B.
C.
Bessemmer process
E.
Electric process
Duplex process
D.
Open hearth process

203.
The process for steel making used at TISCO, Jamshedpur is
A.
L-D process B.
Duplex process
C.
Electric process
D.
Bessemmer process
E.
Open hearth process

204.
Electric process for steel making is used in which of the following steel plant?
A.
Bhilai B.
Bokaro
C.
Durgapur
D.
E.
None of the above
TISCO

205.
The hardness obtained by hardening process does not depend upon
A.
Carbon content
C.
Atmospheric temperature D.
B.
Work size
Quenching rate

206. Austenitic stainless steels contain chromium and nickel in amounts required
to assure that even at room temperatures, the steels retain their crystalline
structures, which are
A.
Face centred cubic B.
Diamond cubic
C.
Hexagonal closed-packed D.
Partly amorphous

207. If the structure of a sample consists of pearlite, cementite and free carbon,
the sample may be
A.
Cast iron
B.
C.
Dead mild steel
E.
None of the above
Alloy steel
D.
Eutectoid steel

208. If the steel at room temperature is magnetic, the presence of which
constituent can be ruled out?
A.
FerriteB.
Pearlite
C.
Austenite
D.
E.
None of the above
Cementite

209.
The allotropic form of iron not having body centred cubic lattice is
A.
Alpha iron
C.
Gamma iron D.
E.
All of the above
B.
Beta iron
Delta iron

210.
The operation that usually follwos hardening is
A.
Annealing
B.
Normalising
C.
Tempering
D.
Cyaniding
E.
Carburising
211.
In a specimen of hardened steel, hard and soft spots indicate
A.
Fre carbon
C.
Non-uniform composition of steel
E.
Presence of cementite
B.
Uneven heating
D.
Presence of pearlite

212. If a medium carbon hardened steel shows pearlite structure it may be
concluded that
A.
Steel contains impurities B.
Steel has been slowly cooled in furnace
C.
Steel has been quenched in oil D.
Steel has been quenched in water

213.
Which of the following structure is least hard?
A.
Martensite
B.
Troosite
C.
Pearlite
D.
Sorbite

214.
The unit of diffusion coefficient is
A.
metre second
B.
metre second-1
C.
metre2 second-1
D.
metre-2 second-1

215. If a sample of steel shows unsymmetrical deformation of a piece in
quenching, the probable cause could be
A.
Excessive proportion of alloying elements
cooling
C.
Impure quenching oil
D.
E.
Low specific heat of quenching oil
B.
Non-uniform heating or
Low temperature during heating

216.
Ferrite is
A.
Amorphous and brittle
B.
Soft and ductile
C.
Hardenable under rapid cooling D.
steel
Present in abundance in high carbon

217.
Which of the following affects the hardenability of steel?
A.
Austenitic composition
B.
Austenitic grain size
C.
Amount, nature and distribution of undissolved or insoluble particles in
austenite
D.
All of the above
218.
The depth of hardening is affected by
A.
Size of specimen
C.
Quenching medium
B.
Hardenability of steel
D.
All of the above

219.
Local hardening of steel can be done by all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
induction hardening
C.
stepped uniform heating D.
B.
flame hardening
resistance heating

220.
Hardening by carburizing is limited to
A.
0.05 mm
B.
0.1 mm
C.
2 mm D.
5 mm
View Answer Workspace R

221. A steel piece after hardening is heated to 300?C and then cooled in oil. The
property imparted to the steel piece will be
A.
Softness
B.
Toughness
C.
Hardness
D.
Annealing

222. The minimum carbon percentage required in steel so that it may respond to
hardening by heat treatment is
A.
0.02 percent B.
0.08 percent
C.
0.2 percent D.
0.8 percent

223.
The effect of austenitic grain size development during heat treatment is
A.
lower hardenability B.
greater toughness
C.
lower internal stress
D.
All of the above

224.
During hardening soft spots can be avoided by
A.
using a more effective cooling medium B.
decarburization in heating
protecting against
C.
obtaining a more homogeneous structure employing annealing or normalising
before hardening D.
Any of the above
225.
Insufficient hardness after tempering may be due to
A.
tempering temperature too low B.
tempering temperature too high
C.
oxidising atmosphere in the furnace
D.
Any of the above

226. A steel specimen is heated to 730?C and cooled at the slowest possible rate
in the furnace. Which property will be imparted to the steel piece?
A.
Hardness
B.
Softness
C.
Toughness
D.
Tempering

227.
Warping of articles during heat treatment may be due to
A.
non-uniform heating
C.
internal stresses in the article before heating
B.
non-uniform cooling

228. If an article develops insufficient hardening after quenching it could be due to
any of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Internal stresses in the article before heating B.
too low
C.
Cooling rate too slow
temperature
D.
Hardening temperature
Holding insufficient at the hardening

229. If an article develops insufficient hardening after quenching, the defect can
be corrected by
A.
removing scale from surface
hardening
B.
normalising or annealing followed by
C.
reheating the article in oxidizing atmosphere and quenching
the above
D.
Any of
B.
non-

230.
During burning of grain boundaries
A.
regions enriched in carbon are formed in first state of burning
oxidized cavities and blow holes are formed during second stage
C.
iron oxide inclusions are formed in third stage
231.
by
During heat treatment, deformation and volume changes can be minimised
A.
slowly cooling in the martensitic range B.
possible
D.
All of the above
using surface hardening when
C.
using alloy steels least prone to such changes
D.
Any of the above

232.
Quenching cracks during heat treatment can be minimised:
A.
by avoiding sharp projections and sudden transitions from thick to thin
sections
B.
articles should be free from stress before heat treatment
C.
heat to minimum stable temperature for hardening D.
Any of the above

233. Formation of thick layer of scale on the surface of steel articles can be
minimised by
A.
heating in furnaces with reducing neutral or protective atmosphere

heating in boxes with used carburising agent or cast iron chips
C.
heating in molten salt bath
D.
B.
Any of the above

234.
Which of the following furnace is used for steel only?
A.
Cupola
C.
Open hearth furnace
B.
Air furnace
D.
Indirect arc furnace

235. During heat treatment the formation of thick layer of scale on the surface of
steel articles is mainly due to
A.
excessive hardnessB.
C.
reduction
D.
oxidation
coarse grain structure

236.
During heat treatment quenching cracks occur due to
A.
irregular martensitic transformation within the article
atmosphere within the fumace
B.
C.
All of the above
heating at higher temperatures for longer durations D.

237.
Which metal has the highest melting point?
oxidising
A.
Antimony
B.
Chromium
C.
Gold D.
Stainless steel

238.
Which colour of heat represents the highest temperature?
A.
Blood red
B.
Salmon
C.
Dry cherry
D.
White

239.
Which of the following furnace is used to convert liquid pig iron into steel?
A.
Cupola
B.
Open hearth furnace
C.
Converter
D.
Induction arc furnace

240.
Which of the following can be used as fuel in open hearth furnace?
A.
Liquid fuels B.
Coke oven gas
C.
Producer gasD.
Any of the above
6.ENERGY CONVERSION
1.
Solar cells are made of
A.
Silica B.
Steel
C.
Sulphur
D.
E.
Phosphorous
Antimony

2.
The disadvantage of using solar evergy for power production is
A.
Requirements of large area for harnessing solar energy
available during day time only
C.
Energy not available during cloudy weather
E.
All of the above
D.
B.
Energy
Initial cost is high

3.
The device used to generate power utilising energy of wind is called
A.
Air motor
B.
Aerogenerator
C.
Windmill
D.
Wind generagor
E.
None of the above

4.
Which of the following power plant will give least running cost of the
production of electrical power?
A.
Diesel engine power plant
C.
Gas turbine power plant D.
E.
All will have nearly same running cost
Nuclear power plant

5.
Which of the following power plant has the highest cost per kW installed?
A.
C.
E.
Nuclear power plant

Hydro-electric power

6.
Watt second is the unit of
A.
Force B.
Momentum
C.
Power D.
Energy
E.
None of the above

7.
1 kilowatt hour is the same as
A.
1 joule
C.
1000 watt-sec
E.
3600,000 watt-sec
B.
1000 joules
D.
3600 watt-hours

8.
One BTU is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of
A.
One gram of water through 1?C B.
One gram of water through 1?F
C.
C
One kilogram of water through ?F
E.
One pound of water through 1?F
D.
One pound of water through 1?

9.
One calorie is the same as
A.
1 dyne
B.
C.
1 watt D.
4.18 joules
E.
4.11 watts
1 dyne-sec

10.
One British thermal unit (BTU) is nearly equal to
A.
243 joules
B.
252 joules
C.
504 joules
D.
1053 joules
E.
2106 joules
11.
One kilowatt hour is equal to
A.
86,000,000 calories
B.
C.
860,000 calories
86,000 calories
E.
8600 calories
D.
8600,000 calories

12.
One kilowatt hour is nearly equal to
A.
3.4 B.T.U.
B.
34 B.T.U.
C.
340 B.T.U.
D.
3400 B.T.U.
E.
34000 B.T.U.

13.
The calorific value of lignite is expected to be around
A.
1000 kcal/kg B.
1500 kcal/kg
C.
2500 kcal/kg D.
5000 kcal/kg
E.
10,000 kcal/kg

14.
The calorific value of diesel oil is expected to be around
A.
1000 kcal/kg B.
5000 kcal/kg
C.
11000 kcal/kg
D.
E.
21000 kcal/kg
16000 kcal/kg

15.
The calorific value of which of the following files is expected to be nearly
equal?
A.
Coal gas and lignite coal B.
Natural gas and coal gas
C.
Anthracite coal and lignite
D.
E.
None of the above
Petrol and diesel oil

16.
The carbon percentage in diesel oil is nearly
A.
100% B.
86%
C.
74%
66%
E.
52%
D.

17.
The major constituent of natural gas is
A.
Methane
C.
Carbon monoxide D.
E.
Ammonia
B.
Acetylene
Hydrogen

18.
The calorific value of natural gas is expected to be around
A.
500 kcal/m3 B.
1500 kcal/m3
C.
2500 kcal/m3
D.
E.
25000 kcal/m3
2000 kcal/m3
19.
The calorific value of coal gas is expected to be around
A.
500 kcal/m3 B.
1500 kcal/m3
C.
2500 kcal/m3
D.
E.
7500 kcal/m3
5000 kcal/m3

20.
A chimney is not a part of which of the following type of power plant?
A.
C.
E.
All of the above
21.
A turbocharger is a part of
A.
Thermal power plant
B.
C.
Hydro-electric power plant
E.
Nuclear power plant


22.
Which plant has least pollution problem?
A.
C.
E.

Nuclear power plant

23.
The location of which power plant is mainly decided by the geographical
factors?
A.
C.
E.
Nuclear power plant

24.
The alternators for a steam power plant usually run at
A.
750 rpm
B.
1200 rpm
C.
1500 rpm
E.
30,000 rpm
D.
3000 rpm

25.
The pressure of steam used in modern thermal power plants is upto
A.
15 kg/cm2
B.
100 kg/cm2
C.
170 kg/cm2 D.
250 kg/cm2
E.
350 kg/cm2

26.
Which of the following plant can be conveniently located close to be load
centre?
A.
Nuclear power plant
B.
C.
Diesel engine power plantD.
E.
All of the above

Steam power plant

27.
Which of the following power plant can be installed within the shortest
possible time?
A.
Nuclear power plant
B.
C.
E.
Steam power plant

28.
Compressed air is required generally in which of the following power plants?
A.
Nuclear power plant
B.
C.
Steam power plant D.
E.
All of the above

29.
Compressed air is required in diesel engine power plants mainly for
A.
Starting the engine B.
Cleaning
C.
On fiteration D.
E.
All of the above
Water aeration

30.
The major share of power in India is provided by which of the following type
of power plant?
A.
Nuclear power plant
B.
C.
E.
Steam power plant
31.
The average load factor of thermal power plants in India is
A.
100% B.
80 to 95%
C.
50 to 60%
D.
E.
20 to 30%
Gas turbine power plants
35 to 40%

32.
Which of the following public sector unit is engaged in the manufacture of
thermal power plants?
A.
Heavy Engineering Corporation Ltd
B.
C.
Department of science and technology D.
Corporation Ltd
E.
Coal India Ltd

National Thermal Power
Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd

33.
In which of the following state manufacturing unit of M/S Bharat Heavy
Electricals Ltd. Is not located?
A.
Rajasthan
B.
C.
Andhra Pardesh
E.
Karnataka
U.P.
D.
M.P.

34.
An air preheater is an essential part of which of the following power plant?
A.
Nuclear power plant
B.
Steam power plant
C.
E.
Gas turbine power plant

35.
The cost of fuel is least in case of
A.
Nuclear power plant
C.
E.
B.
Steam power plant

Gas turbine power plants

36.
Careful handling of fuel is essential for which of the following power plant?
A.
B.
C.
Nuclear power plant
E.
Steam power plant

37.
Which of the following state in India is relatively rich in coal deposits?
A.
Rajasthan
B.
C.
Bihar D.
Andhra Pradesh
E.
Kerala
U.P.

38.
Which of the following place is not associated with nuclear power plants?
A.
Narora
B.
Kamalappakam
C.
Bangalore
D.
Tarapur
E.
Kora

39.
Highly skilled manpower is needed for the maintendance of which of the
following power plants?
A.
Diesel engine power plantB.
C.
D.
Nuclear power plant
E.
Steam power plant

40.
A single unit of 50 MW is generally not available with which type of power
plant?
A.
C.
D.
E41.
Which of the following place is associated with thermal power plants?
A.
Agra B.
Bhakra
C.
DVC
Obra
E.
Tarapur
D.
Steam power plant

42.
Which of the following is considered to be superior quality coal for power
plants?
A.
Bituminous coal
C.
Coke D.
E.
Pulverised coal
B.
Peat
Lignite

43.
The equipment used for pulverising is known as
A.
StokerB.
Burner
C.
Hopper
D.
E.
Coke oven
Ball mill

44.
The live storage of coal in power plant means
A.
Coal ready for combustion
C.
Purified coal D.
E.
Storage of coal sufficient to meet hour demand for the plant.
B.
Preheated coal
Coal in transit
45.
The critical pressure water is
A.
1 atm B.
C.
150 kg/cm2 D.
E.
More than 200 kg/cm2
100 kg/cm2
Less than 200 kg/cm2

46.
Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy?
A.
Tidal power B.
Geothermal energy
C.
Nuclear energy
D.
E.
Magneto hydrodynamic generator
Wind power

47.
Pulverised coal is
A.
Coal free from as content B.
C.
Non-smoking coal D.
E.
Coal broken into fine pieces
Coal free from sulphur
Coal which burns for long time

48.
The heating value of coal largely depends on
A.
Size of coal particles
B.
C.
Volatile matter
Moisture content
E.
Sulphur content
D.
Carbon content

49.
Coal used in power plants is also known as
A.
Charcoal
B.
C.
Coke D.
Soft coal
E.
Power coal
Steam coal

50.
Least overall efficiency can be expected in which type of power plant?
A.
C.
E.
Hydro-electric power plant.
51.
The term 'critical' is associated with which type of power plant?
A.
C.
E.
Nuclear power plant

Nuclear power plant

52.
Standby losses are least in case of
A.
C.
E.

Nuclear power plant

53.
A draft tube is a part of which power plants?
A.
C.
Steam power plant D.
E.
All of the above

54.
The name DVC is associated with which type of power generation?
A.
Thermal
B.
Hydro-electric
C.
Nuclear
D.
Gas turbine
E.
Diesel engine

55.
For under water movement of a submarine the power is provided by
A.
Geothermal energy B.
C.
Batteries
D.
Tidal energy
Solar energy
E.
Thermoionic converters

56.
A jet aircraft is powered by
A.
Petrol engines
B.
C.
Gas turbine D.
Batteries
E.
Solar cells
Diesel engines

57.
Satellites are powered by
A.
Thermo-electric generators
C.
Photo electric cells D.
E.
Solar cells
B.
Thermoionic converters
Batteries

58.
A ship is powered by
A.
Steam turbine
B.
Diesel turbine
C.
Steam turbines or diesel engines
hydraulic turbines
E.
D.
Steam turbines, diesel engines
Steam turbines, diesel engines, hydraulic turbines or nuclear reactors

59.
The work of installation and commissioning of power plants in India is
generally undertaken by
A.
Coal Authority of India
C.
NHPC Ltd
E.
HAL
D.
B.
Steel Authority of India
NTPC Ltd.

60.
A curve showing the variation of load on a power station with respect to time
is known as
A.
Load curve
B.
Load duration curve
C.
Diversity factor
D.
E.
Flow chart
61.
The area under the load curve represents
A.
System voltage
C.
Energy consumed D.
E.
Average demand
B.
Performance curve
Current
Maximum demand

62.
The highest point on the load curve represents
A.
Maximum time
C.
Maximum concrete load
E.
None of the above
B.
Maximum demand
D.
KVA rating of generators

63.
The area under load curve divided by maximum demand represents
A.
Load factor B.
Diversity factor
C.
Connected load
D.
E.
None of the above
Average load

64.
Reverse capacity of a plants is given by
A.
Maximum demand - Average demand B.
demand
Plant capacity - Maximum
C.
Plant capacity - Average demand
Plant capacity x (1 - Load factor)
E.
None of the above
D.

65.
The minimum demand on a power station is 10 MW. If the annular load factor
is 40%, total evergy generated per year will be
A.
35.04 x 108 kWh
B.
35.04 x 107 kWh
C.
35.04 x 106 kWh
D.
35.04 x 105 kWh

66.
The maximum number of generators in a power plant must be
A.
One
B.
Two
C.
Three D.
Odd
E.
Even

67.
The capacity of generators being installed in super-thermal power plant is
A.
100 MW
B.
200 MW
C.
220 MW
D.
400 MW
E.
500 MW

68.
A generating station is to supply four regions of loads with peak demands of
10 MW, 15 MW, 20 MW and 30 MW. If the diversity factor is 1.5 the maximum
demand on the station is
A.
70 MW
B.
60 MW
C.
50 MW
D.
45 MW
E.
30 MW

69.
Which of the following plant is suitable for peak load?
A.
Diesel engine plant B.
Steam power plant
C.
Nuclear power plant
D.
E.
All of the above

70.
All of the following plants are suitable for peak load EXCEPT:
A.
Gas turbine plant
C.
Diesel engine plant D.
71.
The supply and distribution of electrical energy in states is controlled by
B.
Pumped storage plant

Nuclear power plant
A.
Department of Science and Technology
C.
Electricity Board
E.
NTPC
D.
B.
Department of Industries
BHEL

72.
Which of the following power plant can be easily started from cold conditions?
A.
Nuclear power plant
C.
E.
None of the above
B.
Thermal power plant

Any of the above

73.
In a steam locomotive the power is generated in
A.
Steam turbine
B.
Single acting condensing steam engine
C.
Single acting non-condensing steam engine D.
steam engine
E.
Double acting condensing
Double acting non-condensing steam engine

74.
The fixed cost of a power plant depends on
A.
Installed capacity
B.
Demand factor
C.
Diversity factor
D.
Average demand
E.
All of the above

75.
Which of the following material has high scrap value as compared to initial
cost?
A.
Aluminium
B.
Steel
C.
Copper
D.
Wood
E.
Cast iron

76.
The value of an equipment at the end of its useful life is known as
A.
Useful value B.
Replacement value
C.
Demand value
D.
E.
Scrap value
Obsolescence value

77.
The initial cost of an equipment is Rs. 20 lakhs and depreciated cost after ten
years is Rs. 15 lakhs. The useful life of the equipment is
A.
5 years
B.
10 years
C.
15 years
D.
20 years
E.
Cannot be determined on the basis of the information provided

78.
The depreciation rate for an equipment is generally decided in light of
A.
Sales tax rules
B.
Excise duty rules
C.
Income tax rules
D.
Electricity duty rules
E.
None of the above

79.
Which of the following disadvantages occurs due to low power factor?
A.
Greater conductor size
B.
Poor voltage regulation
C.
Large copper losses
D.
Large KVA rating of transformers
E.
All of the above

80.
Which of the following equipment has power factor closer to unity
A.
GLS lamp
C.
Induction motor
E.
Carbon arc lamp
B.
Fluorescent lamp
D.
Single phase capacitor motor
81.
The power factor of a 3 phase induction motor near full load is expected to be
around
A.
0.8 leading B.
0.8 lagging
C.
0.5 lagging D.
E.
0.1 lagging
0.5 leading

82.
The power factor of a 3 phase induction motor will be least
A.
at full load
B.
at 80% load
C.
at 5% load
D.
at 25% load
E.
at no load

83.
When the reactive component is small
A.
the phase angle will be small and p.f. will be unity
will be small and p.f. will be leading
B.
the phase angle
C.
the phase angle will be small and p.f. will be high
will be large and p.f. will be low
D.
the phase angle
E.
the phase angle will be large and p.f. will be high

84.
The power factor of a three phase induction motor at no load will be
A.
Zero B.
C.
0.2 to 0.3 leading
E.
0.5 to 0.6 lagging
0.2 to 0.3 lagging

D.
0.5 to 0.6 leading

85.
Which of the following motor can operate on lagging as well as leading power
factor?
A.
Universal motor
B.
C.
Synchronous motorD.
E.
Capacitor run motor
Squirrel cage induction motor

Reluctance motor

86.
Which of the following equipment can be used for improving the power
factor ?
A.
Static capacitors
B.
Synchronous condenser
C.
Phase advancer
D.
Any of the above
E.
None of the above

87.
Which of the following is an advantage of using static capacitors of power
factor improvement?
A.
Low losses within the capacitors B.
C.
Can be easily installed
conditions
E.
D.
No rotating parts
Can work under normal atmospheric
All of the above

88.
The useful life of static capacitor can be expected to be
A.
2 to 3 months
B.
C.
1 to 2 years D.
8 to 10 years
E.
50 to 100 years
6 to 8 months

89.
Phase, advancers for power factor improvement are generally used for
A.
Induction motors below 10 HP
C.
Induction motors below 200 HP D.
E.
Transformers of 100 MVA and above
B.
Induction motors below 100 HP

Are lamps of high wattage

90.
A 3 phase 15 kW induction motor has a p.f. of 0.75 lagging. A bank of
capacitor is connected in delta across the supply terminals and p.f. raised to 0.9
lagging. The KVAR rating of the capacitors connected in each phase will be nearly
A.
B.
C.
D.
20
E.
250
91.
The power factor of a load of 100 kW is to be raised from 0.5 lagging to 0.9
lagging. The KVA rating of the capacitor will be
A.
12.5
B.
25
C.
75
D.
125
E.
212.5

92.
The power supplied to domestic consumers is at 220 volts. This represents
A.
Peak value of voltage
B.
Mean value of voltage
C.
rms value of voltage
D.
Any of the above
E.
None of the above

93.
The highest voltage at which the power is transmitted in India is
A.
33 kV B.
66 kV
C.
132 kV
D.
E.
400 kV
220 kV

94.
Which of the following is the advantage of de transmission?
A.
Absence of line inductance and capacitance problems
effects
B.
No skin
C.
For the same working voltage the potential stress on the insulation is less
D.
No stability problems
E.
All of the above

95.
If K be the volume of conductor for two wire dc system, then for the same
voltage the volume of conductor for 3 wire dc system for supplying the same load
will be
A.
0.25 KB.
0.3125 K
C.
1.25 KD.
2K
E.
5K

96.
The voltage of a 2 wire de system is raised from 200 V to 400 V. For the same
power transmitted over the same distance and for the same power loss, the saving
in conductor copper will be
A.
25%
B.
40%
C.
50%
D.
60%
E.
75%

97.
Which type of conductors are used for transmitting bulk of power at high
voltage?
A.
ACSR B.
Copper
C.
Cadmium copper
E.
Any of the above
D.
Galvanised steel

98.
As compared to copper, the conductivity of aluminium is nearly
A.
85%
B.
80%
C.
60%
D.
40%
E.
20%

99.
The specific gravity of copper is
A.
16.9
B.
13.9
C.
5.9
D.
8.9
E.
2.9

100.
The specific gravity of aluminium is
A.
1.71
B.
2.71
C.
3.71
D.
4.71
E.
5.71
101.
Which of the following material has the best conductivity?
A.
Copper
C.
Cadmium copper
B.
Aluminium
D.
ACSR

102.
The expected life of wooden pols for transmission line is
A.
1 to 2 years B.
2 to 5 years
C.
5 to 8 years D.
20 to 25 years
E.
30 to 60 years

103.
A pin type insulator is generally used upto
A.
1.1 kV B.
11 kV
C.
33 kV D.
66 kV
E.
132 kV

104.
Corona generally results in
A.
Violet glow
C.
Production of ozone gas
E.
None of the above
B.
Hissing noise
D.
All of the above

105.
Which of the following factor affects corona?
A.
Atmospheric conditions
C.
Spacing between conductors
E.
All of the above
B.
Conductor size
D.
Line voltage
106.
The effect of corona can be reduced by
A.
Increasing the conductor size and reducing the spacing between the
conductors B.
Increasing the conductor size and also by increasing the spacing
between the conductors
C.
Reducing the conductor size and increasing the spacing between conductors
D.
Reducing the conductor size as well as spacing between the
conductors
E.
None of the above

107.
The power loss in an overhead transmission line is mainly due to
A.
Line resistance
B.
C.
Heat loss
Magnetic loss
E.
All of the above
D.
Line inductance

108.
If the capacitance between two conductors of a 3 phse line is 4
A.
B.
C.
D.
12

109. A 11 kV transmission line carries power to a distance of 30 kilometres. This
will be termed as
A.
Short transmission line
B.
Medium transmission line
C.
Long transmission line
D.
Very long transmission line
E.
None of the above

110. When a conductor is suspended between two supports at the same level it
taken the shape of
A.
Catenary
B.
Parabola
C.
Cycloid
D.
Epicycloid
E.
Semi-circle
111.
The insulators for overhead lines are generally made of
A.
Copper
B.
C.
Wood D.
Porcelain
E.
Plastic
Aluminium

112.
By increasing sag in the suspended transmission line
A.
Tension in the line decreases
B.
Tension in the line increases
C.
Current carrying capacity of conductor increases
capacity of conductor decreases
E.
D.
Current carrying
None of the above

113.
Sag is provided in overhead transmission lines so that
A.
Repairs can be done easily
B.
Corona can be reduced
C.
Skia effect can be reduced
D.
Safe tension is not exceeded
E.
None of the above

114.
The string efficiency in an ac system is
A.
Zero B.
25%
C.
50%
70.70%
E.
100%
D.

115. A 66 kV transmission line carrying power to a distance of 120 kilometre will
be termed as
A.
Tiny transmission line
B.
Very short transmission line
C.
D.
Medium transmission line
E.
116.
In a medium transmission line the effect of
A.
resistance is negligible
B.
capacitance is negligible
C.
inductance is negligible D.
resistance and inductance is negligible but
effect of capacitance is taken into account
E.
resistance, capacitance and inductance is taken into account

117. A 132 kV transmission line carrying power through a distance of 250
kilometers will be termed as
A.
Very short transmission line
B.
C.
Trunk line
E.
None of the above
D.

118.
In a long transmission line, the effect of
A.
resistance and capacitance is taken into account but effect of inductance is
neglected
B.
resistance and inductance is taken into account but effect of
capacitance is neglected
C.
capacitance and inductance is taken into account but effect of resistance is
neglected
D.
resistance, capacitance and inductance is taken into account
E.
resistance, capacitance and inductance is neglected

119.
the main cause of power loss in a transmission line is
A.
Resistance
B.
capacitance is negligible
C.
Inductance
D.
Both inductance and capacitance
E.
None of the above

120.
In any transmission line
A.
?BC = 1 - ADB.
AB = CD + 1
C.
AB - CD = -1 D.
AC = BD + 1
E.
AC - BD = -1
121.
In any transmission line, which two generalised constants are equal?
A.
A and B
B.
A and C
C.
B and C
D.
C and D
E.
A and D

122.
In any transmission line, the dimensions of constants B and C are
A.
ohm and ohm
B.
ohm and mho
C.
mho and ohm
D.
mho and mho
E.
None of the above

123.
The dimensions of generalised constants A and D are
A.
ohms and mhos
B.
ohms and ohms
C.
mhos and mhos
D.
mhos and ohms
E.
Both are dimensionless

124.
The thickness of the layer of insulation on a cable depends on
A.
Current carrying capacity of conductor B.
C.
KVA
E.
Power factor
D.
Voltage
kW

125.
The material used for insulation on the cable is
A.
Impregnated paper B.
C.
Rubber mineral compound
E.
None of the above
Varnished cambric
D.
Any of the above
126.
A metallic sheath is provided on cable
A.
to protect against moisture, gases and other damaging liquids
protect from mechanical damage due to rubbing
C.
to protect against sparking
laying
E.
D.
B.
to
to avoid damage to the cable during
All of the above

127. A layer of fibrous material like jute or hessian type provided over metallic
sheath on a cable is known as
A.
Armouring
B.
Bedding
C.
Laying
D.
Cover
E.
None of the above

128.
The insulation material for a cable should have
A.
High dielectric strength
B.
C.
Non-inflammability D.
Low cost
E.
All of the above
High inechanical strength

129.
The dielectric strength of rubber is about
A.
3 kV/mm
B.
30 kV/m
C.
30 kV/cm
D.
None of the above

130.
A 660 V cable is known as
A.
Low tension cable B.
High tension cable
C.
Super tension cable
D.
E.
Extra super voltage cable
131.
Pressure cables are used for
Extra high tension cable
A.
High current ratings
C.
High KVA
E.
Low power factors
D.
B.
Higher voltages
High kW

132.
A relay for protective system should have
A.
High speed operation
C.
Selectivity
E.
All of the above
D.
B.
High sensitivity
Reliability

133.
A Buchholz relay is used on
A.
Transformer B.
C.
Transmission lines D.
E.
All of the above
Generators
Cables

134.
The protection against lightning is provided by
A.
Earthing screen
C.
Lightning arresters D.
E.
Any of the above
B.
Overhead ground wires

Surge diverters

135.
The efficiency of a thermal power plant improves with
A.
Larger quantity of water used
C.
Increased quantity of coal burnt D.
E.
All of the above
B.
Lower load on the plant

Use of high pressure steam

136. Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of
Rankine cycle in a thermal power plant?
A.
Use of high pressures
stage
B.
C.
Regeneration
All of the above
E.
None of the above
D.
Reheating of steam at some intermediate

137.
Steam pressure of super-thermal power plant is
A.
15 kg/cm2
C.
100 kg/cm2 D.
E.
200 kg/cm2
B.
50 kg/cm2
170 kg/cm2

138. When pulverised fuel is not used the equipment used for feeding coal to the
boiler is
A.
Heater
B.
C.
Feed pump D.
E.
Stoker
Regenerator
Burner

139.
Burning of low grade fuels can be improved by
A.
Blending with better quality
C.
Pulverising
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
Oil assisted ignition
Any of the above

140.
Water is fed to the boiler at
A.
C.
Slightly more than atmospheric pressure
E.
At pressure more than the steam pressure
141.
Which of the following enters the super heater of a boiler?
A.
Cold water
B.
B.
Hot water
Less than atmospheric pressure

D.
At 100 kg/cm2
C.
Wet steam
D.
Dry steam
E.
Superheated steam

142.
The permissible pH value of water of boilers is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Slightly more than 7
E.
Less than 14

143. Which of the following equipment is installed in power plants to reduce air
pollution due to smoke?
A.
Desuperheaters
B.
C.
Reheaters
Air filters
E.
None of the above
D.
Electrostaric precipitators

144.
Which of the following is not a high pressure boiler?
A.
Loeffler
C.
Velox boiler D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Lancashire coiler
La Mont boiler

145.
Most of the generators in thermal power plants run at
A.
15000 rpm
B.
3000 rpm
C.
1500 rpm
D.
1000 rpm
E.
750 rpm

146. At which of a following speed the generators for 3 phase, 50 Hz supply will
not run?
A.
166? rpm
B.
250 rpm
C.
1200 rpm
E.
750 rpm
D.
500 rpm

147.
Low grade fuels have
A.
Low moisture constant
B.
C.
Low calorific value D.
Low sulphur content
E.
All of the above
Low ash content

148.
In a steam turbine cycle the lowest pressure occurs in
A.
Turbine inlet B.
Boiler
C.
Condenser
Super-heater
E.
Super-heater exit
D.

149.
The chemical composition of coal is given by
A.
Proximate analysis B.
Ultimate analysis
C.
Orsat analysis
All of the above
E.
None of the above
D.

150.
Which of the following variety of coal will have highest ash content
A.
Bituminous coal
B.
C.
Coking coal D.
Lignite
E.
Bengal coal
151.
For low head and high discharge the hydraulic turbine preferred is
A.
Kaplan turbine
B.
Pelton wheel
C.
Francis turbine
D.
Jonval turbine
E.
Fourneyron turbine
Grade I steam coal

152.
In pumped storage plant
A.
Power is produced by pumps
pressures
B.
Water is stored by pumping to high
C.
Pressure accumulators are used D.
Water is recirculated through turbines
E.
Downstream water is pumped upstream during off-load periods

153.
A graphical representation of discharge and time is known as
A.
Load curve
C.
Monograph D.
E.
Hydrograph
B.
Load duration curve

Hectograph

154. In a hydroelectric plant a conduit-system for taking water from the intake
work to the turbine is known as
A.
Dam B.
Surge tank
C.
Penstock
D.
E.
Flume
Reservoir

155. Which of the following place is not associated with hydro-electric power
plants?
A.
Koyana
B.
Nagarjunsagar
C.
Singrauli
D.
Farakka
E.
Bhakra

156.
Nagarjunsagar dam has been constructed on river
A.
Kali
C.
Charnbal
B.
Krishna
D.
Mahanadi
E.
Kaveri

157. Particles having the same atomic number but different mass unmbers are
called
A.
Positrons
B.
Beta particles
C.
Isotopes
D.
Ions
E.
Decayed particles

158.
Heavy water is used in a nuclear power plant as a
A.
Fuel
C.
Reflector
E.
Shield
B.
Coolant
D.
Moderator

159.
A gas turbine works on
A.
Carnot cycle B.
Brayton cycle
C.
Dual cycle
Rankine cycle
E.
Regenerative cycle
D.

160.
The compressor used in gas turbine is usually
A.
Single stage reciprocating compressor B.
compressor
C.
Screw compressor D.
E.
Multistage axial flow compressor
161.
Gas turbines are widely used in
A.
Power generation
C.
Ship
D.
B.
Aircraft
Multistage reciprocating
Lobe type compressor
Locomotive
E.
Pumping stations

162.
In a diesel engine, the consumption of diesel oil per BHP per hour is nearly
A.
10 grams
B.
100 grams
C.
200 grams
D.
850 grams
E.
1250 grams

163.
High horse power diesel engines are usually started by
A.
Self-starter
C.
Self-starter or cranking
E.
Compressed air
B.
Cranking
D.
Batteries

164.
Which of the following is a petroleum fuel?
A.
Benzol
C.
Ethyl alcohol D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Methyl alcohol
Naphta

165. Approximately how many kg of air are required for the combustion of one kg
of diesel oil?
A.
1 kg
B.
C.
15 kg D.
E.
35 kg
5 kg
25 kg

166. Due to burning of one kg of pure carbon with a minimum quantity of air
required, the percentage of carbondioxide in the exhaust gases would be
A.
10%
B.
11.50%
C.
29%
D.
58%
E.
100%

167.
Diesel engine fuels are rated by
A.
Octane number
B.
HUCR
C.
Cetane number
D.
CFR number
E.
Calorific value

168.
The formula for Cetane is
A.
C10H12
B.
C16H34
C.
C12H32
D.
C10H24
E.
C6H15

169.
If an engine has spark plugs, it can be safely concluded that it is
A.
a two stroke engine
B.
a four stroke engine
C.
a water cooled engine
D.
a air cooled engine
E.
not a diesel engine

170.
Which of the following needs to be filtered in a diesel engine?
A.
Air only
C.
Lubrecating oil only
E.
Air, diesel oil and lubricating
171.
The specific gravity of diesel oil is closer to
A.
2.7
B.
1.35
C.
D.
0.84
E.
0.35
B.
Diesel oil only

D.
Air and diesel oil only
172.
Which of the following engine has the highest air-fuel ratio?
A.
Gas engine B.
Petrol engine
C.
Diesel engine
D.
E.
All above has got nearly same air fuel ratio
Gas turbine

173.
If a diesel engine has a turbochanger, it can be concluded that the engine is
A.
Double acting type B.
Air cooled type
C.
High speed type
Supercharged type
E.
Pressure lubricated
D.

174.
A tidal power plant is being installed in India near
A.
Bay of Bengal
B.
C.
Cochin
Goa
E.
Gulf of Cambay
D.
Vishakhapatnam

175.
Which of the following domestic utility item consumes maximum power?
A.
Exhaust fan B.
Refrigerator
C.
Cooking range
D.
E.
Ceiling fan
Mixer grinder

176.
Which of the following domestic utility item consumes least power?
A.
Toaster
C.
Desert cooler
E.
Electric iron
B.
Heat convector
D.
Electric shaver

177.
A 200 MW generator will invariably be
A.
Air cooled
B.
C.
Hydrogen cooled
E.
Nitrogen cooled
Pressurised air cooled

D.
Oxygen cooled

178.
The effect of electric shock on human body depends on
A.
Voltage
C.
Duration of contact D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Current
All of the above

179.
Death is almost certain when the current through human body is
A.
10 micro-amperes B.
25 micro-amperes
C.
100 micro-amperesD.
10 milli-amperes
E.
100 milli-amperes

180.
HRC fuses provide best protection against
A.
Short circuits
B.
C.
Sparking
Fire
E.
All of the above
181.
First aid for an electric shock victim is
A.
Bandage
C.
Pouring water on body
E.
Artificial respiration
D.
B.
Ligntning
Massage
D.
Rubbing the skin

182.
For extinguishing electrical fires
A.
Water should be sprinkledB.
Conductors should be erthed
C.
Rubber pieces should be thrown D.
should be used
Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
E.
Carbondioxide fire extinguisher should be used

183.
The standard frequency of electric power supply in India is
A.
1 Hz
C.
60 Hz D.
E.
440 Hz
B.
50 Hz
220 Hz

184.
Candela is the unit of
A.
Luminous flux
B.
C.
Wavelength D.
Brightness
E.
None of the above
Luminous intensity

185.
The unit of luminous flux is
A.
Steradian
B.
Candela
C.
Lumen
D.
Lux
E.
None of the above

186.
Illumination due to moonlight is nearly
A.
0.3 lumen/meter2 B.
1.8 lumens/meter2
C.
18 lumens/meter2 D.
30 lumens/meter2
E.
300 lumens/meter2

187.
Which of the following will need highest level of illumination?
A.
Proof reading
B.
Bed rooms
C.
Hospital wards
D.
Railway platforms
E.
Foyer for cinema halls

188.
Which of the following will need the lower level of illumination?
A.
Display
C.
Auditoriums D.
E.
Green rooms
B.
Railway platform
Hospital wards

189.
The standard wattage of 4 feet fluorescent tube is
A.
10 W B.
40 W
C.
100 WD.
250 W
E.
500 W

190.
For the same wattage, which of the following lamp is cheapest?
A.
Sodium vapour lamp
B.
Mercury vapour lamp
C.
Fluorescent tube 4 ft.
D.
Fluorescent tube 2 ft.
E.
GLS lamp
191.
Which of the following gives nearly monochromatic light?
A.
Sodium vapour lamp
B.
C.
Fluurescent tube
Mercury vapour lamp
E.
None of the above
D.
GLS lamp

192.
The illumination level in the houses is usually in the range
A.
10 to 20 lumens/m2
B.
100 to 1400 lumens/m2
C.
D.
E.

193.
Which of the following is not the standard rating of GLS lamps in India?
A.
25 W B.
40 W
C.
50 W D.
60 W
E.
100 W

194.
Visible spectrum of light has wavelength in the range
A.
10 to 40 A
C.
4000 to 7000 A
E.
40,000 to 70,000 A
B.
100 to 400 A
D.
14,000 to 17,000 A

195.
Which of the following gas is sometimes filled in filament lamps?
A.
Argon B.
Ozone
C.
Oxygen
D.
E.
Hydrogen
Helium

196.
The expected life of a GLS lamp is nearly
A.
50 hours
C.
1000 hours D.
E.
10,000 hours
B.
100 hours
5000 hours

197.
Which lamp is used for cinerma projectors
A.
Frosted GLS lamp
C.
Mercury vapour lamp
E.
Sodium vapour lamp
B.
Nitrogen filled GLS lamp

D.
Carbon arc lamp

198.
Power factor is expected to be highest in case of
A.
Mercury vapour lamp
B.
Carbon arc lamp
C.
Tube lights
E.
GLS lamp
D.
Sodium lamps

199.
The flicker effect of fluorescent lamps is more pronounced at
A.
Lower frequencies B.
Higher frequencies
C.
Lower voltage
Higher voltages
E.
None of the above
D.

200.
The wavelength of green colour is nearly
A.
1000 A
B.
2500 A
C.
4000 A
D.
5500 A
E.
7500 A
201.
Which of the following colour has wavelength between green and red colour?
A.
Yellow B.
Blue
C.
Violet D.
All of the above
E.
None of the above

202.
The vacuum inside a incandescent lamp is of the order of
A.
10-2 mm Hg B.
10-3 mm Hg
C.
10-4 mm Hg D.
10-5 mm Hg
E.
10-6 mm Hg

203.
In a fluorescent tube circuit, choke acts as a
A.
A starter
C.
A device for improving the power factor
B.
A source of heat
D.
A current limiting device
E.
None of the above

204.
Diesel locomotives in India are manufactured at
A.
Bangalore
B.
Parambur
C.
Chitranjan
D.
Varanasi
E.
Ajmer

205.
Maximum horse power of a steam locomotive is
A.
100
C.
1500 D.
E.
5000
B.
500
2500

206.
Long distance electric trains take power on
A.
600 V dc
C.
25 kV single phase ac
E.
25 kV three phase ac
B.
1500 V dc
D.
25 kV two phase ac

207.
Which of the following method can be used for heating wood?
A.
Carbon arc heating B.
Tungsten arc heating
C.
Dielectric heating D.
Oil burner heating
E.
Resistance heating

208. In case the supply frequency is reduced from 50 Hz to 1 Hz which method of
heating will be least affected?
A.
Resistance heating B.
Dielectric heating
C.
Induction heating
All of the above
E.
None of the above
D.

209.
Spot the odd one out
A.
Colloidal fuelB.
C.
Tar
D.
Acid sludge
Bark

210.
Raniganj is famous for
A.
Thorium deposits
C.
LPG
211.
In which power plant chimney is not needed?
A.
Gas turbine power plant B.
Steam power plant
C.
D.
B.
Oil fields
All of the above

212.
The problem of ash handling does not exist in case of ------ fired boilers.
A.
Lignite
B.
C.
Peat
Gas
D.
Pulverised fuel

213.
An Orsat apparatus gives
A.
volumetric analysis B.
gravimetric analysis
C.
approximate analysis
D.
only presence of constituents

214. A four stroke petrol engine is designed to develop 35 BHP at 200 RPM. It has
an indicated mean effective pressure of 20 kg/cm2, a stroke of 35 cm and a bore
diameter of 20 cm. Using this data mechanical efficiency of the engine at the
running condition given would be closest to
A.
50 percent
B.
60 percent
C.
70 percent
D.
80 percent
215.
In case of oil fired boiler, the excess air is usually
A.
1 to 2 percent
B.
5 to 12 percent
C.
20 to 25 percent
D.
75 to 125 percent

216.
While top surface of an overfeed stoker consists of
A.
coal dust, ash
C.
green coal, incandescent coke
B.
ash, coal dust

D.
incandescent coke, green coal

217.
Chain gate stokers cannot be used for
A.
coal lumps
C.
high ash content coals
B.
low ash content coals

D.
None of the above

218.
Most of the thermal power plants in India are using
A.
bagasse as fuel
B.
lignite as fuel
C.
pulverized fuel
D.
peat as fuel

219. The minimum clearance of low and medium transmission lines from ground
across streets is
A.
2 metres
B.
4 metres
C.
6 metres
D.
8 metres

220. When a 66 kV transmission line passes over a residential building, the
minimum vertical clearance from the roof of the building must be
A.
4 metres
B.
7.5 metres
C.
10 metres
D.
15 metres
221.
Alternating current power is transmitted at high voltages
A.
to safeguard against pilferage
B.
to minimise transmission losses
C.
to reduce cost of generation
D.
to make the system reliable

222.
of
Standed conductors are used for transmitting power at high voltages because
A.
increased tensile strengthB.
C.
case in handling
D.
low cost
low wind resistance

223.
The function of steel wire in a ACSR conductor is
A.
to take care of voltage surges
B.
to prevent corona
C.
to reduce inductance and hence improve power factor
additional mechanical strength
D.
to provide

224.
In high voltage transmission lines the top most conductor is
A.
R-phase conductor B.
Y-phase conductor
C.
B-phase conductor D.
Earth conductor

225. If 3 MW power is to be transmitted over a distance of 30 km, the desirable
transmission voltage will be
A.
11 kV B.
33 kV
C.
66 kV D.
132 kV

226. The most economic voltage for transmitting given power over a known
distance by overhead transmission lines is approximately
A.
0.6 kV/km
B.
1.6 kV/km
C.
2.6 kV/km
D.
3.6 kV/km

227. For a 66 kV transmission line having span of 200 metres between towers, the
approximate sag will be
A.
0.02 m
B.
C.
2m
20 m
D.
0.2 m

228. During storm the live conductor of public electric supply breaks of down and
touches the earth. The consequence will be
A.
supply voltage will drop
B.
C.
current will flow to earth D.
supply voltage will increase

no current will flow in the conductor

229.
In transmission system a feeder feeds power to
A.
service mains
B.
C.
distributors D.
All of the above
generating stations

230.
For transmission lines the standing wave ratio is the ratio of
A.
maximum foltage to minimum voltage B.
voltage
C.
peak voltage to rms voltage
reactance
231.
D.
maximum reactance to minimum
In a transmission line following are the distributed parameters:
A.
resistance and inductance only B.
capacitance
C.
maximum current to minimum
resistance, inductance and
resistance, inductance, capacitance and short conductance

232.
The bundling of conductors is done primarily to
A.
reduce reactance
C.
increase radio interference
B.
increase reactance
D.
reduce radio interference

233.
The characteristic impedance of transmission line depends upon
A.
shape of the conductor
B.
surface treatment of the conductor
C.
geometrical configuration of the conductor
material
D.
conductivity of the

234.
Maximum permissible span for wooden poles is
A.
60 metres
B.
160 metres
C.
250 metres D.
500 metres

235. Which arrangement of poles is used for the installation of transformers and
circuit breakers?
A.
I type B.
J type
C.
H type
D.
L type

236.
Steel poles used for telephone lines are generally
A.
painted
B.
plated
C.
galvanized
D.
blackened

237.
The disadvantage of transmission lines as compared to cables is
A.
exposure to lightning
smoke, ice, etc.
C.
B.
exposure to atmospheric hazards likes
inductive interference between power and communication circuits

All of the above
D.

238.
ACSR conductor implies
A.
All conductors surface treated and realigned B.
sinusoidally run
C.
Anodised core smoothly run
D.
Aluminium conductor steel reinforced

239.
Anode current
Which of the following statement is correct?
A.
Wind pressure reduces corona effects B.
power factor
Ice on conductors improves
C.
Wind pressure is taken to act in a direction at right angles to that for ice
D.
Wind pressure and ice on conductors together improve regulation of
power transmitted
240.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A.
As the temperature rises the tension in the transmission line decreases B.

As the temperature rises the sag in transmission lines reduces
C.
Tension and sag in transmission lines are complementary to each other
241.
Wooden poles for supporting transmission lines are used for voltages upto
A.
440 V B.
11 kV
C.
22 kV D.
66 kV

242.
The expected life of wooden poles is
A.
1 yearB.
5 years
C.
15 years
D.
50 years

243.
Skin effects depends upon
A.
size of the conductor
C.
resistivity of the conductor
B.
frequency of the current

D.
All of the above

244.
The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as
A.
the diameter increases
B.
the frequency increases
C.
the permeability of conductor material increases
conductor material increases
245.
Skin effects is proportional to
D.
the resistivity of
A.
diameter of conductor
B.
C.
(diameter of conductor)2 D.
(diameter of conductor)
(diameter of conductor)3

246.
For constant voltage transmission, the drop is compensated by installing
A.
synchronous motors
C.
inductors
D.
B.
capacitors
All of the above

247.
The disadvantage of constant voltage transmission is
A.
short circuit current of the system is increased
heavy loads
B.
low power factor in
C.
large conductor area is required for same power transmission
the above
D.
All of

248.
Pin insulators are normally used upto voltages of about
A.
100 kV
B.
C.
33 kV D.
25 kV
66 kV

249.
Strain type insulators are used where the conductors are
A.
dead ended B.
at intermediate anchor towers
C.
any of the above
D.
None of the above

250.
The effect of corona is
A.
increased energy loss
B.
increased reactance
C.
increased inductance
D.
increased susceptance
251. Corona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in the air around the
conductor exceeds
A.
32 kV (maximum values)/cm
B.
22 kV (maximum value)/cm
C.
11 kV (rms value)/cm
D.
6.6 kV (rms value)/cm

252.
Corona effect can be detected by
A.
hissing sound
C.
presence of ozone detected by odour D.
B.
faint luminous glow of bluish colour

all of the above

253.
The current down by the transmission line due to corona losses is
A.
sinusoidal
C.
non-sinusoidal
B.
square

254.
Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because
A.
it gives bad odour B.
C.
it transfers energy to the ground
it corrodes the material

D.
it reduces power factor

255. In the areas where snowfall is frequent, under worst conditions, the thickness
of ice on a conductor is
A.
1.25 cm
B.
2.75 cm
C.
4.75 cm
D.
6.25 cm

256.
The effect of ice deposition on conductor is
A.
increased skin effect
B.
C.
increased weight
reduced sag
D.
reduced corona losses

257.
The effect of wind pressure is more predominant on
A.
transmission lines B.
C.
insulators
D.
neutral wires
supporting towers
258.
Guard ring transmission line
A.
improves power factor
C.
reduces transmission losses
B.
reduces earth capacitance of the lowest unit

D.
improves regulation

259. When the power is to be transmitted over a distance of 580 km, the
transmission voltage should be in the range
A.
33 kV - 66 kV
B.
66 kV - 100 kV
C.
110 kV - 150 kV
D.
150 kV - 200 kV

260.
Which relay is used on transmission lines?
A.
Thermal relay
B.
C.
MHO relay
Reactance relay
D.
Buchholz relay
261. Total load transmitted through a 3-phase transmission line is 10,000 kW at

0.8 power factor lagging. The I2 R losses are 900 kW. The efficiency of transmission
line is
A.
60%
B.
90%
C.
95%
D.
99%

262.
Litz wire, is used for intermediate frequencies to overcome
A.
corona effect
C.
radio interference D.
B.
skin effect
All of the above

263.
In order to reduce skin effect at UHF
A.
conductors are painted
B.
conductors are anodised
C.
copper tubes with silver plating are used
plating are used
264.
The chances of corona are maximum during
D.
copper rods with silver
A.
summer heat
B.
C.
dry water
humid weather
D.
winter

265. Neglecting losses in a transmission system, if the voltage is doubled for the
same power transmission, the weight of conductor material required will be
A.
four times
B.
C.
half
one-fourth
D.
double

266. In case the characteristic impedance of the line is equal to the load
impedance
A.
all the energy will pass to the earth
transmission losses
B.
C.
the system will resonatc badly
the load
all the energy sent will be absorbed by
D.
all the energy will be lost in

267.
Which type of insulators are used on 132 kV transmission lines?
A.
Pin type
C.
Shackle type D.
B.
Disc type
Pin and shackle type

268.
Which distribution system is more reliable?
A.
Ring main system B.
Tree system
C.
Radial system
All are equally reliable
D.

269. Out of the following system of distribution, which system offers the best
economy?
A.
Direct current system
B.
C.
AC 3 phase 3 wire system D.
AC single phase system

AC 3 phase 4 wire system
270.
The advantage of dc transmission system over ac transmission system is
A.
dc system it economical B.
C.
corona limits are highest for dc circuits as compared to ac circuits

All of the above
271.
is
The main advantage of ac transmission system over dc transmission system
A.
easy transmission B.
there is no skin effect in dc system

D.
less insulation problems
C.
less problems of instability
distances
D.
less losses in transmission over long

272.
Material generally used for bus bars is
A.
cast iron
C.
Stainless steel
B.
tungsten
D.
copper

273. In a transmission line if booster transformer is to be used, the preferred
location will be
A.
at the receiving end
B.
C.
at the intermediate point D.
at the sending end

anywhere in the line

274.
In case the height of transmission towers is increased
A.
the line capacitance and inductance will not change B.
capacitance will increase but line inductance will increase
C.
the line
the line capacitance will decrease and line inductance will increase
D.
the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will remain unaltered

275.
In ACSR conductors
A.
varnish is the insulation used
aluminium and steel
B.
bitumen is the insulation between
C.
no insulation is used between aluminium and steel D.
insulation medium between aluminium and steel
air acts as

276.
Under no load conditions the current in a transmission line is due to
A.
corona effects
C.
back flow from earth
B.
capacitance of the line

D.
spinning reserve

277.
Stability of a system is least affected by
A.
reactance of line
C.
reactance of generator
B.
losses
D.
output forque

278.
Which of the following equipment is not installed in a substation?
A.
Exciters
C.
Shunt reactors
B.
Series capacitors
D.
Voltage transformers

279. ACSR conductor having 7 steel strands surrounded by 25 aluminium
conductors will be specified as
A.
7?25 B.
7?32
C.
25?7 D.
25?32

280.
Which of the following short-circuit is the most dangerous?
A.
Line to line short circuit
C.
Line to ground short circuit
281.
Hot template curves are the plot of
B.
Dead short circuit

D.
Line to line and ground short circuit
A.
conductor sags and span lengths
clearance
B.
C.
conductor weight and sag
temperature and humidity
D.
temperature and ground

282.
Conductors for high voltage transmission lines are suspended from towers
A.
to reduce clearance from ground
ground
B.
to increase clearance from
C.
to reduce wind and snow loads D.
during summer
to take care of extension in length

283. The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to
core is known as
A.
skin effect
B.
C.
permeability D.
corona
unsymmetrical fault

284.
Skin effect results in
A.
reduced effective resistance but increased effective internal reactance of the
conductor
B.
increased effective resistance but reduced effective internal
reactance of the conductor
C.
reduced effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance

increased effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance
D.

285. Which authority is directly concerned with generation and distribution of
electricity?
A.
Electricity Authority of India
Technology
C.
Ministry of Power
D.
B.
Department of Science and
State Electricity Boards

286.
The effect of electric shock on human body depends on
A.
voltage
C.
Duration of contact D.
B.
Current
All of the above
287.
A current of 10 milli-amperes through human body
A.
will cause mild sensation B.
will affect muscle control
C.
will affect breathing
will cause death
D.

288.
Economiser in a steam power plant is used
A.
To preheat air
C.
To superheat steam
B.
To preheat feed water

D.
None of the above

289.
A load curve helps in deciding
A.
size of the generating units
C.
operating schedule of the generating units
B.
total installed capacity of the plant

D.
All of the above
A.
total generating capacity of over 2000 MW
at above the critical steam
B.
generating units running
C.
unity power factor

290.
A super-thermal power station has
steam generated at critical pressure
D.
291. Which of the following cannot be the prime-mover for a generator of 120 MW
capacity?
A.
Steam turbine
B.
Gas turbine
C.
Kaplan turbine
D.
Diesel engine

292. Which of the following power plant can generate power at unpredictable or
uncontrolled times?
A.
Wind power plant
B.
Tidal power plant
C.
Solar power plant
D.
All of the above

293.
In a fuel cell positive electrode is of
A.
oxygen
B.
hydrogen
C.
ammonia
D.
carbon monoxide

294.
Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible through
A.
batteries
C.
thermionic converters
B.
fuel cells
D.
All of the above

295.
Low utilization factor for a power plant indicates that
A.
plant is under maintendance
B.
plant is used for base load only
C.
plant is used for standby purpose only D.
well as base load
plant is used for peak load as

296.
Capacity factor and load factor become identical when
A.
peak load is equal to the capacity of the plant
half the capacity of the plant
C.
average load is same as peak load
peak diversity factor
D.
B.
average load is
group diversity factor is equal to

297.
Which of the following relation is incorrect?
A.
Capacity factor = Utilization factor x Load factor
Maximum load = Average load
B.
C.
Demand factor x Connected load = Maximum demand
above
298.
Diversity factor has direct effect on the
A.
fixed B.
C.
fixed and variable
variable
Load factor x
D.
None of the
299.
High load factor can be expected in
A.
power plants near load centre
B.
C.
multi-unit power plants
base load stations
D.
slow speed power plants

300.
A load curve is the relationship between load on power plant with the
A.
average time
C.
time in chronological order
301.
Hopkinson demand rate curve is a
A.
one part tariff
B.
two part tariff
C.
three part tariff
D.
four part tariff
B.
instantaneous time
D.
algebraic sum of times

302. In a power plant, if the system voltage is dropped by 10 percent, the load will
drop by about
A.
1 percent
B.
5 percent
C.
10 percent
D.
20 percent

303.
Single peak in the load curve means
A.
unity load factor
B.
high load factor
C.
0.5 load factor
D.
low load factor

304. Most power generating units are conservatively rated. For short durations,
these units can be easily overloaded by about
A.
1 to 2 percent
B.
10 to 15 percent
C.
25 to 30 percent
D.
40 to 50 percent

305.
Heat rate : Efficiency ::
A.
Coal : Oil
B.
Momentum : Variable cost
C.
Fixed cost : Variable cost D.
Resistance : Conductance

306. Of all the different types of conventional power plants, technological
advancements are maximum in
A.
thermal power plants
B.
C.
gas turbine power plants D.
hydro-power plants
nuclear power plants

307.
The tax imposed on power supplied to consumers is known as
A.
excise duty B.
sales tax
C.
toll tax
electricity duty
D.

308.
The average cost of power per kWh for domestic consumers in India is
A.
10 to 15 paise
B.
20 to 30 paise
C.
30 to 45 paise
D.
50 to 65 paise

309.
Which type of power plant will be preferred for a location in Bihar?
A.
Nuclear power plant
B.
C.
Thermal power plant
D.
Solar power plant

310.
Lighite is
A.
pure carbon B.
C.
low calorific value coal
311.
For a power plant, the cost of labour is considered as
A.
fixed B.
C.
progressive, non-progressive
high calorific value coal

D.
a vergetable origin liquid fuel
variable
D.
major, minor

312.
In a thermal power plant, among the variable costs, fuel accounts for nearly
A.
20 to 25 percent of total cost
B.
C.
D.

313.
Excess air requirement is more in case of
A.
chain grate stokers B.
C.
oil firing
D.
pulverized fuel burning
gas firing

314.
In steam power plants exhaust steam from turbine goes to
A.
cooling tower
B.
C.
condenser
air preheater
D.
economiser

315.
Electrostatic precipitators are most effective on
A.
carbon dioxide
B.
C.
coarse dust D.
fine dust
nitrogen

316.
Which of the following is a natural solid fuel?
A.
Pulverised coal
B.
Wood charcoal
C.
Bituminous coal
D.
Coking coal

317.
Which of the following fuel consists almost entirely of fixed carbon and ash?
A.
Lignite
C.
wood charcoal
B.
peat
D.
coke

318.
Which of the following process is used for the production of alcohol?
A.
Distillation
B.
Destructive distillation
C.
Cracking
D.
Fermentation

319.
Pulverized coal is fed to the boiler through
A.
stokers
B.
C.
fans
burners
D.
retorts

320.
The speed of the primemover is controlled by
A.
cam shaft
B.
feed pump
C.
regulator
D.
governor
321.
In a diesel engine the governor controls
A.
fuel volume B.
fuel temperature
C.
fuel flow rate
D.
fuel pressure

322.
Steel poles for transmission lines need protection against
A.
termites
B.
borer
C.
corrosion
D.
All of the above

323.
Transient disturbances are due to
A.
switching operations
C.
faults D.
B.
load variations
Any of the above

324.
First geothermal energy plant in India was tried at
A.
Himachal Pradesh B.
C.
Bihar D.
Rajasthan
Kerala

325.
Attemperation is
A.
the process of reducing pollution through stack gases
of energy conservation by the use of economiser, etc.
B.
the process
C.
preheating of water before admission to boiler
steam temperature
D.
the reduction of

326.
Fixed carbon in case of biogas is around
A.
12.5 percent B.
25 percent
C.
40 percent
68 percent
D.

327.
Bottoming cycle is common in
A.
cement plants
B.
C.
paper mills D.
All of the above
sugar millls

328.
Bottoming cycle in case of combined cycle power geneation is normally
A.
Gas turbine cycle
B.
Steam cycle
C.
any of the above
D.
None of the above

329. Heavy water production plants in India are located at all the following places
EXCEPT:
A.
Nangal
B.
Bombay
C.
Baroda
D.
Tuticorin

330.
100 MW Dhurva reactor is basically a
A.
research reactor
B.
power generation unit
C.
recycling unit
D.
None of the above
331.
Wind form of power generation are being established at
A.
Kutch B.
Tuticorin
C.
J & K D.
all above places
332.
A micro hydel project has
A.
low head availability
B.
C.
low discharge
All of the above
D.
low power potential

333. Which of the following location is not associated with super-thermal power
plant?
A.
Korba B.
Badarpur
C.
Farakka
D.
Rehand

334.
All of the following places are associated with oil refineries EXCEPT:
A.
Mathura
B.
Kanpur
C.
Bombay
D.
Koyali

335.
HBJ pipeline orginates from
A.
Gujarat and ends in Bihar B.
C.
Maharashtra and ends in Bihar D.
Maharashtra and ends in Uttar Pradesh

Gujarat and ends in Uttar Pradesh

336. Gas turbine power plants are being established at all of the following places
EXCEPT:
A.
KawasB.
Anta
C.
Auraiya
D.
Jagdishpur

337.
Integrated demand is
A.
the demand averaged over a specified periodB.
several consumers
the joint-demand of
C.
D.
supplementary demand of various consumers
None of the above
338.
Which of the following is not needed in megneto hydrodynamic power plants?
A.
Chimney
C.
Steam turbine
B.
Combustor
D.
Fuel

339.
Marsh gas is
A.
a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons produced from coal or oil
product of blast furnace
B.
a hy-
C.
low calorific value gas containing carbon monoxide and steam
as methane
D.
same

340.
Naphtha is a volatile colourless product obtained from
A.
methyl alcohol
B.
C.
sugar cane
petroleum
341.
Natural gas is obtained
D.
vinyl acetate
A.
as by-product from blast furnace
refining
C.
B.
as by-product from petroleum
from earth's surface usually along with crude D.
from ammonia

342.
Osmotic energy conversion involves energy production from
A.
low boiling point liquids
B.
C.
miscible liquids
salt water
D.
low vapour pressure liquids

343.
Parr's classification of coal is based on
A.
proximate analysis B.
ultimate analysis
C.
orsat analysis
none of above
D.

344.
Pea coal is
A.
anthracite coal, small in size
B.
C.
low ash content lignite
none of the above
D.
same as peat

345.
Pearlite is
A.
a low ash containing coal B.
same as lignite
C.
an insulation material
none of the above
D.

346.
pF number refers to
A.
acidic/alkaline water
B.
energy with which water is held in the soil
C.
decomposition of molecules caused by the absorption of light
produced by the action of sunlight on the pollutants
D.
smog

347.
A photovoltaic cell converts
A.
heat energy into mechanical energy
energy
B.
chemical energy into electrical
C.
solar energy into electrical energy
energy
D.
electrical energy into chemical

348.
Producer gas mainly contains
A.
carbon dioxide and steamB.
carbon monoxide and nitrogen
C.
methane, ethane and butane
D.
hydrocarbons

349.
Pyrhelicometer measures
A.
intensity of direct solar radiationB.
C.
fission caused by thermal reutrons
cmitted by the sun
wind speed at an elevation

D.

350.
Quad is a mesure of
total electromagnetic radiation
A.
photosynthesis
B.
wind power
C.
radioactive decay D.
351.
Radio carbon has half life of
A.
17 years
B.
117 years
C.
557 years
D.
5770 years
energy

352.
Sweet gas is free of
A.
crabon dioxide
B.
C.
nitrogen
hydrogen sulphide
D.
carbon monoxide

353.
Therm is a unit of
A.
radioactivity B.
heating value
C.
wind speed D.
tidal wave

354.
Thermal neutrons are
A.
exceptionally fast neutrons
B.
C.
moderately fast neutrons D.
slow neutrons
fast neutrons

355.
No moving parts are required in
A.
MHD generator
C.
Thermionic conversion
B.
Tidal power plant

D.
OTEC power plant

356.
TNT
A.
thermonuclear thorium
C.
thermal neutron treatment
B.
total neutron transition

D.
trinitrotoluene
357.
A sodium graphite reactor uses
A.
sodium as moderator and graphite as coolantB.
graphite as moderator
sodium as coolant and
C.
a mixture of sodium and graphite as coolant D.
graphite as moderator
a mixture of sodium and

358.
Solvent refined coal has low percentage of
A.
ash
C.
impurities
B.
sulphur
D.
All of the above

359.
soot is virtually nothing but
A.
ash
B.
cinder
C.
gas
D.
carbon

360.
Sour crude
A.
is corrosive when heated B.
sulphide on distillation
evolves significant amounts of hydrogen
C.
produces light fraction which require sweetening
361.
Metals approach superconductivity condition
A.
at high temperatures
C.
near 0?C
D.
B.
D.
at melting point
near absolute zero

362.
Fixed carbon in case of bituminous coals is less than
A.
70%
B.
50%
C.
35%
D.
15%
All of the above
363.
Humacite is the name associated with
A.
lignites
B.
radioactive minerals
C.
bitumins
D.
refrigerants

364.
In case of humic coals, hydrogen percentage varies from
A.
4 to 6 percent
B.
10 to 15 percent
C.
16 to 20 percent
D.
20 to 30 percent

365.
Hyperon has mass
A.
greater than that of a proton and less than that of a deuteron
than that of a proton and more than that of a deutron
C.
more than that of a proton as well as deutron D.
as well as deutron
366.
Illuminating gas is
A.
blast furnace gas
B.
coal and carburretted water gas
C.
methane gas
D.
light petroleum gas
367.
All of the following are hard coals EXCEPT
A.
Authracite
C.
Bituminous D.
B.
Lignite
Semi-bituminous

368.
All of the following are heavy metals EXCEPT:
A.
Mercury
B.
Sodium
C.
Chromium
D.
Cadmium

369.
Which of the following is heavy oil?
less
less than that of a proton
B.
A.
Gasoline
B.
Kerosene oil
C.
Diesel oil
D.
Bunker oil

370.
Deuterium oxide is used in nuclear reactors as
A.
fuel
C.
shield D.
371.
Heliochemical process is the process by which
B.
moderator
regulator
A.
solar energy is utilized through photosynthesis
converted into thermal energy
B.
C.
geothermal energy is converted into electrical energy
is converted into electrical energy
neutron energy is
D.
wind energy

372. Which of the following power plant is free from environmental pollution
problems?
A.
Thermal power plant
B.
Nuclear power plant
C.
Hydro power plant D.
Geothermal power plant

373.
Existence of which gs in atmosphere causes green house effect?
A.
Carbon dioxide
B.
C.
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
D.
Hydrogen sulphide

374.
The presence of CO2 and H2O in the atmosphere results in absorption of
A.
short wave ultraviolet radiations B.
visible wavelengths of spectrum
C.
long wave infrared radiations
all of the above
D.

375.
Return to earth of the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen occurs in the form of
A.
acid rain
B.
acid show
C.
acid fog
D.
any of the above

376.
The average pH of the normal rainfall is usually
A.
neutral
C.
slightly alkaline
B.
slightly acidic

377.
Earth coal is
A.
lignite B.
C.
black earth D.
coal dust
wet coal

378.
Ebb current is
A.
the same as eddy current B.
shore or down a tidal stream
C.
the movement of the tidal current away from
the removal by screen of undesirable fine materials from broken ore

none of the above
D.

379.
Ekman spiral is an idealized mathematical description of
A.
ocean temperature gradient
boundary layer
B.
wind distribution in the planetary
C.
carbon dioxide percentage variation with elevation D.
of materials
radioactive decay

380.
Which of the following converts electrical energy to radiant heat?
A.
Solat cell
C.
Wankel engine
381.
Which of following converts thermal energy to kinetic energy?
A.
Thermocouple
B.
Storage battery
D.
B.
Incandescent lamp
Storage battery
C.
Fuel cell
D.
Rocket

382.
API gravity is expressed in terms of
A.
gm/cc B.
dimensionless numbers
C.
degrees
D.
None of the above

383.
Argillaceous rocks have
A.
high clay content
C.
low moisture content
B.
high moisture content

D.
low mineral content

384.
ASTM coal classification is based on
A.
proximate analysis B.
ultimate analysis
C.
orsat analysis
None of the above
D.

385.
Barn is
A.
spent fuel from a nuclear reactor
B.
a unit of area
C.
an electronic instrument for rapid counting of radiations
does not form coke
D.
a coal that

386.
One barrel is nearly
A.
0.96 cubic metre
B.
0.44 cubic metre
C.
0.16 cubic metre
D.
0.013 cubic metre

387.
Baryon is one of the class of heavy elementary particles that includes
A.
hyperons
B.
neutrons
C.
protons
D.
All of the above
388.
Barytes concrete is generally used in
A.
C.
foundations for heavy equipment
B.
construction of dams
D.
construction of cooling towers

389.
Baume's scale measures
A.
purity of water
C.
specific gravity of liquids D.
B.
radioactivity
specific gravity of gases

390.
Beaufort scale is used to measure
A.
beta and gamma radiations
C.
insulation
391.
Beaufort scale is graded from 0 to
A.
10
B.
12
C.
22
D.
100
D.
B.
wind speed
depth of sea

392.
Turnaround efficiency of pumped hydro schemes seldom exceeds
A.
10%
B.
15%
C.
25%
D.
65%

393.
Batteries used for electrical energy storage are
A.
Leclanche cells
B.
Edison cells
C.
Lead acid cells
D.
Any of the above

394.
Turnaround efficiency of battery energy storage system is around
A.
75 percent
B.
50 percent
C.
25 percent
D.
10 percent

395.
Sodium sulphur batteries use electrolyte consisting of
A.
solid aluminium oxide
C.
brine D.
B.
dilute sulphuric acid
KOH

396.
Certain metals become super-conducting when cooled below
A.
melting point
C.
0?K
D.
B.
transition temperature
0?C

397.
Activated carbon is used for
A.
absorption of gases
B.
paints and varnishes as colouring agent
C.
purification of water
D.
production of carbon steels

398. The phenomenon of physical adhesion of molecules to the surfaces of solids
without chemical reaction is known as
A.
dredging
B.
coking
C.
adsorption
D.
liquation

399. Solid or liquid particles of microscopic size which are suspended in air or
another gas from what is known as
A.
aerosol
B.
hyperon
C.
geognosy
D.
eluvium

400.
Air curtains find applications in
A.
air conditioned spaces
B.
green houses
C.
D.
solar energy system
401.
The percentage of carbon in anthracite is generally
A.
more than 90%
C.
between 50% and 70%
B.
around 75%
D.
below 50%

402.
Gamma rays are
A.
high energy, short wavelength electromagnetic radiation B.
long wavelength electromagnetic wavelength
high energy,
C.
low energy, long wavelength electromagnetic radiation
short wavelength electromagnetic radiation
low energy,
D.

403.
In geothermal power plants waste water is
A.
recirculated after cooling in cooling towers
C.
discharged back to earth D.
B.
discharged into sea
evaporated in ponds

404.
Grade of the coal is the same as
A.
ultimate analysis
B.
proximate analysis
C.
orsat analysis
D.
rank

405.
API gravity of water is taken as
A.
zero
B.
C.
10
D.
100

406. Liquids lighter than water (such as petroleum oils) have API gravities
numerically
A.
less than 1.0 B.
greater than 1.0
C.
greater than 10
D.
around 100
407.
Benefication process is mainly used for
A.
coals B.
oils
C.
nuclides
D.
minerals

408.
Betz law finds application in
A.
MHD systems
C.
Geothermal power plants D.
B.
Solar cells
Wind mills

409.
Cleat is
A.
main joint in a coal seam along which it breaks most easily
of a coal seam
C.
carbon and sulphur compound
sulphur
D.
B.
floor
crude oil containing low percentage of

410.
Coal broken into angular fragments is known as
A.
coal briquettes
B.
C.
coal bank
coal auger
411.
Coal rank classifies coal according to its
A.
carbon percentage B.
C.
degree of metamorphism D.
D.
coal breccia
ash content
density

412. Exosphere is the space beyond the earth's atmosphere. It begins at a height
of about
A.
100 km
B.
220 km
C.
400 km
D.
1000 km

413.
A fast breeder reactor
A.
operates with fast neutrons and produces less fissionable material than it
consumes B.
operates with fast neutrons and produces more fissionable
material than it consumes
C.
operates with slow neutrons and produces less fissionable material than it
consumes D.
operates with slow neutrons and produces more fissionable
material than it consumes
414.
Fluidized bed combustion helps to reduce
A.
boiler size
C.
both (A) and (B) above
B.
pollution

415.
Flash generally results from
A.
gas turbines B.
C.
pulverized coal boilers
diesel engines
D.
fluidized bed boilers

416. In a boiler, the carry over of slugs of water into the piping due to dirty water
is termed as
A.
beating
B.
foaming
C.
scalping
D.
pitting

417.
The total power of a wind stream is proportional to
A.
velocity of stream B.
C.
(velocity of stream)3
(velocity of stream)2

418.
Tidal energy source mainly makes use of
A.
kinetic energy of water
C.
both kinetic as well as potential energy of water
B.
potential energy of water
D.
None of the above
419.
Tidal energy plant in India is being located at
A.
Kerala B.
Gujarat
C.
Orissa D.
Tamil Nadu

420.
All of the following are electrical mechanical storage systems EXCEPT:
A.
pumped hydro system
B.
torsion bar system
C.
super conducting coils
D.
kinetic flywheels
421.
Thermal storage of energy is possible in the form of
A.
sensible heat
C.
chemical reaction D.
B.
latent heat
Any of the above

422.
The major disadvantage with solar cells for power generation is
A.
lack of availability B.
large area requirement
C.
variable power
high cost
D.

423.
The maximum theoretical efficiencies of solar cells could be around
A.
99%
B.
60%
C.
48%
D.
1%

424.
The source of energy for satellite is
A.
battery
C.
cryogenic storage D.
B.
solar cell
Any of the above

425. Winds caused by greater solar heating of the earth's surface near the equator
than near the northern or southern poles, are known as
A.
local winds
B.
C.
planetary winds
equatorial winds
D.
trade winds

426.
Local winds are caused by
A.
differential heating of land and water B.
mountains
C.
differential heating of plains and
any of the above

427.
Photovoltaic solar energy conversion system makes use of
A.
fuel cells
C.
solar ponds D.
B.
solar cells
None of the above

428.
Solar cells are made of
A.
silicon B.
germanium
C.
silver D.
aluminium

429.
The voltage of a single solar cell is
A.
0.5 V B.
1V
C.
1.1 V D.
2.1 V

430.
The output of a solar cell is of the order of
A.
0.1 W B.
0.5 W
C.
1W
5W
431.
A module is a
A.
newly installed solar cell B.
D.
series - parallel arrangement of solar cells
C.
a series of solar cells when not used for power generation D.
above
432.
Petrothermal systems are composed of hot dry rock with
None of the
A.
no underground water
B.
C.
petrochemicals
dense gases
D.
large underground water

433. In petrothermal systems of geothermal energy there is hot dry rock but no
underground water. In such systems energy is obtained by
A.
circulating compressed air
B.
C.
creating water wells
None of the above
D.
pumping water

434.
Reflecting mirrors for solar energy are known as
A.
diffusers
B.
ponds
C.
heliostats
D.
mantle

435. Which of the following area is preferred for solar thermal electric power
plants?
A.
Mountain tops
B.
Hot arid zones
C.
Coastal areas
D.
High rainfall zones

436.
In solar thermal conversion systems the solar heat is transferred to
A.
water - steam
B.
C.
molten salts D.
any of the above
liquid metals

437. In geopressured systems, when brine is available as the source of energy, the
power is generated using
A.
heat exhangers
B.
exhaust calorimeters
C.
economisers D.
steam traps

438. In hydrothermal systems when steam water and dissolved solids are available
as source of energy, the entrained solids are removed by
A.
filters B.
centrifugal separators
C.
strainers
D.
None of the above

439.
Presence of sand in geopressured water is likely to cause problems of
A.
erosion
C.
water circulation
B.
heat exchange
D.
All of the above

440.
Presence of non-condensable gases in geopressured water causes
A.
corrosion of parts
B.
pollution
C.
flow problems
D.
All of the above
441. When geothermal energy is available in the form of saline water, power is
developed using
A.
flashed - steam system
B.
C.
total flow system
any of the above
D.
binary - cycle system

442.
Geothermal energy is
A.
a renewable energy source
C.
an inexhaustible energy source D.
B.
an alternative energy source

any of the above

443.
The disadvantage of renewable sources of energy is
A.
lack of dependability
B.
C.
intermittency
All of the above
D.
availability in low energy densities

444. In the geysers steam is continuously vented through fissures in the ground.
These vents are called
A.
vent holes
B.
dot holes
C.
fumaroles
D.
sunspots

445. Geologists believe that below the earth's crust, the molten mass exists in the
form of
A.
magma
B.
vent
C.
hot cell
D.
liquation

446.
In hydrothermal source of geothermal energy
A.
hot water or steam is available B.
C.
molten lava is available
D.
hot gases are available
none of the above
7.FOUNDRY TECHNOLOGY
1.
Electric furnaces can usually operate upto a temperature of
A.
1000?C
B.
1250?C
C.
1700?C
D.
2200?C

2.
Generally for the melting of cast iron, electric furnaces are not used because
A.
cast iron is in the form of broken pieces
temperature for heating
B.
cast iron requires higher
C.
the rate of heating required for melting cast iron connot be provided by
electric furnaces
D.
It is expensive to use electricity for melting of cast iron
3.
Electric indirect are furnace is normally used for melting of
A.
alloy steels B.
C.
non-ferrous metals D.
cast steels
all of the above

4.
Pit furnace can be used for the melting of
A.
cast iron
B.
C.
brass D.
any of the above
aluminium

5.
Oil fired furnaces are generally used for the melting of
A.
cast steel
B.
alloy steel
C.
cast iron
D.
non-ferrous metals

6.
Flux used in cupola while melting cast iron is
A.
lime stone
B.
coke slurry
C.
molasses
D.
any of the above

7.
When sulphur is to be removed from cast iron while melting the same in
cupola, the flux used is
A.
molasses
B.
sodium carbonate with lime stone
C.
zinc sulphate with lime stone
D.
none of the above

8.
In fluminium foundry, for removing dissolved hydrogen and the entrapped
dross, the flux used is
A.
nitrogen
B.
helium
C.
chlorine
D.
any of the above

9.
In melting of aluminium, the dross consists of
A.
oxides of aluminium, magnesium etc. B.
C.
lighter material
D.
sand and dust
none of the above

10.
Use of flux in melting of magnesium
A.
separates out impurities B.
C.
facilitates production of sound cstings D.
prevents burning of magnesium alloys

all of the above
11.
In copper alloy foundry which of the following is used to prevent the molten
metal from being oxidized?
A.
charcoal
B.
C.
phophorous D.
bone ash
calcium carbonate

12.
The disadvantage in using wood as the material for pattern making is
A.
its low cost B.
grains
its different strength along the grains and across the
C.
it gets warped when not stored properly
metal to be cast
D.
it is lighter than the

13.
Which wood can be used for making patterns?
A.
Mathogany B.
Pine wood
C.
Teak wood
any of the above
D.

14.
Normal shrinkage allowance for aluminium is 18 mm per metre and that for
cast iron 10 mm per metre. If the metal pattern is to be made of aluminium and the
casting is to be of cast iron, the shrinkage allowed on wooden master pattern will be
A.
8 mm/metre B.
10 mm/metre
C.
18 mm/metre
D.
28 mm/metre

15.
The drawback with metallic pattern is
A.
excessive weight
B.
expensive
C.
difficult to shape
D.
all of the above

16.
Plaster patterns and core boxes are made of
A.
Plaster of Paris
B.
Gypsum cement
C.
Bone china clay
D.
White powder

17.
Phenolic thermo-setting plastics are finding application in pattern making
because
A.
they do not absorb moisture
B.
they are strong
C.
they are resistant to wear D.
they have all above qualities

18.
Wax patterns are used in
A.
non-ferrous castings
C.
machine moulding process
B.
investment casting process

D.
all of the above

19.
If an old casting is to be used as a pattern, to account for various allowances.
A.
casting is shaken while withdrawing from mould
lagged with thin strips of wood or leater
B.
C.
the castings are cleaned and made smooth
holes can be drilled and tapped in the castings
to provide draw screws,
D.
the surfaces are

20.
When wooden patterns with metallic coating are to be used, the metal
sprayed on wooden pattern could be
A.
bismuth
B.
zinc
C.
aluminium
D.
any of the above
21.
Consumable patterns are made of
A.
polystyrene B.
wax
C.
plaster of paris
D.
any of the above

22.
There is no need for the withdrawal of pattern from the mould in case of
A.
wax patternsB.
C.
patterus with core D.
hollow patterns
consumable patterns
23.
In case of consumable patterns
A.
labour charges are reduced
C.
moulds are unsplit D.
B.
core is not required
all of the above

24.
Polystyrene often used as a consumable pattern material has a relative
density of
A.
20 to 25 kg/m3
B.
C.
1120 to 1125 kg/m3
120 to 125 kg/m3

D.
2240 to 2500 kg/m3

25.
Polystyrene is generally available in the form of
A.
plates B.
C.
square sections
cylindrical bars
D.
trapezoidal moulds

26.
Wood used for pattern making has knots. This is likely to affect
A.
warping of the piece
C.
moisture content of wood D.
B.
machinability of pattern
all of the above

27.
While selecting wood for patterns, one should
A.
discard the rot
C.
select the fresthy filled wood
B.
select the cross-grained woods

D.
discard the seasoned wood

28.
Which wood is difficult to machine?
A.
Freshly failed wood B.
Old and used wood
C.
Kiln dried wood
Seasoned wood
D.

29.
On drying, wood
A.
expands
B.
shrinks
C.
changes colour

30.
On drying the shrinkage of wood is least
A.
along the grains
C.
along the direction of tangent to the annular rings
31.
Pattern maker's contraction rules are
B.
across the grains
A.
different for different materials of patterns
materials of castings
C.
B.
different for different
same for all materials of castings

32.
The contraction allowance for pattern depends on
A.
composition of the metal B.
method of moulding used
C.
pouring temperature
all of the above
D.

33.
The contraction allowance for magnesium is around
A.
1 mm/metre B.
5 mm/metre
C.
14 mm/metre
D.
25 mm/metre

34.
In case of cast steel, the contraction allowance will be least for castings
having dimensions
A.
upto 600 mm
B.
C.
1000 mm to 1800 mm
600 to 1000 mm
D.
above 1800 mm

35.
In case of cored aluminium castings, the contraction allowance is
A.
more than the normal allowanceB.
C.
same as the normal allowance
less than the normal allowance
36.
In case of malleable iron castings, the contraction allowance on pattern
A.
increass as the section thickness of casting increases
the section thickness of casting increases
C.
B.
decreases as
is independent of section thickness

37.
The amount of machining allowance on castings depends on
A.
size and shape of the casting
B.
casting orientation
C.
characteristics of the metal
D.
all of the above

38.
Providing more than adequate machining allowance
A.
improves the strength of the casting
casting
C.
increases machining cost D.
B.
reduces the strength of the
reduces machining cost

39.
The draft allowance to be provided on a pattern depends on
A.
the length of the vertical side of the pattern to be extracted
intricacy of the pattern
C.
the method of moulding D.
B.
all of the above

40.
On the interior surfaces the draft allowance is usually
A.
10 to 20 mm/metreB.
40 to 60 mm/metre
C.
100 to 120 mm/metre
D.
41.
In small castings which of the following allowance can be ignored?
A.
Shrinkage allowance
B.
C.
Draft allowance
Machining allowance
D.
200 to 225 mm/metre
Rapping allowance
the
42.
Distortion in castings can be reduced by
A.
modifying design
C.
improving foundry practice
B.
providing sufficient machining allowance

D.
all of the above

43.
Gated patterns are normally used for
A.
mass production of small castings
not require machining
C.
B.
castings having several hollow spaces D.
production of castings which do

castings for light metals

44.
Skeleton patterns are generally used for
A.
small casting
B.
C.
large castings
D.
hollow castings

45.
Sweep patterns are used to prepare mould of
A.
symmetrical and regular shapes B.
unsymmetrical and regular shapes
C.
unsymmetrical and irregular shapes
D.

46.
Shell patterns are often used for
A.
pipe work
C.
drainage fittings
B.
bends
D.
all of the above

47.
A spoke shave is a
A.
planing tool B.
sawing tool
C.
layout tool
boring tool
D.

48.
All of the following are boring tools EXCEPT:
A.
Gauge
B.
Brace
none of the above
C.
Pinchdog
D.
Auger bit

49.
All of the following are clamping tools EXCEPT:
A.
Hard screw B.
Pich dog
C.
C-clamp
Brace
D.

50.
Which of the following is measuring and layout tool?
A.
Trammels
C.
Marking gauge
51.
The permeability of moulding sand depends on
A.
grain size
C.
moisture content
B.
B.
Combination square
D.
all of the above
grain shape
D.
all of the above

52.
By compacting the sand
A.
density increases and permeability
permeability increases
B.
density decreases and
C.
both density as well as permeability decrease
well as permeability increase
D.
both density as

53.
As the moisture content of sand increases
A.
C.
permeability remains unchanged
B.
permeability decreases

54.
Permeability of sand decreases as
A.
C.
bonding content increases
B.
moisture content increases

D.
all of the above
55.
The sand mass does not fall out of the moulding box but is held firmly in it
when the moulding box is lifted. This is due to the property of
A.
porosity of sand
B.
C.
refractoriness of sand
adhesiveness of sand
D.
plasticity of sand

56.
Cohesiveness of sand depends on
A.
grain size and shape of sand particles B.
C.
moisture content
D.
bonding material
all of the above

57.
Sand acquires a predetermined shape under pressure and retains the same
when pressure is removed. This is due to the property of sand known as
A.
Cohesiveness
B.
Plasticity
C.
Refractoriness
D.
none of the above

58.
The property of sand to withstand the high temperature of the molten metal
without fusing or breakdown is known as
A.
refractoriness
B.
C.
porosity
adhesiveness
D.
cohesiveness

59.
Clay content of green sand is usually
A.
1 to 3 percent
B.
5 to 10 percent
C.
18 to 30 percent
D.
30 to 50 percent

60.
The water content of green sand is usually
A.
1 to 2 percent
B.
6 to 8 percent
C.
12 to 18 percent
D.
20 to 25 percent
61.
Oil used for core sand is
A.
molasses
B.
linseed oil
C.
mineral oil
D.
any of the above

62.
The principal ingredients of moulding sands are
A.
silica sand, carbon and water
C.
silica sand, dust and crabon
moisture
B.
silica sand, clay and water
D.
silica sand, carbon, hydrocarbons and

63.
Which of the following sand must possess high refractoriness?
A.
Backing sand
B.
C.
Facing sand D.
all of the above
Parting sand

64.
Clay used for foundry sand should be
A.
kaolinite
B.
C.
illite
any of the above
D.
montmorillonite

65.
Which grain shape of sand particles is least preferred for foundry sands?
A.
Round B.
C.
Compound
angular

66.
Which of the following is used on moulds for magnesium castings to prevent
metal mould reactions?
A.
Boric sulphur
B.
C.
Charcoal
all of the above
D.
Molasses

67.
Which of the following is used to obtain fine surface finish in ferrous castings?
A.
Ground pitchB.
Sea coal
C.
Gilsonite
D.
any of the above

68.
The burnt on sand causes difficulty in
A.
machining of castings
C.
separation of sand and castings after pouring D.
B.
removal of castings from moulds

all of the above

69.
Which of the following is the anti-penetration material introduced in the
moulding sand?
A.
Coad dust
B.
Powdered quartz
C.
Black oil
D.
all of the above

70.
The amount of coal dust added to moulding sand depends on
A.
shape of the casting
B.
thickness of the casting
C.
temperature of pouring
D.
none of the above
71.
Graphite is sprinkled on to the surface of green sand moulds to
A.
exclude the burn out effect
B.
C.
minimize surface finish
reduce the number of blow holes
D.
improve surface finish

72.
Which of the following is used to increase refractoriness of sand?
A.
Graphite
C.
Iron free zirconium D.
B.
Silica flour
all of the above

73.
Which of the following is used as protective admixture in moulding sand for
magnesium castings?
A.
Boric acid
B.
C.
Fluoric additives
Sublimed sulphur
D.
Any of the above
74.
Head storage capacity of moulding sand can be increased by adding?
A.
graphite
C.
magnesium powder
B.
chromite
D.
any of the above

75.
Addition of saw dust to moulding sand increases its
A.
gas permeability
B.
refractoriness
C.
cohesiveness
D.
all of the above

76.
Shatter test is a measure of
A.
sand toughness
C.
sand cohesiveness D.
B.
sand adhesiveness
none of the above

77.
Which of the following is a screen?
A.
Shovel
B.
Riddle
C.
Rearner
D.
Slick

78.
A slick is mainly used for
A.
making openings in mould
C.
repairing and finishing of mould D.
B.
providing openings in the mould

removing pattern from the mould

79.
Swab is used for
A.
applying water to the mould around the edge of the pattern

shaking pattern to facilitate its with drawl from the mould
C.
repairing and finishing of mould D.
B.
none of the above

80.
Which of the following facilitates shaking and lifting large pattern from the
mould?
A.
TrowelB.
Swab
C.
Bellows
D.
81.
First step in reclaiming the moulding and core sand is
A.
addition of moisture
C.
separation of metal particles
Ripping plate
B.
reproportioning of binder
D.
any of the above

82.
Average amount of sand required in a foundry for making one tonne of
casting is nearly
A.
0.1 tonne
B.
0.2 tonne
C.
2 tonnes
D.
20 tonnes

83.
Which of the following statement is correct?
A.
Less sand is used per tonne of non-ferrous castings than for steel
More sand is used per tonne of non-ferrous castings than for steel
B.

84.
Sand is broadly specified by
A.
grain size
C.
moisture content
B.
colour
D.
all of the above together

85.
The hardness of the mould is affected by the proportion of ingredients in the
sand and
A.
the temperature
B.
C.
degree of ramming D.
refractoriness
shape of particles

86.
Metal moulds are used in
A.
green sand moulding
B.
C.
loam moulding
die casting process
D.
dry sand moulding

87.
When bench moulding is adopted using three boxes, the central box is called
A.
cope B.
cheek
C.
drag D.
none of the above

88.
Sodium silicate in sand in often used as
A.
substitute of clay
C.
refractory material D.
B.
binder
permeability promotion agent

89.
Which of the following process uses organic binder?
A.
Shell moulding
C.
Phenolic isocyanate process
B.
Furan process
D.
All of the above

90.
The advantage of shell moulding is
A.
Less sand requirement
C.
Good accuracy of dimensions
91.
Metal moulds are used in all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Die casting processB.
C.
Permanent mould casting D.
B.
Process can be used for all cast metals

D.
All of the above
Investment casting
Centrifugal casting

92.
In furan process, furan resins are primarily used as
A.
binders
B.
C.
fluxes D.
none of the above
chemicals for exothermic reactions

93.
In furan moulding which of the following is used as a catalyst?
A.
Ammonium hydroxide
B.
Potassium hydroxide
C.
Phosphoric acid
D.
Phenol formaldehyde

94.
In investment casting the pattern is made of
A.
wood B.
urea formaldehyde
C.
wax
none of the above
D.

95.
The advantage of investment casting is
A.
high degree of accuracy B.
C.
complex shaped articles can be cast
adaptability to casting of most of the metals

D.
all of the above

96.
In case of plaster moulding the mould is prepared in
A.
gypsum plaster
B.
slacked lime
C.
lime + cement
D.
any of the above

97.
A drawback is employed when
A.
the pattern is too bulky
B.
the pattern is too long
C.
the pattern cannot be drawn from mould due to projection D.
is not made of wood
the pattern

98.
Blow holes in castings are due to
A.
high moisture content of the sand
C.
excessive fine grains and gas producing ingredients D.
B.
low permeability of sand

any of the above

99.
The defect known as 'drop' occurs when the upper surface of the mould
cracks and pieces of sand fall into the molten metal. This defect occurs due to
A.
low mould hardness
B.
insufficient reinforcement
C.
low green strength D.
any of the above

100.
Scabs may be caused by
A.
low permeability of sand B.
high moisture content of sand
C.
intermittent running of molten metal over the sand surface
the above
101.
Rough surface of casting may result from
A.
high permeability of sand B.
C.
soft ramming
D.
D.
any of
large grain size
any of the above

102.
Which of the following is core hardening process?
A.
CO2 process B.
Cold set process
C.
Furan system
D.
All of the above

103.
Which of the following statement about core is incorrect?
A.
core should be permeable to escape of core gases B.
core should be
capable of collapsing shortly after the molten metal has solidified around it
C.
core should produce maximum amount of gas when in contact with molten
metal D.
core should be capable of collapsing after the molten metal has
solidified around it
104.
Heating of core is necessary while using which of the following core binder?
A.
Phenol formaldehyde resin
C.
Furan-base binder D.
B.
Phenolic alcohols
All of the above

105.
Chaplets are
A.
core binders B.
core supports
C.
core projections
D.
mould seats to support core
106.
Chaplets are provided to
A.
reduce core sag
C.
compensate for inadequate coreseats D.
B.
support heavy cores

all of the above

107.
Chaplets are made of
A.
core sand
B.
C.
wood D.
metal
organic matter

108.
Tin coated low carbon steel chaplets are used in
A.
ferrous foundries
C.
B.
non-ferrous foundries

109.
Which of the following statement about gates is incorrect?
A.
he size of gate depends upon the rate of solidification
is used for castings which solidify rapidly
B.
A small gate
C.
More than one gate may be used to feed a fast freezing casting D.
should not have sharp edges
110.
The cross-section of a sprue
A.
square
C.
rectangular D.
111.
Sprues are generally
A.
uniform size B.
C.
tapered upwards
B.
circular
any of the above
tapered downwards

112.
The design of gate should be such as to
A gate
A.
avoid erosion of cores and mould cavity
B.
eroded sand particles from entering the mould cavity
prevent scum, slag and
C.
all of the above
minimize turbulence and dross formation
D.

113. Which of the following defect may occur due to improper design of gating
system?
A.
Cold shuts
B.
Rough surfaces
C.
Misruns
D.
any of the above

114.
High pouring rate leads to
A.
mould erosion
C.
excessive shrinkage
B.
rough surface
D.
any of the above

115. Which of the following defect is likely to occur due to improper design of
gatting system?
A.
Shrinkage
B.
C.
Mould erosion
Porosity
D.
any of the above

116.
Shell moulding is a process in which
A.
a thin shell is cast in sand mould
B.
a strong core is prepared
C.
a mould comprising thin shell is produced by mixing dry silica and resin
binder
117.
Of the following metals, the pouring rate should be minimum for
A.
steel B.
aluminium
C.
brass D.
cast iron
118. If dross and slag along with the liquid metal reach the mould cavity they
produce the defect known as
A.
misrun
B.
inclusions
C.
blow holes
D.
all of the above

119.
Slag and dross can be removed by
A.
skimming from the molten metal
C.
using pouring basin in place of a pouring cup D.
B.
using bottom pouring ladle

any of the above

120.
Hot spots are generally found in castings
A.
having abrupt variation in section
B.
C.
symmetrical about two axes
small in weight but large in volume
121.
Solidification time for riser should be
A.
less than that of the casting
C.
more than that of the casting
D.
B.
with uniform cross-section
same as that for the casting

122.
According to Chvorinov's equation, the solidification time of castings is
A.
directly proportional to the volume of the castings
proportional to square of the volume of the casting
C.
B.
Directly
inversely proportional to square of the volume of the casting

inversely proportional to the volume the casting
D.

123.
The most efficient shape of a series is that which
A.
given a minimum heat loss
longer period
C.
B.
keeps the metal in molten state for

124.
The method in which green sand is generally used is
A.
pit moulding B.
plate moulding
C.
bench moulding
D.
none of the above

125.
The location of riser least depends on
A.
the metal to be cast
B.
C.
design of casting
feasibility of directional solidification
D.
the size of core

126.
A blind riser can be located
A.
in cope
C.
in either cope or drag
B.
in drag
D.
in cheek only

127.
Padding is
A.
a method for production of chilled castings
castings
C.
B.
an extra support for thin
an extra metal added to the original uniform section of the casting

none of the above

128.
The solidification shrinkage of magnesium alloys is about
A.
0.1 percent B.
1 percent
C.
4 percent
14 percent
D.

129.
The solidification shrinkage of carbon steel is around
A.
0.1 to 0.2 percent B.
0.5 to 1 percent
C.
2 to 4 percent
8 to 10 percent
D.

130.
Melting point of copper
A.
665?C B.
1083?C
D.
C.
1444?C
D.
1576?C
131.
Gold melts at
A.
1063?C
B.
1444?C
C.
2100?C
D.
3300?C

132.
Which of the following metals has the lowest melting point?
A.
Aluminium
B.
C.
Brass D.
Silver
Magnesium

133.
Which of the following metals has the lowest melting point?
A.
Magnesium B.
C.
Zinc
D.
Silver
Tin

134.
Highest melting point metal is
A.
Tungsten
B.
C.
Steel D.
cast iron
Nickel

135.
A pit furnace can be used for the melting of
A.
cast iron
B.
brass
C.
aluminium
D.
all of the above

136.
Pig iron is obtained from iron ore, in a blast furnace by the process of
A.
oxidation
C.
carbonation D.
B.
reduction
desulphurisation

137.
A blast furnace operates continuously for
A.
hours together
B.
days together
C.
weeks together
D.
months together

138.
Slag in a blast furnace is
A.
lighter than molten iron
B.
heavier than molten iron

139.
Hot blast of air is supplied to the blast furnace through
A.
stovesB.
tuyers
C.
prop
spout
D.

140. A cupola one metre in diameter and 4 metres in height will melt in one hour
about
A.
0.5 tonnes of iron B.
2 tonnes of iron
C.
5 tonnes of iron
10 tonnes of iron
141.
If ash content of coke used in cupola is high then
A.
melting rate will be low
D.
B.
more of flux will be required
C.
castings produced will have blow holes D.
be low
142.
Coke used in cupola is in the form of
A.
coal dust
B.
C.
lumps D.
any of the above
pulverized coal

143.
Thermal efficiency of cupola is in the range
A.
80 to 90 percent
B.
60 to 75 percent
C.
50 to 65 percent
D.
30 to 50 percent
carbon content of castings will
144.
The disadvantage of hot blast cupola is
A.
low coke consumption
C.
reduced output silicon loss
B.
reduced silicon loss

D.
all of the above

145.
The advantage of oxygen enriched cupola is
A.
higher temperature of molten iron
B.
high efficiency of cupola
C.
reduced heat loss in waste gases
D.
all of the above

146. During the passage of molten metal through the coke, the carbon percentage
of the molten metal increases. The absorption of carbon depends on
A.
size of the coke
B.
temperature
C.
time allowed for molten metal to remain in the cupola
above
D.
all of the

147. As a result of melting of cast iron in cupola, which of the following constituent
undergoes least change in its percentage?
A.
SiliconB.
Sulphur
C.
Manganese D.
Phosphorous

148. As a result of melting in cupola, the percentage of all of the following
constituents decreases EXCEPT:
A.
SiliconB.
Sulphur
C.
Carbon
D.
Phosphorous

149.
Which inoculant is used to produced ductile iron?
A.
Magnesium B.
Carbon
C.
Graphite
Fluorides
D.
150.
Contraction of metal starts at the end of
A.
liquid stage B.
mushy stage
C.
plastic stage D.
solid stage
151.
Permanent mould casting is also known as
A.
gravity die casting B.
C.
slush castingD.
chill casting
short casting

152.
The advantage of permanent mould casting is
A.
reduced labour charges
C.
dense, fine grained structure
B.
reduced mould cost

D.
all of the above

153.
The advantage of centrifugal casting is
A.
dense castings
C.
mass production with reduced rejection possible
B.
elimination of cores
D.
all of the above

154.
Which of the following metal can be cast in plaster moulds?
A.
Yellow brass B.
C.
Aluminium bronzes D.
Manganese
All of the above

155.
Investment casting is also known as
A.
lost wax casting
C.
hot investment casting
B.
lost pattern casting

D.
any of the above

156. Which of the following is not necessarily the characteristic of investment
casting?
A.
Extreme dimensional accuracy B.
Excellent surface finish
C.
Low cost
D.
cope and drag methods
No disfiguring parting line as found on castings made by

157.
The advantage of investment casting is
A.
Sound costings are produced
C.
Close tolerances can be achieved
B.
Inricate shapes can be cast

D.
All of the above

158.
Investment casting finds application in all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Milling cutters
C.
Jet engine nozzles D.
B.
Gold ornaments
Buckets for superchargers

159.
Investment casting can be used for which of the following alloys:
A.
cobalt based satellite
B.
C.
Hynes super alloys D.
All of the above
Tool steels

160.
Inoculants are added to aluminium mainly for
A.
grain refinement
B.
C.
purification D.
all of the above
161.
Magnesium aluminium alloys are grain refined by addition of
A.
sulphur
B.
manganese
C.
carbon
D.
tin
directional solidification

162.
For grey cast iron the pouring temperature is
A.
1510 to 1532?C
B.
1455 to 1495?C
C.
1400 to 1465?C
D.
1250 to 1290?C

163.
In case of copper, the pouring temperature is around
A.
1450?C
B.
1260?C
C.
1160?C
D.
1060?C

164.
Lowest pouring temperature alloy is
A.
Tin bronze
C.
Monel metal D.
B.
Phosphor bronze
Cupro nickel alloy

165.
For aluminium alloys grain refinement can be achieved using
A.
titanium
B.
boron
C.
zirconium
D.
any of the above

166.
Which of the following process is used for melting of steel?
A.
L D process B.
Kaldo process
C.
Duplex process
D.
All of the above

167.
In case of arc furnaces electric supply for electrodes consists of
A.
low voltage and high current
B.
high voltage and high current
C.
high voltage and low current
D.
low voltage and low current

168.
Composition of cast iron can be better controlled when melted in
A.
pit furnace
C.
arc furnace D.
B.
cupola
none of the above

169.
Which parameter can be used for the measurement of melt in a foundry?
A.
Thermo couple pyrometerB.
Optical pyrometer
C.
Radiation pyrometer
none of the above
D.

170.
Shell moulding can be used for
A.
producing thin castings
C.
tolerances of the order of 0.002 mm per mm D.
B.
better surface finish

all of the above
171. As compared to green sand in shell moulding cooling rate of cast metal is
slow. Hence as compared to green sand castings, shell moulded castings will have
A.
larger grain size
B.
smaller grain size

172.
Shell moulding is uneconomical for
A.
small castings
C.
small scale production
B.
large scale production

D.
all of the above

173.
Malleable castings are used for
A.
boilers
B.
Automobiles
C.
Elevators
D.
all of the above

174.
Die casting dies are generally made of
A.
cast iron
C.
alloy steels D.
B.
aluminium alloys
bronze

175.
Die casting is generally not used for
A.
zinc base alloys
C.
non-ferrous metals D.
B.
aluminium base alloys

cast iron

176.
The function of ejection pin in die casting is to
A.
pushout casting off the die
C.
facilitate die casting of several components
B.
provide movable core spaces

D.
none of the above

177.
Flash occurs on diecastings at the
A.
parting surface of two dies
C.
ejection pins D.
B.
vents between the dies
gatting system

178.
Hairlines in die casted materials result from
A.
chemical attack
B.
mechanical erosion
C.
thermal fatigue
D.
all of the above

179.
The melting unit is an integral part of
A.
the cold chamber diecastings machine B.
machine
C.
the hot chamber die casting

180.
Shaving of die casted parts is the process of removal of
A.
sprue B.
flash
C.
runner
D.
181.
Chemical dipping of die casted parts is usually done for
A.
flash removal
C.
corrosion protection
none of the above
B.
dimensional stability
D.
none of the above

182.
In die castings, heavy local sections are usually avoided and replaced by
A.
channel sections
C.
ribs
D.
B.
corrugated forms
any of the above

183.
The order of dimensional accuracy in die casting is nearly
A.
0.004 percent
B.
0.04 percent
C.
0.4 percent D.
4 percent

184.
The order of surface finish possible in die castings is
A.
0.0008 microns
B.
C.
0.08 micronsD.
0.8 microns
0.008 microns

185. When external features of the castings are important, which of the following
method of casting is preferred?
A.
Die casting B.
Dry sand casting
C.
Slush casting
D.
Carbondioxide casting

186.
In case of carbondioxide moulding, the binder used is generally
A.
sodium silicate
B.
C.
coal dust
graphite
D.
china clay

187.
In carbondioxide moulding the pressure of carbondioxide is around
A.
1.5 kg/cm2 B.
15 kg/cm2
C.
150 kg/cm2 D.
500 kg/cm2

188.
Carbondioxide moulding is useful for
A.
very thin sections B.
C.
heavy and thick walled sections D.
regular sections
all of the above

189.
Pneumatic tools find application in foundries normally for
A.
fin removal B.
surface finish
C.
filling of cavities
D.
none of the above
190. All of the following operations on castings are carried out for surface
appearance improvement EXCEPT:
A.
Enamelling B.
Electroplating
C.
Galvanising D.
Chilling
191. Which of the following operations improve wear resistance and mechanical
properties of castings?
A.
Shot peening
B.
C.
Nitriding
All of the above
D.
Chilling

192.
Aluminium castings are not repaired by
A.
inert gas metal arc welding
C.
soldering
D.
B.
braze welding
All of the above

193.
Warped castings may be produced due to
A.
poor collapsibility of cores
the pattern
C.
weak flasks D.
B.
non-provision of camber allowance on
any of the above

194.
Swelling of castings may occur due to
A.
insufficient ramming
C.
insufficient weight on the moulds during pouring
B.
rapid pouring of molten metal

D.
any of the above

195. Which of the following holes appear on the surface of the casting when it is
machined?
A.
Blow holes
B.
Pin holes
C.
Gas holes
D.
Slag holes

196.
Shrinkage cavity in a casting may be formed due to
A.
haphazard solidification of metal
B.
C.
high pouring temperatures
any of the above
D.
improperly sized gating

197. A defect in castings in which a discontinuity is formed due to the imperfect
fusion of two streams of metal in the mould cavity is known as
A.
hot tears
B.
C.
scabs D.
drops
cold shut

198. All of the following are non-destructive method of testing the castings
EXCEPT:
A.
Pressure testB.
Ultrasonic test
C.
Tensile test D.
Dye penetrant inspection

199.
Which of the following test on castings is based on sound?
A.
Impact test B.
Percussion test
C.
Radiographic
D.
Magnetic particle inspections

200.
In radiography test on castings which of the following rays are never used?
A.
X-rays B.
C.
gamma rays D.
201.
Heat treatment of castings is usually done for
A.
refinement of grain structure
B.
C.
relieving internal stress
any of the above
beta rays
all of the above
D.
improving machinability

202.
Tempering is generally done to reduce all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Brittleness
B.
Ductility
C.
Hardness
D.
Tensile strength

203.
For stress relieving, castings are
A.
heated to low temperature and furnace cooled
and air cooled
C.
B.
heated by flame
heated to a temperature around melting point and slowly cooled D.

heated in stages and also cooled in stages

204.
Local stress relief treatments are generally given to
A.
B.
C.
too large castings D.
all castings
small castings

205.
Which heat treatment is applicable to aluminium alloy castings?
A.
Stabilizing
C.
Artificial ageing
B.
Solution heat treatment

D.
all of the above

206.
For annealing of aluminium it is heated to
A.
325?C B.
425?C
C.
525?C D.
625?C

207.
Annealing of aluminium castings
A.
reduces tensile strength B.
improves ductility
C.
relieves micro stresses
mechanical properties change
D.

208.
The percentage of sulphur in pig iron is generally
A.
0.01% to 0.3%
B.
0.3% to 0.55%
C.
0.6% to 0.79%
D.
0.8% to 0.9%

209.
Pure iron melts at 1500?C. Presence of carbon
A.
reduces the melting point B.
C.
does not change the melting point
increases the melting point

210.
Presence of sulphur in cast iron
A.
retards fluidity
C.
promotes oxidation D.
211.
Grey cast iron is
A.
costlier than other varieties of cast iron
C.
resistant to shock D.
B.
promotes brittleness
all of the above
B.
poor in machining ability
least fluid in molten condition

212.
Graphitic cast iron is
A.
hard
C.
high in compressive strength
B.
non-machinable
D.
low in damping capacity

213.
White cst iron contains
A.
free graphiteB.
cementite
C.
free carbon D.
none of the above

214.
Addition of nickel to cast iron increases
A.
hardness
C.
tensile strength
B.
corrosion resistance
D.
all of the above

215.
Molybdenum upto 1.5% is added to cast iron to
A.
improve strength
B.
C.
increase machinability
reduce wear resistance

D.
all of the above

216.
Which of the following is very powerful carbide former in cast iron?
A.
SiliconB.
Vanadium
C.
Chromium
D.
Nickel

217.
Which of the following cast iron is resistant to attack by sea water?
A.
Low chromium cast iron
B.
Low nickel cast iron
C.
Low sulphur cost iron
D.
Low phosphorous cast iron

218.
High silicon irons are
A.
resistant to wear
B.
C.
malleable
brown in colour
D.
machinable

219.
Which variety of cast iron can be forged?
A.
Grey cast iron
B.
C.
Wrought ironD.
All of the above
High silicon cast iron

220.
Alloy containing 70% nickel and 30% copper is known as
A.
hastalloy
B.
monel metal
C.
N-c alloy
D.
permalloy
221. Non-uniform distribution of alloying components, inclusions and impurities in

an ingot or casting are known as
A.
segregation B.
ageing
C.
innoculation D.
bleeding

222. Casting made in relatively simple shapes and designed for subsequent
fabrication by rolling, forging etc. are known as
A.
rolls
B.
C.
ingots D.
chills
pigs

223.
Refractories should have all the following properties EXCEPT:
A.
Minimum contraction and expansion due to temperature variations

High electrical conductivity
C.
Long life
D.
B.
Heat insulation

224.
For sterite refractory bricks are attacked by
A.
basic slags
C.
alkali compounds
B.
acid slags
D.
all of the above

225.
Pattern used in foundry shop is
A.
Equal in size to the casting
casting
C.
B.
Somewhat larger in size than the
Somewhat smaller in size than the casting

226.
Contraction allowance for grey cast iron is (in mm/m)
A.
30
C.
21
B.
10.5

227.
Pattern draft for internal surfaces is
A.
Less than that for external surfaces
surfaces
C.
Equal to that for external surfaces
B.
More than that for external

228.
Pattern draft for external surfaces is (in mm/m)
A.
15 -- 50
C.
40 - 60
B.
10 -- 25

229.
Pattern draft for internal surfaces is (in mm/m)
A.
10 -- 30
C.
50 - 80
B.
40 - 70

230. Hand tool used in foundry shop for mixing and conditioning the foundry sand
is termed
A.
Riddle B.
Shovel
231. The rammer used for packing the sand in pockets/corners of a mould is
known as
A.
Floor rummer
C.
Hand rammer
B.
Peen rammer

232.
Rammer used for moulding the sand in large mould known as
A.
Peen rammer
C.
Hand rammer
B.
Floor rammer

233. The tool used to make small holes in the sand mould to allow passage of
gases/steam is known as
A.
Draw spike
C.
Draw screw
B.
Vent wire

234. The moulding tool used for finishing/repairing the sand mould after pattern
withdrawal is termed as
A.
Trowels
C.
Slincks
B.
Lifters or cleaners

235.
The sprue pin/sprue hole used for sand moulds is
A.
Tapered upwards
C.
Has no taper at all
B.
Tapered downwards

236.
The lower portion of the moulding flasks are known as
A.
Cope B.
C.
Cheek
Drag

237. The property of the foundry sand which enables it to adhere to the surface of
other materials is termed
A.
Cohesiveness
C.
Either of (A) or (B)
B.
Adhesiveness

238.
Refractoriness in the moulding sand is due to the presence of
A.
Clay
C.
Additives and Binders
B.
Silica

239.
Permeability of moulding sand is increased due to/by
A.
Hard ramming
C.
Clay
B.
Soft ramming

240.
Sand grains which give high mould strength are
A.
Rounded grains
C.
Sub-angular grains
B.
Sharp or Angular grains
241.
The "Green sand" is termed so, because
A.
it is green in colour B.
C.
none of the above
it contains moisture

242. The sand used for sprinkling on the patterns/parting surface of the mould is
known as
A.
Floor sand
C.
Dry-sand
B.
Parting sand

243.
The sand used for filling the bulk of the moulding flask
A.
Facing sand B.
C.
Dry-sand
Floor sand

244.
The purpose of clay in a moulding sand is to
A.
Mak the mould permeable
C.
Make the mould refractory
B.
Act as a binder in the mould

245.
Moisture content of the moulding sand is commonly
A.
1% - 4%
C.
5% - 15%
B.
2% - 8%

246.
A designer would attempt to avoid bosses and pads in the casting because
A.
it is difficult to incorporate in pattern
pressence of boss
B.
C.
mould formation is difficult in
projections such as bosses and pads can not merge with thinner sections
D.
they being thicker will take longer to solidify and hence will suffer from
residual stresses and coarse grains
247.
Cores are made from core sand mixed with the binder which may be
A.
linseed oil
B.
turpentine
C.
cement
D.
none of the above

248. Silica is the second most important constituent of moulding sand which
provides
A.
binding strength
B.
C.
chemical resistance
refractoriness
D.
none of the above

249.
The strength of the sand is high if grains are
A.
round and small
C.
large and regular in shape
B.
sharp and irregular in shape

D.
none of the above

250.
Which statement is not true for green sand moulding?
A.
Moulds are cheapest
B.
Preparation of moulds is less time consuming
C.
Defect free and castings with good surface is obtained
above
D.
none of the
251.
Choose the correct statement in respect of die casting machine
A.
In hot chamber die casting machine the metal is melted in the machine itself
B.
In cold chamber die casting machine metal of low melting point is cast
C.
In cold chamber die casting machine there is no need to cool the die from
outside
D.
none of the above
252. A casting process which can produce cylinders by inserting cores into molten
metal poured in the mould is
A.
Semi permanent mould casting B.
pressed casting
C.
permanent mould or gravity die casting
D.
none of the above
253.
Aluminium is not a very good material for die casting because
A.
it is very light but strong B.
its melting point is high, it erodes the die
surface and tends to react chemically with die
C.
it cools much slowly
D.
none of the above

254.
Core prints are
A.
made separately in the mould by hand B.
pattern
C.
attached to patternD.
made in the mould be separate
none of the above

255.
In die casting
A.
the product surface is smooth and clean without the parting line B.
is no need of air venting
C.
cast
there is no restriction of material, any material that can be poured can be

D.
the heat loss from molten metal is fast as the mould is metallic

256.
The thicker sections of casting will have a tendency to have
A.
grains coarser than thinner sections
sections
C.
there
B.
grains of sme size as rest of the casting
grains finer than thinner

D.
none of the above

257. A mould which has good erosion resistance to metal flow and is also
collapsible is
A.
green sand mould B.
skin dry sand mould
C.
dry sand mould
none of the above
D.

258.
The most suitable metals for die casting are
A.
zinc and its alloys B.
C.
aluminium and its alloys D.
copper and its alloys

none of the above

259. Moulding sand properties that depend upon size and shape of grains and
bonding material are
A.
permeability and plasticity
B.
C.
adhesiveness and cohesiveness D.
plasticity and adhesiveness

cohesiveness and permeability

260.
Mixing coal dust with moulding sand results in
A.
blackening of the mould B.
C.
good air venting
261.
A casting process which can produce hollow cylinder without use of core is
A.
permanent mould casting B.
C.
pressed casting
D.
D.
strong mould
none of the above
semi permanent mould casting
none of the above

262.
In low temperature die casting the metals whose alloys are cast are
A.
aluminium and zincB.
zinc and copper
C.
copper, zinc and lead
D.
none of the above

263.
A mould cracks after drying. It indicates
A.
excess of clay
C.
coarse irregular grains
B.
lack of clay
D.
none of the above

264.
The function of riser is
A.
to provide an opening through which molten metal is poured
give an indication that mould is filled
B.
to
C.
to allow the heat of molten metal to dissipate to atmosphere
D.
supply molten metal to casting as it tends to contract during solidification
to
265.
For producing several similar parts from a single mould the moulding used is
A.
bench moulding
B.
floor moulding
C.
plate moulding
D.
none of the above

266.
The residual stresses in casting occur due to
A.
sand particles being taken into molten metal while pouring
insufficient gate size
C.
B.
the differential solidification rate of thin and thick sections of casting

none of the above
the
D.

267.
The methods of casting for producing ornamental pieces are
A.
pressed and slush casting B.
C.
gravity and semi permanent mould casting
slush and gravity casting

D.
none of the above
8.STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
1.
In case of non-dilatent materials, the maximum value of Poisson's ratio is
A.
0.25
B.
0.33
C.
0.47
D.
0.5
E.
0.6

2.
The shape of the Kem area for a rectangular section is
A.
Circle B.
Square
C.
Rectangle
D.
E.
Rhombus
Parallelogram

3.
If Young's modulus of elasticity is determined for mild steel in tension and
compression, the two values will have a ratio (Et/Er) of
A.
B.
0.5
C.
1.2
D.

4.
The number of elastic constants for a completely anisotropic elastic material
which follows Hooke's law, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
21
E.
25

5.
A material which undergoes no deformation till its yield point is reached and
A.
Elasto-plastic
B.
Plasto-electric
C.
Rigid-plastic D.
Rigid-elastic

6.
Strain rosettes are generally used for
A.
Measurement of load
C.
Measurement of resilience
E.
Measurement of longitudinal strains
B.
Measurement of shear strain

D.
Measurement of proof stress

7.
The column with highest equivalent length has
A.
Both ends fixed
C.
One end fixed other end hinged D.
B.
Both ends hinged and pin jointed

None of the above

8.
A dead load is
A.
One that does not exist
C.
One that can be neglected
E.
One that remains constant.
B.
One that is dead

D.
One that does not move
9.
A live load is one that
A.
Remains constant B.
C.
Has lived and is no more in existence D.
E.
Varies continuously
Cannot be neglected
Varies with time

10.
Strain is
A.
The change in metals
B.
The change in shape and direction in metal
C.
The result of load application on a body
produced in a piece by the action of load
E.
None of the above
11.
Tensile stress is
A.
Stress due to any force
B.
D.
The change of form
Stress due to change in length under a load
C.
Stress caused by varying load D.
Stress measured by the ratio of the
increase or decrease in length of the unloaded piece
E.
Stress measured by the ratio of the increase or decrease in length of the
unloaded piece under tensile force
12.
Poisson's ratio for cast iron is
A.
0.27
B.
0.31
C.
0.33
D.
0.36
E.
0.38

13.
A material which recovers fully after unloading but not instantaneously is
known as
A.
PlasticB.
Elastic
C.
Partially elastic
E.
Inelastic
D.
Anelastic
14.
The safe value of stress under which a member subjected to reversible
tensile or compressive stress will not fail is known as
A.
Safe stress
B.
Proof stress
C.
Elastic limit stress D.
E.
Fatigue stress
Endurance limit

15.
The numerical values of Young's modulus of elasticity in descending order for
wood, lead, glass, steel and phospor brouze is given by
A.
Steel, Phosphor-bronze, Glass, Lead and Wood
Phosphor-bronze, Lead Wood
B.
C.
Steel, Wood, Lead Phosphor-bronze, Glass
Phosphor-bronze, Glass
Steel, Lead, Wood,
E.
D.
Steel, Glass,
Steel, Phosphor-bronze, Wood, Glass, Lead

16.
The average values of modulus of rigidity for Aluminium. Brass Copper, Nickel
and Steel in desceading order are given by
A.
Aluminium, Brass, Copper, Nickel, Steel
Nickel, Brass, Steel
B.
Aluminium, Copper,
C.
Aluminium, Nickle, Steel, Brass, Copper
Aluminium, Nickel, Steel
D.
Brass, Copper,
E.
Steel, Nickle, Copper, Brass, Aluminium

17.
The numerical value of Young's modulus of elasticity in ascending order for
glass, aluminium, copper, wrought iron and tungsten are given by
A.
Tungsten, wrought, iron, copper, aluminium, glass
copper, aluminium, glass, tungsten
B.
Wrought iron,
C.
Copper, aluminium, glass, tungsten, wrought iron
copper, wrought, iron, tungsten
D.
Aluminium, glass,
E.
Glass, aluminium, copper, wrought, iron, tungsten
18.
The numerical values of Young's modulus of clasticity in ascending order for
Aluminium, Bronze, Brass, Inconel and Muntz metal are given by
A.
Muntz metal, Brass, Aluminium, Bronze, Inconel
Aluminium, Bronze, Brass, Inconel
B.
Muntz metal,
C.
Inconel, Muntz metal, Aluminium, Bronze, Brass
Muntz metal, Inconel, Brass
D.
Aluminium, Bronze,
E.
Aluminium, Bronze, Brass, Muntz metal, Inconel.

19.
The loss of strength in compression with simultaneous gain in srength in
tension due to overloading is known as
A.
Hysteresis
B.
Inelasticity
C.
Creep D.
Banschinger effect
E.
Visco-elasticity

20.
A material capable of absorbing large amounts of energy is known as
A.
Ductile
B.
Shock proof
C.
Resilient
D.
Hard
E.
Tough
21.
The point of contraflexure occurs in
A.
Simply supported beams only
B.
C.
Continuous beam only
Overhanging beams only
E.
All types of beams
D.
Cantilever beams only

22.
The slenderness ratio of vertical comumn of square cross-section of 2.5 cm
sides and 600 cm length is
A.
100
B.
200
C.
500
D.
900
E.
1000

23.
Materials exhibiting time bound behaviour are known as
A.
Isentropic
B.
C.
Fissile D.
Visco elastic
E.
Anelastic
Reactive

24.
Unsymmetrical bending is said to occur when
A.
The beam cross-section is unsymmetrical
not coincide with neutral axis
B.
C.
The bending moment diagram is unsymmetrical
subjected to thrust in addition to bending moment
The shear centre does

D.
The beam is
E.
The beam is subjected to loads that do not lie in a plane containing a
principal axis
25.
Along the principal plane subjected to maximum principal shear
A.
The maximum shear stress acts B.
C.
No shear stress acts
E.
None of the above
D.
The minimum shear stress acts
Any of the above

26.
The failure of a material under varying load, after a number of cycles of such
load, is known as
A.
Ductile failure
B.
Brittle failure
C.
Impact failure
D.
Hysteresis failure
E.
Fatigue failure

27.
Within elastic limits the greatest amount of strain energy per unit volume
that a material can absorb is known as
A.
Shock proof energyB.
Resilience
C.
Proof resilience
E.
Strain hardening
D.
Impact energy limit

28.
The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear stress for a circular
section is
A.
B.
2?3
C.
3?2
D.
3?4
E.
4?3

29.
A body having similar properties throughout its volume is said to be
A.
Homogeneous
B.
C.
Isentropic
Contimuous
E.
Uniform
D.
Isotropic

30.
The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions are
called
A.
Homogeneous
B.
C.
Isentropic
Inelastic
E.
Visco-elastic
D.
Isotropic
31.
A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces of the same type on all its
faces. The ratio volumetric strain/liner strain in any of the three xes will be
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

32.
a diagram which respresents the variation of axial load along the length of
simply supported beam is called
A.
Shear force diagram
B.
Bending moment diagram
C.
Stress diagram
E.
None of the above
D.
Thrust diagram

33.
For a beam of uniform strength if its depth is maintained constant, then its
width will vary in proportion to
A.
Bending Moment, BM
C.
(BM) D.
E.
None of the above
B.
(BM)2
(BM)3

34.
The ratio of Bulk modulus to shear modulus for Poisson's ratio of 0.25 will be
A.
3?2
B.
5?6
C.
D.
5?3
E.
2?3

35.
A masonry dam is liable to fail
A.
By sliding on the soil on which it rests B.
C.
Due to tensile stress developed D.
E.
Any of the above
Over overturning
Due to excessive compressive stresses

36.
The bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to bending
moment at the end of the beam would be
A.
Rectangle
B.
Triangle
C.
Parabola
D.
Cubic parabola
E.
None of the above

37.
The stress strain curve for a glass rod during tensile test would exhibit
A.
A straight line
B.
A parabola
C.
A sudden break
E.
None of the above
D.
An irregular curve

38.
Clad metals are
A.
together
B.
Two or more dissimilar materials riveted
C.
Two or more dissimilar materials joined together by welding
D.
Two or
more dissimilar materials jointed together under very high hydraulic pressure
E.
None of the above

39.
When a strip made of iron and copper is heated
A.
It bends
C.
Iron bends on convex side
E.
None of the above
B.
It gets twisted
D.
Iron bends on concave side

40.
be
If shear force is zero along a section, the bending moment at that section will
A.
Zero B.
Minimum
C.
Maximum
D.
E.
There is no correlation between the two
41.
Static loading of a specimen
A.
Is done in steps
Minimum or Maximum
B.
Is done by continuously increasing the work load
C.
Is done by applying load in a short period during specified intervals

D.
Is done by applying the load slowly enough so that all parts of the specimen
are in equilibrium at any instant
E.
None of the above

42.
When the deformation arising from change of temperature is presented, the
stresses set up are known as
A.
Compressive stresses
B.
C.
Shear stresses
Thermal stresses
E.
None of the above
D.
Tensile stresses

43.
The potential energy stored up in a deformed body is known as
A.
Strain energy
B.
C.
Resilience
Deformation energy
E.
None of the above
D.
Potential energy

44.
Two rods A and B are subjectd to equal load P. Rod A is tapering with bigger
diameter D at the support and small end diameter as D/2. Rod B is of uniform cross
section with diameter D. The ratio of elongation of rod A to that of B would be
A.
C.
B.

45.
A load of 10,000 kg is applied to copper cylinder 20 cm long and 5 cm in
diameter causes the length to increase by 4 mm and diameter to decrease by 0.4
mm. The Poisson's ratio for copper would be
A.
0.23
B.
0.33
C.
0.25
D.
0.6
E.
0.4

46.
A non-wielding support means
A.
Support that does not elongate B.
the load is removed
Support that restores elongation after
C.
Support holds the load firmly and safely
E.
Slope of the beam at the support is zero
D.
Support is frictionless
47.
The modulus of rigidity is defined as
A.
The ratio of true stress to true strain
shear strain
B.
The ratio of shear stress to
C.
The ratio of longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain D.
twisting moment to cross-sectional area
E.
The ratio of
None of the above

48.
In design of a shaft, pulley and key for a system
A.
Shaft is the weakest member
B.
Pulley is the weakest member
C.
Key is the weakest member
D.
All are designed equally strong
E.
None of the above

49.
In a universal testing machine during the testing of a specimen of original
cross-sectional area 1 cm2 the maximum load appliied was 7.5 tonnes and neck
area 0.6 sq. cm. The ultimate tensile strength of the specimen is
A.
12.5 tonnes/cm2
B.
10.0 tonnes/cm2
C.
7.5 tonnes/cm2
D.
4.5 tonnes/cm2
E.
None of the above

50.
The moment of inertia of an area is always least with respect to
A.
Bottom most axis
B.
C.
Central axis D.
Vertical axis
E.
None of the above
Radius of gyration
51.
The approximate value of allowable stress for carbon steel under static
loading (in kg/cm2) is:
A.
500 - 1000
B.
C.
10,000 - 15,000
E.
20,000 - 25,000
4000 - 7500
D.
15,000 - 20,000

52.
Rupture stress is
A.
Proof stress B.
Breaking stress
C.
Highest value of stress
D.
Stress given by dividing the load at the
moment of incipient fracture, by the area supporting that load
E.
Stress at breaking point

53.
If two unequal rolling loads of unequal weight roll along a beam, the
maximum bending moment will occur
A.
Under heavy load B.
Under light load when centre of the beam bisects
the distance between the resultant of the loads and light wheel
C.
Under heavy load when the centre of the beam oisects the distance between
the resultant of the loads and ligh wheel
D.
Under heavy load when the
centre of the load is at the centre of beam
E.
Under heavy load when the centre of the lighy load is at the centre of the
beam.
54.
A continuous beam is
A.
One which is constrained at both ends B.
supports
One resting upon several
C.
One which is part of a system consisting of a number of beams
which is very long as compared to width of beam
E.
D.
One
None of the above

55.
In a compression test the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along
A.
An oblique plane
C.
iron
A light angles to the specimen axis
E.
None of the above
B.
Along the axis of load

D.
Fracture will not occur in cast
56.
The amount of resilience is equal to
A.
The work required to deform the body zero stress to stress within elastic limit
B.
Elastic energy stored in unit area of material
C.
Equal to the area of the stress deformation diagram D.
None of the above

57.
A beam of uniform strength is one in which
A.
The cross-section is same throughout B.
every section
The bending moment is same at
C.
The stiffness is same at every section D.
every section
The bending stress is same at
E.
The load on fibres is same at every section

58.
If a rectangular shaft is subjected to torsion, the maximum sher stress will
occur
A.
Along the diagonal B.
At the comers
C.
At the centreD.
E.
At the middle of the longer side
At the middle of the small side

59.
A beam simply supported at ends is subjected to load. The point of
contraflexure is located where
A.
Shear force is zero B.
Shear force is maximum
C.
Bending moment is zero D.
Axial thrust is zero

60.
In the simple bending theory one of the assumptions usually made is that the
plane sections before bending remain plane after bending. This assumption implies
that
A.
Stress is uniform in the beam cross-section
beam cross section
B.
Stress is uniform in the
C.
Stress is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis D.
proportional to the distance from the neutral axis
Strain is
E.
Stress is proportional to strain at all section
61.
A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-section is subjected to a load W at its
free end, causing deflection ?1. If the load is increased to 2W, causing deflwction ?2,
the value of ?1/?1 would be
A.
D.
B.
22

62.
A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-section is subbjected to a load W at its
free end. If the depth of the beam is doubled and the load is halved, the deflection
of the free end as compared to original deflection will be
A.
Half
B.
C.
One eight
E.
Eight times
One-sixteenth
D.
Double

63.
A cantilever beam of square section is subjected to a load W at the free end.
If the length of the beam is doubled and load reduced to half, the deflection at the
free end as compared to original deflection would be
A.
2 times
B.
4 times
C.
8 times
D.
16 times
E.
half

64.
Two beams of equal cross-sectional area are subjected to equal bending
moment. If one beam has square cross-section and the other has circular section,
then
A.
Both beams will be equally strong
economical
B.
C.
Square section beam will be economical
will depend on the nature of loading
E.
Circular section beam will be

D.
In shear, square section beam will be stronger
The suitability of section
65.
When a beam having square cross-section is loaded longitudinally, the shear
stress develops
A.
One middle fibres in horizontal plane
B.
On top fibre in horizontal plane
C.
On middle fibre in vertical plane D.
Along the diagonal
E.
Equally on each fibre along horizontal plane

66.
A beam simply supported at the ends carries a load W at the centre, causing
deflection ?1. If the width of beam is doubled the deflection at the centre under the
same load will be
A.
?1
D.
??1
E.
2?1

67.
A beam simply supported at the ends carried load W at the centre causing
deflection y. If the depth of the section of the beam is doubled the deflection at the
centre will be
A.
D.
1/8 y
E.
2y

68.
The phenomenon under which the strain of a material varies under constant
stress is known as
A.
Creep B.
Strain hardening
C.
Buchinger's effect D.
E.
Visco-elasticity
Hysteresis

69.
The neutral axis of a simply supported beam is
A.
Where fibres are subjected to maximum bending stress
are subjected to minimum bending stress
B.
When fibres
C.
Where fibres are subjected to maximum compression
do not undergo strain
E.
D.
Where fibres
Where fibres undergo maximum strain

70.
A feinforced concrete beam is considered as made of
A.
B.
Hetrogeneous material
C.
Composite material
D.
Isotropic material
E.
Clad material
71.
The assumptions generally made in the theory of pure bending is
A.
The value of the Young's modulus is the same for the beam material in
tension as well as in compression
B.
The elastic limit is well exceeded
C.
The material of the beam is non-homogeneous
section of the beam suffers permanent distortion
E.
D.
The transverse
The beam is rectangular in section

72.
Two beams carrying uniformly distributed load have same depth but beams A
has width 2nd as compared to width w for beam B. The ratio of elastic strength of
beam A compred to that of B will be
A.
C.
B.

73.
Two beams carrying identical loads simply supported are having same width
but beam A has double the depth as compared to that of beam B. The ratio of
elastic strength of neam A compared to that of B will be
A.
C.
E.
B.

74.
The stress at neutral axis is
A.
Zero B.
Maximum tensile
C.
Minimum compressive
E.
Maximum compressive
D.
Minimum tensile

75.
The relation between the bending moment and the moment of resistance e.g.
M=fZ applies
A.
Only to beams of circular cross-section B.
cross-section
Only to beams of rectangular
C.
When the beams are strained beyond the elastic limit
beams are not strained beyond the elastic limit
E.
D.
When the
None of the above

76.
For a beam of length L fixed at one end, supported at the other and loaded W
at the centre C the maximum bending moment with occur at
A.
Fixed end
B.
Centre
C.
Simply supported end
E.
Between supported end and centre
D.
Between fixed end and centre

77.
For beam of length L fixed at two ends A and B and loaded W at the centre C
the maximum bending moment will
A.
Occur at A
B.
Occur at B
C.
Occur at C
D.
(A) and (B) above
E.
(A) (B) and (C) above

78.
The neutral axis of beam
A.
Is subjected to maximum stress B.
C.
Has tensile stress on one side and compressive stress on the other
Is in the same plane in which the beam bends
E.
None of the above
Is subjected to maximum shear force

D.

79.
The neutral axis of a transverse section of a beam passes through the centre
of gravity of the section and is
A.
At right angles to the plane in which the beam bends
plane in which beam bends
C.
In the vertical plane
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
In the same
In the horizontal plane

80.
For a beam of length L fixed at end A and simply supported at end B and
loaded uniformly by a load W the maximum bending moment will occur at
A.
B.
C.
Centre C
E.
Between CD
81.
For a thin cylinder the ratio longitudinal stress/hoop stress is
B.
C.
D.
B
D.
Between AC

82.
A uniform beam of effective length L, fixed at one end and loaded uniformly
will have maximum deflection at
A.
7/8 L from fixed end
B.
3/8 L from free end
C.
5/8 L from free end D.
At free end

83.
In a beam where shear force is maximum the bending moment will be
A.
Maximum
B.
Zero
C.
Minimum
D.
There is no such relation between the two
E.
None of the above
84.
The deformation of any structure takes place in such a manner that the work
of deformation is a minimum. This is known as
A.
Principle of least work
B.
C.
Law of conservation of energy
E.
None of the above
Law of minimum energy

D.
Principle of failure of structure

85.
The torsional resisting moment of the following section is being considered
with identical characteristic parameter. Which section will have maximum torsional
resisting moment
A.
Circular
B.
Hollow circular
C.
Square
D.
Triangular
E.
Hexagonal

86.
A circular section of steel 20 mm diameter is subjected to an axial force of
100 kg. The components of force normal and tangential to a plane inclined to the
axis of bar will be
A.
141 kg
B.
100 kg
C.
80 kg D.
70.7 kg
E.
54 kg

87.
The limit within which Hooke's law holds good is known as
A.
Elastic limit B.
Plastic limit
C.
Yield point
Eulers limit
E.
None of the above
D.

88.
The percentage reduction of area during tensile test on a cast iron specimen
may be
A.
Negligible
B.
C.
10%
25%
D.
5%
E.
50%

89.
The effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in
direction at both ends will be
A.
B.
1.5 L
C.
2L
D.
0.85 L
E.
0.67 L

90.
Rivets are generally specified by
A.
Shape B.
C.
Overall length
E.
Shank diameter
91.
The size of hole drilled in plates for rivetting is
Diameter of head
D.
Thickness of plates to be joined
A.
Equal to the diameter of rivet shank
diameter of river shank
B.
Slightly smaller than the
C.
1.5 to 2 mm smaller than the diameter of rivet for revets of 25 mm and
above size D.
1.5 to 2 mm large than the diameter of the rivet for rivets of 25
mm and above size
E.
None of the above

92.
Approximate horse power that can be transmitted by a shaft 60 mm dimeter
at 180 rpm with permissible shear stress of 850 kg/cm2 would be
A.
30 - 35
B.
35 - 50
C.
50 - 60
D.
60 - 85
E.
85 - 95

93.
If the load at the free end of a cantilever beam is increased, the failure will
occur
A.
At the free and
B.
At the centre
C.
At the support
D.
Any where between free end and centre
E.
Any where between free end and support

94.
For a thin longitudinal cylinder the ratio hoop stress/longitudinal stress is
A.
E.
B.

95.
An axial hoad is applied on a circular section of diameter D. If the same load
is applied on hollow circular section with inner diameter D/2, the ratio of stress in
two cases would be
A.
4?3
C.
3?4
B.

96.
The area around the centre of gravity of a cross-section within which any load
applied will produce stress of only one sign throughout the entire cross-section, is
known as
A.
Centroid
B.
Neutral zone
C.
Symmetrical D.
Balance zone
E.
Kern

97.
An axial load P is applied on a circular section of diameter D. If the same load
is applied on a hollow circular shaft with inner diameter as D/2, the ratio of stress in
two cases would be
A.
4?3
B.
9?8
C.
D.
8?3
E.
3?4

98.
The units of true strain are
A.
cm/cm
B.
kg/cm
C.
kg-cm/cm
D.
Dirnensionless
E.
None of the above

99.
The effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in
direction at one end but not held in position or restrained in direction at the other
end would be
A.
B.
1.5 L
C.
2L
D.
0.67 L
E.
0.85 L

100.
A column is known as short column if
A.
The length is more than 30 times the diameter
is more than 120
B.
Slenderness ratio
C.
The length is less than 8 times the diameter D.
more than 32
The slenderness ratio is
E.
The length is 15 times the diameter
101.
In case of eccentrically loaded struts
A.
Hollow section is preferred
B.
Solid section is preferred
C.
Composite section is preferred
D.
Reinforced section is preferred
E.
Any of the above sections mauy be used

102.
Rivets are made of
A.
Brittle material
B.
Hard material
C.
Ductile material
D.
Malleable material
E.
Tough material

103.
A column that fails primarily due to direct stress is called
A.
Long column B.
Weak column
C.
Short column
D.
E.
None of the above
Medium column

104.
A 10 mm mild steel rod 40 min long lying on ground will be known as
A.
Short column
C.
Strut D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Long column
Medium column

105. If the rod in problem 165 stands erected vertically upwards then it will be
known as
A.
Short column
B.
Strut
C.
Long column D.
Medium column
E.
None of the above

106.
Identify the incorrect statement about true stress-strain method
A.
There is no such phenomenon like true stress or true strain
B.
True
stress is load per unit area (actual) and sunilarly true strain is determined under
actual conditions
C.
This method can be used for compression tests as well
sensitive to changes in mechanical conditions
E.
D.
It is more
It is more sensitive to changes in metallurgical conditions

107.
All elastic materials
A.
Elongate on the application of load
B.
C.
Permanently deform under load D.
Do not deform under load
E.
None of the above
Shrink on the application of load
108. It is desired to punch a hole of 20 mm diameter in a plate 20 mm think. If the

shear stress of mild steel is 30 kg/mm2, the force necessary for punching would be
approximately in the range
A.
10 - 15 tonnes
B.
15 - 20 tonnes
C.
20 - 25 tonnes
D.
25 - 35 tonnes
E.
35 - 40 tonnes

109. A simply supported beam of span L which carries over its full span a load
varying uniformly from zero at either ends to W kg/m at mid-span, will have zero
shear force at
A.
Ends B.
Mid-spam
C.
Both at ends as well as mid-span
E.
None of the above
D.
At L/4 from either end

110.
The modulus of resilience is
A.
The energy stored in a body
when strained within elastic limit
B.
Strain energy stored in a specimen
C.
Strain energy stored in a specimen when strained beyond elastic limit D.

The maximum energy stored at elastic limit
E.
The maximum energy stored at elastic limit per unit volume.
111. The ratio of stress produced by suddenly applied load to that produced by the
same load when gradually applied is
A.
C.
B.

112. An unknown weight falls through 1 cm on a collar rigidly attached to the
lower end of a vertical bar 3 m long and 6 m2 in section. If the maximum
instantaneous extension is 2 mm the value of stress would be
A.
500 kg/cm2 B.
667 kg/cm2
C.
1000 kg/cm2
D.
1333 kg/cm2
E.
1500 kg/cm2

113. The bending moment diagram in case of a cantilever beam carrying a linearly
varying load from zero at free end to maximum at supported end will be a
A.
Rectangle
B.
Traingle
C.
Parabola
D.
Cubic parabola
E.
Inverse hyperbola

114. With a punch for which the maximum crushing stress is 4 times the maximum
shearing stress of the plate, the biggest hole that can be punched in the plate would
be of diameter equal to
A.
4 times the thickness of plate
C.
Thickness of plate
B.
2 times the thickness of plate

115. A uniform steel rope 400 metres long is hung vertically. The weight of the
steel is 7.8 gm/cm3 and D = 2100 kg/mm2. The ratio of elongation of first 150
metres to that of first 300 metres would be
A.
16 ; 1 B.
4;1
C.
2;1
1;2
E.
1;4
D.

116. A beam fixed at both ends with a central load W in the middle will have zero
bending moment as
A.
One place
B.
C.
Three places D.
E.
No where
Two places
Four places

117.
A vessel is said to be thin walled, when
A.
The vessel is made of thin sheets
than 1 mm
B.
The vessel wall thickness is less
C.
The vessel wall thickness is equal to or less than 1/20 of the internal diameter
of the vessel D.
The vessel wall thickness is equal to or less than 1/10 of the
internal diameter of the above
E.
None of the above

118. For punching a hole of 25 mm diameter in a plate 20 mm thick, if the shear
stress of plate material is 30 kg/mm2, the force required would be
A.
10,000 kg
B.
18,850 kg
C.
28,850 kg
D.
47,123 kg
E.
None of the above

119. The ratio of bending moment at the centre of a simply supported beam of
effective length L subjected to a central load W with that when the load W is
uniformly distributed, will be
A.
B.
C.
D.

120. Two shafts are made of mild steel one having circular cross-section and the
other shaft is hollow circular with inner diameter half of the outer diameter. The
ratio of the torque that can be transmitted in two cases will be
A.
B.
17/16
C.
D.
15/16
E.
7?8
121. The strain energy stored in a specimen when strained within elastic limit is
known as
A.
Proof strain energy B.
Strain energy
C.
Elastic limit strain energy D.
E.
None of the above
Resilience

122.
The ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal stress for thin spherical shells is
A.
C.
E.
There is no such ratio for spherical shells

123. The safe working pressure for a spherical vessel 1.5 m diameter and 1.5 cm
wall thickness with limiting tensile stress of 450 kg/cm2 would be
A.
4.5 km/cm3 B.
9 kg/cm2
C.
18 kg/cm2
36 kg/cm2
E.
45 kg/cm2
D.

124. A seamless water main 1 metre in diameter is required to carry wter under a
head of 100 metres. If the maximum permissible tensile stress in the metal is 500
kg/cm2, the thickness of metal required would be
A.
1 mm B.
5 mm
C.
10 mm
D.
E.
25 mm
15 mm

125.
In case of thin cylindrical shell with hemispherical ends
A.
The thickness of cylindrical is more than that of spherical ends
thickness of cylinderical shell is less than that of spherical ends
B.
The
C.
The thickness of cylindrical is same as that of spherical ends
D.
thickness of cylindrical shell is double of the thickness of spherical shell
The
E.
None of the above

126.
A cylindrical section having no joint is known as
A.
Perfect section
B.
Jointless section
C.
Seamless section
E.
Stress free section
D.
Strong section

127. A thin cylinder contains fluid at a pressure of 30 kg/cm2, the inside diameter
of the shell is 60 cm and the tensile stress in the material is to be limited to 900
kg/cm2. The shell must have minimum wall thickness of
A.
1 mm B.
2.7 mm
C.
9 mm D.
10 mm
E.
1000 mm

128.
In case of a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of shear stress
A.
Is uniform throughout
B.
Has maximum value at the axis
C.
Has maximum value at the surface
surface
D.
Varies linearly from axis to
E.
Is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a maximum value at the surface
of the shaft
129.
Torsional rigidity is
A.
The torque that produces rotation of unit r.p.m. in a shaft B.
that transmits one HP at one r.p.m.
The torque
C.
The torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit diameter
D.
The torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit length
E.
None of the above

130. A solid steel shaft of 100 mm diameter transmits 100 HP at (450/?) r.p.m. The
torque in kg-m on the shaft would be
A.
250
B.
500
C.
750
D.
1000
E.
5000
131. The strain energy of the spring when it is subjected to the greatest load
which the spring can carry without suffering permanent distortion is known as
A.
Limiting stress
B.
Proof stress
C.
Proof load stress
D.
Proof resilience
E.
Proof strain energy

132.
In laminated spring the strips are provided in different lengths for
A.
Material economy B.
Reducing the weight
C.
Improved sppearance
D.
E.
Equal distribution of stress
Space consideration of the utility stage

133. A composite spring is made by joining two springs end to end one spring
having twice the stiffness of the other. The ratio of the stiffness of the composite
spring to that of the stiffness of the two springs could be
A.
B.
C.
D.
3?2
E.

134.
Continuous beams are
A.
Stronger and much stiffer than simple beams B.
than simple beams
C.
Subjected to excessive shear strain
D.
maximum bending moment on simple beams
E.
Weaker and less stiffer
Withstanding double the
None of the above

135. When a number of loads rest upon a beam, dflection at any point is equal to
the sum of the deflections at the point due to each of the loads taken separately.
This statement is known as
A.
Rankine's theorem B.
Mohr's hypothesis
C.
Maxwell's theorem D.
E.
None of the above
Castigliano's theorem

136. If unit loads rest upon a beam at two points A and B, the deflection at A due
to unit load at B, equals the deflection at B due to the unit load at A. This is known
as
A.
Mohr's hypothesis
C.
D.
E.
None of the above
Maxwell's theorem

137. Deflection the point of application of an external force acting on a beam is
equal to the partial derivation of the work of deformation with respect to this force
A.
Mohr's hypothesis
C.
D.
E.
None of the above
Maxwell's theorem

138. Two shafts of the same material are subjected to the same torque. If the first
shaft is of solid circular section and the second shaft is of hollow section whose
internal diameter is 2/3 of the outside diameter, the ratio of weights of hollow shaft
to solid shaft would be
A.
Less than 0.5
C.
E.
1.5 to 2
D.
B.
Between 0.5 to 0.99
1 to 1.5

139.
When a rectangular beam is loaded longitudinally, shear stress develops on
A.
Vertical planes onlyB.
C.
Top fibre
E.
Middle fibre
D.
Every fibre
Bottom fibre
140.
The compression members tend to buckle in the direction of their
A.
Axis of load B.
C.
Minimum cross-section
E.
None of the above
141.
In case of a beam subjected to pure bending
Perpendicular to the axis of load

D.
Least radius of gyration
A.
The stress intensity in any fibre is uniform
any fibre is identical
B.
The nature of stress in
C.
The stress intensity in any fibre is proportional to the distance of the fibre
from the neutral axis
D.
The stress intensity in any fibre is proportional to
the distance of the fibre from the load carrying end
E.
The stress intensity in any fibre is inversely proportional to the distance of the
fibre from the bottom of the beam
142. The efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as the ratio of actual strength of the
joint to that of solid plate. In this strength of the joint is considered in
A.
Tension
B.
Compression (bearing)
C.
Shear D.
Least of (A), (B) and (C) above
E.
None of the above

143. While evaluating the strength of riveted joint in shearing, bearing or tension
the calculations are based on
A.
Actual size of rivet B.
Actual size of hole drilled for the rivet
C.
Mean of the size of hole and drilled hole
E.
None of the above
D.
Smaller of the two holes

144. A boiler shell 100 cm diameter and plate thickness 12 mm is subjected to an
internal pressure of 1.2 N/m2. The hoop stress will be
A.
45 N/m2
B.
50 N/m2
C.
135 N/m2
D.
155.5 N/m2
E.
180 N/m2

145. The longitudinal strain for a specimen is 0.01 and it is found to undergo 1 mm
change in its thickness. The thickness of the specimen will be
A.
10 mm
B.
100 mm
C.
1000 mm
D.
400 mm
E.
None of the above

146.
A continuous beam is one which is
A.
Infinitely long
B.
Supported at two points only
C.
Supported at more than two supports D.
supported at intermediate point
E.
Fixed at the ends and simply
None of the above

147. The ratio of central deflection in a beam freely supported at both ends to that
when the beam is fixed at both ends and subjected to a central load W in both the
cases would be
A.
D.
E.

148. During suddenly applied impact loading the stress developed to gradually
applied load is
A.
B.
C.
2 times
E.
4 times
1.5 times
D.
?2 time

149. A pressure vessel is said to be thin walled when the ratio of internal diameter
of the vessel and wall thickness is
A.
B.
10
C.
15
D.
More than 20
E.
There is no such relationship

150.
Hoop stress is
A.
Circumferential tensile stress
C.
Radial stress D.
E.
None of the above
151.
In case of thin walled cylinders the ratio of hoop stress to radial stress is
A.
C.
E.
None of the above
B.
Compressive stress
Longitudinal stress

152. In case of thin walled cylinders the ratio of hoop stress to maximum shear
stress stress is
A.
C.
E.
None of the above

153.
is
In case of thin walled cylinders the ratio of longitudinal stress to shear stress
A.
C.
E.
None of the above

154.
The value of Poisson's ratio for cork is
A.
Zero B.
0.1
C.
0.2
E.
0.44
D.
0.3

155.
Which material has highest value of Poisson's ratio
A.
Steel B.
Copper
C.
Concrete
D.
E.
Wood
Rubber

156. A short, hollow cast iron cylinder with a wall thickness of 1 cm is to carry a
compressive load of 10 tonnes. If the working stress in compression is 800 kg/cm2,
the outside diameter of the cylinder should not be less than
A.
0.5 cm
B.
1.0 cm
C.
2.5 cm
D.
4.5 cm
E.
5 cm

157. A steel wire is hang vertically under its own weight. What is the greatest
length it can have if the allowable tensile stress is 2000 kg/cm2 and specific weight
of steel is 8000 kg/cm
A.
1250 m
B.
1750 m
C.
2500 m
D.
2797 m
E.
3155 m

158. Three pieces of wood having 3.75 cm x 3.75 cm square cross-sections are
glued together and to the foundation. If the horizontal force P = 600 kg is applie3d
to the central piece, the average shearing stress in each of the glued joints would
be
A.
20 kg/cm2
B.
40 kg/cm2
C.
80 kg/cm2
D.
430 kg/cm2
E.
860 kg/cm2

159. A prismatic steel bar 25 cm long is subjected to axial compressive force of
2000 kg. For steel E = 2 x 106 kg/cm2. The ratio of strain energy when the crosssectional area is 25 sq. cm to that when the cross-section area is 12.5 sq cm, would
be
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.5
E.
0.25

160. A spherical pressure vessel is made of thin magnesium plate 0.25 cm thick.
The main diameter of the sphere is 600 cm and allowable stress in tension is 900
kg/cm2. The safe internal gas pressure for the vessel would be
A.
0.5 kg/cm2 B.
1.5 kg/cm2
C.
3.0 kg/cm2 D.
4.77 kg/cm2
E.
5.5 kg/cm2
151.
In case of thin walled cylinders the ratio of hoop stress to radial stress is
A.
C.
E.
None of the above

152. In case of thin walled cylinders the ratio of hoop stress to maximum shear
stress stress is
A.
C.
E.
None of the above

153.
is
In case of thin walled cylinders the ratio of longitudinal stress to shear stress
A.
C.
E.
None of the above

154.
The value of Poisson's ratio for cork is
A.
Zero B.
0.1
C.
0.2
0.3
E.
0.44
D.

155.
Which material has highest value of Poisson's ratio
A.
Steel B.
Copper
C.
Concrete
D.
E.
Wood
Rubber

156. A short, hollow cast iron cylinder with a wall thickness of 1 cm is to carry a
compressive load of 10 tonnes. If the working stress in compression is 800 kg/cm2,
the outside diameter of the cylinder should not be less than
A.
0.5 cm
B.
1.0 cm
C.
2.5 cm
D.
4.5 cm
E.
5 cm

157. A steel wire is hang vertically under its own weight. What is the greatest
length it can have if the allowable tensile stress is 2000 kg/cm2 and specific weight
of steel is 8000 kg/cm
A.
1250 m
B.
1750 m
C.
2500 m
D.
2797 m
E.
3155 m
158. Three pieces of wood having 3.75 cm x 3.75 cm square cross-sections are
glued together and to the foundation. If the horizontal force P = 600 kg is applie3d
to the central piece, the average shearing stress in each of the glued joints would
be
A.
20 kg/cm2
B.
40 kg/cm2
C.
80 kg/cm2
D.
430 kg/cm2
E.
860 kg/cm2

159. A prismatic steel bar 25 cm long is subjected to axial compressive force of
2000 kg. For steel E = 2 x 106 kg/cm2. The ratio of strain energy when the crosssectional area is 25 sq. cm to that when the cross-section area is 12.5 sq cm, would
be
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.5
E.
0.25

160. A spherical pressure vessel is made of thin magnesium plate 0.25 cm thick.
The main diameter of the sphere is 600 cm and allowable stress in tension is 900
kg/cm2. The safe internal gas pressure for the vessel would be
A.
0.5 kg/cm2 B.
1.5 kg/cm2
C.
3.0 kg/cm2 D.
4.77 kg/cm2
E.
5.5 kg/cm2
171.
Principal plane has
A.
Maximum shear stress
B.
No shear stress
C.
No compressive stress
D.
Maximum tensile stress
E.
Maximum compressive stress

172.
Shear stresses on mutually perpendicular planes are
A.
Zero B.
Equal
C.
Minimum
E.
Unequal
D.
Maximum

173.
The damping capacity of a material is its capacity to
A.
Withstand shear stress
C.
Absorb noiseD.
E.
Provide rigid joints
B.
Neutralise torsional stress
Absorb shocks and vibrations

174.
Which of the following materials can be used for absorption of shock?
A.
Rubber
B.
Wood
C.
sawdust
D.
Lead sheet
E.
Any of the above

175. A tower subjected to load W has self-weight 2W. It is to be designed for
constant compressive stress at all sections. The cross-section of the tower should
have
A.
Tapering section
B.
Circular section
C.
Parabolic section
D.
Hyperbolic section
E.
None of the above

176.
During the tensile test on a glass rod, the nature of stress section curve is
A.
Straight line B.
Vertical line
C.
Horizontal line
D.
E.
Same as that for mild steel
Sudden break

177. The shear stress required to cause plastic deformation of solid metals is
known as
A.
Flow stress B.
Proof stress
C.
Rupture stress
D.
E.
None of the above
Ultimate stress

178. The kern of a circular section of diameter D is a concentric circular area of
diameter
A.
3/4 D B.
3/5 D
C.
2/3 D D.
D/4
E.
D/8

179. The instrument used for the measurement of expansion and contraction due
to change in temperature, is known as
A.
Dilatometer B.
Bolometer
C.
Padometer
Tellurometer
E.
None of the above
D.

180.
The Erichsen cupping number of a sheet metal indicates its
A.
Toughness
B.
Surface roughness
C.
Hardness
D.
Ductility
E.
Drawing quality
181. The yield point in fatique loading as compared to the yield point in static
loading is
A.
Half
B.
One fourth
C.
Same D.
E.
There is no comparison between the two
Higher

182.
A twisting couple in a shaft induces in the shaft
A.
Shear stress B.
Bending moment
C.
Deflection
All of the above
E.
None of the above
D.

183. The deformation of a steel bar under its own weight as compared to the
deformation caused by a direct load equal to the weight of the shaft will be
A.
One fourth
B.
Half
C.
Same D.
Double
E.
Four times

184. A type of riveted joint in which the rivets in the adjacent rows are staggered
and the outer-most row has only rivert, is known as
A.
Zig-zag riveting
B.
Butt-riveting
C.
Chain riveting
D.
Diamond riveting
E.
Criss-cross riveting

185.
Diamond riveting is generally used for
A.
Butt joints
B.
Lap joints
C.
Revised joints for dissimilar materials D.
different thickness
E.
Riveted joints for materials of
None of the above

186. The weakness section of a diamond riveting is the section which passes
through
A.
The first row B.
Row with maximum rivets
C.
Middle row
End row with one rivet only
E.
All rows have same strength
D.
187.
The moment of inertia of an area will be least with respect to
A.
Central axis B.
Horizontal axis
C.
Vertical axis D.
Moment of area is same through all axes
E.
Moment of area does not depend on axes

188.
A perfect frame has N joints. The number of members should not be less than
A.
2N - 1 B.
2N - 2
C.
2N - 3 D.
2N - 5
E.
N-1

189. The ratio of shear modulus to the modulus of elasticity when Poisson's ratio is
0.25 will be
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.4
E.
0.4

190. The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress in case of a
circular beam transmitting power is equal to
A.
3?4
B.
4?5
C.
5?4
D.
4?3
E.
2?5
191. The ratio of maximum shear stress to the average shear stress in a
rectangular beam subjected to torsion is
A.
2?3
B.
3?4
C.
4?5
D.
5?4
E.
3?2
192.
In case of a hinged support, the reaction
A.
Acts perpendicular to the surface of hinge
beam
C.
Acts along the axis of beam
resultant shear force at the support
E.
D.
B.
Acts perpendicular to the
Acts in a direction opposite to the
In a direction which depends on the loads

193.
Which of the following is dimensionless?
A.
Bulk modulus
B.
C.
Shear stress D.
Coefficient of linear expansion
E.
Thermal stress
Strain

194.
For which of following material the value of Poissons ratio is more than 1?
A.
Cork B.
Dead mild steel
C.
Wood D.
Plastic
E.
None of the above

195.
The loss of strength in compression due to overloading is known as
A.
Creep B.
Bauschinger effect
C.
Relaxation
D.
E.
Hysteresis
Resilience

196. The method of increasing fatigue resistance by over-stressing the metal by
successively increasing loading is known as
A.
Coaxing
B.
C.
Compounding
E.
None of the above
Relaxing
D.
Bauschinger effect

197.
In M.L.T. system the dimensions of Young's modulus of elasticity are
A.
MLT
C.
MLT-2 D.
E.
ML-2 T-2
B.
MLT-1
ML-1 T-2

198. A beam supporting a uniformly distributed load over its entire length L is
pinned at one end and passes over a roller support at a distance x from the other
end. The value of x such that the greatest bending moment in the beam is as small
as possible, will be
A.
0.111 L
B.
0.125 L
C.
0.2 L D.
0.293 L
E.
0.33 L

199.
The stress in the cylinder will be
A.
6 N/mm2
B.
12 N/mm2
C.
18 N/mm2
D.
20 N/mm2
E.
24 N/mm2

200. If this shaft is to be replaced by a hollow shaft of texternal diameter 22 mm
for the same maximum shear stress and same torque, the internal diameter will be
A.
11 mm
B.
15.5 mm
C.
21 mm
D.
31 mm
E.
51 mm
201. For which of the following diameters a seam-less pipe of 3 mm wall thickness
will be considered as a thin walled cylinder?
A.
30 mm
B.
60 mm
C.
80 mm
D.
90 mm
E.
All of the above

202. A bolt of nominal diameter 33 mm having a safe tensile stress of 100 N/mm2
can safely carry a load of
A.
60 kN B.
100 kN
C.
150 kN
D.
E.
260 kN
160 kN

203. A mild steel bolt of net cross-sectional area 8.4 sq. cm, diameter 37 will be
safe to take a tensile load of about
A.
30 tonnes
B.
40 tonnes
C.
50 tonnes
D.
60 tonnes
E.
75 tonnes

204. A sheet metal 2 mm thick having a shear strength of 40 kg/cm2 is to receive
a punch hole of 35 mm diameter. The force required to make the punching will be
A.
17,600 kg
B.
12,540 kg
C.
88 kg D.
4400 kg
E.
2200 kg

205.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A.
At a hinge in a beam there is no bending moment but there is shear force

B.
In case of inclined loads horizontal components cause thrust in the
beam
C.
Bending moment is maximum at a point where shear force is zero or where it
changes deflection from positive to negative or vice versa D.
The point where
shear force is zero is known as the point of contraflexure
E.
None of the above
206. Hooke's Law is valid within the limits of proportionality. The limit of
proportionality depends on
A.
type of loading
B.
area of cross-section
C.
type of material
D.
hardness of material

207.
The light gauge steel structural members are usually
A.
hot rolled
B.
cold rolled
C.
casted
D.
riveted

208. Secondary stresses may be set up in a frame due to any of the following
reasons EXCEPT
A.
rigidity of the members
B.
C.
self-weight of the members
ecentricity of connections
D.
members not being straight

209. The Young's modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity.
The Poisson's ratio for the material will be
A.
Zero B.
0.5
C.
None of the above
D.

210. A form factor is introduced in the design of compressive members to
represent the effect of
A.
local buckling
B.
voids
C.
grain orientation
D.
diagonal buckling
211.
The deflection of a beam may be reduced by
A.
decreasing the depth of beam
C.
providing greater end restrains D.
B.
increasing the span

any of the above methods

212.
The limiting values of Poisson's ratio are
A.
0 and 1
B.
C.
?0.5 and +0.5
?1 and +1
D.
?1 and +0.5

213.
The maximum strains at the end of plastic range of structural steel is about
A.
0.11 percent B.
1.5 percent
C.
11 percent
15 percent
D.

214.
The web bukling in beams may be avoided by
A.
stiffening the web B.
limiting the stress that can be used
C.
increasing the span
D.
any of the above methods

215. For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material, which obeys Hooke's law,
the number of independent elastic constants is
A.
B.
C.
D.

216.
Web crippling occurs due to
A.
column action of the web B.
failure of web under concentrated load
C.
excessive bending moment
D.
secondary stresses

217. A bronze specimen has modulus of elasticity 1.2 x 105 N/mm2 and modulus
of rigidity 4.7 x 104 N/mm2. The Poisson's ratio of the material will be
A.
0.196 B.
0.276
C.
0.45
0.471
D.

218.
The shape of steel chimneys commonly used is
A.
Square
B.
Circular
C.
Octagonal
D.
Elliptical

219.
by
A self-supporting steel chimney transmits the lateral forces to the foundation
A.
fixed beam action B.
proposed beam action
C.
cantilever action
simply supported beam action
D.

220.
of
The allowable stresses for the design of steel chimney depend upon the ratio
A.
area of cylindrical portion of the area flared portion B.
cylindrical portion to the volume of flared portion
volume of
C.
weight of cylindrical portion to the weight of the flared portion

effective height to the radius of gyration
221.
by
A self-supporting steel chimney transmits the lateral forces to the foundation
A.
propped beam action
C.
simply supported beam action
B.
D.
cantilever action
D.
fixed beam action

222. A strip of steel 75 mm wide 40 mm thick is bent round a circular drum of 4.96
m outside diameter. If E = 2 x 105 N/mm2, the maximum stress due to bending will
be
A.
1600 N/mm2B.
1200 N/mm2
C.
800 N/mm2 D.
400 N/mm2

223. A rectangular beam 200 mm deep by 100 mm wide-subjected to maximum
bending moment of 500 kNm. The maximum stress in the beam will be
A.
250 N/mm2 B.
500 N/mm2
C.
750 N/mm2 D.
1500 N/mm2
224. A spring steel ribbon 3.2 mm wide, 0.5 mm thick is wound on a 500 mm
diameter cylinder. If E = 2 x 105 N/mm2, the maximum stress in the steel will be
A.
100 N/mm2 B.
200 N/mm2
C.
400 N/mm2 D.
800 N/mm2

225.
The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is equal to
A.
that of a prismatic bar of the same length
prismatic bar of the same length
B.
one third that of a
C.
One fourth that of a prismatic bar of the same length
that of a prismatic bar of the same length
D.
one sixth

226.
Castellated beams are used for
A.
light construction
B.
resisting bending moment only
C.
loads not passing through shear centre
alternate compressive and shear stresses
D.
sections subjected to

227. Two bars of sifferent materials are of the same size and are subjected to
same tensile forces. If the bars have unit elongation in the ratio of 7 : 3, then the
ratio of modulii of elasticity of the two materials is
A.
8;3
B.
C.
64 ; 9 D.
3;8
9 ; 64

228.
Eccentrically loaded columns are generally subjected to
A.
axial compression and tension
B.
C.
shear stress and axial compression
axial compression
bending stress and axial compression

D.
bending stress, shear stress and

229.
The slenderness rtio of a column is zero when
A.
its length is exactly equal to radius of gyration
the radius of gyration
B.
its length is half
C.
total load carried is less than half the dead weight
supported on all sides throughout its full length
D.
its length is

230. If the rivet value is 2000 N and the force in the member is 2000 N, the
number of rivets required for the connection of the member to a gusset plate is
A.
B.
C.
D.
231.
The intensity of wind pressure is taken as
A.
directly proportinal to wind velocity
velocity
B.
universely proportional to wind
C.
directly proportional to square of wind velocity
proportional to square of wind velocity
D.
inversely

232. If the value of Young's modulus of elasticity is zero, it implies that the
material is
A.
highly elastic
B.
plastic
C.
visco-elastic D.
incompressible

233.
The limiting value of span to depth ratio will be least in case of
A.
simply supported slabs spanning in one direction
slabs spanning in two directions
B.
C.
cantilever slabs
continuous salb spanning in one direction
D.
simply supported

234. A square steel bar 20 mm on a side is subjected to an axial compressive load
of 8 kN. The normal stress acting on plane 30? to the line action of the axial load will
be
A.
0.5 N/mm2 B.
2.5 N/mm2
C.
50 N/mm2
550 N/mm2
D.

235. When a member is subjected to axial tensile load, the greatest normal stress
is equal to
A.
half the maximum shear stress B.
C.
twice the maximum shear stress
stress
maximum shear stress

D.
four times the maximum shear

236. A piece of steel plate is subjected to perpendicular stresses of 50 Mpa and 30
Mpa both tensile. The normal stress is
A.
8.6 MPa
B.
14.4 MPa
C.
26.6 MPa
D.
48.4 MPa

237.
The tangential stress is
A.
21.5 MPa
B.
36 MPa
C.
48 MPa
D.
26 MPa

238.
The diameter of corresponding Mohr circle will represent
A.
80 MPa
B.
50 MPa
C.
30 MPa
D.
20 MPa

239.
Shear stress on principal planes is
A.
maximum
B.
C.
zero
None of the above
D.
minimum

240. The local strain energy at a point in a material when shear stress is 80 MN/m2
and G = 27 GN/m2 will be nearly
A.
58.5 kJ/m3
B.
C.
438.5 kJ/m3 D.
118.5 kJ/m3
2348 kJ/m2
241.
The modulus of resilience in tension is nearly
A.
65 kJ/m3
B.
130 kJ/m3
C.
210 kJ/m3
D.
260 kJ/m3

242.
The modulus of resilience in shear is nearly
A.
380 kJ/m3
B.
260 kJ/m3
C.
150 kJ/m3
D.
95 kJ/m3

243.
The state of pure shear stress is produced by
A.
equal tension in two directions at right angles
in two-directions at right angle
C.
B.
equal compression
tension in one direction and equal compression in perpendicular direction

D.
a moment and couple in opposite directions

244.
The rod of a ceiling fan is subjected to
A.
compressive stress B.
C.
shear stress D.
tensile stress
torsional stress

245.
Highest factor of safety is usually taken for
A.
dead B.
C.
shock load
live load

246.
The rate of change of bending moment is equal to
A.
Shear force B.
C.
Slope D.
Deflection
Poisson's ratio x deflection
247. A brittle steel rod is heated to 160?C and then suddenly clamped at both
ends. It is then allowed to cool and breaks at a temperature of 85?C. If E = 200
GN/m2 and ? = 12 x 10-5 / ?C, the breaking stress of steel is
A.
60 MN / m2 B.
90 MN / m2
C.
180 MN / m2 D.
360 MN / m2

248. The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a fixed ended beam
occurs
A.
under the load onlyB.
at mid span
C.
anywhere along the span D.
at a support

249.
The heaviest I section for the same depth is
A.
ISMB B.
ISLB
C.
ISHB D.
ISWB

250. A copper rod 15 mm diameter 0.8 m long is heated through 50?C. The
expansion of the rod is prevented by gripping it at both ends. When the grips do not
yield, the stress in rod is 115 N/mm2 and forces applied at the grips are 20 kN. In
case one of the grip yields by 0.5 mm
A.
the rod will be under tension
B.
the force at grips will be increase
C.
the compressive stress in the rod will increase
stress in the rod will reduce
D.
the compressive
251.
A beam of uniform strength will have at every cross-section
A.
same deflection
C.
same bending moment
B.
same stiffuess
D.
same bending stress

252. An underground pipeline is laid in spring at 35?C. If the pipe is unable to
contract, during winter when temperature drops to 5?C, the pipe will be under
A.
hoop stress B.
Compressive stress
C.
hoop and compressive stresses D.
tensile stress

253. A portion of a beam between two sections is said to be in pure bending when
there is
A.
constant bending moment and constant shear force B.
force and zero bending mement
constant shear
C.
constant bending moment and zero shear force
moment and zero shear force
zero bending
D.

254. A mild steel flat 3 m long 150 mm wide and 15 mm thick carries an axial
tensile load of 150 kN. If the value of u for mild steel is 0.3, it can be concluded that
A.
length, width and thickness all will elongate B.
increase but thickness will decrease
length and width will
C.
length and thickness will increase but width will ecrease
increase but width and thickness will decrease
D.
length will

255.
Laminated springs are generally
A.
loaded at ends and supported at centre
supported at ends
B.
loaded at centre and
C.
loaded as well as supported at centre D.
ends
loaded as well as supported at

256. Force required to punch a 15 mm hole in a mild steel pipe 5 mm thick, when
ultimate shear stress of the plate is 500 N/mm2, will be nearly
A.
78 kN B.
98 kN
C.
118 kN
D.
158 kN

257.
The effect of arching a beam is to
A.
increase the shear force B.
reduce the shear force
C.
reduce the bending moment throughout
moment throughout
D.
increase the bending

258.
According to Rankine's theory of failure, elastic failure occurs
A.
When the minor principal stress is equal to the elastic limits value in a simple
tension test B.
When the greatest principal stress reaches the elastic limit value
in simple tension test
C.
When the greatest principal stress is equal to the stress corresponding to the
upper yield limit in a tension test
D.
None of the above
259.
According to Von Mises theory, the elastic failure occurs
A.
When the shear strain energy is least B.
When shear strain equals 50%
of the value of tensile strain at elastic limit in a simple tension test
C.
When the shear strain energy per unit volume in the stressed material equals
shear strain energy per unit volume at the elastic limit in a simple tension test
D.
None of the above
260. For a shear force to be uniform throughout the span of a simply supported
beam, it should be subjected to
A.
a couple at mid span
B.
C.
a uniformly distributed load
points
a couple at any point on the span

D.
two concentrated loads spaced at third
261.
In a three-hinged beam, the bending moment will be zero at
A.
the left hinge
B.
the right hinge
C.
both the hinges
D.
the crown

262.
A propped cantilever is indeterminate externally to
A.
the second degree B.
the third degree
C.
the fourth degree
None of the above
D.
263.
The shear stress when a circular shaft subjected to torsion is
A.
maximum, maximum
B.
minimum, minimum
C.
maximum, minimum
D.
minimum, maximum

264.
Principal strains occur on three planes which are
A.
mutually perpendicular to each other B.
C.
inclined to one another at 45?
D.
arbitrary in nature
None of the above

265.
The theory of failure suitable for brittle materials is
A.
distortion energy theory B.
maximum strain energy theory
C.
maximum shear stress theory
D.
maximum principal stress theory

266. A cantilever beam of length 5 m carries a uniformly distributed load of 100
Newtons/m throughout its length. The maximum shearing force in the beam will be
A.
100 N B.
250 N
C.
500 N D.
1250 N

267. In a tensile test conducted on a ductile material, the ratio of the true stress to
the engineering stress, is approximately
A.
0.2
B.
1.05
C.
0.9
D.
10

268. The ratio of the area under the bending moment diagram between any two
points along a beam to the flexural rigidity EI gives the change to the following
parameter between the two points
A.
deflection
B.
shear force
C.
slope D.
bending moment
269.
In SI units, one bar is equal to
A.
0.1 N/mm2 B.
1.0 N/mm2
C.
1.0 N/cm2
10.0 N/m2
D.

270.
Elasticity is the property of the material due to which it can be
A.
draw into wires
C.
drawn into thinner sections
E.
None of the above
271.
Necking in case of ductile materials begins at the
A.
elastic limit point
B.
upper yield point
C.
lower yield point
D.
ultimate point
B.
beaten into sheets

D.
rolled into bars

272. If, for a given material, the modulus of elasticity is equal to twice its modulus
of rigidity (G), then the bulk modulus is
A.
2G
B.
0.33 G
C.
9G
D.
0.67 G

273. If the value of Young's modulus of elasticity for a material is zero, it implies
that the material
A.
is in gaseous state B.
is visco-elastic
C.
incompressible
plastic
D.

274.
The slenderness ratio of a column is zero when
A.
its length is exactly equal to radius of gyration
the radius of gyration
B.
its length is half
C.
total load carried is less than half the dead weight
supported on all sides throughout its full length
D.
its length is
275. The force required to punch a 25 mm hole in a mild steel pipe 10 mm thich,
when ultimate shear stress of the plate is 500 N/mm2 will be nearly
A.
78 kN B.
98 kN
C.
393 kN
D.
158 kN

276.
The theory of failure considered appropriate for ductile materials is
A.
Rankines theory
B.
Beltrami's theory
C.
St. Venant theory
D.
Von Mises theory.

277. A body is subjected to two normal stresses of 200 kN/m2 (tensile) and 100
kN/m2 (compressive) acting mutually perpendicular to each other. The maximum
sher stress is equal to
A.
50 kN/m2
B.
100 kN/m2
C.
150 kN/m2
D.
300 kN/m2

278. In case the modulus of elasticity for a material is 200 GN/m2 and Poisson's
ratio is 0.25, the modulus of rigidity is
A.
250 GN/m2 B.
125 GN/m2
C.
80 GN/m2
320 GN/m2
D.

279. A bar of copper form a composite system, which is heated to a temperature
of 45?C. The stress in the copper bar will be
A.
tensile stress
B.
compressive stress
C.
bursting stress
D.
sher stress

280.
The strength of a riveted plate in tearing should be based on
A.
the rivet diameter B.
the rivet hole diameter
C.
the average of (A) and (B) above
above plus 2 mm.
D.
the average of (A) and (B)
281.
Temperature stresses are set up in a material when
A.
it is free to expand or contract
B.
C.
it is first colled and then heated D.
restrained
it is first heated and then cooled

its expansion or contraction is

282.
Principal planes are the planes on which the resultant stress is the
A.
shear stress B.
normal stress
C.
tangential stress
D.
temperature stress

283.
Moment area method is useful determining the following in a beam:
A.
slope and deflection at point
point
C.
B.
Shear force and bending moment at a
tensile and compressive stresses at a point
D.
None of the above

284.
Perry-Robertson formula for columns takes into account
A.
initial curvature of column
B.
C.
None of the above
D.
initial eccutricity of column

285.
Arching of a beam results in
A.
increased bending moment throughout
throughout
B.
reduced bending moment
C.
increased bending moment at the support
moment
D.
no change in bending

286. In the case of biaxial state of normal stresses, the normal stress on 45? plane
is equal to
A.
the sum of the normal stresses B.
C.
half the sum of the normal stress
stresses
the difference of the normal stresses

D.
half the difference of normal

287.
is
Under uniaxial strain, the ratio of maximum shearing strain to uniaxial strain
A.
B.
1.5
C.
D.
0.5

288. A hole, one metre from the end of a structural steel member, is 0.8 mm shy
of matching another hole for possible connection. What force, in kN, is necessary to
stretch it for connection? The cross section is 25 mm x 3 mm
A.
12.6
B.
13.6
C.
14.7
D.
15.8

289.
Brass could not be used to reinforce concrete because
A.
its densily is too large
B.
C.
it is too expensive D.
its coefficient of thermal expansion is not right
its density is too low

290.
Euler's formula is not applicable to columns
A.
with both ends free B.
with both ends fixed
C.
of composite material
D.
291.
The moment of inertia of an area will be least with respect to
A.
central axis B.
horizontal
C.
vertical axis D.
moment of area does not depend on axes
having slenderness ratio less than 80

292.
As compared to the Brinell hardness lest, the Rockwell method
A.
makes a thinner indentation
C.
is much slower
D.
B.
may be used on thicker materials
all of the above
293. A section is subjected to reversal of stress. Choice exists for selecting any of
the following section. Which one should be selected?
A.
Hollow pipe B.
Equal angle iron
C.
Unequal angle iron D.
T-section

294.
For any shaft the number of critical speed is
A.
C.
depends on size and load D.
E.
depends on external load and moment of inertia
B.
2
infinite

295. For a given stress the ratio of moment of resistance of a square beam with its
side horizontal compared to when the diagonal is horizontal is
A.
B.
?2
C.
1.2
D.
1.5

296. Two cantilever beams are of equal length. One carries a uniformly distributed
load and other carries same load but concentrated at the free end. The ratio of
maximum deflection is
A.
5?6
B.
2?3
C.
1?2
D.
1?3
E.
5?12

297.
A beam of uniform strength is the one in which
A.
B.M. is same throughout the beam
the length
B.
Deflection is same throughout
C.
Bending stress is same in every section along the longitudinal axis

Shear stress is uniform throughout the beam
E.
None of the above
D.
298. When a no. of loads rest upon a beam, the deflection at any point is equal to
the sum of the deflections at this point due to each of the loads taken separately.
This is according to
A.
Castiglano's theorem
B.
Principle of least work
C.
Max's well theorem D.
Theory of flexure
E.
Moment shear relation

299. A solid circular shaft of diameter D carries are axial load W. If the same load is
applied axially on a hollow circular shaft of inner diameter D/2, the ratio of stress in
a solid shaft to a hallow one is
A.
1?2
B.
1?4
C.
4?3
D.
3?4

300. In a simply supported beam of span 3 mts., a point load of 60 kN acts at a
distance of 1 mt. from left support, the shear force at 1 mt. from rt. Support is
A.
20 kN B.
40 kN
C.
60 kN D.
80 Kn
9.HEAT ENGINES
1.
Three states of matter are distinguished with repect to molecules by
A.
The number B.
The atoms in molecules
C.
The orientation of molecules
molecules
E.
D.
Characteristics of the motion of
Energy of molecules

2.
The molecules move in a solid
A.
At random
C.
Back and forth like tiny pendulum
E.
None of above
B.
In circular motion
D.
In irregular motion
3.
Sensible heat is
A.
That heat which causes change of state
a rise of temperature
B.
C.
That heat which produces a rise of temperature
sensed by a thermometer
E.
That heat which produces

D.
That can only be
None of the above

4.
Specific heat is
A.
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit quantity of
substance through 1?C
B.
The amount of heat requred to change the state or
condition under which a substance exists without changing its temperature
C.
The ratio of quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given
weight of any substance through 1?C to the quantity of heat required to raise the
temperature of same weight of water through 1?C D.
The heat sensed by a
mercury thermometer
E.
None of the above

5.
Working in the cryogenic range means dealing with temperatures
A.
Between - 190?C and absolute zero
C.
Below absolute zero
E.
Prevailing normally in the atomsphere
D.
B.
Below zero degree centigrade
Between zero degree centigrade and 190?C

6.
Latent heat is
A.
Heat cannot be detected B.
thermodynamics
C.
Heat that does not follow first law of
Heat required to change the substance from solid to gaseous state

D.
Heat required to change the state of substance from liquid state to solid state
E.
Heat required to change the state or condition under which the substance
exists
7.
Absolute pressure is
A.
Gauge pressure
B.
Gauge pressure + 1.03 kg/cm2
C.
Gauge pressure-atmospheric pressure D.
pressure
E.
Gauge pressure + atmospheric
None of the above

8.
In thermodynamics spontaneous processes are those
A.
Where a difference is observed in any microscopic property of the system
between different times or states
B.
Where a difference is observed in any
microscopic property of the system between different times or states
C.
Which occur in the direction of an intensive property or driving force
contained within the system
D.
Which require an agency outside the system
to force the process
E.
None of the above

9.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics states that
A.
Two systems are always in equilibrium B.
If two systems are in
equilibrium the third system will also be in equilibrium
C.
If two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they are in
equilibrium with each other
D.
Two systems not in equilibrium with a third
system are also not in equilibrium with each other
E.
None of the above

10.
The Clapeyron equation is applicable for
A.
System in equilibrium
B.
Change of state
C.
Change of state when two phases are in equilibrium D.
when water and water vapours are involved
E.
None of the above
11.
Thermodynamic processes are those
Change of state
A.
Where a difference is observed in any macroscopic property of the system
between different times or state B.
microscopic property of the system between different times or state
C.
Which occurs in the direction of an intensive property or driving force
D.
E.
None of the above

12.
The vapour pressure is related to the enthalpy of vaporization in
A.
Clausius Clapeyron equation
C.
Raoult's law D.
E.
Dalton's law
B.
Henry's law
Maxwell's equation

13.
In thermodynamics, forced processes are those
A.
Where a difference is observed in any microscopic property of the system
between different times of states
B.
microscopic property of the system between different times or states
C.
Which occur in the direction of an intensive property or driving force
D.
E.
None of the above

14.
Thermodynamic equilibrium is completely defined by the specifications of the
A.
Internal energy
C.
Generalized displacements
E.
None of the above
B.
Enthalpy
D.
All above together

15.
Solubility of a gas in a liquid at small concentration is represented in
A.
Henry's law B.
Clausius Clapeyron equation
C.
Raoult's law D.
E.
None of the above
Dalton's law

16.
A barN is
A.
A unit of area
B.
A unit of length
C.
A unit of time
D.
A unit of mass
E.
None of the above

17.
For superheated steam in a nozzle the critical pressure ratio is
A.
B.
0.528
C.
0.546 D.
0.577
E.
0.64

18.
A passout turbine generally operates on low pressure in the range
A.
10 - 20 kg/cm2
B.
20 - 50 kg/cm2
C.
50 - 100 kg/cm2
D.
100 - 150 kg/cm2
E.
150 - 300 kg/cm2

19.
A back pressure generally operates on pressures in the range
A.
15 - 40 kg/cm2
C.
100 - 150 kg/cm2 D.
E.
200 - 350 kg/cm2
B.
50 - 100 kg/cm2
150 - 200 kg/cm2

20.
Rankine cycle efficiency for fixed steam temperature of any volume upto
critical temperature will be maximum for steam pressure of
A.
Critical pressure
B.
100 kg/cm2
C.
200 kg/cm2 D.
203.5 kg/cm2
E.
250 kg/cm2
21.
For initially dry and saturated steam flowing through a nozzle the volue of
critical pressure ratio is given by
A.
B.
0.528
C.
0.546 D.
0.577
E.
0.75

22.
The equilibrium conditions between supersaurated vapour and a cooled liquid
surface are expressed in
A.
Calender's equation
B.
Dalton's equation
C.
Kelvin Helmhotz equation D.
Napier's equation
E.
Clapcyron's equation

23.
Which is the external loss in a steam turbine?
A.
Nozzle losses
C.
Disc friction losses D.
E.
Back pressure losses
B.
Blade friction losses

Gland leakage losses

24.
A Lungistrom turbine is
A.
Impulse turbine
C.
Outward radial flow turbine
E.
None of the above
B.
Reaction turbine
D.
Inward flow impulse reaction turbine

25.
The function of a condenser in a steam power plant is
A.
To reduce back pressure B.
C.
To preheat feed water with exhaust steam
E.
To condense feed water
To utilise heat of exhaust steam

D.
To act as a heat sink

26.
Enthalpy of a substance is defined as
A.
The sum of internal energy and the work done in forcing unit mass of
substance into an enclosure at the constant pressure at which the substance exists
B.
Sum of sensible heat + latent heat of substance
C.
Total heat content of substance above zero degree centigrade

D.
Sensible heat of water + work done in forcing unit mass of substance into an
enclosure at constant pressure at which the substance exists
E.
None of the above

27.
Presence of impurities in ice
A.
Raises melting point
C.
Does not have any effect D.
E.
Depends on other factors
B.
Lowers melting point

Makes it heavier than water

28.
Steam consumption per kWh of electricity generated in a modern power plant
is of the order of
A.
1 - 2 kgs
B.
2 - 4 kgs
C.
5 - 7 kgs
D.
8 - 10 kgs
E.
10 -12 kgs

29.
Generally steam turbines in power station operate at
A.
3000 RPM
B.
1500 RPM
C.
1000 RPM
D.
375 RPM
E.
50 RPM

30.
The pressure of steam generated in a boiler as recorded by the Bourdon
pressure gauge was 2.2 kg/sq-cm. If the barometer reads 774 mm of mercury the
absolute pressure of steam would be
A.
0.2 kg/sq-cmB.
9.774 kg/sq-cm
C.
77.4 mm of Hg
D.
E.
1.025 kg/sq-cm
3.2526 kg/sq-cm
31.
In a surface condenser near to the air pump suction the vacuum is 500 mm of
mercury with 730 mm of mercury height in a barometer. The pressure near the air
pump suction would be
A.
1230 mm HgB.
0.69 kg/sq-cm
C.
0.687 kg/sq-cm
D.
E.
1.213 kg/sq-cm
0.313 kg/sq-cm

32.
A radiation pyrometer is used for temperatures
A.
Upto 100?C B.
100 - 250?C
C.
250 - 500?C D.
Above 500?C
E.
Below 100?C

33.
The lowest temperatures that can be measured by a gas thermometer using
nitrogen is
A.
0?C
B.
C.
? 100?C
E.
? 200?C
? 10?C
D.
? 137?C

34.
An optical pyrometer works on the principle of
A.
Expansion of fluids B.
Change of electrical resistance
C.
Thermo-electric effect
D.
E.
Mono-chromatic radiation
Total radiation

35.
The lowest temperature upto which a mercury thermometer can be used is
A.
0?C
B.
C.
? 39?C
E.
? 260?C
? 10?C
D.
? 173?C

36.
A compound pressure gauge measures
A.
Compound pressures
B.
C.
Variable pressures D.
Positive and negative pressures
E.
Average pressure
Complex pressures

37.
1 Torr is equivalent to
A.
1 mm Hg
C.
760 mm of water
E.
None of the above
B.
13.6 cm of water column

D.
760 mm of Hg

38.
A gas used in gas engine trial was tested in a Boys Calorimeter. The pressure
of gas supply was 7 cm of water column. If the barometric pressure is 760 mm of
mercury, the absolute pressure of the gas would be
A.
0.007 kg/sq-cm
B.
0.14 kg/sq-cm
C.
1.04 kg/sq-cm
D.
1.14 kg/sq-cm
E.
None of the above

39.
Thermie
A.
Is a unit of temperature measurement B.
measurement
Is a unit of latent heat
C.
Is thermal conductivity of materials
D.
Is quantity of heat required to
raise temperature of one tonne of water from 14.5?C to 15.5?C
E.
Is the temperature change in water when 1000 calories of heat are added to
1 gm of water, gradually

40.
A certain gas occupies 2 cu-m at a temperature of 400?C. It receives heat at
constant pressure till its temperature is doubled. The change in volume would be
A.
3.8 cu-m
B.
C.
0.038 cu-m D.
E.
0.019 cu-m
3.188 cu-m
0.19 cu-m
41.
A closed vessel contains air at 1.2 ata and 57?C. The pressure of air in the
vessel if the contents of the vessel are cooled to 37?C would be
A.
2.327 ata
B.
1.2 ata
C.
1.127 ata
D.
0.563 ata
E.
0.073 ata

42.
The size of a steam engine is 200 x 250 - 300 r.p.m. In this 200 indicates
A.
Horse power B.
C.
Steam pressure in 1bs/sq. in.
E.
Piston stroke
Shaft diameter
D.
Cylinder bore

43.
In a condensing steam engine
A.
Condensed steam is supplied
B.
Steam condenses inside cylinder
C.
Steam condenses as soon as it leaves the cylinder D.
condensed in condenser
E.
Exhaust steam is
Exhaust steam is not recirculated

44.
The total length of 40 mid-ordinates on a simple steam engine indicator
diagram is 17 cm. The pressure scale is 0.6 kg/sq-cm. The mean effective pressure
would be
A.
1.0 kg/sq-cmB.
1.7 kg/sq-cm
C.
1.0 kg/sq-cmD.
10.2 kg/sq-cm
E.
None of the above

45.
For steam engine having a throttle governor, a straight line is obtained when
the total weight of steam used per hour is plotted against the indicated horse
power. This line is known as
A.
Clapeyron's line
B.
Calender's line
C.
Willian's line D.
Hopson's line
E.
Bunsen line

46.
A vacuum of 712 mm was obtained with the barometer reading 753 mm of
mercury. The corrected vacuum to a standard barometer of 760 would be
A.
719 mm Hg B.
712 mm Hg
C.
706 mm Hg D.
753 mm Hg
E.
760 mm Hg

47.
Intercooling in multistage compressors is done
A.
To cool the air at delivery B.
To enable use of small cylinders and
eliminate problems of unbalanced forces
C.
To minimise the work of compression
pressures for use
E.
D.
To supply-air at two different
To cool air during compression

48.
Volume of air at 27?C is 2 cu-m. What will be the volume at 327?C
A.
2 cu-m
B.
3 cm-m
C.
4 cu-m
D.
8 cu-m
E.
12 cm-m

49.
Free air is air at
A.
Atmospheric conditions at any specific location
atmospheric temperature
B.
1 kg/cm2 and
A.
Atmospheric conditions at any specific location
atmospheric temperature (Relative humidity of 64%)
B.
1 kg/cm2 and
C.
1 kg/cm2 and 20?C (Relative humidity of 36%)
(Relative humidity of 36%)
D.
1 kg/cm2 and 0?C
C.
1 kg/cm2 and 0?C D.
E.
1 kg/cm2 and 27?C
1 kg/cm2 and 20?C

50.
Standard air is air at
E.
None of the above
51.
A 50 cfm compressor can
A.
Compress 50 cu feet per min of free air
min of standard air
B.
Compress 50 cu feet per
C.
Deliver 50 cu feet of compressed air at delivery pressure D.
cu ft. per minute of compressed air
E.
Delivers 50
None of the above

52.
As the compression ratio increases the volumetric efficiency of air
compressor
A.
Increases
B.
C.
Does not change
E.
None of the above
Decreases
D.
Unpredictable

53.
Centrifugal blowers can supply
A.
Large volumes of air at low pressures B.
pressures
Large volumes of air at high
C.
Small volumes of air at high pressures D.
pressures
Small volumes of air at low
E.
None of the above

54.
For gas turbines compressors used are
A.
Reciprocating type B.
Centrifugal type
C.
Axial flow type
Lobe type
E.
Sliding vane type
D.

55.
Intake air filters are provided on air compressor for
A.
Removing dirt and dust from suction air
suction air
B.
Reducing temperature of
C.
Reducing pressure of suction pressure D.
Removing impurities of air
E.
None of the above

56.
Separators are generally used in air compressor installations
A.
Between after cooler and receiver
C.
Before intercooler D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Before first stage suction
After intercooler

57.
The function of a receiver in compressor installations is
A.
To collect compressed air B.
incompressor discharge
To dempen pulsations or pressure waves
C.
To reduce temperature of compressed air
content of compressed air
E.
D.
To reduce moisture
None of the above

58.
Which one of the following is a safety device on a compressor?
A.
Relief valve B.
Strainer
C.
Over pressure shut down D.
E.
Intercooler relief valve
Over speed shut down

59.
If an air cooled compressor gets over-heated during operation, the probable
cause cannot be
A.
Intake fliter clogged
B.
Insufficient lubricating oil
C.
Valve strips broken D.
Leadage in intercooler
E.
Direction of rotation wrong

60.
If a water cooled compressor knocks during operation, the probable cause
cannot be
A.
Loose flywheel or pulley
C.
Loose valve D.
E.
Air filter choked
B.
Too much clearance in crank pin
Excess cooling in intercooler
61.
In a four stage compressor system first and third stage pressures are 1 and 9
kg/cm2 respectively. What will be the fourth stage delivery pressure
A.
3 kg/cm2
B.
9 kg/cm2
C.
27 kg/cm2
D.
81 kg/cm2
E.
243 kg/cm2

62.
According to Charle's law
A.
At constant pressure the volume of a gas is proportional to its absolute
temperature B.
At constant temperature, pressure is proportional to
temperature
C.
At constant temperature, pressure of a gas is proportional to its volumeD.

At constant volume the absolute pressure is proportional to the temperature
E.
None of the above
63.
To avoid moisture trubles, the branch connection from compressed air line are
taken from
A.
Top side
B.
Bottom side
C.
Left side
D.
Right side
E.
Any side

64.
A heat exchanger that can remove fixed quantity of heat from a system is
available where should it be installed for best economy
A.
Prior to first stage compression B.
As intercooler
C.
After final stage compression
Depends upon size of installation
E.
Anywhere
D.

65.
The fact that the product of pressure and volume of a fixed amount of gas is
approximately a constant value is known as
A.
Charle's law B.
Gay Lusac's law
C.
Dalton's law D.
Lewis law
E.
None of the above

66.
For minimum work in multistage compression, the work done on
A.
First stage should be least
B.
C.
All stage should be equal D.
There is no such consideration
E.
None of the above
Last stage should be least

67.
In multistage compression, perfect intercooling means
A.
Temperature of air at inlet to subsequent stages is equal to initial
temperature B.
Temperature of air at inlet to subsequent stages is less than
initial temperature
C.
Temperature of air at inlet to subsequent stages should be zero D.

Temperature of inlet to subsequent stages should be equal to the final
temperature
E.
None of the above

68.
The performance of air compressor at high altitudes as compared to that at
sea level will be
A.
Better B.
Same
C.
Inferior
D.
E.
Will depend on type of compressor
Will depend upon temperature of air

69.
According to Boyle's law
A.
At constant pressure the temperature of a gas varies inversely as its volume

B.
At constant pressure the absolute temperature of a gas varies
inversely as its volume
C.
At constant temperature, the pressure of a gas varies inversely as its volume

D.
At constant temperature, the absolute pressure of a gas varies
inversely as its volume
E.
None of the above

70.
Which is incorrect?
A.
Compression ratio = initial volume + final volume
Initial pressure x compression ratio
B.
Final pressure =
C.
Initial pressure = final pressure + compression ratioD.
compression ratio x final volume
Initial volume =
E.
None of the above
71.
The work done on a compressor will be least when air is taken from
A.
Atmosphere B.
C.
Source of high temperature air D.
E.
A source at 0?C
Source of low temperature air

As and where available

72.
After cooler is used to
A.
Cool the air B.
C.
air
To cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out D.
E.
None of the above
Reduce the volume of air

Remove impurities from

73.
A fan is being used under certain known conditions. If the speed of fan is
doubled the air displaced by the fan
A.
Will remain the same
B.
Will be doubled
C.
Will be four times the original displacement
original displacement
E.
D.
will be either times the
None of the above

74.
A fan is being used under certain conditions. If the fan speed is doubled the
power requirement will be
A.
Unchanged B.
Double of the original
C.
Four times
8 times
E.
16 times
D.

75.
A fan is being operated in an environment for which information is available.
Now if the fan speed is doubled, how will the static pressure vary
A.
No change
B.
Doubled
C.
Four times
D.
Eight times
E.
Sixteen times

76.
In centrifugal pumps suction head is
A.
Vertical distance from supply level to pump centre line pump being level
B.
(A) Above less suction friction heat
C.
(A) Above less velocity heat
E.
None of the above
D.
Any of the above

77.
In a pumping installation the suction line is is 4 metre long and suction pipe
diameter is 100 mm. Now if the suction pipe is replaced by a pipe combination
consisting of 2 metres of 100 mm diameter pipe joined with 2 metres of 150 mm
diameter pipe, the suction heat will become
A.
6 metres
B.
4 metres
C.
2 metres
D.
1 metre
E.
None of the above

78.
When steam expands without doing mechanical work, its enthalpy
A.
Increases
C.
Does not change
E.
None of the above
B.
Decreases
D.
Depends on the factors

79.
In thermodynamic analysis, a pure substance is that which
A.
consists of only a single chemical species
B.
chemical species that the composition remains constant
C.
has no dissolved impurities
D.
May have a number of
behaves as perfect gas

80.
A perfect heat engine works on the Carnot cycle between 1000?C and 200?C.
The efficiency of the engine will be
A.
80%
B.
C.
42.80%
E.
62.80%
60%
D.
37.20%
81.
If a engine working on Otto cycle has its compression ratio raised from 5 to 6
the percentage increase in air standard efficiency will be
A.
1%
B.
10%
C.
8%
E.
4%
D.
6%

82.
During adiabatic compression
A.
No heat leaves or enters the system
B.
C.
Specific heat remains constant D.
Temperature remains constant
E.
None of the above
Maximum work is done

83.
In isothermal compression
A.
There is no gain internal energy B.
C.
zero
There is no exchange of heat with environment
E.
None of the above
Temperature increses very slowly

D.
Entropy changes is

84.
The work done in compressing 1 kg of air in compression will be least when
the value of index is
A.
B.
1.1
C.
1.2
D.
1.41
E.
1.5

85.
Stoichiometric ratio is
A.
Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume
fuel ratio by weight
B.
Chemically correct air-
C.
Theoretical mixture of air for complete combustion D.
to fuel for maximum efficiency
E.
None of the above

86.
An air fuel ratio 8 will have
Actual ratio of air
A.
Chemically correct air
C.
Excess air
E.
None of above
D.
B.
Excess fuel
Any of above

87.
A rich mixture will have an air-fuel ratio
A.
Less than chemically correct
C.
Chemically correct D.
E.
None of the above
B.
More than chemically correct
Any of the above

88.
During idling a petrol engine requires
A.
Rich mixture B.
C.
Chemically correct mixture
E.
None of above
Lean mixture
D.
Variable mixture

89.
Hot spots are
A.
Defects in S.I.engines
B.
The hottest spots in engines
C.
The spots where heavier fractions of fuel are vaporised
in engines
E.
Hottest point within engine cylinder

90.
Thermal efficiency of C.I. engines on weak mixtures is
A.
Higher
B.
Lower
C.
Unaffected
D.
E.
None of the above
91.
Ignition quality of diesel fuel is expressed by
A.
Octane number
C.
Carbon percentage D.
B.
Cetane number
Calorific value
D.
Do not exist
E.
None of the above

92.
Water and sediments in a diesel fuel oil must not exceed.
A.
1%
B.
0.50%
C.
0.10%D.
0.05%
E.
0.01%

93.
Ash content of a diesel fuel oil should not exceed
A.
1%
B.
0.50%
C.
0.10%D.
0.05%
E.
0.01%

94.
Flash point for diesel fuel oil should be
A.
Minimum 49?C
B.
Maximum 49?C
C.
Maximum 100?C
D.
Maximum 200?C
E.
None of the above

95.
Compression ratio in case of gas engines waries in the range
A.
5 to 10
B.
10 to 15
C.
15 to 20
D.
20 to 24
E.
24 to 30

96.
The compression ratio in case of a gas turbine is of the order of
A.
B.
C.
12
D.
20
E.
24

97.
The maximum temperature in a gas turbine is of the order of
A.
700?C B.
1000?C
C.
1500?C
D.
E.
2500?C
2000?C

98.
A regenerator in a gas turbine
A.
Reduces heat loss in exhaust
ratio
B.
permits use of higher compression
C.
Improves thermal efficiency
D.
Permits use of fuels of inferior quality
E.
None of the above

99.
Compression ratio for spark ignition engines varies in the range
A.
4 to 6 B.
6 to 12
C.
12 to 20
D.
E.
25 to 30
20 to 25

100.
Octane number of petrol generally available is in the range
A.
10 to 25
B.
25 to 60
C.
20 to 75
D.
80 to 100
E.
55 to 65
101.
Cetane number of diesel generally used in India is in the range
A.
10 to 15
B.
15 to 20
C.
20 to 25
D.
40 to 55
E.
55 to 65

102.
Vapour lock is
A.
Seizure of supply of fuel in a diesel engine
B.
Serious restriction to the
supply of fuel due to excessively rapid formation of vapour in S.I. engine
C.
Locking of carbourettor jets due to vapour formation
jets due to impurities in petrol
E.
D.
Locking of
None of the above

103. Which one of the following factors will not assist in getting high power output
from a compression ignition engine
A.
High compression ratio
B.
Fine atomisation of fuel
C.
High charge density
D.
Large quantity of excess air
E.
None of the above

104.
In automobiles as the speed of vehicle increases the back pressure
A.
Increases
C.
Remains unaffected
E.
None of the above
B.
Reduces
D.

105. The mean effective pressure of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio
will increase if cut off ratio will
A.
Increase
B.
Decrease
C.
Independent of CR D.
E.
None of the above

106.
Thermal efficiency of a compression ignition engine may be of the order of
A.
20%
B.
35%
C.
50%
D.
70%
E.
75%
107.
This purpose of supercharging an engine is
A.
To increase the power output of engineB.
consumption
C.
To reduce the noise of engine
E.
None of the above
D.
To reduce specific fuel
To improve cooling of cylinders

108. Most of the heat generated in I.C. engines is transferred to surrounding
medium by
A.
Conduction only
B.
Convection only
C.
Conduction and convection
E.
None of the above
D.
Radiation only

109.
In an engine radiator, heat is transferred by
A.
Conduction B.
Convection
C.
Radiation
Conduction and convection
E.
None of the above
D.

110. Percentage improvement in power in case of a four stroke diesel engine with
the help of a supercharger may be expected in the range
A.
25
B.
35
C.
50
D.
75
E.
100
111. During idling in a compression ignition engine the air fuel ratio may be of the
order of
A.
30
B.
20
C.
15
D.
10
E.

112.
Free piston engines find application in
A.
Compressed air supply
C.
Gas turbines D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Mining installations
Supercharging of diesel engines

113. An average percentage of Carbon and Hydrogen in Petrol may be roughly
given as
A.
50% C, 50% H2
B.
85% C, 150% H2
C.
15% C, 85% H2
D.
70% C, 70% H2
E.
60% C, 40% H2

114.
Paraffins in petrol have the general formula
A.
Cn H2n
B.
Cn H2n + 2
C.
Cn H2n - 2
D.
Cn H2n - 4
E.
Cn Hn

115.
Vapour lock is
A.
Lock of vaporization of fuel to atomspheric pressure B.
to engine due to faster evaporation
Excess fuel supply
C.
Complete or partial stoppage of fuel supply due to vaporisation of fuel in
supply steam
D.
Locking carburettor jets due to vapour pressure
E.
Supply of liquid fuel particles to engine in maixture

116.
Flash point of a liquids is the temperature at which
A.
air
The fuel emits vapours at a rate which produces an inflammable mixture with
B.
The fuel spontaneously ignites
C.
park
The fuel ignites with clearly visible flash
E.
Fuel vaporises at the prescribed rate
D.
The fuel ignites without a

117.
In gas and petrol engines thermal efficiency may be expected in the range
A.
10 - 15 percent
B.
15 to 25 percent
C.
30 to 35 percent
D.
50 percent
E.
60 percent

118.
In diesel engines thermal efficiency may be expected in the range
A.
10 - 15 percent
B.
15 to 25 percent
C.
25 to 30 percent
D.
35 to 40 percent
E.
50 percent

119.
Volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be in the range
A.
75 to 90 percent
B.
50 to 75 percent
C.
40 to 50 percent
D.
Below 40 percent
E.
Below 20 percent

120.
Scavenging efficiency of a four stroke diesel engine is
A.
In the range 80 to 95 percent
C.
Below 50 percent
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
In the range 50 - 80 percent
Between 100% and 95%
121. During preliminary test run of an engine for 7 hours cycles if the engine stops
after operating for 5 hours then
A.
The engine is rejected
B.
The engine is again run for 7 hours
C.
The engine in run for balance 2 hours D.
another piece tested
E.
The engine is removed and
None of the above

122. If in a compression ignition engine the noise level is to be reduced, the design
features which will not be affected are
A.
Combustion system
B.
C.
Intake muffling
Fuel injection equipment
E.
None of the above
D.
Exhaust muffling

123. A diesel engine is to be redesigned to improve the overload capacity. The
design feature which will be influenced is
A.
Size of fuel injection equipment B.
C.
Air capacity of cylinder
E.
All of the above
D.
Lubrication
Cooling water velocity

124. In order to achieve maximum possible fuel economy the design features
which will be affected are
A.
Volumetric efficiency
B.
Compression ratio
C.
Method of charging D.
Atomization
E.
None of the above

125.
In a diesel engine the injection pressure is of the order of
A.
40 kg/cm2
C.
500 kg/cm2 D.
E.
1500 kg/cm2
B.
100 kg/cm2
1000 kg/cm2

126.
In a SI engine the advancing of spark timing will
A.
Increase knocking tendency
B.
C.
Not have any effect
Depends on intensity of spark only
E.
None of the above
D.
Reduce knocking tendency

127. In a compression ignition engine higher combustion chamber wall
temperature will
A.
Reduce knocking tendency
C.
Have no effect
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
Increase knocking tendency
Reduce exhaust temperature

128. The thermal efficiency of a dual cycle engine with fixed compression ratio and
fixed quantity of het and with increase in pressure ratio, will
A.
Increase
B.
C.
Not change D.
E.
None of the above
Decrease
Depends on another factors

129.
In compression ignition engine fuel ignition accelerators are added to
A.
Reduce combustion knock
C.
Reduce combustion chamber temp
E.
None of the above
B.
Accelerate combustion knock

D.
Increase delay period

130.
Which one of the following acts as ignition accelerator for C.I. engines fuel
A.
Acetone peroxide
C.
Armatic compounds
E.
None of above
131.
The knocking tendency in a compression ignition engine for a given fuel will
B.
Hydrogen peroxide
D.
n heptane
A.
Enhance by reducing compression ratio
compression ratio
C.
Depend on other factors D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Enhance by increasing
Increase to certain limits and then no change

132.
Total sulphur content in a diesel fuel oil must not exceed
A.
1%
B.
0.50%
C.
0.10%D.
0.05%
E.
0.01%

133.
Which fuel will have least air consumption during combustion
A.
Gasoline
B.
C.
Spirit D.
Diesel fuel oil
E.
Lubricating oil
Benzol

134.
A mixture containing 60% cetane and 40% Iso-octane will have
A.
Cetane number 60 B.
Cetane number 40
C.
Octane number 60 D.
Octane number 40
E.
None of the above

135.
Anti-knock for compression ignition engines is
A.
Amyl nitrate B.
C.
Trimethyl pentane D.
E.
Aromatics
Tetra ethyl lead

Hexadecane

136. For same output and same compression ratio four stroke SI engines as
compared to two stroke engines have
A.
Higher fuel consumption B.
Lower thermal efficiency
C.
Higher thermal efficiency D.
Higher exhaust temperatures
E.
None of the above

137. In a four stroke engine if a valve opens 25? before B.D.C. and closes 10? after
T.D.C. the valve should be
A.
Inlet valve
B.
C.
Puppet valveD.
E.
Cam valve
Exhaust valve
Spring valve

138.
In spark ignition engines the knocking tendency decreases
A.
As compression ratio is reduced B.
By controlling air/fuel mixture
C.
By controlling ignition timing
By controlling exhaust temperatures
E.
None of the above
D.

139.
be
Thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio 5.5, will
A.
20%
C.
47.50%
E.
100%
B.
35.40%
D.
50%

140. If the pressures at the beginning and end of compression in an Otto cycle
engine are 1 kg/cm2 and 8 kg/cm2 respectively the air standard efficiency will be
A.
57%
B.
50%
C.
45%
D.
40%
E.
50%
141. Out of the following diesel engine the minimum air consumption per B.H.P.
will be in
A.
4 stroke, mech, injection B.
4 stroke, air injection
C.
2 stroke, mech, injection, pump, scavenging D.
2 stroke, air injection

142.
For spark ignition engines fuel in order of decreasing knock tendency are
A.
Paraffins, aromatics, naphthenes
C.
Naphthenes, paraffins
E.
Aromatics, paraffins, naphthenes
D.
B.
Paraffins, naphthenes, armatics
Naphthenes, aromatics, paraffins

143. For combustion of one kg of carbon the quantity of oxygen required (air
contains 23% by wight of oxygen) is
A.
2.62 kg
B.
C.
8 kg
11.6 kg
E.
12 kg
D.
3.67 kg

144. Air required for complete combustion of 1 kg of carbon is 11.6 kg. If a fuel
contains 88.6% Carbon and 11.4% Hydrogen, the air requirement will
A.
Remain unaltered B.
C.
Will increase
Will decrease

145.
Air consumption of a four-stroke diesel engine per rated BHP/hr will be
A.
1 kg
C.
10 - 14 kg
E.
20 kg
B.
5 - 7 kg
D.
15 kg

146.
In spark ignition engines, the knocking tendency is reduced by
A.
Reduction of compression ratio B.
Advancing ignition timing
C.
fuel
Increasing exhaust temperature D.
E.
All of the above
Adding dope like tetra ethy lead to the

147.
Which spark plug will have lower heat rating
A.
W 95 T1
B.
W 145 T1
C.
W 225 T1
D.
W 300 T1
E.
W 350 T1

148. If after some use the lower part, electrodes and beathing space of a spark
plug are found coated by deposits of soot and carbon, the conclusion will be
A.
Spark plug is of proper heat rating
engine is correct
B.
Composition of mixture in the
C.
Spark plug is of too high heat rating
D.
Spark advance is incorrect
E.
Spark plug is short circuited

149.
Crankcase explosion occurs in
A.
Four stroke Cl engines
B.
Two stroke Cl engines
C.
Four stroke SI engines
D.
Two stroke SI engines
E.
Gas engines

150.
Crankcase dilution is
A.
Dilution of fuel in crank case
C.
Dilution of mixture while passing through crankcase in two stroke engines

D.
Addition of water in crankcase
E.
None of the above
151.
Highest useful compression ratio is the compression ratio at which
B.
Dilution of lubricating oil in crankcase
A.
An engine can be safely operated
thermal efficiency
B.
C.
An engine operates smoothly
Detonation first becomes audible
E.
None of the above
D.
An engine gives maximum

152.
Which fuel has maximum resistance to detonation
A.
Toulene
B.
Benzene
C.
Iso-octane
D.
n-Heptane
E.
Alcohol

153.
Fuel which detonates easily is
A.
Toulene
B.
Benzene
C.
Iso-octane
D.
n-Heptane
E.
Alcohol

154.
The capacity of an automobile battery is expressed in terms of
A.
Voltage
B.
Number of plate
C.
Amperes
D.
Number of cells
E.
Ampere hours

155.
A starting motor should have capacity to generate power equal to
A.
IHP
C.
IHP-BHP
E.
Friction horse power at cranking r.p.m
B.
BHP
D.
Friction horse power

156.
The efficiency of jet engine is higher at
A.
Lower altitudes
B.
Higher altitude
C.
Low speeds D.
E.
None of the above
High speeds

157.
A jet engine has
A.
Propeller in front
C.
One propeller in front and one propeller in back
E.
None of the above
B.
Propeller in back
D.
No propeller

158.
Air fuel ratio for a jet engine is of the order of
A.
10 ; 1 B.
15 ; 1
C.
20 ; 1 D.
60 ; 1
E.
400 ; 1

159.
The bottom ring on the piston is known as
A.
Oil ring
C.
Compression ring
E.
Any of the above
B.
Scrapper ring
D.
Groove ring

160.
Piston ring are plated with chromium, cadmium or phosphate to
A.
Prevent clogging
C.
Improve heat transfer
E.
Reduce clearance, between rings and cylinder
161.
Crankshafts are generally
A.
Sand cast
C.
Turned from bar stock
E.
Cold headed
B.
B.
Improve surface finish

D.
Reduce wear and eliminate scuffing
Die cast
D.
Forged

162.
In a lead cell battery the voltage per cell is
A.
1 volt B.
1.1 volt
C.
1.5 volt
D.
E.
6 volts
2 volts

163.
Starting motor in automobiles is generally
A.
Induction motor
C.
Synchronous motorD.
E.
Shunt motor
B.
Squirrel cage motor

Series motor

164.
In jet engines the compression ratio
A.
Varies with altitude B.
C.
Varies with square of speed
E.
Varies with altitude

D.
Remains constant

165.
The efficiency of a jet propulsion unit is generally high at altitudes of
A.
1000 metres B.
5000 metres
C.
7500 metres D.
9000 metres
E.
More than 10,000 metres

166.
A.
Rankine cycle
B.
C.
Otto cycle
Brayton cycle
E.
Dual cycle
D.
Carnot cycle
167.
The function of a piston rins in an internal combustion engine is
A.
To prevent lubricating oil from entering the combustion space
prevent leakage of combustion chamber products
C.
To transfer heat from piston to cylinder walls D.
E.
None of the above
B.
To
All of the above

168.
The top ring nearest to the piston crown is known as
A.
Oil ring
C.
Compression ring
E.
Any of the above
B.
Scrapper ring
D.
Groove ring

169.
by
For diatomic gas flowing through a nozzle the critical pressure ratio is given
A.
B.
0.528
C.
3.546 D.
0.577
E.
0.75

170.
The Apparatus used for the determination of calorific value of solid fuel is
A.
Osrat's apparatus B.
Bomb calorimeter
C.
Releigh apparatus D.
Photo calorimeter
171.
A petrol engine as compared to diesel engine (both running at full load) is
A.
More efficient
B.
Less efficient
C.
Equally efficient
D.
Depend on other factors
E.
None of the above

172.
In isochronous governors the speed drop is
A.
Zero B.
10 percent
C.
20 percent
E.
75 percent
D.
50 percent

173. An engine operates at 1440 rpm under load whereas no load speed is 1500
rpm. The percentage speed drop of governor will be
A.
2%
B.
3%
C.
4%
D.
6%
E.
10%

174. Air fuel ratio in a petrol engine fitted with dirty air cleaner as compared to
that with clean air clearance will be
A.
Higher
B.
C.
Not affected D.
E.
Depends on load
Lower
Fluctuating

175.
If the air clearance is removed in a carburettor engine the fuel air ratio will be
A.
Higher
C.
Not affected D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Lower
Fluctuating

176.
Inlet valve of a IC engine remains open for
A.
150? B.
180?
C.
250? D.
280?
E.
300?

177. Which of the following is a false statement. A multicylinder diesel engine is
missing on one or more cylinders. The cause may be
A.
Valve sticky B.
Valves leaky
C.
Compression poor D.
E.
Air cleaner plugged
Insufficient fuel supply to cylinders

178.
Oil rings are slotted to
A.
Provide an escape for the oil that the slot edges cut from the cylinder wall
B.
Reduce the bulk
C.
Minimise friction
E.
Remove oil from cylinder
D.
Better lubrication of cylinder walls

179. Which of the following is a false stagement: The cause of excessive engine
vibrations especially at high speeds in spark ignition engines is
A.
Unequal compression of engine cylinders
not synchrohized
C.
Unbalanced crankshaft
D.
E.
Unequal distribution of mixture
B.
Ignition distributor point
Unbalanced fan or loose fan blade

180.
Baffles are provided on engines to
A.
Improve heat transfers rate
B.
C.
Reduce fuel consumption D.
Assist in starting the engine
E.
Guard against dirt and dust
181.
A turbo-charger is used
Improve engine performance
A.
In gas turbines for compression of air B.
engine
C.
In jet propulsion units
E.
None of the above
D.
For supercharging reciprocating
In rockets for producing air fuel mixture
182. Which of the following is false statement? The cause of slow cranking of a gas
engine during starting may be
A.
Partially discharged battery
B.
C.
Faulty starting motor
Under capacity battery
E.
High air temperature
D.
Heavy engine oil

183.
Which of the following is false statement?
A.
Fuel consumption of engine increases if silencer is choked B.
consumption of engines decreases if air filter is choked
Fuel
C.
Fuel consumption increases if exhaust valve is burnt
consumption increases if lean mixture is supplied
Fuel
E.
D.
All of the above

184.
Which statement is false in case of SI engines
A.
Increasing the length of the carbon chain increases the knocking tendency
B.
Centralising the carbon atoms decreases the knocking tendency
C.
Adding methyl groups to the side of the carbon chain increases the knocking
tendency
D.
Unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons show less knocking
tendency
E.
Accetylene has least tendency to knocking

185. Thermal efficiency of a spark ignition engine at full load usually is in the
range
A.
70 to 90 percent
B.
50 to 70 percent
C.
30 to 35 percent
D.
10 to 25 percent
E.
5 to 10 percent

186.
For the same maximum pressure and heat input, the most efficient cycle is
A.
Brayton
B.
Otto
C.
Diesel D.
Dual

187.
For the same temperature limits and heat input, the most efficient cycle is
A.
Carnot
B.
C.
Diesel D.
Brayton
E.
All of the above have same efficiency
Otto

188. If performance of SI engines of different manufacture having different
capacities, sizes and systems are to be compared the common parameter would be
A.
Engine cylinder diameter B.
C.
Speed D.
E.
Weight of engine
B.H.P.
Mean effective pressure

189.
A Lenoir cycle has a top temperature in the cycle
A.
More than that of Otto cycle
B.
C.
Equal to diesel cycle
Less than diesel cycle
D.
Between Otto and diesel cycles

190.
For the same maximum pressure and heat input the least efficient cycle is
A.
Brayton
C.
Diesel cycle
191.
The self-ignition temperature of diesel oil as compared to petrol is
A.
Higher
B.
C.
Same D.
Varies considerably
E.
B.
Otto cycle
Lower

192. Apart from reducing friction and cooling the surfaces, the function of lubricant
in I.C. engines is
A.
To improve thermal efficiency
B.
To clean the surfaces by carrying away
the carbon and metal particles cansed by wear
C.
To reduce noise
E.
None of the above
D.
To reduce vibrations

193.
The level of oil in engine cylinder should be checked when the engine is
A.
Not running B.
Running
C.
During starting
D.
E.
None of the above
During cranking

194.
For same compression ratio and same heat input
A.
C.
Both are equally efficient
B.
Diesel cycle is more efficient

195.
For the same peak pressure and heat input
A.
C.
Both are equally efficient
B.
Diesel cycle is more efficient

196. Diesel engine has air fuel ratio of 30 ; 1 during idling. A petrol engine can also
work on such mixture provided
A.
Engine is suitably modified
B.
Carburettor is modified
C.
Ignition timing is changedD.
Dannot run as it is impossible
E.
Runs smoothly at lower speeds only

197. In naturally aspirated engine the pressure inside cylinder at the end of
suction stroke is
A.
Less than atmospheric
B.
Same as atmospheric
C.
More than atmospheric
E.
None of the above
D.
Depends on atmospheric conditions

198.
Morse test is conducted on
A.
Single cylinder engines
C.
Vet engines D.
E.
Vertical engines
B.
Multi-cylinder engines
Horizontal engines

199.
Prony brake is used for testing of
A.
Small engines
C.
Engines having small flywheel
E.
High speed engines
B.
Large engines
D.
Slow speed engines

200.
Air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine depends on
A.
Compression ratio B.
C.
Fuel used
E.
All of the above
201.
Endurance test for I.C. engines is conducted for
A.
100 hours
B.
200 hours
C.
400 hours
D.
500 hours
E.
1000 hours
D.
Speed of operation
Torque

202.
In a spark ignition engine supercharging
A.
Increases knocking tendency
B.
Decreases knocking tendency
C.
There is no effect on knocking
D.
Knocking is affected by other factors
203.
In a Bomb calorimeter the fuel to be tested is burnt
A.
At constant volumeB.
At constant pressure
C.
There is no consideration of volume or pressure
atmosphere
E.
D.
In open
At constant temperature

204.
Calorific value of methane gas can be determined by
A.
Bomb calorimeter B.
Bunsen's apparatus
C.
Orsat's apparatus D.
None of the above

205. Which one of the following assumptions is not involved while deriving relation
for air standard efficiency of Otto cycle?
A.
The working fluid is air for which the specific heats are constant B.
is no chemical reaction inside the engine clinder
C.
Expansion and compression are adiabatic
and chemical equilibrium
E.
D.
There
There is always thermal
The engine operates at mederate rpm

206. In a compression ignition engine the fuel consumption will increase if the
back (exhaust) pressure is
A.
Decreased
B.
Increased
C.
Does not have any effect D.
E.
None of the above

207. Which one of the following factors will not assist in smooth running of a
compression ignition engine?
A.
Moderate rate of pressure rise
B.
Short delay period
C.
Minimum of after burning D.
High ignition temperature of fuel
E.
None of the above

208.
Movement of air inside engine cylinder does not help in
A.
Distribution of fuel B.
C.
Reduction of after burning
Mixing of fuel with air

D.
Reducing noise

209.
In compression ignition engines swirl is
A.
Circular motion imparted to gases after combustion B.
imparted to suction air
C.
Radial motion imparted to fuel air mixture
fuel spray
E.
D.
Circular motion
Directional movement of
None of the above

210. Which one of the following factors will not assist in improving thermal
efficiency of a compression ignition engine?
A.
Fine atomisation and even distribution of fuel B.
combustion
C.
Clear exhaust
D.
E.
Any of the above
211.
The pour point of diesel fuel oil must be
Minimum heat loss during
High surface to volume ratio
A.
More than the coldest atmospheric temperature at which oil is to be pumped

B.
Less than the coldest atmospheric temperature of which oil is to be
pumped
C.
More than 100?C
E.
Less than 0?C
D.
More than 0?C

212.
In a compression ignition engine squish is
A.
Created at the beginning of suction stroke
suction stroke
B.
Created at the end of
C.
Created during combustion
compression stroke
E.
D.
Created towards the end of
None of the above

213. For the same power and same speed, the flywheel of a two stroke engine as
compared to that of a four stroke engine will be
A.
BiggerB.
Small
C.
Same size
D.
E.
There is no correlation
Different shape

214.
Which statement is incorrect?
A.
Morse test can be conducted on petrol engines
be conducted on diesel engines
B.
Morse test can also
C.
Morse test can be conducted only on multicylinder engines
of engines can be determined by more test
E.
Morse test can be conducted on CFR engine.

215.
The efficiency of a jet engine is higher at
A.
Lower altitudes
B.
C.
Low speeds D.
High speeds
E.
High speeds and low altitudes
Higher altitudes

216.
A jet engine has
A.
Propeller in front
B.
C.
No propeller D.
Propeller on the top
E.
None of the above
Propeller in back
D.
LH.P
217. In a jet propulsion unit the products of combustion after passing through the
gas turbine are discharged into
A.
Atmosphere B.
Recycled back to compressor
C.
Vacuum
Discharge nozzle
E.
Compressor
D.

218.
A.
10;1
B.
15;1
C.
20;1
D.
60;1
E.
600;1

219.
Samples of exhaust gases from following engines have been collected:
A.
Petrol engine
B.
C.
Gas engine D.
Jet propulsion unit
Diesel engine

220. To augment the thrust of jet propulsion units part of the fuel is burned in the
exhaust. How does this fuel burn
A.
Oxygen is also supplied along with fuelB.
are mixed with fuel
Some chemicals rich in oxygen
C.
Fuel finds oxygen from excess air supplied to engine
burned in exhaust pipe
221.
The boilers using lignite as fuel do not use
A.
Underfeed stoker
B.
Travelling grate stoker
C.
Speader stoker
D.
U-flame pulverized fuel burner
E.
Horizontal burner, pulverized fuel

222.
A wankel engine is
A.
Rotory engine
B.
Reciprocating engine
D.
Fuel is never
C.
Hybrid engine
E.
Jet engine
D.
Turbine engine

223.
In multistages turbines by introducting reheating
A.
Thermal efficiency improves
B.
C.
Work done by compressor reduces
compressor work/turbine output decreases
E.
The output of turbine increases

D.
The ratio compressor
None of the above

224.
The blades of a turbine are made of
A.
Cast iron
C.
Stainless steel
E.
High speed steel
B.
Nickel alloy
D.
Alloy steel

225.
In jet engines the compression ratio
A.
Varies with square of speed
C.
Varies as cube of speed
D.
E.
None of the above
Remains constant

226. A gas turbine plant operates between 1 ata and 9 ata with minimum and
maximum cycle temperature of 25?C and 1000?C. A two stage compressor is
provided with perfect intercooling and work is equally divided between the two
stages. The intermediate pressure will be
A.
3 ata B.
4 ata
C.
5 ata D.
5.5 ata
E.
7.5 ata
227. The air standard efficiency of a turbine cycle is 56.5%, which one of the
following may be Carnot efficiency between the temperature limits of the cycle?
A.
56.50%
B.
C.
50%
75%
E.
100%
D.
64%

228. A gas turbine cycle operates through pressures ratio of 5. Air enters the
compressor at atmospheric pressure and 25?C and entry to the turbine is at 800?C.
The thermal efficiency of the plant has been found to be 37%. Now, if compressor
and turbine efficiencies of 80% are taken into account, the value, of thermal
efficiency will be
A.
17.75%
B.
37%
C.
38.50%
D.
40%
E.
45%

229.
LPG stands for
A.
Liquefied petroleum gas B.
C.
Light pressure gas D.
E.
None of the above
Low pressure gas
Lubricated petroleum gas

230.
A.
Rankine cycle
B.
Carnot cycle
C.
Brayton cycle
D.
Erricson cycle
E.
Joule cycle
231.
An Orsat's apparatus is used for
A.
Volumetric analysis of the flue gas
gases
B.
C.
Smoke density analysis of the flue gases
E.
None of above
Gravimetric analysis of the flue

D.
All of above

232.
High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines
A.
Reduces the exhaust temperature
C.
Increases power output
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
Improves thermal efficiency
Restricts damage to turbine blades

233. A plant costing Rs. 80,000 has a useful life of 12 years. The amount that
should be saved annually to replace the equipment at the end of useful life with
salvage value of Rs. 8,000 should be
A.
Rs. 5000
B.
Rs. 6000
C.
Rs. 8000
D.
Rs. 10000
E.
Rs. 15000

234.
A 200 MW generator should be cooled by
A.
Air
C.
Hydrogen
E.
Hydrogen peroxide
B.
Water
D.
Nitrogen

235.
Overall thermal efficiency of a thermal power plant is
A.
Carnot cycle efficiency
C.
Product of boiler efficiency, turbine efficiency and generator efficiency D.

Rankine cycle efficiency
E.
None of the above
B.
50 to 70% of theoretical efficiency

236.
Piston rings are made of
A.
Carbon steel B.
Alloy steel
C.
Aluminium
Cast iron
D.
E.
Copper

237.
Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler depend upon
A.
Boiler pressure
C.
Type of fuel available
E.
None of the above
B.
Quantity of steam to be generated

D.
Quantity of steam

238.
A run-of-river hydro-electric station is one which is
A.
Located on a small river
throughout the year
B.
Located on a river which does not flow
C.
Located on a steam flow without water storage
flow with large water storage
E.
D.
Locted on a steam
None of the above

239.
In a system if base load is same as maximum demand, the load factor will be
A.
C.
Infinity
E.
0.5 percent
B.
Zero
D.
1 percent

240. A system having connected load of 100 kW, peak load of 80 kW, base load of
20 kW and average load of 40 kW will have a load factor of
A.
40%
B.
50%
C.
60%
D.
75%
E.
80%
241.
Rank of coal is based on
A.
Fixed carbon and heating value B.
C.
Ash and moisture content D.
Size
Ash content
E.
None of the above

242.
Tidal power is the power generated from
A.
Waves of the ocean
C.
Thermal energy of ocean water D.
E.
Chemicals in sea water
B.
Rise and fall tides

Raw sea water

243.
Thermionic converters are based on
A.
Seebeck effect
C.
Energy contained in thermal conductors
E.
None of the above
B.
Microwave theory
D.
Transfer of electrons

244.
Load curve is the plot of
A.
Load versus generatng capacity B.
C.
Load versus time
E.
None of the above
D.
Load versus current
Load versus cost of power

245.
In power station practice 'spinning reserve' is
A.
Reserve generating capacity that is in operation but in service

B.
Reserve generating capacity that is connected to bus and ready to take load
C.
Reserve generating capacity that is available for service but not in operation
D.
Capacity of the part of plant that remains under maintenance

246.
Which one of the following is not a constituent of coal
A.
Nitrogen
C.
Manganese D.
E.
Carbon
B.
Hydrogen
Inorganic matter

247.
Of the calorific value ranges given below which one is generally for coal?
A.
100 - 1000 kcal/kg B.
1000 - 2500 kcal/kg
C.
2500 - 4000 kcal/kg
D.
E.
8000 - 12000 kcal/kg
4000 - 7000 kcal/kg

248.
Bagasse is
A.
A variety of coal
B.
A fuel consisting of wood etc
C.
Fibrous portion of sugarcane left after extracting the juice D.
rice straw
E.
A kind of
Same as biogas

249.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect:
A.
Combustion is the processes of heat liberation
chemical reaction
C.
Combustion is rapid oxidation
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
Combustion is a
All of the above

250. Which one of the following symptoms will not show that combustion is
becessary complete.
A.
Presence of free carbon in exhaust
exhaust
B.
C.
Presence of oxygen in exhaust
Presence of nitrogen in exhaust
E.
All of the above
251.
A cold short metal is
D.
A.
One that can not be heated above 500?C
welded
Presence of carbon monoxide in
B.
One that cannot be
C.
One that cannot be worked under the hammer or by rolling or bent when cold
without racking at the edges
D.
One that cannot be easily rolled or bent at
low temperatures
E.
None of the above

252.
A hot short metal is
A.
Brittle when heated
C.
Ductile at low temperatures
E.
None of the above
B.
Brittle when cold

D.
Ductile at high temperatures

253.
Resilience is the property of materials in which
A.
Materials resist deformation
pressure is removed
B.
Materials spring back or recoil when
C.
Materials are easily deformed
D.
Materials can be easily pressed
E.
None of the above

254.
Tenacity is the property of materials in which they
A.
Resist indentation B.
Resist rupture
C.
Resist shearing
Resist deformation
E.
None of the above
D.

255.
Isolate the factor on which bursting pressure of boiler does not depend
A.
Tensile strength of the shell
B.
C.
Diameter of the shell
Shear strength of shell material
D.
Thickness of the shell

256.
Working pressure of a boiler does not depend upon
A.
Tensile strength of shell
B.
Thickness of shell
C.
Factor of safety
D.
E.
Type of fuel being fired
Efficiency of joint

257.
Boilers using Bagasse as fuel use
A.
Spreader stokers
C.
Travelling grate stroker
E.
Chain grate stokers
B.
Underfeed stokers
D.
Pulverized fuel burners

258.
Steam trap is a device that
A.
Allows passage of water but prevents the passage of steam
passage of air but prevents passage of steam
B.
Allows
C.
Allows passage of the flue gases but prevents flow of steam
of the above
D.
None

259.
Temporary hardness of water is caused by
A.
Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
magnesium
B.
C.
Chlorides of calcium and magnesium
magnesium
Nitrates of calcium and
E.
D.
Sulphates of calcium and
None of the above

260.
Direction of feed water is done because
A.
It reduces weight of water to be handled
difficulties in feed pumps
B.
It reduced priming
C.
It reduces corrosion caused by oxygen present in air
amount of heat required to convert water into steam
E.
None of the above
261.
A sample having pH value of 5 will be
A.
Neutral
B.
Acidic
D.
It reduces
C.
Alkalino

262.
If a steam injector fails to lift the water the trouble may not be due to
A.
Too low steam pressure for list
B.
C.
Water supply to cold
End of water pipe not submerged
D.
Water pipe clogged

263. If a steam injector lifts the water but fails to force it into the boiler, the
trouble may not be due to
A.
Combining tube clogged B.
C.
Sry steam
E.
Any of the above
D.
Insufficient steam pressure
Leake in water pipe

264.
Safety valve generally used on high pressure boiler is
A.
Dead weight type B.
C.
Combination lever and spring type
E.
None of the above
Lever type
D.
Spring type

265. With reference to a safety valve the blow down pressure is the pressure at
which
A.
Valve opens B.
Valve closes after opening
C.
Valve opens initially
E.
None of the above
D.
Valve spring pressure is adjusted

266.
A 'blue' flame is
A.
Non-radiant flame B.
C.
Super high temperature flame
E.
None of the above
Radiant flame
D.
Ordinary flame in oil burners

267.
In oil burners air is supplied
A.
To assist inflow of oil
B.
To prevent clogging of burner
C.
To improve combustion efficiency
combustion chamber
E.
D.
To uniformly spray oil in
None of the above

268.
Low grade fuels have
A.
Low moisture content
B.
C.
Low calorific valve D.
Low carbon content
E.
None of the above
Low ash content

269.
Which variety of coal has low calorific value?
A.
Steam coal B.
Bituminous coal
C.
Lignite
Anthracite
D.

270. Capacitor kVA required to bring the power factor of a 500 kW load 70% to
85% would be
A.
100 kVA
B.
150 kVA
C.
200 kVA
D.
250 kVA
E.
300 kVA
271.
If the power factor of an electrical system is unity, it means
A.
Entire power pulls the load
power
B.
Entire power is consumed in reactive
C.
Magnetism generated within the equipment is negligible
is running properly
E.
Efficiency is least
D.
Equipment
272.
An exciter is a
A.
D.C. motor
C.
A.C.generator
E.
None of the above
B.
D.C.generator
D.
Synchronous motor

273.
Corona is generally accompanied by a faint glow and
A.
Hissing noise
C.
Heating of conductors
E.
Sparking
B.
Spark
D.
Explosion

274.
Advantage of a diesel engine over petrol engine is
A.
Low fuel consumption at full load as well as part load
operation at all speeds
C.
Low compression ratio
E.
All of the above
D.
B.
Smooth
No detonation problems

275.
A diesel power plant is best suited as
A.
Base load plant
B.
Stand by plant
C.
Peak load plant
D.
General purpose plant
E.
None of the above

276.
In wet dry lubrication of diesel engines
A.
Oil is splashed
C.
Oil is pumped to various points D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Oil is splashed and pumped to various points

All of the above
277. A gas turbine cycle with regenerator has a thermal efficiency of 26%. If
intercooler and reheater are also introduced what could be expected thermal
efficiency
A.
60%
B.
50%
C.
40%
D.
30%
E.
10%

278.
A gas turbine power plant suits as
A.
Peak load plant
B.
Casual run plant
C.
Base load plant
D.
All of the above
E.
None of the above

279. All but one of the following possible steam generator test difficulties would
cause the apparent performance to be poorer than it actually is. One item would
make the performance look better than it really is. Identify the item
A.
high
Steam flow meter reads low
B.
Steam temperature gauge reads too
C.
HHV of fuel is determined incorrectly, being too high
are inaccurate, reading high
D.
Coad scales

280.
A hydrograph is a plot of discharge through a river versus
A.
Time B.
C.
Rate of flow of water
281.
In pumped storage systems, water is pumped
Velocity of water
D.
None of the above
A.
Upstream during peak load periods
periods
B.
C.
None of the above
Upstream during off season
D.

282.
Live storage of fuel means
Upstream during off peak
A.
Fuel stored to meet day's requirement for the boiler B.
supply at any time during emergency
C.
Fuel stored at the plant
E.
None of the above
D.
Fuel stored for
Fuel stored near the burners

283.
A sample of water having pH value of 7 is
A.
Acidic B.
C.
Neutral
Alkaline

284.
Turbidity in boiler feed water causes
A.
Sludge
B.
Embrittlement
C.
Corrosion
D.
Scale
E.
None of the above

285. Which is not the cause for loss of heat in boiler due to incomplete
combustion?
A.
Insufficient air supply
B.
C.
Fuel bend in proof condition
E.
Boiler drum uninsulated
Improper secting of boiler

D.
Under cooling of furnace at low ratings

286.
Coking is
A.
Formation of lumps or masses of coke in boiler furnaces at high temperatures

B.
Heating of coal in absence of air driving carbon and leaving behind the
residue of carbon
C.
Burning of coal in a furnace
powders with the help of a binder
E.
D.
Producing lumps of coal from fine
None of the above
287.
Coking is
A.
In boiler furnace some coal becomes plastic and forms lumps or masses of
coke B.
Making cakes of coal out of fine powders
C.
Coal produced from burning of wood in inert atmosphere D.
coals are known as coking coals
E.
Free burning
None of the above

288. In an analysis report of a sample of coal, the percentage of one of the
constituents is specified as 2.5%. This constituent could be
A.
Carbon steel B.
Ash
C.
Moisture
Sulphur
D.

289. A coal contains 3.5% sulphur by weight, as fired, and all the sulphur may be
assumed to go to formation of sulphur dioxide. How many tonnes of SO2 are
produced per day of the firing rate is 35 tonnes per hour
A.
48.8
B.
54.8
C.
58.8
D.
60.8
E.
100

290.
Consumption of diesel in a diesel engine per BHP per hour is in the range
A.
100-150 gm B.
150-180 gm
C.
185-210 gm D.
215-300 gm
E.
500-800 gm
291.
Compression ratio for diesel engines is generally in the range
A.
5 to 10
B.
10 to 14
C.
14 to 22
D.
22 to 25
E.
25 to 30
292.
The enthalpy of vaporisation is minimum at
A.
0?C
C.
Critical temperature
B.
100?C
D.
Absolute zero

293.
According to kinetic theory of heat
A.
Temperature should rise during boiling B.
freezing
Temperature should fall during
C.
At low temperatures all bodies are in solid state
there is absolutely no vibration of molecules
D.
At absolute zero

294.
For dry saturated steam the value of adiabatic index n is taken as
A.
1.68
B.
1.41
C.
1.35
D.
1.135

295.
Change in internal energy is least during
A.
Constant volume process B.
C.
Isothermal process D.
Constant pressure process
Adiabatic process

296. If engines of different horse power, rpm, cylinder dimensions are to be
compared for their performance, the parameter of comparison could be
A.
Unit speed
B.
Fuel consumption
C.
Specific speed
E.
Exhaust temperature
D.
Mean effective pressure

297.
The air standard efficiency of a Diesel engine depends on
A.
Compression ratio B.
C.
Torque
D.
Speed
Cetane value of fuel used
E.
Thermodynamic properties of working fluid

298. In a Diesel engine the duration between the time of injection and time of
ignition is called
A.
Period of ignition
B.
C.
Pre-ignition period D.
E.
Burning period
Explosion period
Delay period

299.
Dehydration means
A.
Removing hydrogen from a mixture
hydrocarbon
B.
Removing hydrogen from a
C.
Removing water from any matter
matter
D.
Removing hydrides from any
E.
Any of the above

300.
Dew point temperature is an indication of
A.
Moisture constant of air
C.
Lowest temperature where air and water vapour start separating D.

Condition of air
E.
Condition of moisture in air
301.
Dissociation is
B.
Dryness of air
A.
Same is combustion
exist
B.
C.
Slow combustion
Smokeless combustion
E.
Combustion without heat
D.
Process of heat liberation in which no flame

302.
A rope brake dynamometer falls under the category of
A.
Mechanical friction type dynamometer B.
Hydraulic dynamometer
C.
Transmission type dynamometer
E.
Electrical type dynamometer
D.
Torsion type dynamometer

303.
Prony brakes are used for testing
A.
Small engines
C.
Slow speed engines
E.
Engines with small flywheel
B.
Large capacity engines

D.
High speed engines

304.
As per IS specifications the endurance test for engines is conducted for
A.
100 hours
B.
200 hours
C.
300 hours
D.
500 hours
E.
1000 hours

305.
More test is conducted on
A.
Single cylinder engines
B.
Slow speed engines
C.
High speed engines
D.
E.
Engines with two flywheels

306. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same
compression rations and work output because
A.
B.
Brayton cycle is less efficient
C.
Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only D.
large air-fuel ratio
Brayton cycle requires
E.
Large volume at low pressure cannot be efficiently harded in reciprocating
engines
307.
In aircraft using gas turbine the cycle used is
A.
Simple
B.
Regeneration
C.
Reheating
D.
Reheating with regeneration
E.
Multi-stage expansion with reheating and regeneration

308.
For same heat input and same compression ratio
A.
Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient
efficient than Diesel cycle
B.
C.
Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle D.
mainly on working substance
Efficiency depends
E.
Otto cycle is less
None of the above

309.
Anthydrous substance is
A.
Free of hydrogen
B.
Free of water specially water of crystallization
C.
Free of humidity
D.
Dry substance
E.
Crystalline substance

310.
A.
10 ; 1 B.
15 ; 1
C.
20 ; 1 D.
60 ; 1
E.
400 ; 1
311.
A jet engine has
A.
Propeller in front
B.
Propeller on top
C.
Propeller in back
D.
Two propellers
E.
No propeller

312.
In jet engine the compression ratio
A.
Varies with speed
C.
Varies as square of speed D.
E.
None of the above
Remains constant

313.
Motoring test on I.C. engines is conducted to measure
A.
I.H.P. B.
C.
Pumping horse power
E.
None of the above
B.H.P.
D.

314.
A mechanical indicator is used to determine
A.
Indicated horse power
B.
Brake horse power
C.
D.
Pumping horse power
E.
IHP - BHP

315.
The instrument used for the measurement of area of p-v diagram is known as
A.
Areameter
C.
Graphometer
E.
Digitometer
B.
Clinometer
D.
Planimeter

316.
Pour point is the temperature at which oil
A.
Will ignite
C.
Will start flowing
E.
Starts cracking
B.
Will give off vapours enough for ignition

D.
Barely flows

317. In a four stroke cycle the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder
occurs
A.
At the beginning of suction stroke
B.
At the end of suction stroke
C.
At the end of compression stroke
stroke
E.
D.
At the beginning of exhaust
At the end of exhaust stroke

318.
Motor cycles generally have
A.
Air cooled engines B.
Evaporative cooling system
C.
Ice cooled engines D.
Natural cooling engines
E.
Natural cooling engines

319.
Leaking radiator tubes are generally
A.
Replaced
B.
Welded
C.
Brazed
D.
Soldered
E.
Left unattended

320.
In closed cooling system
A.
Hot water is recirculated after cooling B.
is supplied
Constant fresh water for cooling
C.
Air and water cooling is simultaneously used D.
Water does not flow
E.
Water surrounding the cylinder is allowed to evaporate
321.
The calorific value of methane can be determined by
A.
Bomb calorimeter B.
Bunsen's calorimeter
C.
Orsat's apparatus D.
Exhaust gas calorimeter
E.
None of the above

322.
In the Bomb calorimeter the fuel to be tested is burned
A.
At constant volumeB.
C.
At constant temperature D.
At constant pressure
In open atmosphere
E.
There is no consideration of pressure, volume or temperature.

323.
Motor cycle not using deflector type piston usually utilise
A.
Reverse flow scavanging B.
C.
Uniflow scavanging D.
E.
Natural scavanging
Loop scavanging
Ideal scavanging

324.
Engines are supercharged
A.
To increase air-fuel ratio
C.
To improve heat transfer D.
E.
To increase engine durability
B.
To reduce combustion temperature

To increase specific power output

325.
Ambassador car engine is
A.
Side valve type
C.
Overhead inlet and side exhaust type D.
E.
L-type
B.
Overhead valve type

F-type

326.
Higher proportion of residual gases in the cylinder would mean
A.
Higher volumetric efficiency
C.
No change in volumetric efficiency
E.
None of the above
B.
Lower volumetric efficiency

D.

327.
The volumetric efficiency of a well adjusted engine at full load may be
A.
75 to 95 percent
B.
50 to 65 percent
C.
40 to 55 percent
D.
30 to 45 percent
E.
10 to 30 percent

328.
Which of the following boiler uses exhaust of the engine to produce draught?
A.
Cornish boiler
C.
Locomotive boiler D.
E.
Lamont boiler
B.
Lancashire boiler
Babcock and wilcox boiler

329.
Which of the boiler provides superheated steam?
A.
Locomotive boiler B.
Lancashire boiler
C.
Cornish boiler
All of the above
E.
None of the above
D.

330.
Induced draft fan for a boiler is always located
A.
On the top of the chimney
B.
C.
Near the coal hopper
Near the cooling tower
E.
Near the water treatment
331.
An economiser is installed in a boiler plant primarily to
A.
Superheat the steam
C.
Increase rate of steam evaporation
E.
Purify boiler feed water
D.
B.
At the foot of the chimney
Increase steam pressure

D.
Reduce fuel consumption

332.
Injector is used to
A.
Inject secondary air in boiler furnace
cylinder
B.
Inject steam into steam engine
C.
Inject exhaust gases into chimney
D.
Inject water boiler
E.
Inject wet steam into superheater

333.
Gusset stays are provided in
A.
Steam condensers B.
Boilers
C.
Steam turbines
Steam engines
E.
Chimney
D.

334.
Which of the following is an accessory for a boiler?
A.
Feed check valve
B.
C.
Stop valve
Safety valve
E.
Blow off cock
D.
Feed pump

335.
Air preheater in a boiler will be invariably located between
A.
Boiler furnace and chimney
B.
Economiser and feed pump
C.
Forced draft fan and furnace
D.
Water treatment plant and furnace
E.
Condenser and feed water pump

336. High steam and low water safety valve is not used on which of the following
boiler?
A.
Locomotive boiler B.
Cornish boiler
C.
Cochran boiler
Lancashire boiler
E.
All of the above
D.

337.
In a Lancashire boiler, the economiser is located
A.
Before air preheater
C.
Between feed pump and boiler D.
E.
None of the above locations
B.
After air preheater

At any of the above locations

338. Forced circulation of water does not take place in which of the following
boiler?
A.
Benson boiler
B.
Lancashire boiler
C.
La Mont boiler
D.
Babcock and Wilcox boiler
E.
Velox boiler

339.
In case of glass tube type water level indicator for a boiler
A.
Both ends of the tube are connected to water space B.
One end of the
tube is connected to water space and the other is open to atmosphere
C.
One end of the tube is connected to water space and the other is connected
to steam space in the drum
D.
One end of the tube is connected to water
space and the other end is connected to superheated steam outlet from
superheater
E.
One end of the tube is connected to water space and the other end
connected to chimney
340.
The turbidity in boiler feed water causes
A.
Sludge
B.
Scale
C.
Corrosion
D.
Embrittlement
E.
None of the above
341.
Dehydration is the process of removal of
A.
hydrogen from water
C.
hydrogen from hydrocarbon
E.
addition of water vapour to a substance
B.
hydrogen from alcohols

D.
moisture from anything that is wet

342. If a heat engine given an output of 3.5 kW and input is 10000 Joules per
second, the thermal efficiency of the engine will be
A.
30%
B.
35%
C.
55%
D.
65%
E.
66?%
343.
Water gas is a mixture of
A.
CO and H2
C.
CO2 and N2 D.
E.
SO2, CO2 and N2
B.
N2 and H2
CO, CO2 and SO2

344.
The steam in a boiler drum is always
A.
Wet
C.
Dry and saturated D.
E.
Superheated
B.
Dry
Wet or dry and saturated

345. A fuel of octane rating 85 matches the antiknock qualities of mixture
consisting of
A.
85% petrol + 15% diesel B.
15% petrol + 85% diesel
C.
85% benzene + 15% methyl alcohol
E.
85% octane + 15% heptane
D.
85% heptane + 15% octane

346. The missing quantity in a steam engine can be reduced by all of the following
methods EXCEPT:
A.
Steam jacketing of cylinder walls
engine
B.
Reducing the speed of the
C.
Superheating the steam supplied to the engine
expansion of steam in two or more cylinders
D.

347.
Within the boiler the temperature of steam is highest in
A.
Water drum B.
water tubes
C.
Water walls D.
Superheater inlet
E.
Superheater outlet
Dompounding the
348.
The intercept of Willian's line on Y-axis at the origin, gives
A.
Missing quantity
C.
No load steam consumption
E.
All of the above
B.
Frictional horse power

D.
Idling speed

349.
During throttle governing of steam engines
A.
Cut off of the engine cylinder changes according to the load

Pressure of steam supplied does not change with the load
C.
Thermal efficiency of the engine reduces
the engine increases
E.
D.
B.
Mechanical efficiency of
None of the above

350.
Clapeyron equation is applicable
A.
To systems in equilibrium B.
C.
To change of melting point
are in equilibrium
E.
All of the above
351.
A barn is a
A.
Unit of area B.
Unit of time
C.
Unit of length
D.
E.
Unit of momentum
To change of boiling point

D.
For change of state when two phases
Unit of mass

352.
The steam pressure in a pass out turbine may be expected to be in the range
A.
150 kg/cm2 to 300 kg/cm2
B.
C.
75 kg/cm2 to 100 kg/cm2 D.
E.
353.
In a reaction turbine which steam flows through the moving blades
A.
Pressure increases B.
Velocity increases
C.
Pressure increases while velocity reduces
velocity increases
E.
D.
Pressure reduces while
Both velocity as well as pressure decreases

354.
In Parsons reaction turbine
A.
The degree of reaction is B.
C.
The fixed blades are smaller in size as compared to moving blades

The fixed blades are larger in size compared to fixed blades
E.
The velocity biagram is unsymmetrical about a vertical centre line
The fixed and moving blades are identical

D.

355.
The use of Wilson's line for flow calculation is associated with
A.
Impulse turbines
B.
Reaction turbines
C.
Diesel engines
D.
Gas turbines
E.
Steam-nozzles

356. The ideal output velocity of steam from a nozzle having an enthalpy drop of
100 kcal/kg will be
A.
600 m/s
B.
789 m/s
C.
915 m/s
D.
1000 m/s
E.
1098 m/s

357. In a velocity compounded impulse turbine, while steam flows through the
second row of moving blades
A.
The pressure remains constant B.
C.
The velocity reduces
D.
The velocity remains constant
The velocity increases
E.
Both velocity as well as pressure increase

358.
When a receiver is provided in a compound engine, it can be concluded that
A.
The engine is non-condensing type
C.
The cranks are at 90? to each other
other
E.
B.
The engine is condensing type
D.
The cranks are at 180? to each
None of the above

359. In a throttle governed single cylinder steam engine 5 I.H.P. is developed when
steam consumption is 50 kg per hour and 2 I.H.P. is developed when the steam
consumption is 26 kg per hour. The steam consumptions when the engine develops
4 I.H.P. will be
A.
46
B.
42 kg
C.
40 kg D.
38 kg
E.
37 kg

360. Which of the following is a part of reciprocating steam engine and not a part
of steam turbine plant?
A.
Condenser
B.
Governor
C.
Pressure gauge
E.
All of the above
361.
In a impulse turbine while steam flows through the moving blades
A.
Velocity reduces
B.
Velocity increases
C.
Pressure reduces
D.
Velocity reduces while pressure increases
E.
Both velocity as well as pressure increase
D.
Cross head

362.
The processes in a Rankine cycle are
A.
Two isothermal and two isentropic
polytropic
B.
Two isothermal and two
C.
Two isothermal and two isobaric D.
volume and two polytropic
E.
One constant pressure, one constant
None of the above

363.
In a throttle governed steam engine
A.
Admission pressure is reduced while cut off remains unaltered

Admission pressure is varied while cut off remains unaltered
B.
C.
Admission pressure remains constant while cut off is altered

Admission pressure and cut off both are altered
D.
E.
Neither admission pressure nor cut off is altered

364.
In a cut off covered steam engine
A.
Admission pressure is increased while cut off remains unaltered B.

Admission pressure is reduced while cut off remains unaltered
C.
Admission pressore remains constant while cut off is varied

Admission pressure and cut off both are varied
E.
Neither admission pressure nor cut off is varied
D.

365.
In a reaction turbine while steam flows through the fixed blades
A.
Velocity increases B.
Pressure increases
C.
Velocity decreases D.
Velocity increases while pressure drops

366. In case of pressure compounded impulse turbine, for the steam while flowing
through the nozzle of second stage
A.
Pressure increases B.
Pressure and velocity both increase
C.
Pressure and velocity both decrease
velocity decreases
E.
D.
Pressure drops while velocity increases
Pressure increases while
367.
Reheating of steam for steam turbine cycle is done primarily to
A.
Reduce dryness fraction of exhaust steam
steam in the condenser
C.
Increase boiler chimney draught D.
E.
All of the above
B.
Increase the pressure of
Improve thermal efficiency of the plant

368.
The term regeneration is closely associated with
A.
Steam engines
B.
Steam turbines
C.
Diesel engines
D.
Gas engines
E.
Wankel engines

369.
During regenerative feed heating
A.
Part of the steam is generated in turbine
with dry and staturated steam
B.
Condenser is supplied
C.
Part of the steam is bled from turbine for feed water heating
D.
High
pressure steam is used to heat low pressure steam coming out of the turbine after
expansion
E.
None of the above

370. In regenerative feed heating system the steam 'bled' from turbine exchanges
heat with
A.
High pressure steam coming from boiler
B.
Air for preheating
C.
Fuel for preheating D.
E.
All of the above
371.
Excessive moisture in steam in a steam turbine is likely to result in
A.
Excess work done by rotor due to momentum of water particles B.

Reduced size of steam turbine
C.
Reduced load on condenser
E.
Overheating of turbine blaces
Feed water for boiler
D.
Erosion of turbine blades

372. The dryness fraction of steam within a turbine is usually not allowed to fali
below
A.
Unity B.
0.99
C.
0.9
0.8
E.
0.45
D.

373.
In case of a condensing turbine the pressure in the last stage of the turbine is
A.
10 to 12 kg/cm2 above the atmospheric pressure
above the atmospheric pressure
B.
C.
Slightly above the atmospheric pressure
pressure
Same as atmospheric
E.
D.
5 to 6 kg/cm2
Less than the atmospheric pressure

374.
Willian's line is relevant to
A.
Throttle controlled trbine B.
C.
Impulse turbines
E.
None of the above
D.
Nozzle controlled turbines
Reaction turbines

375. As the steam flows in a subsonic nozzle, in which the cross-section is
decreasing in the direction of flow
A.
The velocity will decrease in the direction of flow
increase in the direction of flow
C.
B.
The pressure will
The velocity will decrease while pressure will decrease in the direction of flow
D.
The velocity will increase while pressure will decrease in the direction
of flow
E.
None of the above
376. In case of supersonic flow through the nozzle, when the cross-section
increases in the direction of flow
A.
The velocity will decrease in the direction of flow
increase in the direction of flow
B.
The pressure will
C.
The velocity will increase while the pressure will decrease in the direction of
flow D.
The velocity will decrease while the pressure will increase in the
direction of flow
E.
None of the above

377.
Rateau turbine is a
A.
Velocity compounded impulse turbine B.
turibine
Velocity compounded reaction
C.
Pressure compounded reaction turbine D.
turbine
Pressure compounded impulse
E.
Pressure-velocity compounded turbine

378.
A De-Laval turbine is
A.
Single rotor reaction turbine
C.
Multiple stage reaction turbine D.
E.
Velocity compounded impulse turbine
B.
Multiple rotor reaction turbine

Single rotor impulse turbine

379.
A Lungistrom turbine is a
A.
Radial flow reaction turbine
B.
Axial flow reaction turbine
C.
Radial flow impulse turbine
D.
Mixed flow impulse turbine
E.
None of the above

380.
Regenerative feed heating of steam turbines is done primarily to
A.
Reduce pressure of steam in exhaust
the condenser
B.
Improve thermal efficiency of
C.
Improve overall efficiency of the plant D.
gases
Reduce boiler losses in the
E.
Increase the expansion range for steam in the turbine
381.
A Curtis turbine is
A.
A velocity compounded readtion turbine
reaction turbine
C.
A pure reaction turbine
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
A pressure compounded
An impulse reaction turbine

382. A low pressure accumulator is generally used with which of the following
turbine
A.
Impulse turbine
B.
C.
Condensing turbineD.
E.
Mixed pressure turbine
Reaction turbine
Back pressure turbine

383. A steam turbine in which a part of the steam turbine after partial expansion is
used for process heating and the remaining steam is further expanded for power
generation, is known as
A.
50% reaction turbine
B.
Impulse turbine
C.
Back pressure turbine
D.
Pass out turbine
E.
Regenerative turbine

384. The temperatures and pressures for boiler are given below. Which of these
boilers can be classified as super-critical pressure boiler?
A.
250 psi, 150?C
B.
C.
100 kg/cm2, 450?C D.
E.
218 kg/cm2, 540?C
10 kg/cm2, 150?C
150 kg/cm2, 500?C
385.
Which of the following will not be seen in a boiler using pulverised fuel?
A.
Feed pump B.
C.
Chain in great stoker
E.
Superheater
Chimney
D.
Economiser

386. If the boiler chimney emission consists of dense white smoke, then it can be
concluded that
A.
Excess air has been supplied for combustion B.
supplied for combustion
Insufficient air has been
C.
Chemically correct air has been supplied for combustion
contains high percentage of ash
E.
D.
Coal
Coal contains high percentage of sulphur

387.
The steam trap is used to
A.
Condense the steam
C.
Separate condensate from steam
E.
Convert superheated steam into the steam
B.
Add moisture to steam

D.
Superheat the steam

388.
The thermal efficiency of steam turbine can be increased by
A.
Increasing the pressure range
C.
Regeneration
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
Reheating
All of the above

389.
The value of reheat factor in case of steam turbines is usually
A.
0.9 to 0.99
B.
1.02 to 1.06
C.
1.10 to 1.16 D.
1.25 to 1.50
E.
1.75 to 2.50

390.
Which of the following is the internal loss of a turbine?
A.
Nozzle loss B.
C.
Wheel friction loss D.
E.
None of above
Blade friction loss

All of above
391. A fixed quantity of heat is to be added to a system under specific conditions.

The process in which the entropy change will be maximum is
A.
Constant pressure process
B.
Constant volume process
C.
Constant temperature process
D.
Isentropic process
E.
None of the above

392.
Which of the following is not a property of carbondioxide?
A.
Non-toxic
B.
Non-inflammable
C.
Colourless
D.
Pungent odour

393.
In a Carnot cycle the algebraic sum of the entropy changes for the cycle is
A.
Zero B.
Positive
C.
Negative
D.
E.
Depends on the properties of working substance
Either positive or negative

394.
A D-slide valve is used in
A.
Petrol engines
C.
Two stroke engines D.
E.
Steam engines
B.
Diesel engines
Double acting engines

395.
Steam leaves the steam nozzle at
A.
Low pressure and low velocity
B.
Low pressure and high velocity
C.
High pressure and low velocity D.
E.
None of the above
High pressure and high velocity

396.
De-Laval turbine is mostly used
A.
For small powers at high speeds B.
For small powers at low speeds
C.
For high powers at low speeds
For high powers at high speeds
E.
None of the above
D.

397.
The main purpose of compounding in case of steam turbines is to
A.
Reduced speed of rotor
C.
Improve thermal efficiency
E.
None of the above
B.
Reduced exist losses

D.
All of the above

398.
Stuffing box is provided in
A.
Condensing steam engines
B.
Non-condensing steam engines
C.
High speed steam engines
D.
Single acting steam engines
E.
Double acting steam engines

399.
Piston rod is provided in
A.
Condensing steam engines
B.
Non-condensing steam engines
C.
High speed steam engines
D.
Slow speed steam engines
E.
Double acting steam engines

400.
A cross-head has
A.
Reciprocating motion
B.
C.
Oscillating motion D.
(A) and (B) only
Rotory motion
E.
(A) and (C) only
401.
The ends of piston rod in steam engines are connected to
A.
Connecting rod and crankshaft B.
Connecting rod and cross-head
C.
Crankshaft and cross-head
Piston and cross-head
E.
Piston and crankshaft
D.

402.
The governor for steam turbine is driven by
A.
Main shaft
B.
Separate motor
C.
Belt drive
D.
Feed pump motor
E.
None of the above

403.
A steam nozzle is said to be choked when
A.
Throat gets clogged
B.
Steam flow through nozzle ceases
C.
Pressure at throat is less than the exit pressure
is equal to steam supply pressure
E.
Flow is at maximum value of critical exit pressure

404.
Shock effect in the nozzle generally occurs in
A.
Converging section B.
Throat
C.
Diverging section
Exit
E.
Inlet
D.

405.
How many kg of air will contain one kg of oxygen?
A.
1 kg
C.
6.65 kg
E.
12.5 kg
B.
4.35 kg
D.
10 kg
D.
Pressure at throat
406.
Which of the following engine uses two fuel simultaneously?
A.
Multi-fuel engine
B.
Duel fuel engine
C.
Wankle engine
D.
Free piston gas generator
E.
All of the above

407.
A Wankel engine combines the advantages of
A.
SI and CI engines
B.
Rotory and reciprocating engines
C.
Air cooled and reciprocating engines
compression
E.
D.
Axial flow and centrifugal
Carburction and fuel injection

408.
In a four stroke petrol engine
A.
Intake valve closes before TDC B.
Intake valve closes after BDC
C.
Exhaust valve closes before BDC
D.
E.
None of the above
Exhaust valve open before BDC

409. In an analysis report of a sample of coal the percentage of one of the
constituents is specified as 3.5%. This constituent could be
A.
Carbon
B.
Ash
C.
Moisture
D.
Sulphur
E.
Any of the above

410.
Which of the following is not a part of diesel engine?
A.
Air filter
B.
Oil pump
C.
Condenser
D.
Lubricating oil filter
E.
Gudgeon pin
411.
One horse power-hr is equal to
A.
1 kWh B.
632 kcal
C.
100,000 kJ
D.
E.
None of the above
107 Joules

412.
Which of the following can have octane rating of more than 100?
A.
Gobar gas
B.
Normal petrol
C.
Benzol
D.
Methyl alcohol
E.
Ethyl alcohol

413. If the performance of diesel engines of different sizes, cylinder dimensions
and horse power ratings are to be compared, which of the following parameter can
be used for such comparison?
A.
Air-fuel ratio B.
Brake specific fuel consumption
C.
E.
None of the above
D.
Swept volume

414. One kg of octane is burnt by four alternative processes given below. In which
case the work available will be maximum?
A.
When burnt in an open pan in atmosphere
combustion engine
C.
When burnt in a fuel cell D.
B.
When burnt in an internal
When burnt in a reversible process

415.
Which of the following is not the same as watt?
A.
Joule/sec
C.
Ampere x volt
B.
Amperes/volt
D.
(Ampere)2 x ohm

416.
In diesel engines, the accumulation of carbon in the cylinder increases
A.
B.
Clearance volume
C.
Mechanical efficiency
D.
E.
Effective compression ratio
Ignition delay period

417.
Which of the following is not needed in case of magneto ignition?
A.
Distributor
B.
Coil
C.
Spark plug
D.
Battery
E.
Capacitor

418.
In case of an opposed piston engine the combustion chamber
A.
Is not provided
C.
Is provided towards crank case side
E.
None of the above
B.
Is formed between two piston tops

D.
Is fitted outside the cylinder

419.
Iso-octane has octane number of
A.
B.
50
C.
80 to 85
D.
E.
More than 100
100

420.
Pure cetane
A.
Has cetane number of 0
B.
Has cetane number of 100
C.
Is a blue coloured liquid
D.
Is a straight chain paraffin
E.
Promotes detonation
421.
The term scavanging is generally associated with
A.
Vertical engines
C.
E.
High speed engines
B.
Air cooled engines

422.
During detonation in a petrol engine
A.
high
The rate of speed variation is high
B.
The rate of exhaust discharge is
C.
The rate of temperature rise is high
D.
The rate of pressure rise is high
E.
None of the above

423.
In a petrol engine as the speed increases
A.
The spark intensity has to be increased
be reduced
C.
The spark has to be advanced
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
The spark intensity has to
The spark has to be retarded

424. The chemical usually added for increasing the knock resistance of a petrol
engine is
A.
Methyl alcohol
B.
C.
Benzol
Tetra-ethy lead
E.
Pyro gallic acid
D.
n-heptane

425.
A camshaft is not provided in case of
A.
Vertical engines
C.
E.
ir cooled engines
B.
High speed engines

Multicylinder engines

426.
In Ambassador car, the engine is
A.
Horizontal
C.
Air cooled and reciprocating engines
B.
Constant speed type

D.
Multi-cylinder type
E.
V-type

427. In a diesel engine the inlet pressure is more than the atmospheric pressure.
Therefore; it can be concluded that
A.
The engine is air cooled
B.
C.
The engine is slow speed type
E.
The engine is supercharged
The engine is water cooled

D.
The engine is high speed type

428.
The supercharging of diesel engine is done mainly to
A.
Increase the speed B.
Increase the power output
C.
Cool the engine
Increase the life of the engine
E.
Reduce the cnoise from the engine
D.

429.
In Eicher tractor the engine is
A.
Horizontal
C.
Multi-cylinder type D.
E.
Constant speed engine
B.
Air cooled
Low compression ratio petrol engine

430.
The engine provided on scooters is generally
A.
Four stroke, air cooled
B.
Four stroke, water cooled
C.
Four cylinder, air cooled
D.
Two stroke, air cooled
E.
Two stroke, double acting
431. Which of the following acts as a step up transformer in the ignition circuit of a
petrol engine?
A.
Magneto
B.
C.
Plug
Distributor
E.
Battery
D.
Coil

432.
The battery used in vespa scooter is
A.
Lead acid type
B.
Nickel cadmium type
C.
Nickel-iron type
D.
Dry-cell type
E.
No battery is used in the scooters

433.
Which part of a gas turbine is subjected to the highest temperature?
A.
Regenerator B.
Blades
C.
Compressed air
D.
E.
Compressor coupling
Intercooler

434. Which of the following is an important consideration in the design of turbine
blades?
A.
Creep B.
Shape
C.
Exhaust temperature
E.
None of the above
D.
Air-fuel ratio

435.
The temperature of the blades of a gas turbine may be closer to
A.
100?C B.
212?C
C.
350?C D.
600?C
E.
1200?C

436.
White smoke from a diesel engine can be expected during
A.
Start up or idling
C.
High load operation
E.
None of the above
B.
High speed operation

D.
All of the above
437.
Which of the following automobile is relatively free from pollution problems:
A.
Diesel engine powered
B.
Petrol engine powered
C.
Gas turbine powered
D.
Wankel engine powered
E.
Batterly powered

438.
Which of the following constituent of air has the least proportion?
A.
Helium
B.
C.
Neon D.
Carbon monoxide
E.
Argon
Xenon

439.
Which of the following particles will be smallest in size?
A.
Smog B.
Rain
C.
Drizzle
D.
E.
Fog
Mist

440. The emission of oxides of nitrogen in automobile exhaust will be least when
the vehicle is
A.
Idling B.
Cruising at low speeds
C.
Cruising at high speeds
E.
Decelerating
441.
Dark, black smoke from diesel engines usually results when the engine is
A.
Idling B.
Accelerating
Running at slow speeds
C.
Running at light loads
conditions
E.
D.
D.
Running at full speed but under no load
Running at full load and full speed

442.
Blue smoke from a diesel engine indicates the presence of
A.
Nitrous oxide
B.
C.
Carbon monoxide D.
E.
Unburnt carbon
Carbon dioxide
Unburnt oil

443.
Which of the following needs constant cleaning in a diesel engine?
A.
Air only
C.
Lubricating oil only D.
E.
Air, fuel and lubricating oil
B.
Fuel only
Air and fuel only

444.
Which of the following pollutants result from automobile exhaust?
A.
Carbon monoxide B.
Nitrous oxide
C.
Hydro carbons
Sulphur dioxide
E.
All of the above
D.

445. The discharge of hydrocarbons from an automobile exhaust is minimum when
the vehicle is
A.
Idling B.
C.
E.
Decelerating
D.
Accelerating

446. The emission of carbon monoxide in automobile exhaust will be low when the
vehicle is
A.
Idling B.
C.
E.
Decelerating
D.
Accelerating

447.
The phenomenon of hunting is associated with
A.
Tappet valves
B.
C.
Governors
Cloth mechanism
E.
Carburetors
D.
Gears

448.
Speed drop is the
A.
Drop in engine speed
B.
Increasing in engine speed
C.
Reduction in engine speed from no loads to full loadD.
speed while fuel supply remains the same
E.
Change in engine
None of the above

449.
Which of the following type of internal combustion engines uses rocker arms?
A.
Radial engines
C.
Overhead valve engines D.
E.
All of the above
B.
Side valve engines

Stationary engines

450.
The maximum horse power of a 150 CC scooter engine is around
A.
1.5
B.
C.
D.
15
E.
33
451.
The maximum horse power of Fiat engine is around
A.
11
B.
15
C.
25 to 30
D.
E.
60 to 80
40 to 50

452.
The horse power of engine for a ship is of the order to
A.
50 to 100
C.
500 to 1000 D.
B.
100 to 500
1000 to 5000
E.
10,000 to 40,000

453.
The power for the propulsion of ship is provided by
A.
Diesel engines
C.
Either (A) and (B) above D.
E.
Any of the above
B.
Steam turbines
Batteries

454.
Which of the following chemical acts as anti-freeze?
A.
n-heptane
B.
Ethyl alcohol
C.
Naphtha
D.
Lead acetate
E.
Glycol

455.
Naphtha is used as
A.
Fuel for furnaces
C.
Fuel for marine engines
E.
Lubricant for slow speed engines
B.
Fuel for aero engines

D.
Lubricant for turbines

456.
Normally the colour of exhaust from a petrol engine is
A.
Bluish B.
Yellowish
C.
Reddish
D.
E.
Black
Violet

457.
The ash content in diesel oil should not exceed
A.
0.01%B.
0.10%
C.
0.50%D.
1%
E.
5%

458. In cse the exhaust silencer of a petrol engine is partly choked, it is likely to
result in
A.
Increased compression ratio
B.
Increased fuel consumption
C.
Reduced fuel consumption
D.
Reduced compression ratio
E.
None of the above

459.
Solid injection in diesel engines implies
A.
Use of solid fuels
C.
Injecting fuel without air D.
E.
Injecting fuel with lubricating oil
B.
Supply of fuel in the form of solid

Injecting fuel and air simultaneously

460.
The most effective air cleaner for diesel engines is
A.
Dry type
B.
Wet type
C.
Whirl type
D.
Oil bath type
E.
Rope type
461. In order to reduce wear and eliminate scuffing, piston ring in internal
combustion engines are
A.
Made of square section
B.
Provided with grooves
C.
Plated with chromium, cadmium or phosphate
thoroughly
E.
Made of soft material

462.
Ricardo's theory is associated with
A.
Steam turbines
C.
Closed cycle gas turbines D.
E.
Internal combustion engines
B.
Wankel engines
Engine vibrations
D.
Lubricated

463.
Freezing point of petrol is around
A.
10?C B.
0?C
C.
?4?C D.
?30?C
E.
?13?C

464.
The sulphur content in diesel oil should not exceed
A.
1%
B.
5%
C.
10%
D.
12%
E.
15%

465.
Which of the following engine can work on very lean mixture?
A.
Petrol engine
C.
Two stroke engine D.
E.
Four stroke engine
B.
Diesel engine
Wankel engine

466.
If petrol is supplied to a diesel engine
A.
The engine will explode
B.
The engine will not run
C.
The engine will run with high knocking D.
speeds
E.
The engine will run at high
The engine will run with excessive vibrations

467.
Which of the following exists as highest pressure in a diesel engine
A.
Air during suction B.
C.
Exhaust gases in silencer D.
E.
Fuel at the time of injection
Air at the end of compression stroke

Lubricating oil
468.
Which of the following has the lowest pressure in a petrol engine?
A.
Mixture at the beginning of suction stroke
suction stroke
B.
Mixture at the end of
C.
Mixture at the end of compression stroke
stroke
D.
Gases during power
E.
Gases during exhaust stroke

469. Which of the following is not used as ignition accelerator for diesel engine
fuel?
A.
Ethyl nitrate B.
Methyl alcohol
C.
Acetone peroxise
D.
E.
All of the above
Isoamyl nitrate

470.
Normally the colour of exhaust from a diesel engine is
A.
Bluish B.
Black
C.
Reddish
D.
E.
Violet
Yellowish
471. Which of the following part is not common between a steam engine and a
petrol engine?
A.
Piston B.
Piston rings
C.
Crankshaft
D.
E.
Muffler
Connecting road

472.
A four wheel drive automobile has
A.
Four cylinders
B.
Air cooled engine
C.
Two differentials
D.
Four stroke engine
E.
Four flywheels
473.
Ignition accelerators are often used for
A.
Diesel engine fuels B.
Petrol engine fuels
C.
Gas turbine fuels
Gas generators
E.
All of the above
D.

474.
Ignition accelerators are used primarily to
A.
Reduce exhaust temperature
dioxide
B.
Convert carbon monoxide into carbon
C.
Reduce combustion knock
D.
Cool the engine cylinder
E.
All of the above

475.
The gas used for cooling the conductors of large generators is
A.
Air
C.
Nitrogen
E.
Carbon dioxide
B.
Oxygen
D.
Hydrogen

476.
The higher the temperature required to ignite diesel fuel,
A.
the higher the octane number
B.
Lower the octane number
C.
Higher the cetane number
D.
Lower the cetane number

477.
Which of the following engine indicator has least inertia effects?
A.
Mechanical indicator
B.
Farnborough indicator
C.
CRO engine indicator
D.
All of the above

478.
Which of the following offers best resistance to knocking in S.I. engines?
A.
Aromatics
B.
Paraffins
C.
Olefins
D.
Naphthenes

479.
In a petrol engine fuel lock generally occurs in
A.
Pump B.
suction manifold
C.
inlet valve
D.
gauge lines

480. The amount of exhaust gases in clearance space left after exhaust stroke,
varies with
A.
air-fuel ratio of charger
C.
Bore and length of cylinder
481.
The maximum amount of dissociation occurs in the burnt gases of a
A.
weak fuel mixture B.
chernically correct mixture
C.
rich fuel mixture
lean mixture
D.
B.
Speed and load of the engine

D.
Clearance volume

482.
The frictional horse power of a well adjusted petrol engine should be nearly
A.
10%
B.
25%
C.
40%
D.
50%

483.
A negative loop in the P-V diagram of a petrol engine is due to
A.
pre-ignition B.
detonation
C.
Suction of air
D.
early opening of exnaust valve

484.
In all a four stroke four cylinder engine will have how many valves?
A.
B.
C.
16
D.
none

485.
In a petrol engine the mixture strength for maximum power is
A.
1;5
B.
1 ; 13
C.
1 ; 23 D.
1 ; 30

486.
Which locomotives has the highest unbalanced forces?
A.
Electric locomotives
C.
Steam locomotives
B.
Diesel locomotives

487.
Maintenance requirements are least in case of
A.
Electric locomotives
C.
Steam locomotives
B.
Diesel locomotives

488.
Suri-transmission is
A.
hydro-mechanical B.
hydro-pneumatic
C.
mechanical-electrical
D.
electro-pneumatic

489.
The overload capacity of diesel engine is usually around
A.
1%
B.
10%
C.
25%
D.
50%

490.
The effieincy of a diesel cycle increases with
A.
increase in cut off B.
C.
decrease in compression ratio
491.
Which of the following functions reduces the irreversibility of a cycle?
A.
use of lower pressure
B.
regeneration
C.
high speed operation
D.
low exhaust pressures
decrease in cut off

D.
None of the above

492.
Which turbine has identical fixed and moving blades
A.
Parson's reaction turbine B.
C.
Rateau's turbine
D.
Hero's turbine
De Laval turbine

493.
Which of the following is not a petroleum product?
A.
Methylated spirit
B.
C.
Kerosene
Lubricating oil
D.
Petrol

494. Which of the following fuel can be obtained by fermentation of vegetable
matter?
A.
Benzene
B.
Diesel
C.
Gasoline
D.
Alcohol

495. The molecular weight of a mixture containing 20% oxygen, 20 percent
nitrogen and 60 percent carbon dioxise on volume bases will be nearly
A.
41.4
B.
38.4
C.
33.3
D.
29.9

496. For reciprocating air compressor the law of compression desired is isothermal
and that may be possible by
A.
Very high speeds
B.
very low speeds
C.
any speed as speed does not affect the compression law
above
D.
None of the

497. In reciprocating air compressor, the method of controlling the quantity of air
delivered is done by
A.
Clearance Control B.
Throttle Control
C.
Blow-off Control
All of the above
10.THEORY OF MACHINES
D.
1.
Kinematics of machines deals with
A.
Apparatus for applying mechanical power
parts
B.
Number of inter-related
C.
The forces acting on the parts of the machine
D.
between the parts, neglecting the consideration of the force
E.
The relative motion
None of the above

2.
The difference between a machine and a structure is
A.
The machine serves to modify and transmit forces only whereas structures
serve to modify and transmit mechanical work
B.
The machine serves to
modify and transmit mechanical work whereas structures serve to modify and
transmit forces only
C.
The relative motion exists between the parts of a structures whereas it does
not exist in machines
D.
Structures are temporary constructions whereas
machines are paramanent
E.
None of the above

3.
The mechanism used in a petrol engine is
A.
Crank mechanism B.
Slider mechanism
C.
Slider crank mechanism
D.
E.
None of the above
Natural line and circular mechanism

4.
The rectilinear motion of a piston is converted into rotary motion by
A.
Piston rod
B.
Crank
C.
Piston pin
D.
Connecting rod
E.
Cross-head

5.
The mass moment of inertia is
A.
The resistance to angular acceleration B.
body multiplied by its distance from the axis
C.
Any of the above
D.
The mass of every element of a
None of the above

6.
The linear velocity of a point on a link relative to any other point on the link
will be
A.
Along the line joining the two points
the two points
B.
C.
Same as that of the end points of link D.
of the link
E.
Perpendicular to the line joining

Perpendicular to the lower end
None of the above

7.
In case of instantaneous centre of rotation
A.
Only three rigid links have no linear velocities relative to each other
Two rigid links rotate instantaneously relative to each other
B.
C.
One rigid link has no linear velocity
D.
The two rigid links have no
linear velocities relative to each other at the instantaneous centre
E.
None of the above

8.
Dynamic of machines deals with
A.
The relative motion between the parts, neglecting the consideration of forces
B.
The forces acting on the parts of the machine
C.
The apparatus for applying mechanical power
inter-related parts, each having a definite motion
E.
None of the above

9.
Which of the following is a lower pair?
A.
Piston and cylinder B.
C.
Belt drive
D.
Gear
Cam and follower
D.
The number of
E.
None of the above

10.
In a kinematic chain the minimum number of kinematic pairs required is
A.
One
C.
Three D.
E.
Five
B.
Two
Four
11.PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
12.AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
13.MECHANICAL MEASURMENTS
14.MATERIALS HANDLING
15.APPLIED MECHANICS
16.REFRIGATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
17.MACHINE DESIGNE
18.INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING
19.HEAT TRANSFER
20.ENVIORNMENTAL ENGINEERING
21.BUSINESS MANAGEMENT

Fluid Mechanics and Hyderalic

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1.FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDERALIC www.geekmcq.

One which flows through pipes with least friction

An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the following:

Newton's law of motion C.

The velocity of a fluid particle at the centre of the pipe section is

The shear stress velocity gradient relation of the Newtonian fluids is

The units of kinematic viscosity are

The units of dynamic viscosity are

The units of surface tension are

Same as units of force

Density in terms of viscosity is

Kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity

Newton's law of viscosity relates

Shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid

None of the above

Identify the incorrect statement. Apparent shear forces

9.81 times poise C.

Any of the above E.

1/9.81 times poise D.

The upper critical Reynolds number is

Of no practical importance in pipe flow problems

The Reynolds number for pipe flow is given by

Alcohol is used in manometers because

None of the above

(A) and (B) above D.

Cheap and easily availale

Its vapour pressure is low

The Reyonlds number may be defined as the ratio of

Viscous forces to inertial forces B.

Elastic forces to pressure forces

Viscous forces to gravity forces D.

Gravity forces to inertial forces

None of the above

Select the quantity in the following that is not a dimensionless parameter:

Darcy weisbach friction factor

The Weber number is the ratio of

Inertial forces to surface tension force B.

Elastic forces to pressure forces D.

Elastic forces to gravity

Froude number is useful in calculations for

Flow through pipes

Surface tension force

Compressible flow problems

The normal stress is the same in all directions at a point in fluid

Regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer B.

Intertial forces to viscous forces

Viscous forces to gravity

Only when fluid is frictionless

Only when the fluid has zero viscosity and is at rest

When a venturimeter is used in an inclined position, it will show

Depends on vescosity of fluid

None of the above

The critical depth on a channel is given by

The increase of temperature

Increases the viscosity of a fluid B.

Decreases the viscoisty of a fluid

Decreases the viscosity of a gas D.

Increases the viscosity of a gas

None of the above

The bulk modulus of elasticity

Increases with the pressure

Is larger when the fluid is

None of the above